Page Range | 92499-93569 | |
FR Document |
Page and Subject | |
---|---|
81 FR 92813 - Sunshine Act Notice | |
81 FR 92880 - Sunshine Act Meeting Notice | |
81 FR 92499 - To Implement the Nepal Preference Program and for Other Purposes | |
81 FR 92626 - Narrowing the Digital Divide Through Installation of Broadband Infrastructure in HUD-Funded New Construction and Substantial Rehabilitation of Multifamily Rental Housing | |
81 FR 92594 - Receiverships for Uninsured National Banks | |
81 FR 92966 - Update to U.S. Department of Transportation's NEPA Implementing Procedures | |
81 FR 92760 - Endangered and Threatened Wildlife and Plants: Notice of 12-Month Finding on a Petition To List the Gulf of Mexico Bryde's Whale as Endangered Under the Endangered Species Act (ESA); Correction | |
81 FR 92774 - Confidentiality Pledge Revision Notice | |
81 FR 92957 - Requested Administrative Waiver of the Coastwise Trade Laws: Vessel KALULU; Invitation for Public Comments | |
81 FR 92957 - Requested Administrative Waiver of the Coastwise Trade Laws: Vessel ANDANTE MAR; Invitation for Public Comments | |
81 FR 92958 - Request for Comments of a Previously Approved Information Collection | |
81 FR 92758 - Receipt of Several Pesticide Petitions Filed for Residues of Pesticide Chemicals in or on Various Commodities | |
81 FR 92793 - Applications for New Awards; Teacher and School Leader Incentive Program | |
81 FR 92855 - Notice of Lodging of Proposed Consent Decree Under the Comprehensive Response, Compensation, and Liability Act and the Clean Water Act | |
81 FR 92940 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Requests for Comments; Clearance of Renewed Approval of Information Collection: Pilot Records Improvement Act of 1996 (PRIA)/Pilot Records Database (PRD) | |
81 FR 92958 - Reports, Forms, and Record Keeping Requirements | |
81 FR 92852 - Heavy Forged Hand Tools From China | |
81 FR 92848 - Assessment of Eligible and Ineligible Lands for Consideration as Wilderness Areas: Big South Fork National River and Recreation Area and Obed Wild and Scenic River | |
81 FR 92947 - Commercial Driver's License Standards: Application for Exemption; New Prime, Inc. (Prime) | |
81 FR 92975 - Open Meeting of the Federal Advisory Committee on Insurance | |
81 FR 92860 - Southern Nuclear Operating Company, Inc., Vogtle Electric Generating Plant, Units 3 and 4; Initial Test Program Changes | |
81 FR 92881 - Southern Nuclear Operating Company, Inc., Vogtle Electric Generating Plant, Units 3 and 4; Reconciliation of Tier 1 Valve Differences | |
81 FR 92814 - Formations of, Acquisitions by, and Mergers of Bank Holding Companies | |
81 FR 92854 - Notice of Lodging of Proposed Consent Decree Under the Clean Water Act | |
81 FR 92836 - Housing Opportunity Through Modernization Act of 2016: Solicitation of Comments on Implementation of Public Housing Income Limit: Extension of Comment Period | |
81 FR 92784 - Certain Cased Pencils From the People's Republic of China: Amended Final Results of Antidumping Duty New Shipper Review; 2014-2015 | |
81 FR 92783 - Certain Polyester Staple Fiber From the Republic of Korea and Taiwan: Final Results of Expedited Sunset Review of the Antidumping Duty Orders | |
81 FR 92938 - Overseas Schools Advisory Council Notice of Meeting | |
81 FR 92821 - Sun Pharmaceutical Industries, Inc.; Withdrawal of Approval of 28 Abbreviated New Drug Applications | |
81 FR 92836 - Request for Comments and Recommendations on a Revised Methodology To Track the Extent to Which Moving to Work Agencies Continue To Serve Substantially the Same Number of Eligible Families | |
81 FR 92550 - Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program Promotion | |
81 FR 92840 - Section 8 Housing Assistance Payments ProgramAnnual Adjustment Factors, Fiscal Year 2017 | |
81 FR 92843 - 60-Day Notice of Proposed Information Collection: Application for Resident Opportunity & Self Sufficiency (ROSS) Grant Forms | |
81 FR 92778 - Civil Nuclear Trade Advisory Committee: Cancellation of the Meeting of the Civil Nuclear Trade Advisory Committee | |
81 FR 92787 - Announcing Request for Nominations for Public-Key Post-Quantum Cryptographic Algorithms | |
81 FR 92953 - Federal Fiscal Year 2017 Annual List of Certifications and Assurances for Federal Transit Administration Grants and Cooperative Agreements | |
81 FR 92834 - Question-Based Review for the Chemistry, Manufacturing, and Controls Technical Section of Animal Drug Applications; Guidance for Industry; Availability | |
81 FR 92839 - 60-Day Notice of Proposed Information Collection: HUD Conditional Commitment/Statement of Appraised Value | |
81 FR 92843 - 60-Day Notice of Proposed Information Collection: Exigent Health and Safety Deficiency Correction Certification | |
81 FR 92859 - South Carolina Electric & Gas Company; South Carolina Public Service Authority; Virgil C. Summer Nuclear Station, Units 2 and 3; Containment Hydrogen Igniter Changes | |
81 FR 92861 - Southern Nuclear Operating Company, Inc., Vogtle Electric Generating Plant, Units 3 and 4; Compressed and Instrument Air System High Pressure Air Subsystem Changes | |
81 FR 92776 - Census Bureau 2020 Advisory Committee | |
81 FR 92816 - Common Formats for Reporting on Health Care Quality and Patient Safety | |
81 FR 92814 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Proposed Collection; Comment Request | |
81 FR 92949 - Qualification of Drivers; Exemption Applications; Diabetes | |
81 FR 92692 - Freedom of Information Act Regulations | |
81 FR 92770 - Codex Alimentarius Commission: Meeting of the Codex Committee on Fats and Oils | |
81 FR 92772 - Notice of Request for a New Information Collection: In-Home Food Safety Behaviors and Consumer Education: Annual Observational Study | |
81 FR 92789 - Proposed Information Collection; Comment Request; Southeast Region Permit Family of Forms | |
81 FR 92848 - Announcement of Requirements and Registration for a Prize Competition Titled: Sub-Seasonal Climate Forecast Rodeo | |
81 FR 92944 - Qualification of Drivers; Exemption Applications; Vision | |
81 FR 92792 - Notice of Intent To Grant an Exclusive License; SpringStar Inc. | |
81 FR 92791 - Notice of Intent To Grant an Exclusive License; Adaptive Phage Therapeutics, Inc. | |
81 FR 92946 - Qualification of Drivers; Exemption Applications; Diabetes | |
81 FR 92941 - Qualification of Drivers; Exemption Applications; Diabetes | |
81 FR 92952 - Qualification of Drivers; Exemption Applications; Vision | |
81 FR 92792 - Notice of Intent To Grant Exclusive Patent License; Solar Tech, Inc. | |
81 FR 92792 - Notice of Intent To Grant an Exclusive License; Rotunda Scientific Technologies, LLC | |
81 FR 92845 - Endangered and Threatened Wildlife and Plants; Jaguar Draft Recovery Plan | |
81 FR 92847 - Eastern States: Filing of Plat of Survey | |
81 FR 92792 - Notice of Intent To Grant an Exclusive License; DBC Medical Innovations, LLC | |
81 FR 92778 - Aluminum Extrusions from the People's Republic of China: Final Results and Partial Rescission of Countervailing Duty Administrative Review; 2014 | |
81 FR 92852 - Certain Pumping Bras Commission Determination To Review In-Part an Initial Determination Granting Complainant's Motion for Summary Determination of Section 337 Violation by Defaulted Respondents | |
81 FR 92964 - Mercedes-Benz USA, LLC, Receipt of Petition for Decision of Inconsequential Noncompliance | |
81 FR 92963 - General Motors, LLC, Grant of Petition for Decision of Inconsequential Noncompliance | |
81 FR 92664 - Drawbridge Operation Regulation; Calcasieu River, Westlake, LA | |
81 FR 92663 - Drawbridge Operation Regulation; Pearl River, LA/MS | |
81 FR 92938 - Reporting and Recordkeeping Requirements Under OMB Review | |
81 FR 92770 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
81 FR 92925 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Chicago Board Options Exchange, Incorporated; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change To Move the Web Site and Vendor Through Which It Sells and Disseminates Open and Close Volume Data on the CBOE | |
81 FR 92923 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; NYSE MKT LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Change Modifying the NYSE Amex Options Fee Schedule | |
81 FR 92889 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; NYSE MKT LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Change Modifying the NYSE Amex Options Fee Schedule | |
81 FR 92919 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; BOX Options Exchange LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change To Detail How Complex Orders Will Execute Through the Solicitation Auction Mechanism | |
81 FR 92935 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; The NASDAQ Stock Market LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Modify Distributor Fees for ITTO and BONO Data Feeds | |
81 FR 92928 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; C2 Options Exchange, Incorporated; Order Approving a Proposed Rule Change Relating to Price Protection Mechanisms and Risk Controls | |
81 FR 92927 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; The Nasdaq Stock Market LLC; Notice of Designation of a Longer Period for Commission Action on a Proposed Rule Change To Amend Rule 4702 To Adopt a New Retail Post-Only Order | |
81 FR 92928 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Bats BZX Exchange, Inc.; Notice of Designation of a Longer Period for Commission Action on Proposed Rule Change To Amend Exchange Rule 11.23, Auctions, To Enhance the Reopening Auction Process Following a Trading Halt Declared Pursuant to the Plan To Address Extraordinary Market Volatility Pursuant to Rule 608 of Regulation NMS | |
81 FR 92885 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; The Nasdaq Stock Market LLC; Notice of Designation of a Longer Period for Commission Action on Proposed Rule Change To Enhance the Reopening Auction Process Following a Trading Halt Declared Pursuant to the Plan To Address Extraordinary Market Volatility | |
81 FR 92892 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; NYSE Arca, Inc.; Notice of Designation of a Longer Period for Commission Action on a Proposed Rule Change To List and Trade Shares of the ForceShares Daily 4X US Market Futures Long Fund and ForceShares Daily 4X US Market Futures Short Fund Under Commentary .02 to NYSE Arca Equities Rule 8.200 | |
81 FR 92886 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; NASDAQ BX, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Amend Rule 4770 (Compliance With Regulation NMS Plan To Implement a Tick Size Pilot) | |
81 FR 92883 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Chicago Board Options Exchange, Incorporated; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change To Amend the Fees Schedule | |
81 FR 92892 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; NYSE Arca, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change Amending NYSE Arca Rule 10.17 and NYSE Arca Equities Rule 10.15 | |
81 FR 92932 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; The NASDAQ Stock Market LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Amend Rule 4770 (Compliance With Regulation NMS Plan To Implement a Tick Size Pilot) | |
81 FR 92916 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; NASDAQ PHLX LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Amend Rule 3317 (Compliance With Regulation NMS Plan To Implement a Tick Size Pilot) | |
81 FR 92809 - Notice of Applications | |
81 FR 92807 - National Fuel Gas Supply Corporation; Notice of Intent To Prepare an Environmental Assessment for the Proposed Heath Compressor Station Abandonment and Line FM-92 Refunctionalization Project and Request for Comments on Environmental Issues | |
81 FR 92811 - Combined Notice of Filings #2 | |
81 FR 92812 - Combined Notice of Filings #1 | |
81 FR 92810 - Records Governing Off-the-Record Communications; Public Notice | |
81 FR 92811 - PPA Grand Johanna LLC; Supplemental Notice That Initial Market- Based Rate Filing Includes Request for Blanket Section 204 Authorization | |
81 FR 92813 - InterGen Energy Solutions, LLC; Supplemental Notice That Initial Market-Based Rate Filing Includes Request for Blanket Section 204 Authorization | |
81 FR 92812 - Combined Notice of Filings #2 | |
81 FR 92808 - Combined Notice of Filings #1 | |
81 FR 92785 - Welded Carbon Steel Standard Pipe and Tube Products From Turkey: Final Results of Antidumping Duty Administrative Review and Final Determination of No Shipments; 2014-2015 | |
81 FR 92891 - Minnesota Life Insurance Company, et al; Notice of Application | |
81 FR 92897 - Equus Total Return, Inc.; Notice of Application | |
81 FR 92901 - In the Matter of the Application of MIAX PEARL, LLC for Registration as a National Securities Exchange; Findings, Opinion, and Order of the Commission | |
81 FR 92885 - Order Approving Public Company Accounting Oversight Board Budget and Annual Accounting Support Fee for Calendar Year 2017 | |
81 FR 92777 - Notice of Petitions by Firms for Determination of Eligibility To Apply for Trade Adjustment Assistance | |
81 FR 92853 - Sulfanilic Acid From China and India; Scheduling of Expedited Five-Year Reviews | |
81 FR 92694 - Suspension of Community Eligibility | |
81 FR 92822 - Authorization of Emergency Use of an In Vitro Diagnostic Device for Detection of Zika Virus; Availability | |
81 FR 92882 - Product ChangePriority Mail Negotiated Service Agreement | |
81 FR 92847 - Notice of Relocation: Consolidation and Change of Address for Oklahoma Field Office-Tulsa and Moore Field Station | |
81 FR 92883 - Product ChangePriority Mail Negotiated Service Agreement | |
81 FR 92832 - Determination of Regulatory Review Period for Purposes of Patent Extension; COSENTYX | |
81 FR 92835 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Electronic Visa Update System | |
81 FR 92818 - Mine Safety and Health Research Advisory Committee: Notice of Charter Renewal | |
81 FR 92856 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request; Attestation by Employers Using Alien Crewmembers for Longshore Activities in U.S. Ports | |
81 FR 92820 - Board of Scientific Counselors, Office of Infectious Diseases (BSC, OID) | |
81 FR 92821 - Request for Nominations of Candidates To Serve on the Board of Scientific Counselors (BSC), National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) | |
81 FR 92819 - Advisory Board on Radiation and Worker Health (ABRWH or the Advisory Board), Subcommittee for Dose Reconstruction Reviews (SDRR), National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) | |
81 FR 92818 - Advisory Board on Radiation and Worker Health (ABRWH or the Advisory Board), Subcommittee on Procedures Review (SPR), National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) | |
81 FR 92820 - Advisory Board on Radiation and Worker Health (ABRWH or the Advisory Board), National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) | |
81 FR 92819 - Disease, Disability, and Injury Prevention and Control Special Emphasis Panel (SEP): Initial Review | |
81 FR 92882 - Product ChangePriority Mail and First-Class Package Service Negotiated Service Agreement | |
81 FR 92857 - Advisory Board on Toxic Substances and Worker Health: Working Group on Presumptions | |
81 FR 92855 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request; Coal Mine Rescue Teams: Arrangements for Emergency Medical Assistance and Transportation for Injured Persons- Agreements, Reporting Requirements, and Posting Requirements | |
81 FR 92844 - Endangered Species; Marine Mammals; Receipt of Applications for Permit | |
81 FR 92937 - Notice of Surrender of License of Small Business Investment Company | |
81 FR 92939 - Forty Sixth RTCA SC-224 Plenary | |
81 FR 92976 - Reimbursement for Caskets and Urns for Burial of Unclaimed Remains in a National Cemetery | |
81 FR 92791 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request; Secrecy and License To Export | |
81 FR 92805 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission to the Office of Management and Budget for Review and Approval; Comment Request; NCER-NPNCER-NPSAS Grant StudyFinancial Aid Nudges 2017: A National Experiment To Increase Retention of Financial Aid and College Persistence | |
81 FR 92806 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission to the Office of Management and Budget for Review and Approval; Comment Request; NCER-NPSAS Grant StudyConnecting Students With Financial Aid (CSFA) 2017: Testing the Effectiveness of FAFSA Interventions on College Outcomes | |
81 FR 92858 - Notice of Intent to Grant Partially Exclusive License | |
81 FR 92790 - Gulf of Mexico Fishery Management Council; Public Meeting | |
81 FR 92814 - Change in Bank Control Notices; Acquisitions of Shares of a Bank or Bank Holding Company | |
81 FR 92814 - Formations of, Acquisitions by, and Mergers of Savings and Loan Holding Companies | |
81 FR 92974 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Information Collection Renewal; Comment Request: Record and Disclosure RequirementsConsumer Financial Protection Bureau Regulations B, C, E, M, Z, and DD and Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System Regulation CC | |
81 FR 92788 - Taking and Importing Marine Mammals; Taking Marine Mammals Incidental to Geophysical Surveys in the Gulf of Mexico | |
81 FR 92938 - Monarch Ventures Inc.Acquisition of ControlQuick Coach Lines Ltd. and Vancouver Tours and Transit Ltd. D/B/A Charter Bus Lines of British Columbia | |
81 FR 92791 - Divert Activities and Exercises, Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands | |
81 FR 92603 - Postmarketing Safety Reporting for Combination Products | |
81 FR 93448 - Metropolitan Planning Organization Coordination and Planning Area Reform | |
81 FR 92666 - Revisions to the Unregulated Contaminant Monitoring Rule (UCMR 4) for Public Water Systems and Announcement of Public Meeting | |
81 FR 92755 - Approval and Promulgation of State Implementation Plans; Interstate Transport for Utah | |
81 FR 92549 - Privacy Act of 1974: Implementation of Exemptions; Department of Homeland Security DHS/U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP)-023 Border Patrol Enforcement Records (BPER) System of Records | |
81 FR 92696 - State Long-Term Care Ombudsman Programs | |
81 FR 92863 - Biweekly Notice; Applications and Amendments to Facility Operating Licenses and Combined Licenses Involving No Significant Hazards Considerations | |
81 FR 92703 - Unfair Practices and Undue Preferences in Violation of the Packers and Stockyards Act | |
81 FR 92723 - Poultry Grower Ranking Systems | |
81 FR 92566 - Scope of Sections 202(a) and (b) of the Packers and Stockyards Act | |
81 FR 92761 - Fisheries of the Northeastern United States; Amendment 18 to the Northeast Multispecies Fishery Management Plan | |
81 FR 92564 - Domestic Dates Produced or Packed in Riverside County, California; Decreased Assessment Rate | |
81 FR 92557 - Cherries Grown in Designated Counties in Washington; Increased Assessment Rate | |
81 FR 92940 - Notice of Final Federal Agency Actions on Franklin Boulevard: I- 5McVay Highway. City of Springfield, Lane County, OR | |
81 FR 92559 - Almonds Grown in California; Increased Assessment Rate | |
81 FR 93030 - Runaway and Homeless Youth | |
81 FR 93489 - Federal Acquisition Regulation; Federal Acquisition Circular 2005-93; Small Entity Compliance Guide | |
81 FR 93481 - Federal Acquisition Regulations; Payment of Subcontractors | |
81 FR 93476 - Federal Acquisition Regulation; Privacy Training | |
81 FR 93476 - Federal Acquisition Regulation; Federal Acquisition Circular 2005-94; Introduction | |
81 FR 92665 - Approval and Limited Approval and Limited Disapproval of Air Quality Implementation Plans; California; Northern Sonoma County Air Pollution Control District; Stationary Source Permits; Correcting Amendment | |
81 FR 92654 - Interstate Compact on Educational Opportunity for Military Children | |
81 FR 92639 - Savings Arrangements Established by Qualified State Political Subdivisions for Non-Governmental Employees | |
81 FR 92697 - Fisheries of the Exclusive Economic Zone Off Alaska; Bering Sea and Aleutian Islands Crab Rationalization Program | |
81 FR 92753 - Airworthiness Directives; The Boeing Company Airplanes | |
81 FR 92747 - Airworthiness Directives; Dassault Aviation Airplanes | |
81 FR 92740 - Airworthiness Directives; The Boeing Company Airplanes | |
81 FR 92742 - Airworthiness Directives; The Boeing Company Airplanes | |
81 FR 92745 - Airworthiness Directives; Learjet, Inc. Airplanes | |
81 FR 92749 - Airworthiness Directives; Airbus Airplanes | |
81 FR 93066 - Stream Protection Rule | |
81 FR 92978 - Regulatory Implementation of the Centers of Excellence and Expertise | |
81 FR 93492 - Flexibility, Efficiency, and Modernization in Child Support Enforcement Programs |
Agricultural Marketing Service
Food and Nutrition Service
Food Safety and Inspection Service
Grain Inspection, Packers and Stockyards Administration
National Agricultural Statistics Service
Census Bureau
Economic Development Administration
International Trade Administration
National Institute of Standards and Technology
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration
Patent and Trademark Office
Air Force Department
Navy Department
Federal Energy Regulatory Commission
Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality
Aging Administration
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services
Children and Families Administration
Food and Drug Administration
Coast Guard
Federal Emergency Management Agency
U.S. Customs and Border Protection
Fish and Wildlife Service
Land Management Bureau
National Park Service
Reclamation Bureau
Surface Mining Reclamation and Enforcement Office
Employee Benefits Security Administration
Workers Compensation Programs Office
Federal Aviation Administration
Federal Highway Administration
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration
Federal Transit Administration
Maritime Administration
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration
Comptroller of the Currency
Consult the Reader Aids section at the end of this issue for phone numbers, online resources, finding aids, and notice of recently enacted public laws.
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Department of Homeland Security, Privacy Office.
Final rule.
The Department of Homeland Security is issuing a final rule to amend its regulations to exempt portions of a newly established system of records titled, “Department of Homeland Security U.S. Customs and Border Protection (DHS/CBP)-023 Border Patrol Enforcement Records (BPER) System of Records” from certain provisions of the Privacy Act. Specifically, the Department exempts portions of the “DHS/CBP-023 BPER System of Records” from one or more provisions of the Privacy Act because of criminal, civil, and administrative enforcement requirements.
This final rule is effective December 20, 2016.
For general questions, please contact: Debra Danisek (202-344-1191), CBP Privacy Officer, Privacy and Diversity Office, 1300 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20229. For privacy issues please contact: Jonathan R. Cantor (202-343-1717), Acting Chief Privacy Officer, Privacy Office, Department of Homeland Security, Washington, DC 20528.
The Department of Homeland Security (DHS) U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) published a notice of proposed rulemaking in the
DHS/CBP invited comments on both the Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (NPRM) and System of Records Notice (SORN).
DHS/CBP received one positive comment on the NPRM and no comments on the SORN for the DHS/CBP-023 BPER System of Records. After consideration of the public comment, DHS will implement the rulemaking as proposed.
Freedom of information, Privacy.
For the reasons stated in the preamble, DHS amends Chapter I of Title 6, Code of Federal Regulations, as follows:
Pub. L. 107-296, 116 Stat. 2135; (6 U.S.C. 101
76. The DHS/CBP-023 Border Patrol Enforcement Records (BPER) System of Records consists of electronic and paper records and will be used by DHS and its components. The DHS/CBP-023 BPER System of Records is a repository of information held by DHS/CBP in connection with its several and varied missions and functions, including, but not limited to the enforcement of civil and criminal laws; investigations, inquiries, and proceedings there under; and national security and intelligence activities. The DHS/CBP-023 BPER System of Records contains information that is collected by, on behalf of, in support of, or in cooperation with DHS and its components and may contain personally identifiable information collected by other federal, state, local, tribal, foreign, or international government agencies. The Secretary of Homeland Security, pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2), has exempted this system from the following provisions of the Privacy Act: 5 U.S.C. 552a (c)(3), (c)(4); (d); (e)(1), (e)(2), (e)(3), (e)(4)(G), (e)(4)(H), (e)(5), (e)(8); and (g). Additionally, the Secretary of Homeland Security, pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2), has exempted this system from the following provisions of the Privacy Act: 5 U.S.C. 552a (c)(3); (d); (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), and (e)(4)(H). Exemptions from these particular subsections are justified, on a case-by-case basis to be determined at the time a request is made, for the following reasons:
(a) From subsection (c)(3) and (4) (Accounting for Disclosures) because release of the accounting of disclosures could alert the subject of an investigation of an actual or potential criminal, civil, or regulatory violation to the existence of that investigation and reveal investigative interest on the part of DHS as well as the recipient agency. Disclosure of the accounting would therefore present a serious impediment to law enforcement efforts and/or efforts to preserve national security. Disclosure of the accounting would also permit the individual who is the subject of a record to impede the investigation, to tamper with witnesses or evidence, and to avoid detection or apprehension, which would undermine the entire investigative process.
(b) From subsection (d) (Access to Records) because access to the records contained in this system of records could inform the subject of an investigation of an actual or potential criminal, civil, or regulatory violation to the existence of that investigation and reveal investigative interest on the part of DHS or another agency. Access to the records could permit the individual who is the subject of a record to impede the investigation, to tamper with witnesses or
(c) From subsection (e)(1) (Relevancy and Necessity of Information) because in the course of investigations into potential violations of federal law, the accuracy of information obtained or introduced occasionally may be unclear, or the information may not be strictly relevant or necessary to a specific investigation. In the interests of effective law enforcement, it is appropriate to retain all information that may aid in establishing patterns of unlawful activity.
(d) From subsection (e)(2) (Collection of Information from Individuals) because requiring that information be collected from the subject of an investigation would alert the subject to the nature or existence of the investigation, thereby interfering with that investigation and related law enforcement activities.
(e) From subsection (e)(3) (Notice to Subjects) because providing such detailed information could impede law enforcement by compromising the existence of a confidential investigation or reveal the identity of witnesses or confidential informants.
(f) From subsections (e)(4)(G) and (e)(4)(H) (Agency Requirements) because portions of this system are exempt from the individual access provisions of subsection (d) for the reasons noted above, and therefore DHS is not required to establish requirements, rules, or procedures with respect to such access. Providing notice to individuals with respect to existence of records pertaining to them in the system of records or otherwise setting up procedures pursuant to which individuals may access and view records pertaining to themselves in the system would undermine investigative efforts and reveal the identities of witnesses, and potential witnesses, and confidential informants.
(g) From subsection (e)(5) (Collection of Information) because with the collection of information for law enforcement purposes, it is impossible to determine in advance what information is accurate, relevant, timely, and complete. Compliance with subsection (e)(5) would preclude DHS agents from using their investigative training and exercise of good judgment to both conduct and report on investigations.
(h) From subsection (e)(8) (Notice on Individuals) because compliance would interfere with DHS's ability to obtain, serve, and issue subpoenas, warrants, and other law enforcement mechanisms that may be filed under seal and could result in disclosure of investigative techniques, procedures, and evidence.
(i) From subsection (g)(1) (Civil Remedies) to the extent that the system is exempt from other specific subsections of the Privacy Act.
Food and Nutrition Service (FNS), USDA.
Final rule.
This final rule implements Section 4018 of the Agricultural Act of 2014. Section 4018 created new limitations on the use of Federal funds authorized in the Food and Nutrition Act of 2008, as amended (FNA), for the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program (SNAP) promotion and outreach activities. Specifically, Section 4018 of the 2014 Farm Bill prohibits the use of Federal funds appropriated in the FNA from being used for: recruitment activities designed to persuade an individual to apply for SNAP benefits; television, radio, or billboard advertisements that are designed to promote SNAP benefits and enrollment; or agreements with foreign governments designed to promote SNAP benefits and enrollment. The prohibition on using funds appropriated under the FNA for television, radio, or billboard advertisements does not apply to Disaster SNAP.
Section 4018 also prohibits any entity that receives funds under the FNA from compensating any person engaged in outreach or recruitment activities based on the number of individuals who apply to receive SNAP benefits. Lastly, Section 4018 modifies Section 16(a)(4) of the FNA to prohibit the Federal government from paying administrative costs associated with recruitment activities designed to persuade an individual to apply for program benefits or that promote the program through television, radio, or billboard advertisements.
This final rule also impacts the Food Distribution Program on Indian Reservations (FDPIR) and The Emergency Food Assistance Program (TEFAP), both of which receive funding and/or foods authorized under the FNA.
This final rule is effective January 19, 2017.
Mary Rose Conroy, Chief, Program Development Division, Program Design Branch, Food and Nutrition Services, U.S. Department of Agriculture, 3101 Park Center Drive, Room 810, Alexandria, VA 22302, or by phone at (703) 305-2803, or by email at
This rule implements Section 4018 of the Agricultural Act of 2014 (Pub L. 113-79, 2014 Farm Bill). Section 4018 of the 2014 Farm Bill creates new limitations on the use of Federal funds authorized in the Food and Nutrition Act of 2008 (FNA) for Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program (SNAP) promotion and recruitment activities. Specifically, Section 4018:
• Amends Section 16(a)(4) of the FNA to prohibit Federal reimbursement for activities that are designed to persuade an individual to apply for program benefits or that promote the program through television, radio, or billboard advertisements.
• Amends the end of Section 18 of the FNA to prohibit the use of Federal funds authorized to be appropriated under the FNA from being used for:
(1) Recruitment activities designed to persuade an individual to apply for SNAP benefits;
(2) Television, radio, or billboard advertisements that are designed to promote SNAP benefits and enrollment. This provision does not apply to Disaster SNAP; or
(3) Any agreements with foreign governments designed to promote SNAP benefits and enrollment.
• Amends the end of Section 18 of the FNA to require the Secretary of Agriculture to issue regulations that prohibit entities that receive funds under the FNA from compensating any person engaged in outreach or recruitment activities based on the number of individuals who apply to receive SNAP benefits.
On March 14, 2016, the Department published a proposed rule to implement the changes made by Section 4018.
Overall, comments were very supportive of the proposed rule. Commenters, however, did point to specific areas in need of clarification. The Department has reviewed these comments and in many cases has made the suggested recommendations, as discussed below. The Department appreciates the efforts of community partners and concerned members of the public to offer insightful comments that have enhanced the final regulations.
The Agricultural Act of 2014 prohibits the use of funds appropriated under the FNA from being used for recruitment activities that are designed to persuade an individual to apply for SNAP benefits.
In the proposed rule, prohibited recruitment activities were defined as those designed to persuade an individual to apply for SNAP benefits through the use of persuasive practices. Persuasive practices constitute coercing or pressuring an individual to apply, or providing incentives to fill out an application. Communicating factual information pertaining to SNAP is not a recruitment activity designed to persuade an individual to apply for SNAP benefits.
Overall, the definition of recruitment activities that would be prohibited in the proposed rule were supported by commenters, with the specific exceptions discussed below. Commenter support focused on the importance of providing factual information through SNAP outreach (n = 78), and the importance of outreach to clear up myths or misconceptions about SNAP (n = 71). Commenters appreciated that the definition in the proposed rule supported these important outreach activities.
However, commenters felt two components of the definition of recruitment activities designed to persuade were in need of clarification. First, a large number of commenters (n = 73) felt the rule should state that individuals are allowed to make an “informed choice” about whether or not to apply for SNAP benefits and that this phrase should be added to the regulatory definition of recruitment activities designed to persuade. These commenters explained that long-standing FNS regulations clearly state that prohibited recruitment activities are those that persuade an individual who has made an
Second, a majority of commenters (n = 68) felt that the rule needed to be clarified to explain that outreach workers should be allowed to ask follow-up questions to potential SNAP applicants to clear-up misinformation. Some commenters pointed to a specific example in the preamble of the proposed rule in which a food pantry visitor comes by a SNAP informational table and expresses disinterest in learning more about SNAP. In this example, the Department explained continuing to discuss SNAP with the visitor would constitute a persuasive practice because the visitor had clearly expressed a lack of interest and should not be pressured to apply. These commenters felt that frequently a follow-up question about why an individual is not interested is necessary in order to determine whether or not he or she has accurate information about the program, and should not be considered a persuasive practice. If the individual responds to the follow-up question in such a way as to show he or she is misinformed about SNAP, the outreach worker then has an opportunity to clarify his or her misunderstanding, so that he or she can then make a well-informed choice about applying.
The Department agrees with the commenters that it is important that potential SNAP applicants have the necessary information to make an informed choice about whether or not to apply for benefits, and that outreach is an important tool to ensure that SNAP applicants can make this informed choice. The Department also understands that it was not the intent of Congress to prohibit informational activities that provide basic program information to potentially eligible individuals, as specifically authorized in Section 11(e)(1) of the FNA. Basic program information allows individuals to make a well-informed decision about whether or not to apply based on accurate information, rather than myths or other types of misinformation.
Pursuant to these comments the Department has clarified the regulations at a new 7 CFR 277.4(b)(5). As in the proposed rule, the Federal reimbursement rate shall not include recruitment activities designed to persuade an individual to apply for SNAP benefits through the use of persuasive practices. Persuasive practices constitute coercing or pressuring an individual to apply, or providing incentives to fill out an application for SNAP benefits. However, in the final rule the Department has added the “informed choice” standard to the third sentence: communicating factual information so that an individual can make an informed choice pertaining to SNAP is not a recruitment activity designed to persuade an individual to apply for SNAP benefits. As a result, prohibited recruitment activities would not include providing accurate program information to dispel misinformation, answering questions about SNAP, providing assistance in filling out forms or obtaining verification documents, or providing basic information about SNAP availability, application procedures, eligibility requirements, and the benefits of the program, as specifically permitted by Section 11(e)(1) of the FNA.
To conform to this change from the proposed rule, the Department is clarifying one of the examples from the preamble of the proposed rule to make a distinction between persuasive practices and asking appropriate follow-up questions to ensure an individual has made an informed choice. The revised example is as follows:
A worker funded by SNAP funds is staffing a SNAP informational table at a food pantry. A food pantry visitor comes to the table, but soon replies that he is not interested in learning more. The worker may ask a follow-up question about why the visitor is not interested in learning more. If the visitor's answer demonstrates a lack of accurate information about SNAP, the worker may correct the misunderstanding, thus helping the visitor make an informed choice about applying. However, if the visitor responds to the follow-up questions with a further expression of disinterest, continuing to question the visitor would be pressuring the individual to apply and therefore constitutes a persuasive practice.
Similarly, the Department is hereby clarifying one of the examples from the preamble of the proposed rule about allowable informational activities:
An outreach worker is talking to a senior citizen who explains that he does not think he is eligible because he owns his own home. The worker would be allowed to correct this misconception, including asking any necessary follow-up questions to ensure the senior citizen makes an informed choice about whether or not to apply.
The preamble to the proposed rule explained that written materials would also be expected to comply with the designation of allowable and unallowable activities that are described in the above definition of recruitment activities designed to persuade an individual to apply for SNAP benefits through coercion, pressure, or incentives. One commenter sought clarification on what information may be included in written outreach materials. This commenter suggested that FNS expand the list of permissible written outreach materials to include additional examples in the preamble.
The Department has reviewed the commenter's request and feels that the original language in the preamble was sufficiently clear that it was not intended to be an exhaustive list, and that written outreach materials are permissible, so long as they are not recruitment activities designed to persuade, as defined in 277.4(b)(5)(i).
The Manager's Statement to the Conference Report, H.R. Rep. 113-333 stated that the changes in Section 4018 of the Agricultural Act of 2014 do not preclude specialized services for eligible SNAP applicants, including application assistance for vulnerable populations. The Manager's Statement explained that specialized services are particularly important for vulnerable populations, including the elderly, homeless, and individuals with disabilities, to ensure they receive the food assistance they need. Consequently, the proposed rule would not have prohibited specialized services that provide vulnerable populations (including the elderly, homeless, and individuals with disabilities) with application assistance or basic program information, including information about rights, program rules, client responsibilities, and benefits.
A majority of commenters (n = 63) supported the language in the proposed rule, agreeing that Congressional intent was never to prohibit specialized or targeted services to vulnerable populations. However, commenters (n = 65) also argued that neither the Act nor the Manager's Statement in the Conference Report, H.R. Rep. 113-333, limit application assistance and specialized services to these vulnerable populations only. These commenters felt that the Department should clarify that application assistance and specialized services can be provided to all individuals, not just so-called vulnerable populations cited in the preamble. For example, these commenters explained, targeted SNAP outreach can be important for limited English proficient populations, pregnant women receiving WIC only benefits, recently unemployed families in a factory town that has lost its primary business, or a community that has suffered severe weather and power outages that do not rise to the level of a Presidentially declared disaster.
The Department considers specialized services to be a subset of all activities provided under informational activities, as defined in 7 CFR 272.5(c). Specialized services are informational activities targeted to specific populations based on their specific needs. For example, a community outreach partner may develop a SNAP Web site targeted to households who have become recently unemployed, informing those households of available SNAP Employment and Training activities. The Web site is a specialized service provided to a targeted group to provide information about SNAP based on their needs and available local resources. Therefore, the Department agrees with the commenters and concludes that specialized services, as a subset of allowable informational activities in 7 CFR 272.5(c), can be targeted to any particular group to meet the specific needs of that population. However, the Department does not believe any changes are needed to the regulatory text to address that clarification.
As discussed above, the proposed rule prohibited recruitment activities that are designed to persuade an individual to apply for SNAP benefits through the use of persuasive practices. Providing an incentive to fill out an application was defined as one type of persuasive practice. The preamble to the proposed rule also included an example where a worker funded by SNAP funds at a community-based organization explained to a group of likely eligible SNAP applicants, that every person who applied that day for SNAP would be allowed to stay for a free parenting class. The preamble to the proposed rule explained that this practice would be prohibited if only those who filled out the SNAP application were allowed to attend the parenting class. However, if everyone was allowed to participate in the parenting class, regardless of whether or not they completed an application, the practice would be allowable.
While no comments were received that directly supported the incentive language in the proposed rule, some commenters (n = 19) felt the incentive language in the definition of recruitment activities designed to persuade needed to be clarified. For example, some of the commenters explained that providing information about the ancillary benefits of participating in SNAP and offering outreach reinforcement items that are
To address these comments, the Department is hereby clarifying that providing individuals with information about the ancillary benefits of applying for SNAP is not an incentive or a recruitment activity designed to persuade. Providing factual information to an individual about the benefits of SNAP, such as that SNAP participation may make a household's children eligible for the National School Lunch Program, is a permissible sharing of factual information, per the regulations on allowable informational activities in 7 CFR 272.5(c). The Department is also hereby clarifying that offering outreach reinforcement items at any point in the process of sharing information about SNAP with an interested individual(s) is permissible and not a recruitment activity designed to persuade, so long as the receipt of such reinforcements is not contingent on applying for SNAP. The Department does not think any changes are needed to the regulatory text to address these clarifications.
Section 4018 of the Agricultural Act of 2014 prohibits the use of funds authorized to be appropriated under the FNA for television, radio, or billboard advertisements that are designed to promote SNAP benefits and enrollment. The proposed rule would have prohibited States or other entities from
Several commenters (n = 14) supported language in the preamble that stated only funds authorized by the FNA would be prohibited from purchasing television, radio and billboard advertisements that promote SNAP benefits and enrollment, but that funding from other sources could be spent on these advertisements. In addition, some commenters had concerns about individual elements of the restriction on radio, television, and billboard advertisements, which are discussed more below.
The proposed rule defined billboards as large format advertising displays intended for viewing from extended distances of more than 50 feet. There were no comments that directly supported the billboard definition in the proposed rule. Several commenters (n = 18) stated that the billboard definition needed to be changed or clarified to consider the context in which a billboard is used so as to allow for large signs at health fairs, farmers markets, or other similar venues where individuals may be seeking information about SNAP or SNAP services. In addition, one commenter explained that not allowing retailers to advertise would prevent these businesses from educating the community about SNAP benefits and remove opportunities to advertise that they support SNAP beneficiaries.
The Department agrees that the restriction on Federal funding for billboard advertisements is not intended to prohibit Federal funding for large signs used for informational purposes at health fairs, farmers markets, and other venues where most attendees are on foot. Consequently, for the purposes of the final rule, a billboard is now defined as an outdoor, large format advertising display, either permanent or portable, which is used to advertise or inform alongside a roadway. This definition does not include large signs and banners intended for viewing predominantly by individuals not travelling along a roadway.
In addition, the Department believes that retailers advertising where SNAP benefits are accepted does not constitute promoting SNAP benefits and enrollment. FNS has long allowed retailers to advertise that SNAP benefits can be used at their establishment. This practice is essential to help both SNAP beneficiaries identify locations to use their benefits, and retailers to connect with potential customers. As a result, the final regulatory text at 7 CFR 277.4(b)(5)(ii) is amended to state that the restriction on the use of Federal funds for radio, television, and billboard advertising does not restrict retailers, such as farmers markets, from using these methods to provide information about where SNAP benefits are accepted. Similarly, the Department also believes that the restriction on the use of Federal funds for radio, television, and billboard advertising does not restrict retailers from using these methods to provide factual information about their FNS-approved programs for currently enrolled SNAP households, such as fruits and vegetables incentive programs.
Six commenters felt that radio, television, and billboard advertisements are helpful ways to communicate information about SNAP and suggested these advertising methods should continue to be allowable activities. Two of these commentators noted that the prohibition on radio, television, and billboard advertising would have a negative impact on Native American communities, especially tribes living in remote areas. In addition, a commenter in Alaska noted that radio advertisements are an effective method to communicate within their state, which has many remote areas. One commenter explained that radio, television, and billboard advertisements are important ways to communicate about SNAP in elderly or highly impoverished communities.
The Department understands that the prohibition on using Federal funds for radio, television, and billboard advertisements may negatively impact information sharing in Alaskan, Native American, and other vulnerable communities, as well as other rural areas where radio, television, and billboard advertisements are effective methods of communication. The Department will continue to conduct allowable outreach and communication activities appropriate to various types of vulnerable communities served by SNAP, including technical assistance and regular Tribal consultation. However, the Department has no discretion to allow appropriations authorized under the FNA to fund television, radio, and billboard advertisements to promote program benefits and enrollment in these targeted communities. Consequently, as proposed, the regulation at new 7 CFR 277.4(b)(5)(ii), continues to prohibit States or other entities from using Federal funds for television, radio, or billboard advertisements that promote program benefits and enrollment, with the exception that Federal funds may be used to provide factual information identifying retailers that accept SNAP benefits.
Pursuant to the Agricultural Act of 2014, the prohibition on the use of funding authorized to be appropriated under the FNA for television, radio, or billboard advertisements does not apply to Disaster SNAP. Accordingly, the proposed rule stated that the advertising restriction would not apply to Disaster SNAP. Eleven commenters supported the proposed rule language exempting Disaster SNAP from the ban on Federal funding for radio, television, and billboard advertisements. There were no comments opposing the exemption for Disaster SNAP. Therefore, in the final rule the Department maintains that the prohibition on the use of Federal funding authorized to be appropriated in the FNA for television, radio, and billboard advertisements that promote SNAP benefits and enrollment does not apply to Disaster SNAP.
Section 4018 of the Agricultural Act of 2014 does not address the use of social media in promotion activities. As a result, in the proposed rule, the use of social media like Twitter, Facebook, YouTube, or other internet sites was not prohibited, so long as the content was not recruitment activity designed to persuade an individual to apply for SNAP benefits through coercion, pressure, or incentives. The majority of commenters (n = 71) supported the language in the proposed rule exempting social media from the ban on Federal funding for radio, television, and billboard advertisements that promote SNAP benefits and enrollment. No comments were received seeking a change or clarification in the proposed rule language. Therefore, the use of social media, such as Twitter, Facebook and YouTube is not prohibited in the final rule, so long as the content is not designed to persuade an individual to apply for SNAP benefits through persuasive practices.
Section 4018 of the Agricultural Act of 2014 prohibits the use of funds appropriated under the FNA from being used for any agreements with foreign governments designed to promote SNAP benefits and enrollment. Accordingly,
Section 4018 of the Agricultural Act of 2014 also states that any entity that receives funds under the FNA is banned from compensating any person for conducting outreach activities relating to participation in, or for recruiting individuals to apply to receive benefits under SNAP, if the amount of the compensation would be based on the number of individuals who apply to receive benefits. Pursuant to this provision, the proposed rule banned tying outreach worker compensation to the number of individuals who apply for SNAP as a result of that worker's efforts in any organization that receives funding under the FNA. In other words, the proposed rule would have prohibited organizations who receive any funding from the FNA from requiring a worker to meet a quota of SNAP applicants in order to receive their full compensation or performance bonus; however, the preamble to the proposed rule stated that organizations would be allowed to compensate outreach workers based on the number of hours an outreach worker dedicates to assisting individuals applying for SNAP benefits. For example, an outreach worker may be compensated at an hourly rate of “X” dollars for each hour the worker spends providing SNAP application assistance. Lastly, the preamble in the proposed rule also stated this prohibition would apply even if the organization used funds from a source other than those authorized to be appropriated in the FNA to pay outreach workers on a per application basis, so long as that organization received any funds under the FNA.
Several commenters (n = 16) supported the language in the proposed rule prohibiting compensation of workers based on the number of individuals who apply for benefits by entities that receive funds under the FNA. However, these same commenters recommended clarifying that State agencies and their partners are allowed to set outreach and application goals as part of their State outreach plan contracts. These commenters explained that State agencies should be able to hold outreach partners accountable for effective use of State and Federal resources, and be able to track submitted applications that result from educational or informational activities. Another commenter expressed a similar sentiment in explaining that the final rule should confirm that the prohibition on tying outreach worker compensation to the number of SNAP applications completed by a worker applies only to the compensation of individuals and not to the compensation of organizations.
In addition, an advocacy organization stated that the worker compensation regulation raised serious concerns about unwarranted control of independent organizations by the government, including possible constitutional violations by the government. At the very least, this commenter felt that the policy was overbroad and unfairly intruded into the lawful activity of important organizations over which the government cannot, and should not, exert such control.
The Department understands the importance of setting outreach goals for organizations involved in allowable SNAP outreach activities to ensure accountability for taxpayer dollars. The Department encourages States to establish performance metrics in their agreements with community partners as part of their State outreach plans to ensure State and Federal resources are used efficiently and effectively. Accordingly, the Department does not intend to ban the setting of outreach goals, but seeks to prevent the tying of compensation of individual workers, by any organization that receives funding under the FNA, to the number of individuals who apply for SNAP as a result of that particular worker's efforts as required by the Agricultural Act of 2014. The Department is hereby clarifying that the ban does not apply to the setting of outreach goals at the level of the individual or the organization, so long as those goals are not tied to individual worker compensation. The Department believes the regulatory text is sufficiently clear in this regard and maintains the language from the proposed rule.
Regarding the comment on potential government overreach, the Department has little discretion in how this provision of the Agricultural Act of 2014 is implemented. If an organization does not receive funding under the FNA, then this regulation would not apply to them. However, for organizations that do receive funding under the FNA, the final rule maintains the restriction on the spending of funds received from any source.
The FNA provides authorization of funds for SNAP, and also for food purchases and administrative costs for the Food Distribution Program on Indian Reservations (FDPIR) (7 U.S.C. 2013b) and for food purchases for The Emergency Food Assistance Program (TEFAP) (7 U.S.C. 2036). Under the proposed rule, FDPIR and TEFAP funds, as authorized under the FNA, would not be permitted for use in banned recruitment activities as described above.
No comments were received regarding the impact of the proposed rule on programs other than SNAP. As a result, the Department will proceed, as discussed in the proposed rule, to amend current 7 CFR 251.10(i), to prohibit entities funded by TEFAP from compensating staff engaged in SNAP outreach activities based on the number who apply to receive SNAP benefits. FDPIR regulations, at Section 253.11 of Title 7, currently require that funds must be expended and accounted for in accordance with the SNAP regulations at Part 277. Because the SNAP regulations at Part 277 have been amended to account for the changes mandated by the Agricultural Act of 2014, FDPIR funds, as authorized under FNA, would not be permitted for use in SNAP recruitment and promotion activities.
Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, distributive impacts, and equity). Executive Order 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, of reducing costs, of harmonizing rules, and of promoting flexibility. This final rule has been determined to be not significant and was not reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) in conformance with Executive Order 12866.
This rule has been designated as not significant by the Office of Management and Budget, therefore, no Regulatory Impact Analysis is required.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601-612) requires Agencies to analyze the impact of rulemaking on small entities and consider alternatives that would minimize any significant impacts on a substantial number of small entities. Pursuant to that review, it has been certified that this rule would not have a significant impact on a substantial number of small entities.
This final rule would not have an impact on small entities because, while the rule would restrict the types of recruitment and promotion activities eligible for Federal reimbursement and the types of activities for which funds authorized to be appropriated under the FNA may be spent, it does not change the type of entities that may receive administrative reimbursement or the rate at which they may be reimbursed for allowable activities. In addition, the rule would prohibit entities that receive funds under the FNA from compensating any person engaged in outreach or recruitment activities based on the number of individuals who apply to receive SNAP benefits; however, this is not expected to limit the ability of small entities, or any entity, from using other methods of compensating persons engaged in outreach or recruitment activities.
Title II of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (UMRA), Public Law 104-4, establishes requirements for Federal agencies to assess the effects of their regulatory actions on State, local and tribal governments and the private sector. Under Section 202 of the UMRA, the Department generally must prepare a written statement, including a cost benefit analysis, for proposed and final rules with “Federal mandates” that may result in expenditures by State, local or Tribal governments, in the aggregate, or the private sector, of $146 million or more (when adjusted for 2016 inflation; GDP deflator source: Table 1.1.9 at
This final rule does not contain Federal mandates (under the regulatory provisions of Title II of the UMRA) for State, local and Tribal governments or the private sector of $146 million or more in any one year. Thus, the rule is not subject to the requirements of Sections 202 and 205 of the UMRA.
The State Administrative Matching Grants for the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program is listed in the Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance Programs under 10.561. For the reasons set forth in the final rule in 2 CFR chapter IV, and related Notice (48 FR 29114, June 24, 1983), this program is included in the scope of Executive Order 12372, which requires intergovernmental consultation with State and local officials. FNS has consulted with State and local officials regarding the changes set forth in this rule by issuing to SNAP State agencies on March 21, 2014, an Implementation Memorandum for the 2014 Farm Bill which included guidance on implementing the changes in Section 4018 and on May 5, 2014, issuing a Question and Answer Memorandum responding to implementation questions from the State SNAP agencies and their partners. In addition, FNS hosted a stakeholder meeting on September 4, 2014, to consult with State and local representatives on the provisions of Section 4018.
Executive Order 13132 requires Federal agencies to consider the impact of their regulatory actions on State and local governments. Where such actions have federalism implications, agencies are directed to provide a statement for inclusion in the preamble to the regulations describing the agency's considerations in terms of the three categories called for under Section (6)(b)(2)(B) of Executive Order 13121. The Department has determined that this final rule does not have federalism implications. This rule does not impose substantial or direct compliance costs on State and local governments. Therefore, under Section 6(b) of the Executive Order, a federalism summary impact statement is not required.
This final rule has been reviewed under Executive Order 12988, Civil Justice Reform. This final rule is intended to have preemptive effect with respect to any State or local laws, regulations or policies which conflict with its provisions or which would otherwise impede its full and timely implementation.
This final rule is not intended to have retroactive effect unless so specified in the Effective Dates section of the final rule. Prior to any judicial challenge to the provisions of the final rule, all applicable administrative procedures must be exhausted.
FNS has reviewed this final rule in accordance with USDA Regulation 4300-4, “Civil Rights Impact Analysis,” to identify any major civil rights impacts the rule might have on program participants on the basis of age, race, color, national origin, sex, or disability. After a careful review of the rule's intent and provisions, FNS has determined that this rule is not expected to affect the participation of protected individuals in the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program.
This final rule has been reviewed in accordance with the requirements of Executive Order 13175, “Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments.” Executive Order 13175 requires Federal agencies to consult and coordinate with tribes on a government-to-government basis on policies that have tribal implications, including regulations, legislative comments or proposed legislation, and other policy statements or actions that have substantial direct effects on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes.
FNS has assessed the impact of this rule on Indian tribes and determined that while this rule may have tribal implications as discussed in the summary of comments in the preamble, FNS has no discretion to change the implementation of the final rule, and for that reason no tribal consultation under Executive Order 13175 is required. If a Tribe requests consultation, FNS will work with the USDA Office of Tribal Relations to ensure meaningful consultation is provided where changes, additions, and modifications identified herein are not expressly mandated by Congress.
The Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. Chap. 35; 5 CFR part 1320) requires Office of Management and Budget (OMB) approval of all covered collections of information by a Federal agency before such collections can be implemented. Respondents are not required to respond to any such collection of information unless it
The Department is committed to complying with the E-Government Act, to promote the use of the Internet and other information technologies to provide increased opportunities for citizen access to Government information and services, and for other purposes.
The Emergency Food Assistance Program, Miscellaneous provisions.
Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program, Promotional activities.
Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program, Program informational activities.
Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program, Funding.
Accordingly, 7 CFR parts 251, 271, 272 and 277 are amended as follows:
7 U.S.C. 2011-2036.
(i)
7 U.S.C. 2011-2036.
No funds authorized to be appropriated under the Food and Nutrition Act of 2008, as amended, shall be used for recruitment or promotion activities as described in § 277.4(b)(5). No entity receiving funds under the Food and Nutrition Act of 2008, as amended, shall be permitted to perform activities described in § 277.4(b)(6) of this chapter.
7 U.S.C. 2011-2036.
(c)
7 U.S.C. 2011-2036.
The additions read as follows:
(b) * * *
(5) The Federal reimbursement rate shall include reimbursement for SNAP informational activities, but shall not include the following:
(i) Recruitment activities designed to persuade an individual to apply for SNAP benefits through the use of persuasive practices. Persuasive practices constitute coercing or pressuring an individual to apply, or providing incentives to fill out an application for SNAP benefits. Communicating factual information pertaining to SNAP so that an individual can make an informed choice is not a recruitment activity designed to persuade an individual to apply for SNAP benefits.
(ii) Television, radio or billboard advertisements that are designed to promote SNAP benefits and enrollment, excepting the use of such advertisements for programmatic activities undertaken with respect to benefits provided under § 280.1 of this chapter. This restriction does not apply to radio, television, or billboard advertisements that are not designed to promote SNAP benefits and enrollment and that provide factual information identifying retail food stores where SNAP benefits are accepted.
(iii) Agreements with foreign governments that are designed to promote SNAP benefits and enrollment.
(6) Any entity that receives funding from the programs identified by this section and § 251.4 of this chapter is prohibited from compensating any person for conducting outreach activities relating to participation in, or for recruiting individuals to apply to receive benefits under, the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program, if the amount of the compensation would be based on the number of individuals who apply to receive the benefits.
Agricultural Marketing Service, USDA.
Final rule.
This rule implements a recommendation from the Washington Cherry Marketing Committee (Committee) to increase the assessment rate established for the 2016-2017 and subsequent fiscal periods from $0.15 to $0.25 per ton of Washington cherries handled. The Committee locally administers the marketing order and is comprised of growers and handlers of cherries operating within the production area. Assessments upon cherry handlers are used by the Committee to fund reasonable and necessary expenses of the marketing order. The fiscal period begins April 1 and ends March 31. The assessment rate will remain in effect indefinitely unless modified, suspended or terminated.
Effective December 21, 2016.
Teresa Hutchinson or Gary D. Olson, Northwest Marketing Field Office, Marketing Order and Agreement Division, Specialty Crops Program, AMS, USDA; Telephone: (503) 326-2724, Fax: (503) 326-7440, or Email:
Small businesses may request information on complying with this regulation by contacting Richard Lower, Marketing Order and Agreement Division, Specialty Crops Program, AMS, USDA, 1400 Independence Avenue SW., STOP 0237, Washington, DC 20250-0237; Telephone: (202) 720-2491, Fax: (202) 720-8938, or Email:
This rule is issued under Marketing Order No. 923, as amended (7 CFR part 923), regulating the handling of cherries grown in designated counties in Washington, hereinafter referred to as the “order.” The order is effective under the Agricultural Marketing Agreement Act of 1937, as amended (7 U.S.C. 601-674), hereinafter referred to as the “Act.”
The Department of Agriculture (USDA) is issuing this rule in conformance with Executive Orders 12866, 13563, and 13175.
This rule has been reviewed under Executive Order 12988, Civil Justice Reform. Under the order now in effect, Washington cherry handlers are subject to assessments. Funds to administer the order are derived from such assessments. It is intended that the assessment rate, as issued herein, will be applicable to all assessable Washington cherries beginning April 1, 2016, and continue until amended, suspended, or terminated.
The Act provides that administrative proceedings must be exhausted before parties may file suit in court. Under section 608c(15)(A) of the Act, any handler subject to an order may file with USDA a petition stating that the order, any provision of the order, or any obligation imposed in connection with the order is not in accordance with law and request a modification of the order or to be exempted therefrom. Such handler is afforded the opportunity for a hearing on the petition. After the hearing, USDA would rule on the petition. The Act provides that the district court of the United States in any district in which the handler is an inhabitant, or has his or her principal place of business, has jurisdiction to review USDA's ruling on the petition, provided an action is filed not later than 20 days after the date of the entry of the ruling.
This rule increases the assessment rate for the 2016-2017 and subsequent fiscal periods from $0.15 to $0.25 per ton of Washington cherries handled.
The order provides authority for the Committee, with the approval of USDA, to formulate an annual budget of expenses and collect assessments from handlers to administer the program. The members of the Committee are growers and handlers of Washington cherries. They are familiar with the Committee's needs, and with the costs for goods and services in their local area, and are thus in a position to formulate an appropriate budget and assessment rate. The assessment rate is formulated and discussed in a public meeting. Thus, all directly affected persons have an opportunity to participate and provide input.
For the 2013-2014 and subsequent fiscal periods, the Committee recommended, and the USDA approved, an assessment rate of $0.15 per ton of Washington cherries that would continue in effect from fiscal period to fiscal period unless modified, suspended, or terminated by USDA upon recommendation and information submitted by the Committee or other information available to USDA.
The Committee met on May 18, 2016, and unanimously recommended expenditures of $57,150 for the 2016-2017 fiscal period. In comparison, the previous fiscal period's budgeted expenditures were $59,750. The Committee also unanimously recommended an assessment rate of $0.25 per ton of Washington cherries. The recommended assessment rate of $0.25 is $0.10 higher than the rate currently in effect.
The expenditures recommended by the Committee for the 2016-2017 fiscal period include $25,000 for the management fee; $7,000 for compliance; $5,000 for the data management fee; $5,000 for accounting administration; $5,000 for research; $4,000 for Committee travel; $3,000 for an audit; and $3,150 for other miscellaneous expenses. In comparison, expenditures for the 2015-2016 fiscal period were $25,000 for the management fee; $7,000 for compliance; $5,000 for the data management fee; $7,000 for accounting administration; $5,000 for research; $4,000 for Committee travel; $4,000 for an audit; and $2,750 for other miscellaneous expenses.
Committee members estimated the 2016 fresh cherry production to be approximately 150,000 tons, which would be less than the 2015 production of 165,358 tons by 15,358 tons. However, cherry production tends to fluctuate due to the effects of weather, pollination, and tree health. The Committee's recommended assessment rate was derived by dividing the 2016-2017 anticipated expenses by the expected shipments of Washington cherries, while also taking into account the Committee's monetary reserve. The recommended assessment rate of $0.25 per ton, when multiplied by the 150,000 tons of estimated 2016 Washington cherry shipments, is expected to generate $37,500 in handler assessments. The projected revenue from handler assessments, together with funds from the Committee's monetary reserve, should be adequate to cover the 2016-2017 budgeted expenses of $57,150. The Committee expects its monetary reserve to decrease from $49,661 at the beginning of the 2016-2017 fiscal period to approximately $30,011 at the end of the 2016-2017 fiscal period. That amount will be within the provisions of the order and will provide the Committee with greater ability to absorb fluctuations in assessment income and expenses into the future.
The assessment rate established in this rule will continue in effect indefinitely unless modified, suspended, or terminated by USDA
Although this assessment rate will be in effect for an indefinite period, the Committee will continue to meet prior to or during each fiscal period to recommend a budget of expenses and consider recommendations for modification of the assessment rate. The dates and times of Committee meetings are available from the Committee and USDA. Committee meetings are open to the public and interested persons may express their views at these meetings. USDA will evaluate Committee recommendations and other available information to determine whether modification of the assessment rate is needed. Further rulemaking will be undertaken as necessary. The Committee's 2016-2017 budget and those for subsequent fiscal periods will be reviewed and, as appropriate, approved by USDA.
Pursuant to requirements set forth in the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) (5 U.S.C. 601-612), the Agricultural Marketing Service (AMS) has considered the economic impact of this rule on small entities. Accordingly, AMS has prepared this final regulatory flexibility analysis.
The purpose of the RFA is to fit regulatory actions to the scale of businesses subject to such actions in order that small businesses will not be unduly or disproportionately burdened. Marketing orders issued pursuant to the Act, and the rules issued thereunder, are unique in that they are brought about through group action of essentially small entities acting on their own behalf.
There are 53 handlers of Washington sweet cherries subject to regulation under the order and approximately 1,500 growers in the regulated production area. Small agricultural service firms are defined by the Small Business Administration (13 CFR 121.201) as those having annual receipts of less than $7,500,000, and small agricultural growers are defined as those having annual receipts of less than $750,000.
National Agricultural Statistics Service has prepared a preliminary report for the 2015 shipping season showing that prices for the 171,600 tons of sweet cherries that entered the fresh market averaged $2,380 per ton. Based on the number of growers in the production area (1,500), the average grower revenue from the sale of sweet cherries in 2015 can therefore be estimated at approximately $272,272 per year. In addition, the Committee reports that most of the industry's 53 handlers reported gross receipts of less than $7,500,000 from the sale of fresh sweet cherries last fiscal period. Thus, the majority of growers and handlers of Washington sweet cherries may be classified as small entities.
This action increases the assessment rate established for the Committee and collected from handlers for the 2016-2017 and subsequent fiscal periods from $0.15 to $0.25 per ton of Washington cherries handled. The Committee unanimously recommended 2016-2017 expenditures of $57,150 and an assessment rate of $0.25 per ton. The assessment rate of $0.25 is $0.10 higher than the rate established for the 2013-2014 fiscal period.
The 2016-2017 Washington cherry crop is estimated at 150,000 tons. At the $0.25 per ton assessment rate, the Committee anticipates that assessment income of approximately $37,500, along with reserve funds, should be adequate to cover budgeted expenses for the 2016-2017 fiscal period. With the increased assessment rate and budgeted expense level, the Committee anticipates that $19,650 will need to be deducted from the monetary reserve. As such, reserve funds are estimated to be at $30,011 on March 31, 2017. That reserve level is within the maximum permitted by the order of approximately one fiscal period's operational expenses (§ 923.42(a)(2)).
The expenditures recommended by the Committee for the 2016-2017 fiscal period include $25,000 for the management fee; $7,000 for compliance; $5,000 for the data management fee; $5,000 for accounting administration; $5,000 for research; $4,000 for Committee travel; $3,000 for the audit; and $3,150 for other miscellaneous expenses.
In comparison, expenditures for the 2015-2016 fiscal period were $25,000 for the management fee; $7,000 for compliance; $5,000 for the data management fee; $7,000 for accounting administration; $5,000 for research; $4,000 for Committee travel; $4,000 for the audit; and $2,750 for other miscellaneous expenses.
The Committee discussed alternatives to this action, including recommending alternative expenditure levels and assessment rates. Although lower assessment rates were considered, none were selected because they would not have generated sufficient income to administer the order.
A review of historical data and preliminary information pertaining to the upcoming fiscal period indicates that the grower price for the 2016-2017 fiscal period could average $2,380 per ton of sweet cherries. Therefore, the estimated assessment revenue for the 2016-2017 fiscal period, as a percentage of total grower revenue, is approximately 0.01 percent.
This action increases the assessment obligation imposed on handlers. While assessments impose some additional costs on handlers, the costs are minimal and uniform on all handlers. Some of the additional costs may be passed on to growers. However, these costs are offset by the benefits derived by the operation of the order.
In addition, the Committee's meeting was widely publicized throughout the Washington cherry industry and all interested persons were invited to attend the meeting and participate in Committee deliberations on all issues. Like all Committee meetings, the May 18, 2016, meeting was a public meeting and all entities, both large and small, were able to express views on this issue.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35), the order's information collection requirements have been previously approved by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) and assigned OMB No. 0581-0189 (Marketing Orders for Fruit Crops). No changes in those requirements are necessary as a result of this action. Should any changes become necessary, they would be submitted to OMB for approval.
This rule imposes no additional reporting or recordkeeping requirements on either small or large Washington cherry handlers. As with all Federal marketing order programs, reports and forms are periodically reviewed to reduce information requirements and duplication by industry and public sector agencies. As noted in the initial regulatory flexibility analysis, USDA has not identified any relevant Federal rules that duplicate, overlap, or conflict with this final rule.
AMS is committed to complying with the E-Government Act, to promote the use of the internet and other information technologies to provide increased opportunities for citizen access to Government information and services, and for other purposes.
A proposed rule concerning this action was published in the
One comment was received during the comment period in response to the proposal. The commenter was concerned about the impact that the increased assessment rate would have on growers. The commenter also questioned why the assessment is only applied to certain counties in Washington, and not others. In addition, the commenter stated that the opinions of sweet cherry growers and handlers should be taken into consideration when establishing assessment rates, and that there should be flexibility during the transitional period when a new assessment rate is implemented. Lastly, the commenter offered recommendations with regards to the assessment rate establishment process and took exception to the indefinite period that assessment rates are in effect.
Under the order, it is handlers that are assessed, not growers. As such, growers will not be directly impacted by this action. However, as mentioned previously in this rule, some of the additional costs to handlers as a result of this action may be passed on to growers. Nevertheless, USDA believes that such additional costs will be offset by the benefits derived by the operation of the order.
Furthermore, the commenter's request for clarity with regards to why only certain counties are covered by this regulatory change is addressed in the order's provisions. Section 923.4 defines the order's production area as the counties of Okanogan, Chelan, Kittitas, Yakima, Klickitat in the State of Washington and all of the counties in Washington lying east thereof. Only handlers who handle cherries grown within the specific production area are subject to assessment.
Lastly, the commenter's thoughts regarding the assessment rate establishment process and effective period have been previously addressed in this rule. The Committee meets prior to, or during, each fiscal period to recommend a budget of expenses and consider recommendations for modification of the assessment rate. The dates and times of Committee meetings are available from the Committee or USDA. Committee meetings are open to the public and interested persons may express their views at these meetings.
Meetings are widely publicized throughout the Washington cherry industry and all interested persons are invited to attend the meetings and participate in Committee deliberations on all issues. In addition, interested persons are invited to submit comments on any proposed assessment rules. All comments are considered prior to finalization of a proposed rule. Once established, assessment rates remain in effect until modified by USDA upon the recommendation of the Committee.
Accordingly, no changes will be made to the rule as proposed, based on the comment received.
A small business guide on complying with fruit, vegetable, and specialty crop marketing agreements and orders may be viewed at:
After consideration of all relevant material presented, including the information and recommendation submitted by the Committee and other available information, it is hereby found that this rule, as hereinafter set forth, will tend to effectuate the declared policy of the Act.
Pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 553, it also found and determined that good cause exists for not postponing the effective date of this rule until 30 days after publication in the
Cherries, Marketing agreements, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
For the reasons set forth in the preamble, 7 CFR part 923 is amended as follows:
7 U.S.C. 601-674.
On and after April 1, 2016, an assessment rate of $0.25 per ton is established for the Washington Cherry Marketing Committee.
Agricultural Marketing Service, USDA.
Final rule.
This rule implements a recommendation from the Almond Board of California (Board) for an increase of the assessment rate established for the 2016-17 through the 2018-19 crop years from $0.03 to $0.04 per pound of almonds handled under the marketing order (order). Of the $0.04 per pound assessment, 60 percent (or $0.024 per pound) is available as credit-back for handlers who conduct their own promotional activities. The assessment rate will return to $0.03 for the 2019-20 and subsequent crop years, and the amount available for handler credit-back will return to $0.018 per pound (60 percent). The Board locally administers the order and is comprised of growers and handlers of almonds grown in California. Assessments upon almond handlers are used by the Board to fund reasonable and necessary expenses of the program. The crop year began on August 1 and ends on July 31. The $0.04 assessment rate will remain in effect until July 31, 2019. Beginning August 1, 2019, the assessment rate will return to $0.03 and will remain in effect indefinitely unless modified, suspended, or terminated. Two comments period were provided to interested individuals. Comments will be addressed later in this document.
Effective December 21, 2016.
Marketing Specialist Andrea Ricci, or Regional Director Jeffrey Smutny, California Marketing Field Office, Marketing Order and Agreement Division, Specialty Crops Program,
Small businesses may request information on complying with this regulation by contacting Richard Lower, Marketing Order and Agreement Division, Specialty Crops Program, AMS, USDA, 1400 Independence Avenue SW., STOP 0237, Washington, DC 20250-0237; Telephone: (202) 720-2491, Fax: (202) 720-8938, or Email:
This rule is issued under Marketing Order No. 981, as amended (7 CFR part 981), regulating the handling of almonds grown in California, hereinafter referred to as the “order.” The order is effective under the Agricultural Marketing Agreement Act of 1937, as amended (7 U.S.C. 601-674), hereinafter referred to as the “Act.”
The Department of Agriculture (USDA) is issuing this rule in conformance with Executive Orders 12866, 13563, and 13175.
This rule has been reviewed under Executive Order 12988, Civil Justice Reform. Under the marketing order now in effect, California almond handlers are subject to assessments. Funds to administer the order are derived from such assessments. It is intended that the assessment rate as issued herein will be applicable to all assessable almonds beginning on August 1, 2016, through July 31, 2019. Beginning August 1, 2019, the assessment rate will return to $0.03 and will remain in effect indefinitely unless modified, suspended, or terminated.
The Act provides that administrative proceedings must be exhausted before parties may file suit in court. Under section 608c(15)(A) of the Act, any handler subject to an order may file with USDA a petition stating that the order, any provision of the order, or any obligation imposed in connection with the order is not in accordance with law and request a modification of the order or to be exempted therefrom. Such handler is afforded the opportunity for a hearing on the petition. After the hearing, USDA would rule on the petition. The Act provides that the district court of the United States in any district in which the handler is an inhabitant, or has his or her principal place of business, has jurisdiction to review USDA's ruling on the petition, provided an action is filed not later than 20 days after the date of the entry of the ruling.
This rule increases the assessment rate established for the Board for the 2016-17 through 2018-19 crop years from $0.03 to $0.04 per pound of almonds received. Of the $0.04 per pound assessment, 60 percent (or $0.024 per pound) is available as credit-back for handlers who conduct their own promotional activities. The assessment rate will return to $0.03 for the 2019-20 and subsequent crop years, and the amount available for handler credit-back will return to $0.018 per pound (60 percent).
The California almond marketing order provides authority for the Board, with the approval of USDA, to formulate an annual budget of expenses and collect assessments from handlers to administer the program. The members of the Board are growers and handlers of California almonds. They are familiar with the Board's needs and with the costs for goods and services in their local area and thus are in a position to formulate an appropriate budget and assessment rate. The assessment rate is formulated and discussed in a public meeting. Therefore, all directly affected persons have an opportunity to participate and provide input.
For the 2005-06 and subsequent crop years, the Board recommended, and USDA approved, an assessment rate of $0.03 per pound that would continue in effect from crop year to crop year unless modified, suspended, or terminated by USDA upon recommendation and information submitted by the Board or other information available to USDA. Of the $0.03 per pound assessment, 60 percent ($0.018) per pound was made available as credit-back for handlers who conducted their own promotional activities.
The Board met on April 12, 2016, and unanimously recommended 2016-17 expenditures of $69,897,626 and an assessment rate of $0.04 per pound of almonds received. In comparison, last year's budgeted expenditures were $58,998,976. The assessment rate of $0.04 is $0.01 higher than the rate currently in effect, and the credit-back portion of the assessment rate ($0.024 per pound) is $0.006 more than the credit-back portion currently in effect.
The Board estimates a production increase of thirty percent, or 600 million pounds, by the 2019-20 crop year. This increase is nearly as much as is consumed by the industry's largest market. Due to the size of the increase in forecasted production, the Board believes that increased market development projects and new marketing programs are required to successfully market the additional supply. Accordingly, the Board has recommended a new “Nut of Choice” marketing program.
The Board also anticipates needing additional funding for the industry's new “Crop of Choice” research program, as well as additional research to address concerns such as changing water supply and quality systems; air quality and how it relates to harvesting, pesticide, and energy use; and bee health.
The three-year higher assessment rate is needed to fund the increase in marketing and research activities. The Board anticipates that by the 2019-20 crop year, the increase in production assessed at the reinstated $0.03 per pound rate should generate sufficient revenue to cover the anticipated expenditures at that time. Therefore, beginning August 1, 2019, the assessment rate will return to $0.03 per pound.
The following table compares major budget expenditures recommended by the Board for the 2015-16 and 2016-17 crop years:
The assessment rate recommended by the Board was derived by considering the anticipated 30-percent production increase in the next three years, anticipated expenditures plus additional program expenses, current production level, and maintaining adequate operating reserve funds. In its recommendation, the Board utilized an estimate of 1,835,290,000 pounds of assessable almonds for the 2016-17 crop year. If realized, this should provide estimated assessment revenue of $62,262,213, which reflects credit-back reimbursements and organic exemptions. In addition, it is anticipated that $20,907,722 will be provided by other sources, including interest income, Market Access Program (MAP) funds, and operating reserve funds. When combined, revenue from these sources should be adequate to cover budgeted expenses.
Section 981.81 of the order authorizes the Board to maintain operating reserve funds consisting of an administrative-research portion and a marketing promotion portion, and states that the amount allocated to each portion shall not exceed six months' budgeted expenses for that activity area. Funds in the reserve at the end of the 2016-17 crop year are estimated to be approximately $16,581,222, well within the amount permitted by the order.
A proposed rule concerning this action was published in the
The assessment rate established in this rule will continue in effect until July 31, 2019. Beginning August 1, 2019, the assessment rate will return to $0.03 and will continue in effect indefinitely unless modified, suspended, or terminated by USDA upon recommendation and information submitted by the Board or other available information.
Although this assessment rate will be in effect for a specified period, the Board will continue to meet prior to or during each crop year to recommend a budget of expenses and consider recommendations for modification of the assessment rate. The dates and times of Board meetings are available from the Board or USDA. Board meetings are open to the public, and interested persons may express their views at these meetings. USDA would evaluate Board recommendations and other available information to determine whether modification of the assessment rate is needed. Further rulemaking would be undertaken as necessary. The Board's 2016-17 budget and those for subsequent crop years would be reviewed and, as appropriate, approved by USDA.
Pursuant to requirements set forth in the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) (5 U.S.C. 601-612), the Agricultural Marketing Service (AMS) has considered the economic impact of this rule on small entities. Accordingly, AMS has prepared this final regulatory flexibility analysis.
The purpose of the RFA is to fit regulatory actions to the scale of businesses subject to such actions in order that small businesses will not be unduly or disproportionately burdened. Marketing orders issued pursuant to the Act, and the rules issued thereunder, are unique in that they are brought about through group action of essentially small entities acting on their own behalf.
There are approximately 6,800 almond growers in the production area and approximately 100 handlers subject to regulation under the marketing order. Small agricultural producers are defined by the Small Business Administration (SBA) as those having annual receipts of less than $750,000, and small agricultural service firms are defined as those whose annual receipts are less than $7,500,000 (13 CFR 121.201).
The National Agricultural Statistics Service (NASS) reported in its 2012 Agricultural Census that there were 6,841 almond farms in the production area (California), of which 6,204 had bearing acres. The following computation provides an estimate of the proportion of producers (farms) and agricultural service firms (handlers) that would be considered small under the SBA definitions.
The NASS Census data indicates that out of the 6,204 California farms with bearing acres of almonds, 4,471 (72 percent) have fewer than 100-bearing acres.
In its most recently reported crop year (2015), NASS reported an average yield of 2,130 pounds per acre and a season average grower price of $2.84 per pound. A 100-acre farm with an average yield of 2,130 pounds per acre would produce about 213,000 pounds of almonds. At $2.84 per pound, that farm's production would be valued at $604,920.
Because the Census of Agriculture indicates that the majority of California's almond farms are smaller than 100 acres, it could be concluded that the majority of growers had annual receipts from the sale of almonds in 2015 of less than $604,920, well below the SBA threshold of $750,000. Thus, over 70 percent of California's almond growers would be considered small growers according to SBA's definition.
According to information supplied by the Board, approximately 30 percent of California's almond handlers shipped almonds valued under $7,500,000 during the 2014-15 crop year and would therefore be considered small handlers according to the SBA definition.
This rule increases the assessment rate collected from handlers for the 2016-17 through the 2018-19 crop years from $0.03 to $0.04 per pound of almonds received. Of the $0.04 per pound assessment, 60 percent (or $0.024 per pound) is available as credit-back for handlers who conduct their own promotional activities, consistent with § 981.441 of the order's regulations and subject to Board approval. The Board unanimously recommended 2016-17 expenditures of $69,897,626 and an assessment rate of $0.04 per pound of almonds received. The assessment rate of $0.04 is $0.01 higher than the 2015-16 rate, and the credit-back portion of $0.024 per pound is $0.006 higher than the current credit-back portion of $0.018. The quantity of assessable almonds for the 2016-17 crop year is estimated at 1,835,290,000 pounds. This should provide estimated assessment revenue of $62,262,213, which reflects credit-back reimbursements and organic exemptions. In addition, it is anticipated that $20,907,722 will be provided by other sources, including interest income, MAP funds, and operating reserve funds. When combined, revenue from these sources should be adequate to cover budgeted expenses.
The major expenditures recommended by the Board for the 2016-17 crop year include $8,404,000 for Operations Expenses, $1,000,000 for Board AIM Initiatives, $5,625,000 for Crop of Choice Initiatives, $2,000,000 for Reputation Management, $1,843,331 for Production Research, $1,039,790 for Environmental Research, $1,640,000 for Scientific Affairs/Nutrition, $38,583,756 for Global Market Development, $5,100,000 for Nut of Choice Initiatives, $1,045,500 for Technical & Regulatory Affairs, $2,436,220 for Industry
Budgeted expenses for these items in 2015-16 were $7,904,000 for Operations Expenses, $1,500,000 for Board AIM Initiatives, $0 for Crop of Choice Initiatives, $1,826,350 for Reputation Management, $1,843,331 for Production Research, $1,039,790 for Environmental Research, $1,640,000 for Scientific Affairs/Nutrition, $38,583,756 for Global Market Development, $0 for Nut of Choice Initiatives, $1,045,500 for Technical & Regulatory Affairs, $2,436,220 for Industry Services, $790,800 for Almond Quality & Food Safety, and $389,229 for Corporate Technology.
The Board estimates a production increase of 30 percent, or 600 million pounds, by the 2019-20 crop year. This increase is nearly as large as the current consumption of the industry's largest market. Increased market development investment as well as new marketing programs will be required to successfully market the additional supply. Additional investment in research is also needed to address concerns such as changing water supply and quality systems; air quality and how it relates to harvesting, pesticide, and energy use; and bee health. Accordingly, the three-year higher assessment rate is needed to fund the Board's new Nut of Choice marketing program and Crop of Choice research activities. The Board anticipates that by the 2019-20 crop year, the increased production assessed at the reinstated $0.03 per pound rate should generate sufficient revenue to cover the anticipated expenditures at that time.
Prior to arriving at this budget and assessment rate, the Board held a strategic planning session in February 2016. The Board also considered recommendations made from its various committees, including the Global Market Development Committee, Production Research Committee, and Environmental Committee. Alternative expenditure levels were discussed, based upon the relative value of various activities to the almond industry. Ultimately, the Board unanimously determined that 2016-17 expenditures of $69,897,626 were appropriate and that the recommended assessment rate, plus income from other sources and operation reverse funds, would generate sufficient revenue to meet its expenses.
A review of historical information and preliminary information pertaining to the upcoming crop year indicates that the grower price for the 2016-17 season could range between $4.00 and $2.84 per pound of almonds. Therefore, the estimated assessment revenue for the 2016-17 crop year (disregarding any amounts credited pursuant to § 981.41 and § 981.441) as a percentage of total grower revenue could range between 1.00 and 1.41 percent, respectively.
This action increases the assessment obligation imposed on handlers. While assessments impose some additional costs on handlers, the costs are minimal and uniform on all handlers. Some of the additional costs may be passed on to growers. However, these costs would be offset by the benefits derived by the operation of the marketing order. In addition, the Board's meeting was widely publicized throughout the California almond industry, and all interested persons were invited to attend the meeting and participate in Board deliberations on all issues. Like all Board meetings, the April 12, 2016, meeting was a public meeting, and all entities, both large and small, were able to express views on this issue.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35), the order's information collection requirements have been previously approved by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) and assigned OMB No. 0581-0178 (Vegetable and Specialty Crops.) No changes in those requirements as a result of this action are necessary. Should any changes become necessary, they would be submitted to OMB for approval.
This rule imposes no additional reporting or recordkeeping requirements on either small or large California almond handlers. As with all Federal marketing order programs, reports and forms are periodically reviewed to reduce information requirements and duplication by industry and public sector agencies.
AMS is committed to complying with the E-Government Act, to promote the use of the internet and other information technologies to provide increased opportunities for citizen access to Government information and services, and for other purposes.
As previously noted, a proposed rule concerning this action was published providing a 15-day comment period for interested persons to respond to the proposal. In addition, on September 12, 2016, the comment period was reopened for an additional 30 days. Copies of the proposed rule were provided to all almond handlers. Finally, the proposal was made available through the internet by USDA and the Office of the Federal Register. A total of forty-six comments were received. Twenty-eight supported and eighteen opposed the proposal. Of the eighteen in opposition, three were grower/handlers, eleven were growers, two individuals were from outside of the production area, and two individuals did not identify themselves.
Of those who supported the proposal, twenty-three were growers.
The majority of the commenters in support of the proposal stated that increasing the assessment rate now was necessary to fund market development programs and new marketing and promotion activities to create demand prior to the onset of the increased production. Commenters noted that the industry is aware of the increasing almond acreage and the need to invest prior to the larger crop materializing. The commenters also noted that the three-year “sunset” feature will ensure that once the additional 30 percent increase in production is realized, the assessment rate will return to the current $0.03 rate. One commenter noted the need to develop demand for the increased supplies to ensure the carry-over inventory is kept near zero each year, which will help stabilize prices at the grower level and negate the effect of the increased assessment. Another commenter noted that the recent volatility in almond prices illustrates how critically important it is to make investments now. Several commenters stated the Board has had proven success in the areas of marketing and promotion; nutrition, environmental, and production research; and grower outreach; and they are pleased overall with the work of the Board. Commenters also expressed the need for continued investment in research, specifically in areas that will provide resources for growers to continue to remain profitable in the face of continued challenges. One commenter stated that programs such as the almond order are a good example of a public/private partnership which has worked for the consumer, farmer, and food safety while expanding markets around the world.
The majority of commenters in opposition of the proposal stated the increase of production over the next several years should generate adequate income to fund Board programs. In the development of the budget, the Board contemplated the production forecast of a 30 percent increase in the next three years. The Board anticipates the 2016-17 crop year production at 1.835 billion pounds, 2017-18 crop year production at 2.184 billion pounds, 2018-19 crop year production at 2.277 billion pounds, and 2019-20 crop year production at 2.354 billion pounds. The Board discussed the need to build demand before this increased production is realized. The Board strongly believes
In its discussion, the Board also considered the time and resources needed to develop new marketing and promotion programs. The Global Market Demand Committee developed a comprehensive marketing plan, which includes the Nut of Choice program. The plan encompasses expanding the Germany and Japan markets by increasing funding in order to increase impressions; accelerating momentum by increasing budgets and impressions for the U.S./Canada, France, United Kingdom, India, and South Korea markets; maintaining budget levels in the China market and Global Initiative; and allocating spending for one to two additional exploratory markets (
Additionally, several commenters stated that for growers, with the decline in prices and the rising production costs, it is difficult to remain profitable. The Board has had considerable strategic discussions about the continued challenges facing growers, including rising production costs, water availability, and regulatory impacts, and ways to address the issues. As a result, a substantial portion of the revenue generated by the increased assessment rate is designated for research. More specifically, the newly established nine capabilities of the Crop of Choice Program will fund research at a level of $5.625 million. Areas of focus include Irrigation and Nutrients; Orchard, Tree, Rootstock; Harvesting; Value-Added Orchard Utilization; Soil Health Management; Pest Management; Food Safety; Pollination; Energy; and the Sustainability Program update and outreach. This investment is intended to develop new and innovative techniques to help the almond industry continue to remain profitable. In addition, the increased investment in market development and new marketing programs is intended to create demand to absorb the anticipated increase in production. In turn, these activities should stabilize prices.
Three commenters raised concern that only 23 percent of the additional funding generated is allocated to direct marketing. The commenters further stated that if at least 80 percent of the additional funding was not allocated to direct marketing and promotion activities, they were opposed to the increase. The Board utilizes a comprehensive strategy that includes a balanced approach for research and marketing and promotion activities to sustain and develop market outlets. The Board-funded research plays an integral part in supporting the almond industry, which continues to face new challenges as the landscape of agriculture changes. The Board triennially holds strategic planning retreats to develop tactics that directly address the needs of the almond industry as well as ever-changing market demands. The Board recommends a budget each year utilizing recommendations made by each Committee. Committees are comprised of industry members and meet regularly to deliberate and prioritize programs. Marketing and promotion has been set as a priority, and recommendations have been made to increase spending. Along with the marketing activities, the Board has a robust research program. Nutrition, production, environmental, and food safety research has been utilized by the marketing programs to better position almonds in the marketplace. Specifically, in the past several years with the drought in California, the almond industry came under media fire for its water use. Through the research programs funded by the Board, the marketing team was able to provide data regarding almonds and water use. This research was pivotal in transitioning the conversation from negative to neutral or positive. Additionally, almonds have a qualified heart-healthy claim, which can be directly linked to the research funded as part of the nutrition research program. The almond industry's ability to utilize the heart-health claim is a vital part of the marketing program. Further, the Board is celebrating the tenth year of its California Almond Sustainability Program. As consumer demand continues to shift towards products that are sustainable, the Sustainability Program has been a great resource to the marketing program to provide data regarding the sustainability of the almond industry. The research and marketing and promotion activities work interdependently, ensuring the viability of the industry.
Two commenters stated an assessment rate increase should be approved by growers prior to implementation. Two of the commenters questioned the outreach to the growing community, stating growers should have a larger role in the discussion. One of the commenters requested a grower referendum prior to implementation of an assessment rate change. All Board and Committee meetings are open to the public, allowing directly affected persons and other interested parties an opportunity to participate and provide input. On April 14, 2016, the Board sent a memo to almond handlers and growers as part of its mailer, providing notice of the Board's unanimous recommendation to increase the assessment rate. The Board also included an article regarding the recommendation in the April California Almonds Outlook e-newsletter. In addition, two comment periods were provided, which gave interested parties the opportunity to comment on the recommended proposal. The Board included notice of the comment periods in its industry e-newsletters, on its Web site (specifically, on the grower site), on its social media platforms, and announced this information at its Committee and Board meetings. Notices of the comment periods were also made available on the USDA Web site. In response to the request to hold a grower referendum, under the California almond marketing order, referenda are conducted every five years to ascertain whether continuation of the order is favored by growers. The last continuance referendum was held in 2014, and results indicated continued
One commenter raised concern that the additional funding will be used to increase the size and salaries of the organization, which will lead to the continuation of increasing the assessment rate year after year. Also, the commenter expressed concerns about transparency and availability of financial information. The majority of the funds generated by the increased assessment are allotted to research programs and marketing and promotion activities. For the past several years, operating expenses have fluctuated between 12 percent and 15 percent of the total budget. In the recommended budget for the 2016-17 crop year, operating expenses are approximately 12 percent of the total budget. In addition, in its unanimous recommendation, the Board stipulated that the increased assessment rate continue only through the 2018-19 crop year. The assessment rate will revert to the current $0.03 rate beginning August 1, 2019. All Board and Committee meetings are open to the public. On a quarterly basis, the Board reviews and approves financial statements at its public meetings. Those documents are made available to the public, and interested persons are encouraged to participate in all meetings.
One commenter expressed concern about the order's credit-back program and that it is not advantageous to non-branded handlers. While credit-back is associated with the assessment rate, the Board did not discuss the program as part of this proposal. This rule does not modify the percentage rate available for handler credit-back.
One commenter raised concern that the Nut of Choice and Crop of Choice programs appear to be an effort to improve the image of almonds at the expense of other California commodities. USDA has a strict policy against any marketing order boards, committees, or councils disparaging other commodities. USDA reviews all marketing and communication materials prior to publication to ensure that policy is being followed.
Accordingly, no changes will be made to the rule as proposed, based on the comments received.
A small business guide on complying with fruit, vegetable, and specialty crop marketing agreements and orders may be viewed at:
After consideration of all relevant material presented, including the information and recommendation submitted by the Board and other available information, it is hereby found that this rule, as hereinafter set forth, will tend to effectuate the declared policy of the Act.
It is further found that good cause exists for not postponing the effective date of this rule until 30 days after publication in the
Almonds, Marketing agreements, Nuts, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
For the reasons set forth in the preamble, 7 CFR part 981 is amended as follows:
7 U.S.C. 601-674.
For the period August 1, 2016, through July 31, 2019, the assessment rate shall be $0.04 per pound for California almonds. Of the $0.04 assessment rate, 60 percent per assessable pound is available for handler credit-back. On and after August 1, 2019, an assessment rate of $0.03 per pound is established for California almonds. Of the $0.03 assessment rate, 60 percent per assessable pound is available for handler credit-back.
Agricultural Marketing Service, USDA.
Affirmation of interim rule as final rule.
The Department of Agriculture (USDA) is adopting, as a final rule, without change, an interim rule that implemented a recommendation from the California Date Administrative Committee (committee) to decrease the assessment rate established for the committee for the 2016-17 and subsequent crop years from $0.10 to $0.05 per hundredweight of dates handled under the marketing order (order). The committee locally administers the order and is comprised of producers and handlers of dates operating within the area of production. The interim rule was necessary to allow the committee to reduce its financial reserve while still providing adequate funding to meet program expenses.
Effective December 21, 2016.
Terry Vawter, Senior Marketing Specialist Jeffrey Smutny, Regional Director, California Marketing Field Office, Marketing Order and Agreement Division, Specialty Crops Program, AMS, USDA; Telephone: (559) 487-5901, Fax: (559) 487-5906, or Email:
Small businesses may obtain information on complying with this regulation by viewing a guide at the following Web site:
This rule is issued under Marketing Agreement and Order No. 987, both as amended (7 CFR part 987), regulating the handling of domestic dates produced or packed in Riverside County, California, hereinafter referred to as the “order.” The order is
The Department of Agriculture (USDA) is issuing this rule in conformance with Executive Orders 12866, 13563, and 13175.
Under the order, California date handlers are subject to assessments, which provide funds to administer the order. Assessment rates issued under the order are intended to be applicable to all assessable domestic dates produced or packed in Riverside County, California, for the entire crop year and continue indefinitely until amended, suspended, or terminated. The committee's crop year began October 1, 2016, and ends on September 30, 2017.
In an interim rule published in the
Pursuant to requirements set forth in the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) (5 U.S.C. 601-612), the Agricultural Marketing Service (AMS) has considered the economic impact of this rule on small entities. Accordingly, AMS has prepared this final regulatory flexibility analysis.
The purpose of the RFA is to fit regulatory actions to the scale of businesses subject to such actions in order that small businesses will not be unduly or disproportionately burdened. Marketing orders issued pursuant to the Act, and the rules issued thereunder, are unique in that they are brought about through group action of essentially small entities acting on their own behalf.
There are approximately 70 date producers in the production area, and 11 date handlers subject to regulation under the order. The Small Business Administration (SBA) defines small agricultural producers as those having annual receipts of less than $750,000 and small agricultural service firms as those whose annual receipts are less than $7,500,000 (13 CFR 121.201).
According to the National Agricultural Statistics Service (NASS), data for the most recently completed crop year (2015) shows that about 4.36 tons, or 8,720 pounds, of dates were produced per acre. The 2015 producer price published by NASS was $1,560 per ton. Thus, the value of date production per acre in 2014-15 averaged about $6,802 (4.36 tons times $1,560 per ton, rounded to the nearest dollar). At that average price, a producer would have to farm over 110 acres to receive an annual income from dates of $750,000 ($750,000 divided by $6,802 per acre equals 110.26 acres). According to committee staff, the majority of California date producers farm less than 110 acres. Thus, it can be concluded that the majority of date producers could be considered small entities.
In addition, according to data from the committee staff, the majority of California date handlers have receipts of less than $7,500,000 and may also be considered small entities under SBA's definition.
This rule continues in effect the action that decreased the assessment rate established for the committee and collected from handlers for the 2016-17 and subsequent crop years from $0.10 to $0.05 per hundredweight of dates. The committee unanimously recommended 2016-17 expenditures of $52,500 and an assessment rate of $0.05 per hundredweight of dates. The assessment rate of $0.05 is $0.05 lower than the rate previously in effect. Applying the $0.05 per hundredweight assessment rate to the committee's 29,000,000 pounds (290,000 hundredweight) crop estimate should provide $14,500 in assessment income. Thus, income derived from handler assessments, along with interest income and funds from the committee's monetary reserve, will be adequate to cover the budgeted expenses. This action will allow the committee to reduce its financial reserve while still providing adequate funding to meet program expenses.
This rule continues in effect the action that decreased the assessment obligation imposed on handlers. Assessments are applied uniformly on all handlers, and some of the costs may be passed on to producers. However, decreasing the assessment rate reduces the burden on handlers and may reduce the burden on producers.
In addition, the committee's meeting was widely publicized throughout the California date industry, and all interested persons were invited to attend the meeting and encouraged to participate in committee deliberations on all issues. Like all committee meetings, the June 22, 2016, meeting was a public meeting, and all entities, both large and small, were able to express views on this issue.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35), the order's information collection requirements have been previously approved by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) and assigned OMB No. 0581-0178, “Vegetable and Specialty Crops Marketing Orders.” No changes in those requirements as a result of this action are necessary. Should any changes become necessary, they would be submitted to OMB for approval.
This action imposes no additional reporting or recordkeeping requirements on either small or large California date handlers. As with all Federal marketing order programs, reports and forms are periodically reviewed to reduce information requirements and duplication by industry and public sector agencies.
USDA has not identified any relevant Federal rules that duplicate, overlap, or conflict with this rule.
Comments on the interim rule were required to be received on or before November 21, 2016. No comments were received. Therefore, for reasons given in the interim rule, we are adopting the interim rule as a final rule, without change.
To view the interim rule, go to:
This action also affirms information contained in the interim rule concerning Executive Orders 12866, 12988, 13175, and 13563; the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35); and the E-Gov Act (44 U.S.C. 101).
After consideration of all relevant material presented, it is found that finalizing the interim rule, without change, as published in the
Dates, Marketing agreements, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Grain Inspection, Packers and Stockyards Administration, USDA.
Interim final rule; request for comments.
The Department of Agriculture's (USDA) Grain Inspection, Packers and Stockyards Administration (GIPSA), Packers and Stockyards Program (P&SP) is amending the regulations issued under the Packers and Stockyards Act, 1921, as amended and supplemented (P&S Act). GIPSA is adding a paragraph addressing the scope of sections 202(a) and (b) of the P&S Act. This interim final rule clarifies that conduct or action may violate sections 202(a) and (b) of the P&S Act without adversely affecting, or having a likelihood of adversely affecting, competition. This interim final rule reiterates USDA's longstanding interpretation that not all violations of the P&S Act require a showing of harm or likely harm to competition. The regulations would specifically provide that the scope of section 202(a) and (b) encompasses conduct or action that, depending on their nature and the circumstances, can be found to violate the P&S Act without a finding of harm or likely harm to competition. This interim final rule finalizes a proposed amendment that GIPSA published on June 22, 2010. GIPSA is now publishing as an interim final rule what was proposed on June 22, 2010, with slight modifications, in order to allow additional comment on these provisions.
This interim final rule is February 21, 2017. Interested persons are invited to submit written comments on this interim final rule on or before February 21, 2017.
We invite you to submit comments on this interim final rule. You may submit comments by any of the following methods:
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S. Brett Offutt, Director, Litigation and Economic Analysis Division, P&SP, GIPSA, 1400 Independence Ave, SW., Washington, DC 20250, (202) 720-7051,
The first section that follows provides background and a summary of the regulatory text for § 201.3(a) and (b) in this interim final rule as compared to the regulatory wording for § 201.3(c) and (d) in the 2010 proposed rule. The second section provides background information about this rule. The third section provides a summary of the public comments received on the proposed rule and at the relevant USDA/Department of Justice Joint Competition Workshops that occurred during the comment period. The fourth section discusses the proposal of new §§ 201.210, 201.211, and 201.214, in this issue of the
In the proposed rule published in the
In this current rule, GIPSA is re-designating the existing undesignated paragraph in § 201.3 as § 201.3(b), and is adding back the subject heading, “Effective dates” to this paragraph.
GIPSA is amending § 201.3 with the addition of proposed § 201.3(c), with slight modifications. Because this provision is of primary importance, GIPSA is designating it as the first of two paragraphs in § 201.3 and changing its designation from (c) to (a). GIPSA has made slight modifications including a grammatical edit and also modified a few words to make the language internally consistent and also consistent with the language in new proposed §§ 201.210, 201.211, and 201.214, published concurrently in this issue of the
Prior to issuing the initial proposed regulations in 2010, GIPSA held three public meetings in October 2008, in Arkansas, Iowa, and Georgia to gather comments, information, and recommendations from interested parties. Attendees at these meetings were asked to give input on the elements of the 2008 Farm Bill and other issues of concern under the P&S Act. In 2010, USDA and the Department of Justice held five joint public workshops to explore competition issues affecting agricultural industries in the 21st century and the appropriate role for antitrust and regulatory enforcement in those industries. These workshops were held in Ankeny, Iowa (Issues of Concern to Farmers, March 12, 2010); Normal, Alabama (Poultry Industry, May 21, 2010); Madison, Wisconsin (Dairy Industry, June 25, 2010); Fort Collins, Colorado (Livestock Industry, August 27, 2010); and Washington, District of Columbia (Margins, December 8, 2010). The Secretary informed attendees of the workshop in Fort Collins, Colorado that their comments provided that day would be considered in the development of this rulemaking. The Fort Collins workshop addressed issues in the cattle, hog, and other animal
The regulations in this current interim final rule also reflect comments, information, and recommendations received in all those meetings.
On June 22, 2010, GIPSA published the proposed rule [75 FR 35338] upon which this interim final rule is based. The background information presented in the proposed rule remains pertinent to this interim final rule. Some of this background information is presented again here.
In that proposed rule, GIPSA proposed a multi-faceted rule and sought public input. During a 5-month comment period, GIPSA received over 61,000 comments from a wide variety of stakeholders. Some commenters addressed issues associated with this interim final rule. GIPSA published a final rule in 2011 that included modifications to address concerns expressed by commenters. The final rule addressed most, but not all, of the requirements of the Food, Conservation, and Energy Act of 2008 (Pub. L. 110-246) (2008 Farm Bill); however, for the reasons described in further detail below, GIPSA never implemented a final § 201.3(c) following the 2010 public notice and comment period. The 2010 proposed rule also proposed three other regulations, §§ 201.210, 201.211, and 201.214, that GIPSA has restructured and rewritten and is publishing as two separate proposed rules concurrent with this rule. Proposed § 201.210, “Unfair, unjustly discriminatory and deceptive practices or devices by packers, swine contractors, or live poultry dealers,” and § 201.211, “Undue or unreasonable preferences or advantages” further clarify and define the provisions of § 201.3(a). Proposed § 201.214, “Poultry Grower Ranking Systems” provides criteria which would be used in considering whether a live poultry dealer has used a poultry grower ranking system in an unfair, unjustly discriminatory, or deceptive manner or in a way that gives an undue or unreasonable preference or advantage to any poultry grower or subjects any poultry grower to an undue or unreasonable prejudice or disadvantage.
Beginning with the fiscal year (FY) 2012 appropriations act, USDA was precluded from finalizing some of the regulations as proposed in June 2010. Section 201.3(c), “Scope of Sections 202(a) and (b) of the Act,” §§ 201.210, 201.211, and 201.214, published as part of the June 22, 2010, proposed rule, were included in the restrictions in the appropriations acts. Until FY 2016, appropriations acts continued to preclude the finalization of §§ 201.3(c), 201.210, 201.211, and 201.214.
Section 201.3(a), “Applicability to live poultry dealers,” and § 201.3(d), “Effective dates,” proposed in June 2010, were published on December 9, 2011 [76 FR 76874], as a final rule with some changes. At that time, the designation of proposed paragraph (d) was changed to (b).
Section 731, Division A, of the Consolidated and Further Continuing Appropriations Act, 2015 (Pub. L. 113-235), required the Secretary to rescind what was then § 201.3(a), “Applicability to live poultry dealers,” leaving paragraph (b) as the only paragraph in § 201.3. As a result, GIPSA removed the designation for this paragraph as paragraph (b) and also removed its subject heading, “Effective dates.” This was accomplished by a final rule published on February 5, 2015 [80 FR 6430].
Neither the FY 2016 appropriations act nor the FY 2017 continuing appropriations act precludes GIPSA from publishing §§ 201.3(c), 201.210, 201.211, or 201.214 as final rules.
Section 202 of the P&S Act provides that “[i]t shall be unlawful for any packer or swine contractor with respect to livestock, meats, meat food products, or livestock products in unmanufactured form, or for any live poultry dealer with respect to live poultry” to engage in certain prohibited conduct. Section 202(a) prohibits “any unfair, unjustly discriminatory, or deceptive practice or device.” Section 202(b) prohibits “any undue or unreasonable preference or advantage” or “any undue or unreasonable prejudice or disadvantage.” USDA has consistently taken the position that, in some cases, a violation of section 202(a) or (b) can be proven without proof of predatory intent, competitive injury, or likelihood of competitive injury.
As we explained in the proposed rule, the longstanding agency position that, in some cases, a violation of section 202(a) or (b) can be proven without proof of likelihood of competitive injury is consistent with the language and structure of the P&S Act, as well as its legislative history and purposes. Neither section 202(a) nor section 202(b) contains any language limiting the application of those sections to acts or practices that have an adverse effect on competition, such as acts “restraining commerce.” Instead, these provisions use terms including “deceptive,” “unfair,” “unjust,” “undue,” and “unreasonable”—which are commonly understood to encompass more than anticompetitive conduct.
USDA's interpretation of sections 202(a) and (b) is also consistent with the interpretation of other sections of the P&S Act using similar language—sections 307 and 312 (7 U.S.C. 208 and 213). Courts have recognized that the proper analysis under these provisions
The legislative history and purposes of the P&S Act also support USDA's position. The P&S Act “is a most comprehensive measure and extends farther than any previous law in the regulation of private business, in time of peace, except possibly the interstate commerce act.”
Four courts of appeals have disagreed with USDA's interpretation of the P&S Act and have concluded (in cases to which the United States was not a party) that plaintiffs could not prove their claims under sections 202(a) and/or (b) without proving harm to competition or likely harm to competition.
Although it is not necessary in every case to demonstrate competitive injury in order to show a violation of sections 202(a) and/or (b), any act that harms competition or is likely to harm competition may violate the statute. How a competitive injury or the likelihood of a competitive injury manifests itself depends critically on whether the target of the act or practice is a competitor (
To establish an actual or likely competitive injury, it is not necessary to show that a challenged act or practice had a likely effect on resale price levels. Even the antitrust laws do not require such a showing. The P&S Act is broader than the antitrust laws and, therefore, such a requirement of showing effect on resale price levels is not necessary to establish competitive injury under section 202 of the P&S Act (though such a showing would suffice).
The proposed rule published on June 22, 2010, (75 FR 35338) provided a 60-day comment period to end on August 23, 2010. In response to requests for an extension of time to file comments, on July 28, 2010, GIPSA extended the comment period to end on November 22, 2010 (75 FR 44163). Commenters covered the spectrum of those affected by the rule, including livestock producers and poultry growers, packers and live poultry dealers, trade associations representing both production and processing, plant workers, and consumers. GIPSA considered all comments postmarked or electronically submitted by November 22, 2010. GIPSA received over 61,000 comments, which addressed the rule generally as well as specific provisions. GIPSA considered written comments as well as comments received at two public meetings, on June 25, 2010, and August 27, 2010, conducted jointly by USDA and the Department of Justice. Because these “Workshops on Competition in Agriculture” were held during the comment period for the proposed rule, the Secretary announced that any comments made in those forums would be considered comments on the proposed rule.
Comments on proposed § 201.3(c) were sharply divided with respect to
Those supporting proposed § 201.3(c) included numerous livestock producers and poultry growers and organizations representing the interests of farmers and ranchers. Commenters supporting proposed § 201.3(c) pointed out that it would reduce the costs of litigation for poultry growers and livestock producers who suffer because of unfair actions, such as false weighing and retaliation. Proposed § 201.3(c), according to some commenters, corrects the analytical framework of the P&S Act and ensures that the courts grant a higher level of deference to USDA's interpretation of the P&S Act. They believed it was wrong to require a demonstration of harm to competition to the whole industry stemming from an unfair practice targeting an individual grower or producer in order to violate section 202(a) of the P&S Act, and that proposed § 201.3(c) would remove an undue barrier to relief.
Commenters in favor of proposed § 201.3(c) further pointed out the imbalance in power between livestock producers and packers and noted that without this provision, the packers are inoculated against recourse by a livestock producer because the livestock producer is small and overmatched relative to the much larger and more well-resourced packer. A common theme among supporters was that proposed § 201.3(c) allowed farmers and ranchers to seek redress by showing that they were individually harmed in cases such as false weighing or retaliatory behavior, rather than requiring a showing of harm to competition in the industry. Commenters felt that the packers and poultry companies were given a free pass to act unfairly toward livestock producers, swine production contract growers, and poultry growers knowing that proving harm to competition to the industry would be difficult, if not impossible, in many situations.
Many of the supporting comments also addressed the plain language and intent of section 202 of the P&S Act and opined that the recent court decisions were based on incorrect interpretations of the law. Commenters wrote that proposed § 201.3(c) correctly interpreted the plain language of section 202 and the legislative history of the P&S Act.
Commenters opposing proposed § 201.3(c) included many meat packers, live poultry dealers, and organizations representing packers and poultry companies. The opposing comments stated that the P&S Act had always been considered an antitrust statute and therefore, GIPSA should be required to show competitive harm to allege a violation of section 202(a). They also expressed concern that a flood of litigation would ensue if the scope of section 202(a) did not remain closely aligned with case law. Commenters opposed to the rulemaking asserted that allowing allegations of section 202(a) violations without a showing of harm or likely harm to competition would enable swine production contract growers, poultry growers, or livestock producers to sue a swine contractor, live poultry dealer, or packer for aa broad range of adverse circumstances affecting them. The comments went on to say that this would guarantee swine production contract growers, poultry growers, and livestock producers a profit on every transaction, a standard afforded in no other industry. In turn, this would reduce the number of swine production contract growers, poultry growers, and livestock producers with whom companies would do business.
Opposing comments relied heavily on the fact that several United States Courts of Appeals have ruled that harm to competition (or the likelihood of harm to competition) is a required element to find a violation of sections 202(a) and (b) of the P&S Act. These commenters stated that because of the decisions in these circuit courts, GIPSA lacked authority to implement proposed § 201.3(c). Several large packers and poultry companies wrote that the proposed § 201.3(c), if implemented, would be in direct conflict with circuit court decisions in the geographic regions in which they do business. One packer commented that livestock producers would bear the cost of determining the legality of an expanded scope of sections 202(a) and 202(b).
Many opposing commenters felt that proposed § 201.3(c) would lead to a large increase in frivolous litigation and greatly increase operational costs for packers and poultry companies. Commenters felt that an increase in frivolous litigation would lead to a decrease in the use of the value-based pricing. Commenters opposed allowing livestock producers to file lawsuits based on their thoughts of what is unfair. Some commenters believed that proposed § 201.3(c) would eliminate the requirement to show any harm at all. A common concern presented by those in opposition to the proposed change to § 201.3 was that while section 202(a) prohibits unfair, unjustly discriminatory, or deceptive practices, the P&S Act does not define what types of conduct would be classified as such. Of particular concern to these commenters was the prospect that GIPSA may bring actions under section 202(a) without a finding of harm to competition which would encourage livestock producers to sue firms subject to the P&S Act for any conduct having an adverse effect on livestock producer interests. While most of the comments focused on unfair conduct that could violate section 202(a), a few comments mentioned section 202(b) as well. These comments set forth concerns calling for regulatory guidance as to what conduct GIPSA would deem as unfair, unjustly discriminatory, or deceptive, and an undue preference or advantage in violation of the P&S Act, especially when there was no showing of harm to competition.
It is the longstanding position of the Secretary of Agriculture that a violation of section 202(a) or (b) can be proven without evidence of competitive injury or the likelihood of competitive injury. The Secretary's position is consistent with the language and structure of the P&S Act, as well as its legislative history and purposes. Sections 202(c), 202(d), and 202(e) of the P&S Act include “restraint” and “monopoly” language, some of which resembles language in the Clayton Act, 15 U.S.C. 12-27. Neither section 202(a) nor section 202(b) contains language limiting the application to conduct or action that has an adverse effect, or the likelihood of an adverse effect, on competition, such as acts “restraining commerce.” Sections 202(a) and 202(b) are tort-like provisions that are concerned with unfair practices, discrimination, and preferential treatment, but not with restraint of trade or monopolistic activities.
Analysis of the Federal Trade Commission Act, 15 U.S.C. 41-58, as amended, (FTC Act) is helpful in illustrating the Secretary's position on the scope of sections 202(a) and 202(b) of the P&S Act. Congress considered the FTC Act in drafting the P&S Act as it incorporated portions of the FTC Act by reference into the P&S Act. Section 5 of the FTC Act, now codified at 15 U.S.C. 45, states, “[u]nfair methods of competition in or affecting commerce, and unfair or deceptive acts or practices in or affecting commerce, are hereby declared unlawful.” Thus, in the FTC Act, Congress makes a distinction between “unfair methods of competition” and “unfair or deceptive acts or practices.” In drafting the P&S Act, Congress chose to prohibit any “unfair, unjustly discriminatory, or deceptive practice or device,” and the making or giving of “any undue or unreasonable preference or advantage . . .,” without limiting the unfair practices or devices, discrimination, or preferential treatment to only those involving competition. The Supreme Court of the United States has examined the scope of Section 5 of the FTC Act, noting that unfair practices are not limited to those likely to have anticompetitive consequences after the manner of the antitrust laws, nor are unfair practices in commerce confined to purely competitive behavior.
Recent circuit court decisions have found that a showing of competitive harm, or a likelihood of competitive harm, is required to substantiate a violation of sections 202(a) and 202(b) of the P&S Act. In one of these cases,
An initial increase in litigation costs is a likely result of this rule, as the industry and the courts are setting precedents for the interpretation of § 201.3. However, the litigation costs and the number of lawsuits are expected to decrease after precedent setting decisions are established. In order to place some parameters on conduct or action that constitutes unfair, unjustly discriminatory, and deceptive practices or devices under section 202(a), and on conduct or action that constitutes undue or unreasonable preferences or advantages under section 202(b), and to address concerns raised by commenters about what those terms mean, GIPSA is publishing concurrently with this interim final rule, proposed rules that will include revised §§ 201.210,201.211, and 201.214, which will help clarify the conduct or action GIPSA considers violations of sections 202(a) and 202(b) of the P&S Act.
Contrary to some comments, § 201.3(a) does not stand for the proposition that GIPSA never has to demonstrate that the challenged conduct or action adversely affects competition. Instead, § 201.3(a) solely reiterates GIPSA's longstanding position that a finding that the challenged conduct or action adversely affects or is likely to adversely affect competition is not necessary in all cases. Certain conduct is prohibited because it is unfair, unjustly discriminatory or deceptive even though there may be no harm, or likelihood of harm, to competition. Likewise, certain conduct is prohibited because it creates an unfair preference or advantage even though there may be no harm, or likelihood of harm, to competition. This rule, combined with the specific examples of prohibited conduct in proposed § 201.210 and the criteria the Secretary will consider as set forth in proposed § 201.211, will assist industry participants in understanding which behaviors violate sections 202(a) and 202(b) of the P&S Act.
As previously discussed, GIPSA published a notice of proposed rulemaking in June, 2010, that,
While some appellate courts have determined that a showing of competitive injury, or likelihood of competitive injury, is required to allege a violation of sections 202(a) or 202(b), some dissenting opinions agreed with USDA's interpretation of sections 202(a) and 202(b)
This rulemaking has been determined to be “economically significant” for the purposes of Executive Order 12866 and, therefore, has been reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget. GIPSA is issuing this interim final rule under the P&S Act, in part, to formalize USDA's position that, in some cases, a violation of section 202(a) or (b) can be proven without proof of competitive injury or likelihood of competitive injury. As a required part of the regulatory process, GIPSA prepared an economic analysis of § 201.3(a). The first section of the analysis is an introduction and a discussion of the prevalence of contracting in the cattle, hog, and poultry industries as well as a discussion of potential market failures. Next, GIPSA discusses three regulatory alternatives it considered and presents a summary cost-benefit analysis of each alternative. GIPSA then discusses the impact on small businesses.
GIPSA issued a proposed rule on June 22, 2010, which included §§ 201.3, 201.210, 201.211, 201.214. GIPSA is issuing amendments to § 201.3 as an interim final rule and is proposing new versions of §§ 201.210 and 201.211 in a separate proposed rule published concurrently in this issue of the
Section 201.3(a) states that a finding that the challenged conduct or action adversely affects or is likely to adversely affect competition is not necessary in all cases . . . Some unfair, unjustly discriminatory, or deceptive practices do not result in competitive harm to the industry but still result in significant harm to individual livestock producers, swine production contract growers, and poultry growers. If, for example, a livestock producer, swine production contract grower, or poultry grower filed a complaint related to a matter that does not result in competitive harm, such as retaliatory conduct, use of inaccurate scales, or providing a poultry grower sick birds, the livestock producer, swine production contract grower, or poultry grower will be able to prevail without proof of harm to competition or the likelihood of harm to competition. GIPSA believes the standard articulated in § 201.3(a) is consistent with its mission, which is to “protect fair trade practices, financial integrity and competitive markets for livestock, meats and poultry.”
Section 201.3(a) may lower the costs to some livestock producers, swine production contract growers, and poultry growers should they bring legal action for an alleged violation of sections 202(a) and/or 202(b). However, § 201.3(a) may initially increase litigation costs for the livestock and poultry industries while precedent setting decisions are established. While this interim rule is a standalone rulemaking, it is worth noting that GIPSA's current thinking is also expressed in separate proposed rules, which will clarify to the industry the types of conduct and criteria that GIPSA believes violate section 202(a) and section 202(b) of the P&S Act.
Proposed § 201.210(a) specifies that any conduct or action by a packer, swine contractor, or live poultry dealer that is explicitly deemed to be an
As required by the 2008 Farm Bill, proposed § 201.211 specifies criteria the Secretary will consider when determining whether an undue or unreasonable preference or advantage has occurred in violation of section 202(b). The first four (4) criteria require the Secretary to consider whether one or more livestock producers, swine production contract growers, or poultry growers is treated more favorably as compared to other similarly situated livestock producers, swine production contract growers, or poultry growers. The fifth criterion in § 201.211 requires the Secretary to consider whether the packer, swine contractor, or live poultry dealer has demonstrated a legitimate business justification for conduct or action that may otherwise be an undue or unreasonable preference or advantage.
Proposed §§ 201.210 and 201.211 will thus limit the application of § 201.3(a) by placing some parameters on conduct or action that constitutes unfair, unjustly discriminatory, and deceptive practices or devices under section 202(a), and on conduct or action that constitutes undue or unreasonable preferences or advantages under section 202(b). Proposed §§ 201.210 and 201.211 focus heavily on contracts between livestock producers and packers, swine production contract growers and swine contractors, and poultry growers and live poultry dealers.
While proposed §§ 201.210 and 201.211 focus heavily on contracts, § 201.3(a) is broad in nature. It applies to the use of all types of livestock and poultry procurement and growing arrangements by packers, swine contractors, and live poultry dealers, including packers' use of negotiated cash purchases of livestock. As discussed below, contracting broadly defined, is the primary method by which livestock are procured (especially for hogs) and the almost exclusive arrangement under which poultry are produced. A discussion of contracting in these industries is, therefore, useful in explaining the need for § 201.3(a) and laying the foundation for the economic analysis of 201.3(a).
Contracting is an important and prevalent feature in the production and marketing of livestock and poultry. Although § 201.3(a) applies to the livestock and poultry industries in general, proposed §§ 201.210 and 201.211 primarily affect livestock and poultry grown or marketed under contract. For example, under § 201.210(b)(2), absent demonstration of a legitimate business justification, GIPSA considers conduct or action by packers, swine contractors, or live poultry dealers that limit or attempt to limit, by contract, the legal rights and remedies of livestock producers, swine production contract growers, or poultry growers as unfair, unjustly discriminatory, or deceptive and a violation of section 202(a) regardless of whether the conduct or action harms or is likely to harm competition. Section 201.211 defines criteria for section 202(b) violations with respect to providing undue or unreasonable preferences or advantages to one or more livestock producers or contract growers as compared to other livestock producers or contract growers.
The type of contracting varies among cattle, hogs, and poultry. Broilers, the largest segment of poultry, are almost exclusively grown under production contracts, while a small percentage of cattle are custom fed and shipped directly for slaughter this activity is not subject to the jurisdiction of the P&S Act. Hog production falls between these two extremes. As shown in Table 1 below, over 96 percent of all broilers are grown under contractual arrangements and over 40 percent of all hogs are grown under contractual arrangements. Live poultry dealers typically own the broilers and provide the growers with feed and medications. Contract growers provide the housing, labor, water, electricity and fuel to grow the birds. Similarly, swine contractors typically own the slaughter hogs and sell the finished hogs to pork packers. The swine contractors typically provide feed and medication to the contract growers who own the growing facilities and provide growing services. With the exception of turkey production, the use of contract growing arrangements has remained relatively stable over the years that the Census of Agriculture has published data on commodities raised and delivered under production contracts as Table 1
Another contract category is marketing contracts, where producers market their livestock to a packer for slaughter under a verbal or written agreement. These are commonly referred to as Alternative Marketing Arrangements (AMAs). Pricing mechanisms vary across AMAs. Some AMAs rely on a spot market for at least one aspect of its price, while others involve complicated pricing formulas with premiums and discounts based on carcass merits. The livestock seller and packer agree on a pricing mechanism under AMAs, but usually not on a specific price.
USDA's Agricultural Marketing Service (AMS) reports the number of
GIPSA considers
As discussed above, over 40 percent of hogs are grown under production contracts. These hogs are then sold by swine contractors to packers under marketing contracts. The prevalence of marketing contracts in the sale of finished hogs, which includes production contract and non-production contract hogs, to packers is even more prevalent as shown in the table below.
Similar to cattle,
Contracts have many benefits. They help farmers and livestock producers manage price and production risks, elicit the production of products with specific quality attributes by tying prices to those attributes, and smooth the flows of commodities to processing plants encouraging more efficient use of farm and processing capacities. Agricultural contracts can also lead to improvements in efficiency throughout the supply chain for products by providing farmers with incentives to deliver products consumers desire and produce products in ways that reduce processing costs and, ultimately, retail prices.
In 2007, RTI International conducted a comprehensive study of marketing practices in the livestock and red meat industries from farmers to retailers (the RTI Study).
The RTI Study found that efficiencies come from less volatility in volume and
As the above discussion highlights, there are important benefits associated with the use of agriculture contracts in the cattle, hog, and poultry industries. However, if there are large disparities in the bargaining power among contracting parties resulting from size differences between contracting parties or the use of market power by one of the contracting parties, the contracts may have detrimental effects on one of the contracting parties and may result in inefficiencies in the marketplace.
For example, a contract that ties a grower to a single purchaser of a specialized commodity or service, even if the contract provides for fair compensation to the grower, still leaves the grower subject to default risks should the contractor fail. Another example is a contract that covers a shorter term than the life of the capital (a poultry house, for example). The grower may face the hold-up risk that the contractor may require additional capital investments or may impose lower returns at the time of contract renewal. Hold-up risk is a potential market failure and is discussed in detail in the next section. These risks may be heightened when there are no alternative buyers for the grower to switch to, or when the capital investment is specific to the original buyer.
The data in the table show that 52 percent of broiler growers, accounting for 56 percent of total production, report having only one or two integrators in their local areas. This limited integrator choice may accentuate the contract risks. A 2006 survey indicated that growers facing a single integrator received 7 to 8 percent less compensation, on average, than farmers located in areas with 4 or more integrators.
Many beef, pork, and poultry processing markets face barriers to entry, including; (1) Economies of scale; (2) high asset-specific capital costs with few alternative uses of the capital; (3) brand loyalty of consumers, customer loyalty to the incumbent processors, and high customer switching costs; and (4) governmental food safety, bio-hazard, and environmental regulations. Consistent with these barriers, there has been limited new entry.
However, an area where entry has been successful is in developing and niche markets, such as organic meat and free-range chicken. Developing and niche markets have a relatively small consumer market that is willing to pay higher prices, which supports smaller plant sizes. Niche processors are generally small, however, and do not offer opportunities to many producers or growers.
Economies of scale have resulted in large processing plants in the beef, pork, and poultry processing industries. The barriers to entry discussed above may have limited the entry of new processors, which limits the expansion of choice of processors to which livestock producers market their livestock. Barriers to entry also limit the expansion of choice for poultry growers who have only one or two integrators in their local areas with no potential entrants on the horizon. The limited expansion of choice of processors by livestock producers, swine production contract growers, and poultry growers may limit contract choices and the bargaining power of producers and growers in negotiating contracts.
One indication of potential market power is industry concentration.
The table above shows the concentration of the four largest steer and heifer slaughterers has remained relatively stable between 79 and 86 percent since 2005. Hog and broiler slaughter concentration has also remained relatively steady at over 60 percent and 50 percent, respectively.
The data in Table 5 are estimates of national concentration and the size differences discussed below are also at the national level, but the economic markets for livestock and poultry may be regional or local, and concentration in regional or local areas may be higher than national measures. For example, while poultry markets may appear to be the least concentrated in terms of the four-firm concentration ratios presented above, economic markets for poultry growing services are more localized than markets for fed cattle or hogs, and local concentration in poultry markets is greater than in hog and other livestock markets.
Empirical evidence does not show a strong or simple relationship between increases in concentration and increases in market power. Other factors matter, including the ease of entry by new producers into a concentrated industry and the ease with which retail food buyers or agricultural commodity sellers can change their buying or marketing strategies in response to attempts to exploit market power.
For example, in 2009, the Government Accountability Office (GAO) reviewed 33 studies published since 1990 that were relevant for assessing the effect of concentration on commodity or food prices in the beef, pork, or dairy sectors.
Several studies reviewed by the GAO did find evidence of market power in the retail sector, in that food prices exceeded competitive levels or that commodity prices fell below competitive levels. However, the GAO study also concluded that it was not clear whether market power was caused by concentration or some other factor. In interviews with experts, the GAO report concluded that increases in concentration may raise greater concerns in the future about the potential for market power and the manipulation of commodity or food prices.
Another factor GIPSA considered in proposing §§ 201.210 and 201.211 is the contrast in size and scale between livestock producers, swine production contract growers, and poultry growers and the packers, swine contractors, and live poultry dealers they supply. The disparity in size between large oligopsonistic buyers and atomistic sellers may lead to market power and asymmetric information. The 2012 Census of Agriculture reported 740,978 cattle and calf farms with 69.76 million head of cattle for an average of 94 head per operation. Ninety-one percent of these were family or individually-owned operations.
There were 33,880 cattle feeding operations in 2012 that sold 25.47 million head of fed cattle for an average of 752 head per feedlot. The 607 largest feedlots sold about 75 percent of the fed cattle, and averaged 32,111 head sold. About 80 percent of feedlots were family or individually owned.
The USDA, National Agricultural Statistics Service 2012 livestock slaughter summary reported that in 2012, 113.16 million head of hogs were commercially slaughtered in the United States.
The National Chicken Council states that in 2016, approximately 35 companies were involved in the business of raising, processing, and marketing chicken on a vertically integrated basis, while about 25,000 family farmers had production contracts with those companies.
As the above discussion highlights, there are large size differences between livestock producers and meat packers. There are also large size differences between poultry growers and the live poultry dealers which they supply. These size differences may contribute to unequal bargaining power due to monopsony market power or oligopsony market power, or asymmetric information. The result is that the contracts bargained between the parties may have detrimental effects on livestock producers, swine production contract growers, and poultry growers due to the structural issues discussed above and may result in inefficiencies in the marketplace.
Integrators demand investment in fixed assets from the growers. One example is specific types of poultry houses and equipment the integrator may require the grower to utilize in their growing operations. These investments may improve efficiency by more than the cost of installation. Typically, the improved efficiency would accrue to both the integrator and the grower. The integrator has lower feed costs, and the grower performs better relative to other poultry growers in a settlement group. If the grower bears the entire cost of installation, then the grower should be further compensated for the feed conversion gains that accrue to the integrator. The risk is that after the assets are installed, the cost to the grower is “sunk.” This means that if the integrator reneges on paying compensation for the additional capital investments, and insists on maintaining the lower price, the grower will accept that lower price rather than receive nothing. This allows the integrator to get the benefit of the efficiency gains, at no expense to them, with the grower bearing all of the cost. This reneging is termed “hold-up” in the economic literature.
Hold-up can have two consequences that result in a misallocation of resources. If the growers do not anticipate hold-up, then growers will spend too much on investments because the integrator who demands them is not incurring any cost. That is inefficient. If the grower does anticipate hold-up, they will act as if the integrator were going to renege even when they were not, resulting in too little investment and a loss of potential efficiency gains.
Hold-up can be resolved with increased competition. If an integrator developed a reputation for reneging, and growers could go elsewhere, the initial integrator would be punished and disincentivized from reneging in the future. Unfortunately, in practice, many growers do not have the option of going elsewhere.
Data shown above in Table 4 indicate that there are few integrators in these markets, and that growers have limited choice. Table 5, above, indicates the level of concentration in the livestock and poultry slaughtering industries and shows that integrators and livestock packers operate in concentrated markets.
This rule would allow growers to file complaints against integrators that renege, giving some of the incentive benefit of competition, without compromising the efficiency of having a few large processors.
There are benefits of contracting in the livestock and poultry industries, as well as structural issues that may result in unequal bargaining power and market failures. These structural issues and market failures will be mitigated by relieving plaintiffs from the requirement to demonstrate competitive injury. For instance, contracting parties can alleviate hold-up problems if they are able to write complete contracts, and are able to litigate to enforce the terms of those contracts when there is an attempt to engage in ex-post hold-up. Because proving competitive injury is difficult and costly, removing that burden will facilitate the use of litigation by producers and growers to address violations of the Packers and Stockyards Act. If growers are able to seek legal remedies, then their contracts are easier to enforce. This will incentivize packers, swine contractors, and integrators to avoid exploitation of market power and asymmetric information, as well as behaviors that result in the market failure of hold-up. The result will be improved efficiency in the livestock and poultry markets.
GIPSA has a clear role to ensure that market failures are mitigated so that livestock and poultry markets remain fair and competitive. Section 201.3(a) seeks to fulfill that role by promoting fairness and equity for livestock producers, swine production contract growers, and poultry growers.
GIPSA issued a proposed rule on June 22, 2010, which included §§ 201.3, 201.210, and 201.211. GIPSA received and considered thousands of comments before finalizing § 201.3(a) and before proposing the current versions of §§ 201.210, and 201.211. The following provisions were proposed in 2010 but are not in § 201.3 or currently proposed §§ 201.210 and 201.211.
• Applicability to all stages of a live poultry dealer's poultry production, including pullets, laying hens, breeders, and broilers (§ 201.3(a)).
• Applicability to all swine production contracts, poultry growing arrangements and livestock production and marketing contracts, including formula and forward contracts (§ 201.3(b)).
• Requirement that packers, live poultry dealers, and swine contractors maintain records justifying differences in prices (§ 201.210(a)(5)).
• Provision prohibiting packers from purchasing livestock from other packers (§ 201.212(c)).
• Requirement that packers offer the same terms to groups of small producers as offered to large producers when the group can collectively meet the same quantity commitments (§ 201.211(a)).
• Requirement that packers refrain from entering into exclusive agreements with livestock dealers (§ 201.212(b)).
• Requirements that packers and live poultry dealers submit sample contracts to GIPSA for posting to the public (§ 201.213).
Although many thousands of the comments submitted contained general qualitative assessments of either the costs or benefits of the proposed rule, only two comments systematically described quantitative costs across the rule provisions. Comments from the National Meat Association (NMA) included cost estimates by Informa Economics (the Informa Study). The Informa Study projected costs of $880 million, $401 million, and $362 million for U.S. cattle and beef, hogs and pork, and poultry industries respectively.
Comments from the National Chicken Council (NCC) included cost estimates prepared by Dr. Thomas E. Elam, President, FarmEcon LLC (the Elam Study).
The Informa Study estimated that the proposed provision requiring packers to refrain from entering into exclusive agreements with livestock dealers would cost livestock auctions as much as $85.5 million.
Estimates of the costs in the Informa Study and the Elam Study were largely due to projections that packers, swine contractors, and live poultry dealers, would alter business practices in reaction to the proposed rule. For example, the Informa Study projected that packers would reduce the number and types of AMAs to avoid potential litigation,
The estimates from the Informa Study and the Elam Study may overstate costs because the studies relied on interviews of packers, swine contractors, live poultry dealers, and other stakeholders for much of the basis for the estimates of the willingness of packers, swine contractors, and live poultry dealers to alter their business practices. Moreover, neither study considered benefits from the proposed rule.
The Informa Study projected that the regulations proposed in 2010 would cause beef and pork packers to limit their involvement in vertical arrangements, and without those arrangements, they would not be able to produce the branded products they currently offer. The Informa Study projected that, as a result, beef and pork markets would lose $460 million, which is about half of the value added from branded products.
GIPSA does not expect that the current § 201.3(a) would cause beef and pork markets to abandon half of the value added from branded products. Current § 201.3(a) does not prevent packers from offering quality incentives to hog or cattle feeders, and any vertical coordination among feeders and producers would be outside of GIPSA's jurisdiction.
Given the differences from the rule proposed in 2010, the estimates from the Elam Study likely overstated the costs of compliance to the poultry industry with current § 201.3(a) by at least $115 million over five years. The Informa Study estimates would overstate costs of compliance to the cattle, hog, and poultry industries with current § 201.3(a) by at least $500 million. If packers, swine contractors, and live poultry dealers overstated their willingness to alter their business practices, then the estimates could be overstated that much more.
Executive Order 12866 requires an assessment of costs and benefits of potentially effective and reasonably feasible alternatives to the planned regulation and an explanation of why the planned regulatory action is preferable to the potential alternatives.
If § 201.3(a) is never finalized, there are no marginal costs and marginal benefits as industry participants will not alter their conduct. From a cost standpoint, this is the least cost alternative compared to the other two alternatives. This alternative also has no marginal benefits. Since there are no changes from the status quo under this regulatory alternative, it will serve as the baseline against which to measure the other two alternatives.
Section 201.3(a) states that conduct or action can be found to violate sections 202(a) and/or 202(b) of the P&S Act without a finding of harm or likely harm to competition. Given the applicability of the regulation to the entire livestock and poultry industries, it is difficult to predict how the industries will respond. Therefore, GIPSA believes that assigning a range to the expected costs of the regulation is appropriate.
At the lower boundary of the cost spectrum, GIPSA considers the scenario where the only costs are increased litigation costs and there are no adjustments by the livestock and poultry industries to reduce their use of AMAs or incentive pay systems, such as poultry grower ranking systems, and there are no changes to existing marketing or production contracts. For the upper boundary of the cost spectrum, GIPSA considers the scenario in which the livestock and poultry industries adjust their use of AMAs and incentive pay systems and makes systematic changes in its marketing and production contracts to reduce the threat of litigation.
GIPSA modeled the litigation costs by estimating the total cost of litigating a case filed under the jurisdiction of the P&S Act. The main costs are attorney fees to litigate a case in a court of law. Limited empirical data on actual historical litigation costs required GIPSA to use a cost engineering approach to estimate litigation costs. In considering the costs of the 2010 proposed rule, GIPSA, based on its expertise, assumed a cost of $3.5 million to litigate a case. GIPSA uses the same starting point here. The cost of litigating a case includes the costs to all parties including the respondent and the USDA in a case brought by the USDA and the costs of the plaintiff and the defendant in the case of private litigation.
GIPSA then examined the actual number of cases decided under the P&S Act from 1926 to 2014. The listing of court decisions and the court in which the decision was reached came from the National Agricultural Law Center at the University of Arkansas.
All of the cases were assigned a specific attorney fee based on a random sample from a normal distribution ranging between $250 thousand and $3.5 million for trade practice cases, $250 thousand to $3 million for financial cases, and $1.5 million to $5 million for competition cases. These ranges are based on GIPSA's expertise and the complexity of each type of case, with competition being the most complex and therefore the most costly to litigate. This expertise comes from GIPSA's experience litigating each type of case and monitoring private litigation under the P&S Act. GIPSA estimated the cost of litigating each case from 1926 to 2014 using the cost ranges outlined above.
GIPSA scaled the initial cost up or down based on the court making the decision and based on GIPSA's assumption that Supreme Court cases are more expensive than District court cases, which are more expensive than state court cases. For Supreme Court cases, GIPSA scaled up the cost by a factor of three. For District court cases, GIPSA left the costs unchanged except for the sole case litigated in the United States District Court for the District of Columbia, which GIPSA scaled up by a factor of 1.1. GIPSA scaled state courts down by a factor of 0.7.
After estimating the cost of each case, by case type, GIPSA averaged all cases decided each year to obtain an estimated annual average cost of litigation. GIPSA then conducted a Monte Carlo simulation by sampling from a normal distribution of estimated average annual litigation costs for each type of case to arrive at the final estimated annual average cost of litigating cases filed under the P&S Act.
GIPSA recognizes the uncertainty in estimating litigation costs and conducted sensitivity analysis using a Monte Carlo simulation on the estimated average annual litigation costs. GIPSA used a normal distribution of estimated litigation costs and calculated estimated litigation costs at the 2.5th percentile (lower percentile) of the distribution, the mean (average), and the 97.5th percentile (upper percentile).
GIPSA then estimated a linear trend line through the data using the Ordinary Least Squares (OLS) linear regression technique and used the trend line to project the litigation costs for 2015-2017.
GIPSA then
Based on the history of investigations, GIPSA then allocated all of the projected baseline litigation costs for 2017 into section 202(a) and 202(b) violations for each species at the lower percentile, the average, and the upper percentile. These allocations appear in the tables below.
These allocations assume that all projected baseline litigation costs for 2017 will come only from section 202(a) and 202(b) violations. GIPSA then estimated the additional litigation costs the first full year the regulation is in place.
In order to estimate the additional expected litigation costs in 2017 assuming § 201.3(a) becomes effective in early 2017, GIPSA again utilized the complete history of all investigations conducted by its Packers and Stockyards Program since 2009. GIPSA based the additional litigation costs on the difference between the number of complaints received in 2015 on alleged conduct that may violate sections 202(a) and 202(b), by species, and the highest number of complaints GIPSA received in any year since 2009. By 2015, court decisions had established the requirement to demonstrate harm to competition, which likely resulted in fewer complaints of Section 202(a) and 202(b) violations, particularly in the poultry industry, than in previous years when this requirement was not fully realized by industry participants. GIPSA expects § 201.3(a) will result in additional new complaints filed with GIPSA that will be at the levels experienced between 2009 and 2015 before the requirement of harm to competition was fully realized. GIPSA tracks the number of complaints received through a complaint tracking system initiated in 2009. Thus, this difference, by species, is the increase in complaints GIPSA expects when the regulations are finalized. GIPSA then used these differences as scaling factors to estimate the litigation that GIPSA expects to occur in 2017, the first full year that § 201.3(a) becomes effective. The scaling factors appear in the table below:
The scaling factors run from 1.20 for hogs to 2.30 for cattle.
To finalize the estimated increase in litigation costs, GIPSA multiplied the scaling factors in the above table by the projected 2017 baseline litigation costs at the lower percentile, the average, and the upper percentile to arrive at the expected litigation costs in 2017. GIPSA then subtracted out the projected baseline litigation costs to arrive at the estimated additional litigation costs that GIPSA expects to occur assuming § 201.3(a) become effective in early 2017. These estimated litigation costs appear in the following tables.
GIPSA expects § 201.3(a) to result in an additional $4.84 million in litigation in 2017 at the lower percentile, $8.89 million in litigation in 2017 at the average, and $13.22 million in litigation in 2017 at the upper percentile. GIPSA also expects the majority of additional litigation to come from the poultry industry based on investigations GIPSA conducted from 2009 to 2015, many of which were based on industry complaints.
As discussed above, GIPSA considers the lower boundary of costs from § 201.3(a) to be increased litigation costs with no adjustments by the livestock and poultry industries to reduce their use of AMAs or incentive pay systems and no changes to existing marketing or production contracts. GIPSA also recognizes the uncertainty in estimating litigation costs and conducted a sensitivity analysis of litigation costs at the lower percentile, the average percentile, and the upper percentile. The sensitivity analysis shows that litigation may vary by as much as $8.38 million (upper percentile minus lower percentile). GIPSA believes the average litigation costs is the best available estimate of litigation costs and uses it as the lower boundary for the estimated litigation costs of § 201.3(a). The lower boundary cost estimates appear in the table below.
GIPSA estimates that § 201.3(a) will result in an additional $8.89 million in additional litigation in the livestock and poultry industries with $2.63 million in litigation in the cattle industry, $0.52 million in the hog industry, and $5.74 million in the poultry industry in the first full year § 201.3(a) would be in place.
To arrive at the estimated ten-year costs of § 201.3(a), GIPSA expects the litigation costs to be constant for the first five years while courts are setting precedents for the interpretation of § 201.3(a). GIPSA expects that case law with respect to the regulation will be settled after five years and by then, industry participants will know how GIPSA will enforce the regulation and how courts will interpret the regulation.
To arrive at the estimated ten-year costs of § 201.3(a), GIPSA estimates that litigation costs for the first five years will occur at the same rate and at the same cost as in 2017. In the second five years, GIPSA estimates that litigation costs will decrease each year and return to the baseline in the sixth year after the courts have established precedents. GIPSA estimates this decrease in litigation costs to the baseline to be linear with the same decrease in costs each year. The total ten-year costs of § 201.3(a) at the lower boundary appears in the table below.
Based on the analysis, GIPSA expects the lower boundary of the ten-year total costs of § 201.3(a) to be $66.67 million.
The lower boundary ten-year total costs of § 201.3(a) in the table above show that the costs are constant in the first five years and then gradually decrease over the next five years. Costs to be incurred in the future are less expensive than the same costs to be incurred today. This is because the money that will be used to pay the costs in the future can be invested today and earn interest until the time period in which the cost is incurred. After the cost has been incurred, the interest earned will still be available.
To account for the time value of money, the costs of the regulation to be incurred in the future is discounted back to today's dollars using a discount rate. The sum of all costs discounted back to the present is called the net present value (NPV) of total costs. GIPSA relied on both a three percent and seven percent discount rate as discussed in Circular A-4.
GIPSA calculated the NPV of the ten-year total costs of the regulation using both a three percent and seven percent discount rate and the NPVs appear in the following table.
GIPSA expects the NPV of the lower boundary of the ten-year total costs of § 201.3(a) to be $58.62 million at a three percent discount rate and $50.03 million at a seven percent discount rate.
GIPSA then annualized the NPV of the ten-year total costs (referred to as annualized costs) of § 201.3(a) at the lower boundary using both a three percent and seven percent discount rate as required by Circular A-4 and the results appear in the following table.
GIPSA expects the annualized costs of § 201.3(a) at the lower boundary to be $6.87 million at a three percent discount rate and $7.12 million at a seven percent discount rate.
As discussed above, the upper boundary of the cost spectrum occurs if the cattle, hog, and poultry industries adjust their use of AMAs and incentive pay systems and make systematic changes in their marketing and production contracts to reduce the threat of litigation. For the upper boundary cost estimate, GIPSA relied on the Informa Study and Elam Study. The Informa Study was prepared for the NMA and the Elam Study was prepared for the NCC. Both of these groups were opposed to the rule proposed on June 22, 2010 and GIPSA considers their studies to be upper boundary scenarios for meat and livestock industries and poultry industry costs.
GIPSA reviewed the Informa Study and the Elam Study and compared the provisions in the multiple proposed regulations in the June 22, 2010 rule against § 201.3(a). The Informa Study estimated both direct and indirect costs of the 2010 proposed rule. The Informa Study direct costs are estimates of actual costs of complying with all of the regulations proposed in 2010, such as new computer software and additional staff. The Informa Study estimated both direct one-time costs and on-going direct costs that would be incurred by the livestock industry each year. The Informa Study also estimated indirect costs to capture livestock and poultry industry adjustments to the 2010
The sources of indirect costs that the Informa Study estimated for the cattle industry are a reduction in production efficiencies due to a reduction in the use of AMAs and the corresponding reduction in premiums paid in branded beef programs and a reduction in beef quality. The RTI Study also found that hypothetical reductions in AMAs would reduce beef and cattle supplies, reduce the quality of beef, and increase retail and wholesale beef prices.
For the hog industry, the Informa Study estimated the indirect costs as the reduction in operational efficiency from operating slaughter plants at less than full optimal utilization as well as revenue losses due to reductions in quality from reductions in premiums paid for higher quality hogs procured under AMAs.
For the poultry industry, the Informa Study estimated indirect costs resulting from a slowdown in the adoption of new technology that increases efficiency as integrators are unwilling to provide monetary incentives for growers to invest in new technology due to the threat of litigation for unfair, unjustly discriminatory, or deceptive payment practices.
The Informa Study recognized that the economic costs of the 2010 rule would take time to materialize. The Informa Study estimated that only the direct, one-time costs would occur shortly after implementation of the regulations in the 2010 rule and the more significant impacts, such as declining efficiency and quality degradation, would happen more slowly and might not reach the full impact until three or four years after the rule became effective.
At the full impact level, the Informa Study estimated the highest cost to be borne by the cattle industry at almost $880 million, followed by the hog and poultry industries. The Informa Study estimated that the total costs of the regulations proposed in 2010 could be as high as $1.64 billion and that this cost would not be fully borne until three or four years after implementation of the regulations.
The Elam Study estimated a similar impact on the poultry industry as the Informa Study. The Elam Study estimated that the costs of the 2010 proposed rule would increase over time and would cost the chicken industry $200.64 million in the third year after implementation, $266.94 in the fourth year, and $336.67 million in the fifth year, with a total cost of $1.03 billion over the first five years.
GIPSA expects the livestock and poultry industries to adapt to § 201.3(a) after a period of five years when the courts have presumably settled the case law and the livestock and poultry industries know how courts will interpret the regulation. This will cause the costs of § 201.3(a) to decline after a period of five years. GIPSA expects the livestock and poultry industries to adjust their business practices in a way to maximize profits and lessen the impact of the regulation over time.
GIPSA also compared the estimated impact on the poultry industry in the first five years as estimated in the Informa Study and the Elam Study. In the first four years, the poultry costs estimated in the Informa Study are higher than those estimated in the Elam Study. The Elam study has higher cost estimates in year five. Because the Informa Study cost estimates are higher than the Elam Study cost estimates and the Informa Study cost estimates decline in the later years as GIPSA expects, GIPSA relies on the Informa Study cost estimates to estimate the upper boundary of the costs of § 201.3(a).
In order to arrive at the upper boundary estimate of the costs of § 201.3(a), GIPSA made several downward adjustments to the Informa Study estimates presented in Table 18 above. The first adjustment is to reduce the Informa Study cost estimates by 25 percent. The Informa Study implicitly asserted that 75 percent of the total costs of the 2010 rule were caused by relieving the plaintiff of the burden of proving competitive injury.
The second downward adjustment that GIPSA made is to scale the Informa Study's estimates according to the timing of the economic impact the Informa Study estimated. The Informa Study expected the costs to increase in the first three years, peak in years three or four, and then decline through year ten. In order to simulate the costs that the Informa Study assigned to each year, GIPSA adjusted the costs in the full impact year in Table 18 above by the percentages listed in Table 19.
GIPSA then weighted the Informa Study's full-impact cost estimate for each year and each industry by the impact level from the table above.
The final downward adjustment GIPSA made is based on two factors. The first factor is that GIPSA expects the language in § 201.3(a) to result in limited industry adjustments and a continued role for the courts to interpret when a showing of harm or likelihood of harm to competition is necessary in order to prove a violation of section 202(a) or (b) of the P&S Act. The second factor is the fact that the courts have historically not required a showing of harm or likelihood of harm to competition in all livestock and poultry cases and GIPSA expects that trend to continue. GIPSA discusses the factors in turn and then estimates the third and final adjustment to the Informa Study estimates.
The first factor is that § 201.3(a) states that a finding that the challenged conduct or action adversely affects or is likely to adversely affect competition is not necessary in all cases. However, § 201.3(a) does not provide any guidance regarding the types of conduct or action where a finding of harm or likelihood of harm would or would not be necessary to prove a violation of section 202(a) or (b) of the P&S Act.
GIPSA acknowledges that final § 201.3(a) may motivate some private plaintiffs to file new lawsuits under sections 202(a) and/or 202(b) to test its parameters in an attempt to move courts to find in selected cases that harm or likely harm to competition need not be proven. If a U.S. Court of Appeals upholds a district court ruling that competitive harm or likelihood of competitive harm must be demonstrated in order to prove a violation of section 202(a) or (b), that result would not involve any change from the status quo of section 202(a) and 202(b) litigation. Packers, swine contractors, and live poultry dealers would have no reason to adjust their contracts or business practices with the result of few additional indirect costs being borne by the livestock and poultry industries. Similarly, plaintiffs would then need to consider the high costs (in terms of discovery of large amounts of data and the hiring of economic and statistical experts) to proceed to trial and may opt not to proceed with additional litigation.
GIPSA expects the effects of § 201.3(a) on livestock and poultry industry participants to be mixed. A small number of livestock producers, swine production contract growers, and poultry growers may seek judicial enforcement of their rights under the P&S Act without showing harm or likely harm to competition. However, due to the uncertain outcome of litigation under sections 202(a) and/or 202 (b), GIPSA expects packers, swine contractors, and live poultry dealers will likely take a “wait and see” approach prior to making any significant changes in their business models, marketing arrangements, or other practices. Concerned with net profit and reports to stockholders or owners, such firms will rationally forego any large changes in their operations until it is clear that such changes are legally required. If such changes are not required, due to status quo rulings by courts requiring proof of competitive
GIPSA expects the status quo enforcement outcome of § 201.3(a) discussed above to be most likely in the cattle and hog industries. GIPSA has enforced the P&S Act and regulations against packers without proving harm or likelihood of harm to competition for decades, and the courts have upheld successful enforcement actions. It is primarily in the poultry industry that, the courts have declined to enforce, sections 202(a) and (b) of the P&S Act and regulations without a finding of harm or likelihood of harm to competition.
Therefore, due to the likelihood of status quo rulings, GIPSA estimates that the upper boundary cost estimate of the overall impact of § 201.3(a) on the cattle and hog industries will be considerably less than the Informa Study estimates after applying the first two adjustments.
The second factor is the recent outcome of cases decided under the P&S Act since 2000 and whether courts have required demonstration of harm or likely harm to competition. GIPSA examined the actual number of cases decided under the P&S Act from 2000 to 2014. This is the same listing of cases as in the estimation of litigation costs presented earlier, except that GIPSA only considered cases decided after 2000 to reflect the most current decisions reached by the courts. The listing of court decisions and the court in which the decision was reached came from the National Agricultural Law Center at the University of Arkansas.
GIPSA found 22 cases which involved alleged violations of sections 202(a) and 202(b) and addressed the issue of demonstrating harm or likelihood of harm to competition. Of those 22 cases, GIPSA found that the courts required demonstration of harm or likelihood of harm to competition in eight cases and did not require demonstration of a harm or likelihood of harm to competition in 14 cases. However, these 14 cases where demonstration of harm or likelihood of harm to competition was not required were not evenly distributed among the cattle, hog, and poultry industries. Courts have only required a demonstration of harm or likelihood of harm to competition in 20 percent of the cases alleging violations of sections 202(a) and 202(b) in the cattle and hog industries since 2000. GIPSA found that the courts have required a demonstration of harm or likelihood of harm to competition in 50 percent of the cases alleging violations of sections 202(a) and 202(b) in the poultry industry since 2000. The fact that demonstration of harm or likelihood of harm to competition was not required in every case is consistent with § 201.3(a), which states that demonstration of harm or likelihood of harm to competition is not required in all cases. As these cases have all involved livestock packers, swine contractors, and live poultry dealers and are a matter of public record, GIPSA believes that packers, swine contractors, and live poultry dealers are already aware that courts have not required demonstration of a harm or likelihood of harm to competition in all cases. This is another reason why GIPSA expects packers, swine contractors, and live poultry dealers to likely take a “wait and see” approach.
Therefore, due to the likelihood of status quo rulings by courts and the rationality of livestock packers, swine contractors, and live poultry dealers to tend toward a “wait and see” approach, GIPSA estimates the upper boundary estimate to be between 20 percent of the Informa Study cattle and hog industry estimates, 50 percent of the Informa Study poultry industry estimate and zero percent of the Informa Study estimates after applying the first two adjustments. Zero percent would mean that there are no industry adjustments from § 201.3(a).
Given the uncertainty in how the industry will respond to § 201.3(a), GIPSA selected one half of 20 percent of the Informa Study estimates for cattle and hogs, one half of 50 percent of the poultry industry estimate from the Informa Study estimates as its point estimate. Thus, GIPSA applied ten percent of the cattle and hog Informa Study estimates and 25 percent of the poultry Informa Study estimates as its point estimate after applying the first two adjustments. The following table shows the estimated upper boundary costs for § 201.3(a) on an annual and ten-year cost basis based on the adjusted Informa Study cost estimates.
At the upper boundary in the first full year after implementation, GIPSA estimates that § 201.3(a) will result in an additional $76.49 million in direct and indirect costs in the livestock and poultry industries, with $28.14 million in the cattle industry, $12.49 million in the hog industry, and $35.87 million in the poultry industry. GIPSA expects the
GIPSA calculated the NPV of the ten-year total costs of the regulation using both a three percent and seven percent discount rate and the NPVs appear in the following table.
GIPSA expects the NPV of the upper boundary of the ten-year total costs of § 201.3(a) to be $818.97 million at a three percent discount rate and $692.49 million at a seven percent discount rate.
GIPSA then annualized the costs of § 201.3(a) at the upper boundary using both a three percent and seven percent discount rate and the results appear in the following table.
GIPSA expects the annualized costs of § 201.3(a) at the upper boundary to be $96.01 million at a three percent discount rate and $98.60 million at a seven percent discount rate.
In the section above, GIPSA explained that it chose 10 percent of the cattle and hog estimates from the Informa Study and 25 percent of the poultry estimate from the Informa Study as its point estimate for the upper boundary costs. Because of the uncertainty over the eventual impacts of this rule on industry behavior, GIPSA evaluates the sensitivity of its upper bound estimate to an alternative set of assumptions. GIPSA presents three alternative sets of assumptions for calculating the upper bound estimate.
For the first scenario, GIPSA applies the full adjustment to the Informa Study cost estimates, specifically, 20 percent for cattle and hogs and 50 percent for poultry. In that case, GIPSA's estimate of the upper bound would be twice as high as presented in the previous section. For the second scenario, § 201.3(a) is assumed to impact industry behavior for the poultry industry only, (that is, zero percent of the Informa Study estimate for cattle and hogs, and 25 percent of the estimate for poultry). In that scenario, the upper bound estimate would be the same as presented in Table 20, above, for poultry, and would be the lower boundary estimate for cattle and hogs as shown in Table 15. For a third scenario, all the Informa Study estimates are adjusted to zero assuming that there are no indirect costs of adjustment to the rule. In that case, the lower boundary estimate, only reflecting litigation costs, as shown in Tables 15 through 17 would be the result.
GIPSA calculated the NPV of the ten-year total costs of the regulation using both a three percent and seven percent discount rate for each of the three scenarios described above and the NPVs appear in the following table.
GIPSA then annualized the estimated costs of § 201.3(a) at the upper boundary for the three sensitivity scenarios using both a three percent and seven percent discount rate and the results appear in the following table.
The following table shows the full range of the annualized costs of § 201.3(a) at both a three percent and seven percent discount rate.
GIPSA estimates the annualized costs of § 201.3(a) will range from $6.87 million to $96.01 million at a three percent discount rate and from $7.12 million to $98.60 million at a seven percent discount rate.
The range of potential costs is broad. The reason there is a broad range of potential costs is because § 201.3(a) has applicability to the livestock and poultry industries and it is difficult to predict how the industries will respond. If the industries do not change any of their current business practices, GIPSA expects additional litigation to be the only costs and the costs of the regulation will be closer to the lower boundary. If, however, the industries respond by reducing the use of AMAs and restricting their use of incentive pay, GIPSA expects the costs of the regulation to be closer to the upper boundary. Based on the uncertainty over how the industries will respond, GIPSA believes that the mid-point in the range of estimated annualized costs is the best available point estimate of the costs of § 201.3(a). The point estimate along with the lower and upper boundary estimates appear in the table below.
GIPSA expects the annualized costs of § 201.3(a) at the point estimate to be $51.44 million at a three percent discount rate and $52.86 million at a seven percent discount rate. Based on the discussion of GIPSA's expectation that the cattle, hog, and poultry industries will likely take a “wait and see” approach to how the courts will interpret § 201.3(a) and for courts to take a status quo approach, GIPSA believes the point estimates of the preferred alternative to be the best available estimates of the costs of § 201.3(a).
In its estimate of litigation costs presented above, GIPSA recognized the uncertainty in estimating litigation costs and conducted a sensitivity analysis. GIPSA estimated that the lower boundary of the first-year costs of § 201.3(a) were $4.84 million at the lower percentile, $8.89 million at the average percentile, and $13.22 million at the upper percentile.
To consider the effects of the uncertainty in its estimation of litigation costs, GIPSA annualized its litigation costs estimates at the lower percentile, the average percentile, and the upper percentile and the results appear in the following table.
GIPSA then applied this uncertainty to its point estimates of the annualized costs of § 201.3(a) by subtracting the difference of the lower percentile of estimated litigation costs and the point estimate at both the three and seven percent discount rates and added the difference of the upper percentile of estimated litigation costs and the point estimate at both the three and seven percent discount rates. The results of the sensitivity analysis appear in the following table.
GIPSA estimates that the point estimates of the annualized costs of § 201.3(a) will range from $49.87 million at the lower percentile to $53.11 million at the upper percentile using a three percent discount rate. At the seven percent discount rate, GIPSA estimates that the point estimate of the annualized costs will range from $51.57 million at the lower percentile to $55.50 million at the upper percentile. Given the size of the range between the upper and lower boundary of the estimated annualized costs, GIPSA's point estimate is not overly sensitive to the uncertainty in the estimated litigation costs. Thus, GIPSA believes the point estimates of the preferred alternative to be the best available estimate of the costs of § 201.3(a).
GIPSA was unable to quantify the benefits of § 201.3(a). However, there are qualitative benefits of § 201.3(a) that merit discussion. The primary qualitative benefit of § 201.3(a) is ability of livestock producers, swine production contract growers, and poultry growers to have more protections and be treated more fairly, which may lead to more equitable contracts. A simple example is the inaccurate weighing of slaughter-ready poultry grown by a poultry grower for a live poultry dealer. The poultry grower is harmed if the true weight is above the inaccurate weight because the poultry grower's payment is typically tied to the poultry grower's efficiency in growing poultry, which in this case is artificially low due to the inaccurate weight of the live birds. The impact of this harm to the poultry grower is very small when compared to the entire industry and there is no discernable or provable harm to competition from this one instance. However because there is no discernible or provable harm or likely harm to competition, courts have been reluctant to find a violation of section 202(a) of the P&S Act in such a situation, despite the harm suffered by the individual poultry grower.
However, if similar, though unrelated, harm is experienced by a large number of poultry growers, the cumulative effect does result in a discernible and provable harm to competition. The individual harm is inconsequential to the poultry industry, but the sum total of all individual harm has the potential to be quite significant when compared to the poultry industry and therefore, courts have found harm or likely harm to competition in such a situation. Under proposed § 201.210(b)(8), failing to ensure accurate weights of live poultry, absent a legitimate business justification, will constitute an unfair, unjustly discriminatory, or deceptive practice or device and a violation of section 202(a) of the P&S Act. Whether or not the conduct harms or is likely to harm competition becomes irrelevant.
GIPSA expects § 201.3(a) to increase enforcement actions against live poultry dealers for violations of sections 202(a) and/or 202(b) when the conduct or action does not harm or is not likely to harm competition. Several appellate courts have disagreed with USDA's interpretation of the P&S Act that harm or likely harm to competition is not necessary in all cases to prove a violation of sections 202(a) and/or 202(b). In some cases in which the United States was not a party, these courts have concluded that plaintiffs could not prove their claims under sections 202(a) and/or (b) without proving harm to competition or likely harm to competition. One reason the courts gave for declining to defer to USDA's interpretation of the statute is that USDA had not previously enshrined its interpretation in a regulation. Interim final § 201.3(a) corrects the issue and courts may now give deference to USDA's interpretation.
GIPSA expects the result will be additional enforcement actions that will be successfully litigated and serve as a deterrent to violating sections 202(a) and/or 202(b). Benefits to the industries and the markets from additional enforcement will also arise from establishing parity of negotiating power between livestock producers, swine production contract growers, and poultry growers and packers, swine contractors, and live poultry dealers by reducing the ability to use market power with the resulting dead weight losses.
Section 201.3(a) also provides additional protections for livestock producers, swine production contract growers, and poultry growers against unfair, unjustly discriminatory, and deceptive practices or devices and undue or unreasonable preferences, advantages, prejudices, or disadvantages since demonstration of harm to competition is required in all cases. GIPSA believes the standard articulated in § 201.3(a) is consistent with its mission “[T]o protect fair trade practices, financial integrity, and competitive markets for livestock, meats, and poultry.”
GIPSA estimates the annualized costs of § 201.3(a) to range from $6.87 million to $96.01 million at the three percent discount rate and from $7.12 million to $98.60 million at the seven percent discount rate. The range of potential costs is broad. GIPSA relied on its expertise to arrive at a point estimate range of expected annualized costs. GIPSA expects that the cattle, hog, and poultry industries will primarily take a “wait and see” approach to how courts will interpret § 201.3(a) and courts to take a status quo approach and only slightly adjust their use of AMAs and performance-based payment systems. GIPSA estimates that the annualized costs of § 201.3(a) will be $51.44 million at a three percent discount rate and $52.86 million at a seven percent discount rate based on an anticipated “wait and see” approach and industry adjustments.
The primary benefit of § 201.3(a) is the increased ability for the enforcement of the P&S Act for violations of sections 202(a) and/or 202(b), which do not result in harm or likely harm to competition. This, in turn, will reduce instances of unfair, unjustly discriminatory, or deceptive practices or devices and undue or unreasonable preferences, advantages, prejudices, or disadvantages and increased efficiencies in the marketplace. The benefit of additional enforcement of the P&S Act will accrue to all segments of the value chain in the production of livestock and poultry, and ultimately to consumers.
The third regulatory alternative that GIPSA considered is issuing § 201.3(a) as an interim final regulation, but exempting small businesses, as defined by the Small Business Administration, from having to comply with it.
To arrive at the estimated costs of § 201.3(a) based on exempting small businesses, GIPSA weighted the point estimates, lower boundary, and upper boundary of cost estimates by the percentage of cattle and hogs processed by packers that are large businesses and the percentage of contracts held by swine contractors and live poultry dealers that are large businesses. GIPSA estimates that small businesses account for 19.3 percent of the cattle slaughtered. For the hog industry, GIPSA estimates that small businesses slaughter 17.8 percent of hogs and that 65 percent of swine contractors are small businesses. GIPSA estimates that 10.27 percent of live poultry dealers are classified as small businesses.
As discussed above, GIPSA considers the lower boundary of costs from § 201.3(a) to be increased litigation with no adjustments by the cattle, hog, and poultry industries to reduce their use of AMAs or incentive pay systems and there are no changes to existing marketing or production contracts. GIPSA used the average of the litigation cost estimates as the lower boundary for the estimated costs of § 201.3(a). GIPSA then weighted the lower boundary cost estimate under the preferred alternative by the percentage of large businesses in the cattle, hog, and poultry industries. The estimates appear in the table below. The preferred alternative is also shown for convenience.
At the lower boundary with a small business exemption, GIPSA estimates that § 201.3(a) will result in an additional $7.49 million in litigation costs in the cattle, hog, and poultry industries in the first full year following implementation. GIPSA expects the lower boundary of the ten-year total costs of § 201.3(a) with a small business exemption to be $56.16 million.
GIPSA calculated the lower boundary of the NPV of the ten-year total costs of the regulation under the small business exemption using both a three percent and seven percent discount and the NPVs appear in the following table. The preferred alternative is also shown for convenience.
GIPSA expects the NPV of the lower boundary of the ten-year total costs of § 201.3(a) under a small business exemption to be $49.38 million at a three percent discount rate and $42.14 million at a seven percent discount rate.
GIPSA then annualized the NPV of the ten-year total costs of § 201.3(a) at the lower boundary using both a three percent and seven percent discount rate and the results appear in the following table. The preferred alternative is also shown for convenience.
GIPSA expects the annualized costs of § 201.3(a) at the lower boundary with a small business exemption to be $5.79 million at a three percent discount rate and $6.00 million at a seven percent discount rate.
As discussed above, the upper boundary of the cost spectrum occurs if the cattle, hog, and poultry industries adjust their use of AMAs and incentive pay systems and make systematic changes in their marketing and production contracts to reduce the threat of litigation.
For the upper boundary cost estimates under the small business exemption, GIPSA weighted the upper boundary cost estimates under the preferred alternative by the percentage of large businesses in the cattle, hog, and poultry industries and the estimates appear in the table below. For convenience, the estimated costs of the preferred alternative are shown in addition to the costs of the small business exemption.
At the upper boundary with a small business exemption, GIPSA estimates that § 201.3(a) will result in an additional $60.08 million in direct and indirect costs in the cattle, hog, and poultry industries in the first full year following implementation. GIPSA expects the upper boundary of the ten-year total costs of § 201.3(a) with a small business exemption to be $726.05 million.
GIPSA calculated the upper boundary of the NPV of the ten-year total costs of the regulation under the small business exemption using both a three percent and seven percent discount and the NPVs appear in the following table. The preferred alternative is also shown for convenience.
GIPSA expects the NPV of the upper boundary of the NPV of the ten-year total costs of § 201.3(a) under a small business exemption to be $634.97 million at a three percent discount rate and $537.90 million at a seven percent discount rate.
GIPSA then annualized the costs of § 201.3(a) at the upper boundary using both a three percent and seven percent discount rate and the results appear in the following table. The preferred alternative is also shown for convenience.
GIPSA expects the annualized costs of § 201.3(a) at the upper boundary with a small business exemption to be $74.44 million at a three percent discount rate and $76.58 million at a seven percent discount rate.
Using the same methodology, GIPSA also estimated the point estimates of the annualized costs of § 201.3(a) with a small business exemption using both a three percent and seven percent discount rate and the results appear in the following table. The preferred alternative is also shown for convenience.
GIPSA expects the annualized costs of § 201.3(a) at the point estimates with a small business exemption to be $40.11 million at a three percent discount rate and $41.29 million at a seven percent discount rate.
The following table shows the range of the annualized costs of § 201.3(a) at both a three percent and seven percent discount rate under the small business exemption.
GIPSA estimates the annualized costs of § 201.3(a) to range from $5.79 million to $74.44 million at the three percent discount rate and from $6.00 million to $76.58 million at the seven percent discount rate. The range of potential costs is broad and GIPSA relied on its expertise and the methodology discussed above to arrive at point estimates of the costs within the range that GIPSA expects to occur. GIPSA expects the most likely point estimates of annualized costs to be $40.11 million at a three percent discount rate and $41.29 million at a seven percent discount rate.
The benefits of § 201.3(a) with a small business exemption are the same as in the preferred alternative except that the benefits for livestock producers, swine production contract growers, and poultry growers will only be captured by those livestock producers, swine production contract growers, and poultry growers selling or growing livestock and poultry for packers, swine contractors, and poultry dealers classified as large businesses.
GIPSA estimates the annualized costs of § 201.3(a) under a small business exemption to range from $5.79 million to $74.44 million at the three percent discount rate and from $6.00 million to $76.58 million at the seven percent discount rate. GIPSA expects the point estimates of the annualized costs to be $40.11 million at a three percent discount rate and $41.29 million at a seven percent discount rate.
The status quo option has zero marginal costs and benefits as GIPSA does not expect any changes in the cattle, hog, or poultry industries. GIPSA compared the annualized costs of the preferred alternative to the annualized costs of the small business exemption alternative by subtracting the annualized costs of the small business exemption alternative from the preferred alternative and the results appear in the following table.
The annualized cost savings of the small business exemption alternative is between $1.08 million and $21.57 million using a three percent discount rate and between $1.12 million and $22.01 million using a seven percent discount rate. At GIPSA's point estimates, the annualized costs of the small business exemption alternative is $11.33 million less than the preferred alternative using a three percent discount rate and $11.57 million less expensive using a seven percent discount rate.
The data presented in Table 4 above show that over 50 percent of broiler growers have only one or two integrators in their local area. This limited integrator choice may accentuate the risks of contracting. Poultry growers with contract growing arrangements with both small and large live poultry dealers face these risks.
Similarly, the potential market failures or unequal bargaining power among contracting parties due to monopsony or oligopsony market power or asymmetric information likely applies to both production and marketing contracts regardless of whether the packer, swine contractor, or live poultry dealer is large or small due to the regional nature of concentration. The result is that the contracts may have detrimental effects on one of the contracting parties and may result in inefficiencies in the marketplace.
One purpose of § 201.3(a) is to mitigate the risks of potential market failures or unequal bargaining power to all livestock producers, swine production contract growers, and poultry growers, not just the livestock producers, swine production contract growers, and poultry growers selling or growing livestock and poultry for large packers, swine contractors, and poultry dealers. The small business exemption would continue to subject the livestock producers, swine production contract growers, and poultry growers with contractual arrangements with small packers, swine contractors, and live poultry dealers to the contracting risks and potential market failures discussed above. GIPSA believes that the benefits of § 201.3(a) should be captured by all livestock producers, swine production contract growers, and poultry growers.
GIPSA considered three regulatory alternatives and believes the preferred alternative is the best option. All livestock producers, swine production contract growers, and poultry growers, regardless of the size of the firm with which they contract, will capture the benefits of § 201.3(a).
The Small Business Administration (SBA) defines small businesses by their North American Industry Classification System Codes (NAICS).
The Census of Agriculture (Census) indicates there were 558 farms that sold their own hogs and pigs in 2012 and that identified themselves as contractors or integrators. The Census provides the number of head sold from their own operations by size classes for swine contractors, but not the value of sales nor number of head sold from the farms of the contracted production. Thus, to estimate the entity size and average per-entity revenue by the SBA classification, the average value per head for sales of all swine operations is multiplied by production values for firms in the Census size classes for swine contractors. The estimates reveal that although about 65 percent of swine contractors had sales of less than $750,000 in 2012 and would have been classified as small businesses, these small businesses accounted for only 2.8 percent of the hogs produced under production contracts. Additionally, there were 8,031 swine producers in 2012 with swine contracts and about half of these producers would have been classified as small businesses.
Currently, there are 133 live poultry dealers that would be subject to § 201.3(a). According to U.S. Census data on County Business Patterns, there were 74 live poultry dealers that had more than 1,250 employees in 2013. The difference yields approximately 59 live poultry dealers that have fewer than 1,250 employees and would be considered as small businesses that would be subject to the interim final regulation.
GIPSA records for 2014 indicated there were 21,925 poultry production contracts in effect, of which 13,370, or 61 percent, were held by the largest six live poultry dealers, and 90 percent (19,673) were held by the largest 25 firms. These 25 firms are all in the large business SBA category, whereas the 21,925 poultry growers holding the other end of the contracts are almost all small businesses by SBA's definitions.
Poultry dealers classified as large businesses are responsible for about 89.7 percent of the poultry contracts. Assuming that small businesses will bear 10.3 percent of the costs in the first full year § 201.3(a) is effective, between $590,000
As of June 2016, GIPSA records identified 359 beef and pork packers actively purchasing cattle or hogs for slaughter. Many firms slaughtered more than one species of livestock. Of the 359 beef and pork packers, 161 processed both cattle and hogs, 132 processed cattle but not hogs, and 66 processed hogs but not cattle. GIPSA records had a total of 293 cattle slaughterers and 227 hog slaughterers. Two hundred eighty-seven of the cattle slaughterers and 219 of the hog slaughterers would be classified as small businesses.
GIPSA estimates that small businesses accounted for 19.3 percent of the cattle and 17.8 percent of the hogs slaughtered in 2015. If the costs of implementing § 201.3(a) are proportional to the number of head processed, then in 2017, the first full year the regulation would be effective, GIPSA expects between $507,000
Annualized ten-year costs discounted at a three percent interest rate would fall between $392,000 and $8.7 million for the cattle industry, between $20,000 and $772,000 for the hog industry, and between $456,000 and $3.6 million for the poultry industry. This amounts to average estimated costs ranging from $1,400 to $30,400 for each beef packer, $45 to $1,800 for each pork packer, $27 to $1,053 for each swine contractor, and $7,700 to $61,000 for each live poultry dealer that is a small business. The total annualized ten-year costs for small businesses would be between $870,000 and $13.1 million.
Annualized ten-year costs discounted at a seven percent interest rate would fall between $406,000 and $8.8 million for the cattle industry, $20,000 and $785,000 for the hog industry, and $473,000 and $3.8 million for the poultry industry. This amounts to average estimate costs ranging from $1,400 to $30,700 for each beef packer, $40 to $1,800 for each pork packer, $23 to $1,100 for each swine contractor, and $8,000 to $64,100 for each live poultry dealer that is a small business. The total annualized ten-year costs for small businesses would be between $900,000 and $13.4 million.
The table below lists the expected additional costs associated with the proposed regulation and upper and lower bound estimates of the costs. It also lists the point estimate, upper bound, and lower bound annualized costs at three percent and seven percent interest rates.
In considering the impact on small businesses, GIPSA considered the average costs and revenues of each small business impacted by § 201.3(a). The number of small businesses impacted by § 201.3(a), by NAICS code, as well as the per entity, first-year and annualized costs at both the three percent and seven percent discount rates appear in the following table.
The following table compares the average per entity first-year cost of § 201.3(a) to the average revenue per establishment for all firms in the same NAICS code.
The following table compares the average per entity annualized cost at a seven percent discount rate of § 201.3(a) to the average revenue per establishment for all firms in the same NAICS code. The annualized costs are slightly higher at the seven percent rate than at the three percent rate, so only the seven percent rate is shown as it is the higher annualized cost.
The revenue figures in the above table come from Census data for live poultry dealers and cattle and hog slaughterers, NAICS codes 311615 and 311611, respectively.
As the results in Tables 40 and 41 demonstrate, the costs of § 201.3(a) as a percent of revenue are small as they are less than one percent, with the exception of the upper boundary for swine contractors.
Annualized costs savings of exempting small businesses would be between $870,000 and $13.1 million using a three percent discount rate and between $900,000 and $13.4 million using a seven percent discount rate. At GIPSA's point estimates, the annualized costs of the small business exemption alternative is $7.0 million less than the preferred alternative using a three percent discount rate and $7.1 million less expensive using a seven percent discount rate.
Exempting small businesses would continue to subject the livestock producers, swine production contract growers, and poultry growers with contractual arrangements with small packers, swine contractors, and live poultry dealers to the contracting risks and potential market failures discussed above. GIPSA believes that the benefits
Based on the above analyses regarding § 201.3(a), GIPSA certifies that this rule is not expected to have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small business entities as defined in the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
This interim final rule has been reviewed under Executive Order 12988, Civil Justice Reform. These actions are not intended to have retroactive effect, although in some instances they merely reiterate GIPSA's previous interpretation of the P&S Act. This interim final rule will not pre-empt state or local laws, regulations, or policies, unless they present an irreconcilable conflict with this rule. There are no administrative procedures that must be exhausted prior to any judicial challenge to the provisions of this rule. Nothing in this interim final rule is intended to interfere with a person's right to enforce liability against any person subject to the P&S Act under authority granted in section 308 of the P&S Act.
This rule has been reviewed in accordance with the requirements of Executive Order 13175, “Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments.” Executive Order 13175 requires Federal agencies to consult and coordinate with tribes on a government-to-government basis on policies that have tribal implications, including regulations, legislative comments or proposed legislation, and other policy statements or actions that have substantial direct effects on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes or the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes.
Although GIPSA has assessed the impact of this rule on Indian tribes and determined that this rule does not, to our knowledge, have tribal implications that require tribal consultation under Executive Order 13175, GIPSA offered opportunities to meet with representatives from Tribal Governments during the comment period for the proposed rule (June 22 to November 22, 2010) with specific opportunities in Rapid City, South Dakota, on October 28, 2010, and Oklahoma City, Oklahoma on November 3, 2010. All tribal headquarters were invited to participate in these venues for consultation. GIPSA has received no specific indication that the rule will have tribal implications and has received no further requests for consultation as of the date of this publication. If a Tribe requests consultation, GIPSA will work with the Office of Tribal Relations to ensure meaningful consultation is provided where changes, additions, and modifications herein are not expressly mandated by Congress.
This interim final rule does not contain new or amended information collection requirements subject to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
GIPSA is committed to compliance with the E-Government Act, to promote the use of the Internet and other information technologies to provide increased opportunities for citizen access to Government information and services, and for other purposes.
Contracts, Livestock, Poultry, Trade practices.
For the reasons set forth in the preamble, we amend 9 CFR part 201 as follows:
7 U.S.C. 181-229c.
(a)
(b)
Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, Treasury.
Final rule.
The Office of the Comptroller of the Currency (OCC) is adopting a final rule addressing the conduct of receiverships for national banks that are not insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC) (uninsured banks) and for which the FDIC would not be appointed as receiver. The final rule implements the provisions of the National Bank Act (NBA) that provide the legal framework for receiverships of such institutions. The final rule adopts the rule as proposed without change.
This final rule is effective on January 19, 2017.
Mitchell Plave, Special Counsel, Legislative and Regulatory Activities Division, (202) 649-5490, or for persons who are deaf or hard of hearing, TTY, (202) 649-5597, or Richard Cleva, Senior Counsel, Bank Activities and Structure Division, (202) 649-5500, Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, 400 7th Street SW., Washington, DC 20219.
On September 13, 2016, the OCC published a proposed rule to implement the provisions of the NBA that provide the legal framework for receiverships for uninsured banks,
As of December 2, 2016, the OCC supervised 52 uninsured banks, all of which are national trust banks.
The business model of national trust banks is to generate income in the form of fees by offering fiduciary and custodial services that generally fall into one or more of a few broad categories. Some national trust banks focus on institutional asset management, providing trust and custodial services for investment portfolios of pension plans, foundations and endowments, and other entities, often with an investment management component. A few other national trust banks serve primarily as a fiduciary and custodian to facilitate the establishment of Individual Retirement Accounts by customers of an affiliated mutual fund complex or broker-dealer firm. Some national trust banks provide custodial services, such as corporate trust accounts, under which the bank performs services for others in connection with their issuance, transfer, and registration of debt or equity securities. Other custody accounts may be a holding facility for customer securities, where the bank assists institutional customers with global settlement and safekeeping of the customer's securities.
Many of the uninsured national trust banks are subsidiaries or affiliates of a full-service insured national bank or are affiliates of an insured state bank. Other uninsured national trust banks are not affiliated with an insured depository institution, but are affiliated with an investment management firm or other financial services firm. Still other uninsured national trust banks have no affiliation with a larger parent company.
The OCC appoints and oversees receivers for uninsured banks under the provisions of the NBA
The OCC has not appointed a receiver for an uninsured bank since shortly after the Congress established the FDIC in response to the banking panics of 1930-1933. National trust banks face very different types of risks because of the fundamentally different business model of national trust banks compared to commercial and consumer banks and savings associations. These risks include operational, compliance, strategic, and reputational risks without the credit and liquidity risks that additionally affect the solvency of commercial and consumer banks. While any of these risks can result in the precipitous failure of a bank or savings association, from a historical perspective, trust banks have been more likely to decline into a weakened condition, allowing the OCC and the institution the time needed to find other solutions for rehabilitating the institution or to successfully resolve the institution without the need to appoint a receiver.
The OCC believes it would nevertheless be beneficial to financial market participants and the broader community of regulators for the OCC to clarify the receivership framework for uninsured banks. Although the OCC conducted 2,762 receiverships pursuant to this framework in the years prior to the creation of the FDIC,
The OCC received 11 comments from the public in response to the OCC's notice of proposed rulemaking and the alternatives the OCC discussed therein. The commenters included individuals, a state trust company, and a think tank, as well as representatives of consumer groups, financial reform advocacy groups, state banking regulators, banking institutions, and bitcoin firms. These submissions offered issues and viewpoints about selected portions of the proposed rule's regulatory provisions for the OCC's consideration; these are discussed in connection with the discussion of the OCC's rationale for issuing the associated portions of the final rule, in Section III of this
As part of the notice of proposed rulemaking, the OCC also asked for the public's input on a number of specific questions and received comments on two of these questions. One question was whether any unique considerations would be raised by applying the proposed rule's framework for receivership of uninsured national banks, which are all national trust banks at present, to other uninsured banks that would be organized to engage in the delivery of banking services in new and innovative ways, such as special purpose national banks engaged in financial technology (fintech) activities.
On this receivership framework question, two commenters expressed concerns that the earlier-established legal regime for receiverships under the NBA and associated judicial precedent does not include select elements subsequently created for insured depository institutions under FIRREA and FDICIA, and thus might not be as effective outside the trust bank sphere in application to the receivership of special purpose national banks engaged in fintech activities. These commenters said the OCC should refrain from chartering these special purpose national banks until the law changes to address this difference. One commenter expressed concern that the rule's incorporation of the NBA's priority requirements for payment of receivership claims, which include no preference for consumer claims over other general creditors, might have the effect of distorting incentives among debt investors across special purpose national banks, and more broadly contribute to moral hazard.
The OCC understands these comments to be urging, in effect, changes in the statutory receivership provisions underlying the rule. Absent Congressional action to do so, however, the current provisions of the NBA are the ones that would govern should it become necessary to appoint a receiver for an uninsured national bank. The OCC believes it is best to be clear, through a regulation implementing those NBA provisions, about the framework that would apply in order to avoid clouding the ongoing discussion about the chartering of special purpose national banks engaged in fintech activities with uncertainty about how uninsured institutions are resolved.
More broadly, some commenters said the OCC should consider receivership and cost issues in deciding whether to charter special purpose national banks engaged in fintech activities, or the terms on which they could be chartered. Two commenters said the nature of a fintech firm's business diverges widely from banks, and that creditor loss rates in a receivership for an uninsured special purpose national bank engaged in fintech activities may exceed levels that are tolerable in the resolution of a chartered bank. These commenters said this was a contra-indication for chartering such banks, but one of the commenters further elaborated that the OCC can and should exercise particularly close supervision of these firms and thereby reduce the risk of receiverships ever taking place. Another commenter said that fintech firms do not have national trust banks' track record for remaining solvent and avoiding receivership, and the OCC should mitigate potential concerns about receivership costs by imposing capital support agreements and similar obligations in chartering special purpose national banks that engage in fintech activities.
In contrast to these views about the uniqueness of special purpose national banks engaged in fintech activities, one commenter said that a fintech firm, such as a digital currency exchange, performs a function comparable to a national trust bank that obtains payments on behalf of customers and provides security for those funds, and therefore such institutions do not pose unique considerations for the receivership framework. Another commenter said the functions of special purpose national banks that engage in fintech activities could be even simpler than a national trust bank, such as a special purpose national bank that provides fintech payment services where each customer transaction is brief and segregated. For special purpose national banks engaged in fintech activities involving lending, this commenter stated the customer relationships are somewhat longer but still discrete, and that the OCC could adequately eliminate concerns about the impact of a receivership by ensuring the bank's plans for back-up servicing and orderly wind-up were robust.
Some commenters discussed additional topics not touching on the receivership issues covered by the notice of proposed rulemaking, but more germane to the desired framework for creating, regulating, and supervising special purpose national banks that engage in fintech activities or uninsured national trust banks. These broader comments do not pertain to the OCC's adoption of the final rule for uninsured banks and many of them implicate issues that the OCC would need to evaluate on a case-by-case basis in connection with a decision on whether to charter a particular special purpose national bank that engages in fintech activities. The OCC has recently published and invited comment on a paper discussing these issues.
In the second question asked in the preamble to the Proposed Rule, the OCC asked for alternatives that would take into account the cost considerations that could arise for the OCC if the administrative expenses of an uninsured national bank receivership exceeded the assets in the receivership.
The final rule incorporates the framework set forth in the NBA for the Comptroller to appoint a receiver for an uninsured bank, generally under the same grounds for appointment of the FDIC as receiver for insured national banks. The uninsured bank may challenge the appointment in court, and the NBA affords jurisdiction to the appropriate United States district court for this purpose. The OCC will provide the public with notice of the appointment, as well as instructions for submitting claims against the uninsured bank in receivership. The Comptroller
The final rule also follows the statutory framework under the NBA with respect to claims, under which persons with claims against an uninsured bank in receivership will file their claims with the receiver for the failed uninsured bank, for review by the OCC. In the event the OCC denies the claim, the only remedy available to the claimant is to bring a judicial action against the uninsured bank's receivership estate and assert the claim
Approved or adjudicated claims are paid solely out of the assets of the uninsured national bank in receivership. This reflects the legal distinction between the OCC as regulatory agency and the OCC acting in a receivership capacity. In the former, the OCC oversees national banks, FSAs, and Federal branches and Federal agencies, supervising them under the charge of assuring the safety and soundness of, and compliance with laws and regulations, fair access to financial services, and fair treatment of customers by, the institutions and other persons subject to its jurisdiction. As receiver, the OCC appoints and oversees receivers for uninsured national banks, thereby facilitating the winding down of bank operations, assets, and accounts while minimizing disruptions to customers and creditors of the institution. Under the “separate capacities” doctrine, which has long been recognized in litigation involving the FDIC, it is well established that the agency, when acting in one capacity, is not liable for claims against the agency acting in its other capacity.
As provided in the final rule, the receiver liquidates the assets of the uninsured bank, with court approval, and pays the proceeds into an account as directed by the OCC. The categories of claims and the priority thereof for payment are set out in the final rule. The final rule also clarifies certain powers held by the receiver.
Section 51.1 of the final rule identifies the purpose and scope of the final rule and clarifies that the rule applies to receiverships conducted by the OCC under the NBA for national banks that are not insured by the FDIC.
Section 51.2 of the final rule is based on 12 U.S.C. 191 and 192 and concerns appointment of a receiver. The final rule sets out the Comptroller's authority to appoint any person, including the OCC or another government agency, as receiver for an uninsured bank and provides that the receiver performs its duties subject to the approval and direction of the Comptroller.
As discussed earlier, this dual capacity (OCC as supervisor versus OCC as receivership sponsor for an uninsured bank) recognizes that, while the NBA makes the receivership oversight and claims review functions of the Comptroller part of the OCC's responsibilities, the receivership oversight role is unique and distinct from the OCC's role as a Federal regulatory agency and supervisor of national banks and FSAs. This is comparable to the dual capacity of the FDIC's receivership function for insured depository institutions pursuant to the FDIA.
Section 51.2 of the final rule also provides that the Comptroller may require the receiver to post a bond or other security and the receiver may hire staff and professional advisors, with the approval of the Comptroller, if needed to carry out the receivership. This section also identifies the grounds for appointment of a receiver for an uninsured bank and notes that uninsured banks may seek judicial review of the appointment pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 191.
Section 51.3 of the final rule provides that the OCC will provide notice to the public of the appointment of a receiver for the uninsured bank. The final rule specifies that one component of this notice will include publication in a newspaper of general circulation selected by the OCC for three consecutive months, as required by 12 U.S.C. 193. As a component of the OCC's notice to the public about the receivership, the OCC will also provide instructions for creditors and other claimants seeking to submit claims with the receiver for the uninsured bank.
As noted in the proposed rule, the OCC believes that the purpose of section 193 may be better served by publication through means in addition to the statutorily required publication in a newspaper. For example, the OCC could provide direct notice to customers and creditors of the uninsured bank to the extent the uninsured bank's records included current contact information. The OCC could also arrange to provide notice through electronic channels that customers would typically use to contact the uninsured bank, such as the uninsured bank's Web site. The OCC believes that an effective set of notice protocols would best be established on a case-by-case basis, in light of a specific uninsured bank's fiduciary and custodial activities, the types of customers served by the bank, coordination with other notice protocols under way for any related entity that is also undergoing resolution activity, and similar factors. The OCC requested comment on alternative means of communicating with customers of uninsured banks.
One commenter, a trade association for banks, suggested that the OCC employ notice mechanisms that are consistent with the way in which the failed bank typically communicates with its clients and counterparties. The commenter suggested, for example, that a receiver for an institution with clients in other countries should communicate with those clients in the language typically used by the institution in its communications with those clients. The OCC agrees that this approach would be appropriate in such cases and reiterates that effective forms of notice, beyond the statutorily required notice in a newspaper, will be evaluated on a case-by-case basis.
Section 51.4 of the final rule addresses the submission of claims to the receiver for an uninsured bank. Under § 51.4(a), a person with a claim against the receivership may submit a claim to the OCC, which will consider the claim and make a determination concerning its validity and approved amount. This process reflects the provisions in 12 U.S.C. 193 and 194 regarding presentation of claims and payment of dividends on claims that are proved to the satisfaction of the Comptroller. Section 51.4 also provides that the Comptroller will establish a deadline for filing claims with the receiver, which could not be earlier than 30 days after the three-month publication of notice required by § 51.3. This provision reflects NBA case law that permits the Comptroller to establish a date for filing claims against the receiver for a failed bank.
Section 51.4(b) of the final rule clarifies that persons with claims against an uninsured bank in receivership may present their claims to a court of competent jurisdiction for adjudication in addition to, or as an alternative to, filing a claim with the OCC. If successful in court, such persons will be required to submit a copy of the final judgment to the OCC to participate in ratable dividends of liquidation proceeds along with claims against the bank in receivership submitted to, and approved by, the OCC. The final rule requires submission of a copy of the court's final judgment to the OCC. This provision is based on 12 U.S.C. 193 and 194.
In this regard, the receivership regime established by the NBA differs somewhat from the approach set out in other resolution regimes, such as the bankruptcy provisions of the United States Code and the receivership provisions of the FDIA. Under those resolution regimes, creditors and claimants must generally submit their claims to the receivership estate for centralized administration and disposition, and claims that are not submitted by the claims deadline are barred from any participation in liquidation payments. The NBA provisions are different in that claimants are provided the opportunity to submit claims to the OCC for evaluation, but are not foreclosed from pursuing judicial resolution by filing litigation (or continuing a pre-existing lawsuit) in a court of competent jurisdiction against the uninsured bank in receivership.
The claims filing deadline established by the Comptroller pursuant to § 51.4(a) of the final rule is the date by which claimants seeking review under the OCC's claims process must make their submission. Nevertheless, a claimant that has not made a submission to the OCC by the deadline is not barred from initiating judicial claims against the uninsured bank in receivership solely by virtue of missing the claims deadline.
The NBA's receivership provisions are like the receivership regime established by the FDIC under the FDIA, however, in that the avenue available to a party whose claim has been denied by the FDIC or OCC, when performing the agencies' receivership claims functions, is to file (or continue) a
Section 51.4(c) of the final rule provides that if a person with a claim against an uninsured bank in receivership also has an obligation owed to the bank, the claim and obligation will be set off against each other and only the net balance remaining after set-off will be considered as a claim. To this end, § 51.4(a) also includes language referring to claims for set-off. The right of set-off where parties have mutual obligations has long been recognized as an equitable principle.
The OCC requested comment on whether there are additional characteristics of set-offs or other situations in which set-off may arise that should be included in the rule. One commenter, a trade association for banks, said that the administration of set-offs may be complex, given that the trust and fiduciary business is a fee-based industry. The commenter offered the example of instances in which fees have been accrued or are otherwise in the process of payment to one or more service providers at the time of receivership. The commenter suggested that the final rule acknowledge that a given resolution may involve bespoke, fact-specific set-off situations that would need to be carefully considered, while also serving the need for the receiver or a successor fiduciary to be in a position to continue providing fiduciary services during the receivership.
The OCC believes that, on balance, it is not necessary to make this kind of an addition to the language of the final rule. Section 51.4 as a whole is designed to make the basic framework of claim submission transparent to creditors of the uninsured bank, and set-off is included as an element of this framework. As the commenter states, the OCC's determination of particular claims will require consideration of fact-specific situations prior to reaching a disposition, and this extends to considerations of set-offs. The final rule is designed to accommodate with flexibility the consideration of such factors in the context in which each claim is postured.
Section 51.5 of the final rule sets out the order of priorities for payment of administrative expenses of the receiver and claims against the uninsured bank in receivership. Under this section, the OCC will pay these expenses and claims in the following order: (1) administrative expenses of the receiver; (2) unsecured creditors, including secured creditors to the extent their claim exceeds their valid and enforceable security interest; (3) creditors of the uninsured bank, if any, whose claims are subordinated to general creditor claims; and (4) shareholders of the uninsured bank. The order is based on case law and, in the
A creditor or other claimant with a security interest that was valid and enforceable as to its terms prior to the appointment of the receiver is entitled to exercise that security interest, outside the priority of distributions set out in the final rule.
Liens arising from judicial determinations after the initiation of the receivership, as well as contractual liens that are triggered due to the appointment of a receiver or other post-appointment events, are not enforceable. This is because recognition of these liens would afford these claimants a priority that is not recognized under the established legal priorities described in § 51.5 of the final rule. Similarly, a secured creditor is not entitled to a priority distribution of any portion of the claim that is not covered by the value of the collateral because the creditor is in the position of a general unsecured creditor for that portion of the claim and must participate in ratable liquidation distributions on par with other unsecured creditors.
Assets held by the uninsured bank at the time of the receiver's appointment in a fiduciary or custodial capacity, as identified on the bank's books and records, are not general assets of the bank. Section 51.8(b) of the final rule reiterates this point. In the same vein, the claim of the customer for the return of the customer's fiduciary or custodial assets is separate from, and not subject to, the priority set out in § 51.5. Fiduciary and custodial customers of the bank have direct claims on those assets pursuant to their fiduciary or custodial account contracts. However, the priority of a fiduciary or custodial customer's other claims against the bank, if any, would remain subject to the priority described in § 51.5. For example, a fiduciary customer's claim for a refund of prepaid investment management fees that were attributable to periods after the receiver returned the fiduciary assets to the customer generally would be a general unsecured claim covered by § 51.5(b). The claims process described in § 51.4(b) is available to a fiduciary customer, for both a direct claim for the return of fiduciary assets, as well as a receivership claim for amounts the customer believes it is owed by the bank.
The OCC requested comment on whether there are other Federal statutes regarding specific types of claims that may be applicable to a receivership of an uninsured bank under the NBA and that would give certain claims a different priority, such as claims owed to the Federal government. One commenter, a coalition that advocates for reform in the financial services industry, agreed that customer assets held by a bank in a fiduciary capacity should not be considered assets of the bank, but questioned why other claims of the customer, such as a claim for a refund of prepaid investment management fees that were attributable to periods after the receiver returned the fiduciary assets to the customer, would be treated as a unsecured general creditor claim. The commenter suggested that such customer funds would have less protection in a receivership for an uninsured bank than they would under certain modern receivership and bankruptcy statutes that set forth claim priorities which include preference to customer claims over other general creditor claims.
The OCC is required, by statute, to pay claims on a ratable basis. As discussed in connection with the description of § 51.8 of the final rule, this requirement has been interpreted by the courts as requiring the OCC to make distributions on OCC-approved claims and judicial awards on an equal footing, determining the amount of each creditor's claim as it stands at the point of insolvency. As a result, the controlling ratable payment statute does not support a rule that makes distinctions in distribution priority between customer and general creditor claimants.
Section 51.6 of the final rule provides that all administrative expenses of the receiver for an uninsured bank will be paid out of the assets of the receivership before payment of claims against the receivership. This reflects the requirements in 12 U.S.C. 196. The final rule also states that receivership expenses will include pre-receivership and post-receivership obligations that the receiver determines are necessary and appropriate to facilitate the orderly liquidation or other resolution of the uninsured bank in receivership. To further illustrate the kinds of expenses that § 196 affords a first priority claim on the uninsured bank's receivership assets, § 51.6 enumerates examples of such administrative expenses, such as wages and salaries of employees, expenses for professional services, contractual rent pursuant to an existing lease or rental agreement, and payments to third-party or affiliated service providers, when the receiver determines these expenses are of benefit to the receivership.
Section 51.7 of the final rule contains provisions describing the powers and duties of the receiver and the disposition of fiduciary and custodial accounts. As described in § 51.7, the receiver will take over the assets and operation of the uninsured bank, take action to realize on debts owed to the uninsured bank, sell the property of the bank, and liquidate the assets of the uninsured bank for payment of claims against the receivership. Section 51.7(a)(1)-(5) lists some of the major powers and duties for the receiver set out in 12 U.S.C. 192 and clarified by the courts, including taking possession of the books and records of the bank, collecting on debts and claims owed to the bank, selling or compromising bad or doubtful debts (with court approval), and selling the bank's real and personal property (also with court approval).
Section 51.7(b) of the final rule provides for the receiver to close the uninsured bank's fiduciary and custodial appointments, or transfer such accounts to a successor fiduciary or custodian under 12 CFR 9.16 or other applicable Federal law. The uninsured banks currently in existence focus on fiduciary and custodial services, so this function of the receiver will be of primary importance. This provision recognizes that the receiver's power to wind up the affairs of the uninsured bank in receivership, acting with court approval to make disposition of bank assets, should properly encompass the power to transfer fiduciary or custodial appointments and any associated assets in appropriate circumstances.
Transfer of fiduciary appointments may occur under the terms of the instrument creating the relationship, if it provides for transfer, or under a fiduciary transfer statute, if one is applicable. The OCC believes there are strong public policy interests in endeavoring to replace fiduciaries and custodians expeditiously, without an interruption in service to their customers, if transfer can be arranged to a qualified successor, maintaining the
Across the United States, there are disparate and often conflicting legal rules restricting or conditioning transfers of an appointment of a fiduciary for a beneficiary residing within the state. Depending on the geographic area across which the uninsured bank has established fiduciary relationships with its customers, and the standardization of its fiduciary account agreements or appointing instruments, it may be practicable for the receiver to transition an uninsured bank's fiduciary and custody accounts to a qualified successor through the mechanisms provided by applicable local law. On the other hand, if faced with dispersed customers, diverse account agreements or appointments of different vintage, or even the absence of an applicable law of transfer for customers in certain states, reliance on these methods may be so cumbersome as to effectively prevent accomplishment of the transfers in a timely way.
In order to address these potential problems, the OCC, relying on the support of existing case law, is including language in the final rule to make it clear that the uninsured bank receiver's power under 12 U.S.C. 192 to sell, with court approval, the real and personal property of the bank includes the power to transfer the bank's fiduciary accounts and related assets, subject to the approval of the court exercising jurisdiction over the receiver's efforts to transfer the bank's assets. The final rule is consistent with case law recognizing that a receiver for a national bank may properly arrange asset purchase and liability assumption transactions to move the business of a failed bank to a successor on an integrated basis, as part of the power to transfer assets, as well as analogous case law concerning the transfer of fiduciary and custodial assets by the FDIC, acting as receiver of failed insured depository institutions.
Section 51.7(c) of the final rule incorporates, in general terms, the powers, duties, and responsibilities of receivers for national banks under the NBA and under judicial precedents determining the authorities and responsibilities of receivers for national banks. Examples of these powers include: (1) the authority to repudiate certain contracts, including: (a) purely executory contracts, upon determining that the contracts would be unduly burdensome or unprofitable for the receivership estate,
Section 51.7(d) of the final rule requires the receiver to make periodic reports to the OCC concerning the status and proceedings of the receivership.
Section 51.8 of the final rule contains provisions regarding the payment of dividends on claims against the uninsured bank and the distribution of any remaining proceeds to shareholders. This section provides that, after administrative expenses of the receivership have been paid, the OCC will make ratable dividends from available receivership funds based on the priority of claims in proposed § 51.5 for claims that have been proved to the OCC's satisfaction or adjudicated in a court of competent jurisdiction, as provided in 12 U.S.C. 194. The OCC will make payment of dividends, if any, periodically, at the discretion of the OCC, as the receiver liquidates the assets of the uninsured bank.
The final rule's inclusion of the “ratable dividend” requirement is designed to incorporate the associated standards about the proper application of this statutory directive, which the judiciary has articulated over the years. The ratable dividend requirement directs the OCC to make distributions on OCC-approved claims and judicial awards on an equal footing, determining the amount of each creditor's claim as it stands at the point of insolvency. As one example, a court's award of interest on an unpaid debt to the date of a judgment rendered in the plaintiff's favor after the receiver was appointed does not increase the amount of the plaintiff's claim for purposes of making ratable dividends. As another example, the ratable dividend requirement generally restricts claims against the bank receivership for debts that were not due and owing at the appointment of the receiver and arose for the first time as a consequence of the appointment or a post-appointment event.
The OCC requested comment on alternatives to the proposed rule's approach to paying dividends on claims, under which the OCC would exercise its discretion under section 194 to determine the timing of the distributions on established claims. Under one alternative presented in the proposed rule, the OCC would refrain from paying any dividends until all claims have been submitted and validated, with final allowed claim amounts established. As we noted in the proposal, this approach presents the possibility that proven claims may be delayed for a significant amount of time pending more protracted resolution of other claims. Under a second option presented in the proposed rule, the OCC would make ongoing dividends on proven claims, subject to the receiver's retaining a percentage of the funds on hand at the time of the distribution as a pool of dividends for catch-up distributions to a successful plaintiff later.
The OCC did not receive comments on these alternative approaches for making ratable distributions on claims against a receivership. For this reason, and because the proposed rule's approach to payment of dividends provides the OCC with the discretion to tailor the dividend process to facts and circumstances of a particular receivership, the final rule adopts § 51.8 as proposed.
Section 51.8(a)(2) of the final rule recognizes the basic legal premise under the NBA receivership provisions and judicial interpretations thereof that any dividend payments to creditors and other claimants of an uninsured bank will be made solely from receivership
Section 51.8(b) of the final rule similarly recognizes that assets held by an uninsured national bank at the time of the receiver's appointment in a fiduciary or custodial capacity, as designated on the bank's books and records, are not part of the bank's general assets and liabilities held in connection with its other business and will not be considered a source for payment for unrelated claims of creditors and other claimants. This provision is intended to make clear that the receiver will segregate identified fiduciary and custodial assets and either transfer those assets to other fiduciaries or custodians as described in connection with § 51.7(b), or close the accounts and endeavor to make the associated assets available to the account holders or their representatives through other means.
One commenter, a trade association for banks, agreed with the treatment of fiduciary assets in the proposed rule, but questioned whether § 51.8(b) indicates with sufficient clarity that fiduciary assets will not be treated as assets of the bank in receivership. As stated in the final rule, fiduciary and custodial assets “will not be considered as part of the bank's general assets. . .”. The OCC reiterates that, under this section, assets held by an uninsured bank in a fiduciary or custodial capacity, as designated on the bank's books and records, are not part of the bank's general assets and liabilities held in connection with its other business and will not be a source for payment for unrelated claims of creditors and other claimants.
Section 51.8(d) of the final rule provides that, after all administrative expenses and claims have been paid in full, any remaining proceeds will be paid to shareholders in proportion to their stock ownership, also as provided in 12 U.S.C. 194.
Section 51.9 of the final rule contains provisions for termination of receiverships in which there are assets remaining after all administrative expenses and all claims had been paid. This is the scenario addressed by 12 U.S.C. 197. In such a case, section 197 requires the Comptroller to call a meeting of the shareholders of the bank at which the shareholders would decide whether to continue oversight by the Comptroller, or whether to end the receivership and appoint a liquidating agent to continue the liquidation of the remaining assets, under the direction of the board of directors and shareholders, as in a liquidation that had commenced under 12 U.S.C. 181.
There may be other circumstances under which termination would take place, such as when there are no receivership assets remaining after completion of receivership activities. Under this scenario, the receiver for an uninsured bank has liquidated all of the bank's assets, closed or transferred all fiduciary accounts to a successor fiduciary, paid all administrative expenses, and either paid creditor claims in full and distributed the remaining proceeds to shareholders, as provided in § 51.8(c) of the final rule, or made ratable dividends of all remaining proceeds to creditors as provided in § 51.8(a), but no additional assets remain in the estate. Under these circumstances, the provisions in 12 U.S.C. 197 for termination would not apply.
Under the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
The Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA), 5 U.S.C. 601
The OCC currently supervises approximately 1,032 small entities. The scope of the final rule extends to uninsured banks. The maximum number of OCC-supervised small uninsured banks that could be subject to the receivership framework described in the final rule is approximately 18.
The OCC has analyzed the final rule under the factors in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (UMRA) (2 U.S.C. 1532). Under this analysis, the OCC considered whether the final rule includes a Federal mandate that may result in the expenditure by state, local, and tribal governments, in the aggregate, or by the private sector, of $100 million or more in any one year (adjusted annually for inflation). As detailed in the
Administrative practice and procedure, Banks, Banking, National banks, Procedural rules, Receiverships.
For the reasons set forth in the preamble and under the authority of 12 U.S.C. 16, 93a, 191-200, 481, 482, 1831c, and 1867 the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency adds part 51 to chapter I of title 12, Code of Federal Regulations to read as follows:
12 U.S.C. 16, 93a, 191-200, 481, 482, 1831c, and 1867.
(a)
(b)
(a)
(b)
(c)
Upon appointment of a receiver for an uninsured bank, the OCC will provide notice to the public of the receivership, including by publication in a newspaper of general circulation for three consecutive months. The notice of the receivership will provide instructions for creditors and other claimants seeking to submit claims with the receiver for the uninsured bank.
(a)
(2) The OCC will establish a date by which any person seeking to present a claim against the uninsured bank for consideration by the OCC must present their claim for determination. The deadline for filing such claims will not be less than 30 days after the end of the three-month notice period in § 51.3.
(3) The OCC will allow any claim against the uninsured bank received on or before the deadline for presenting claims if such claim is established to the OCC's satisfaction by the information on the uninsured bank's books and records or otherwise submitted. The OCC may disallow any portion of any claim by a creditor or claim of a security, preference, set-off, or priority which is not established to the satisfaction of the OCC.
(b)
(c)
The OCC will pay receivership expenses and proved claims against the uninsured bank in receivership in the following order of priority:
(a) Administrative expenses of the receiver;
(b) Unsecured creditors of the uninsured bank, including secured creditors to the extent their claim exceeds their valid and enforceable security interest;
(c) Creditors of the uninsured bank, if any, whose claims are subordinated to general creditor claims; and
(d) Shareholders of the uninsured bank.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(1) Salaries, costs, and other expenses of the receiver and its staff, and costs of contracts entered into by the receiver for professional services relating to performing receivership duties; and
(2) Expenses necessary for the operation of the uninsured bank, including wages and salaries of employees, expenses for professional services, contractual rent pursuant to an existing lease or rental agreement, and payments to third-party or affiliated service providers, that in the opinion of the receiver are of benefit to the receivership, until the date the receiver repudiates, terminates, cancels, or otherwise discontinues the applicable contract.
(a)
(1) Takes possession of the books, records and other property and assets of the uninsured bank, including the value
(2) Collects all debts, dues and claims belonging to the uninsured bank, including claims remaining after set-off;
(3) Sells or compromises all bad or doubtful debts, subject to approval by a court of competent jurisdiction;
(4) Sells the real and personal property of the uninsured bank, subject to approval by a court of competent jurisdiction, on such terms as the court shall direct; and
(5) Deposits all receivership funds collected from the liquidation of the uninsured bank in an account designated by the OCC.
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
(2) The Comptroller may reduce the fees of the receiver for an uninsured bank if, in the Comptroller's discretion, the Comptroller finds the performance of the receiver to be deficient, or the fees of the receiver to be excessive, unreasonable, or beyond the scope of the work assigned to the receiver.
(a)
(2) Dividend payments to creditors and other claimants of an uninsured bank will be made solely from receivership funds, if any, paid to the OCC by the receiver after payment of the expenses of the receiver.
(b)
(c)
(d)
If there are assets remaining after full payment of the expenses of the receiver and all claims of creditors for an uninsured bank and all fiduciary accounts of the bank have been closed or transferred to a successor fiduciary and fiduciary powers surrendered, the Comptroller shall call a meeting of the shareholders of the uninsured bank, as provided in 12 U.S.C. 197, for the shareholders to decide the manner in which the liquidation will continue. The liquidation may continue by:
(a) Continuing the receivership of the uninsured bank under the direction of the Comptroller; or
(b) Ending the receivership and oversight by the Comptroller and replacing the receiver with a liquidating agent to proceed to liquidate the remaining assets of the uninsured bank for the benefit of the shareholders, as set out in 12 U.S.C. 197.
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Final rule.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or Agency) is issuing regulations to set forth postmarketing safety reporting requirements for combination products. Specifically, this final rule describes the postmarketing safety reporting requirements that apply when two or more different types of regulated medical products (drugs, devices, and/or biological products, which are referred to as “constituent parts” of a combination product) comprise a combination product and the combination product or its constituent parts have received FDA marketing authorization. The rule is intended to promote and protect the public health by setting forth the requirements for postmarketing safety reporting for these combination products, and is part of FDA's ongoing effort to ensure the consistency and appropriateness of the regulatory requirements for combination products.
John Barlow Weiner, Associate Director for Policy, Office of Combination Products, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 32, Rm. 5129, Silver Spring, MD 20933, 301-796-8930,
The Agency has not previously issued regulations on postmarketing safety reporting specifically for combination products, which are products comprised of: (1) A drug and a device; (2) a device and a biological product; (3) a biological product and a drug; or (4) a drug, a device, and a biological product. Instead, the Agency has applied provisions to combination products from the postmarketing safety reporting regulations applicable to the constituent parts (
The purpose of this final rule is to ensure consistent, complete postmarketing safety reporting requirements for combination products that have received FDA marketing authorization, while avoiding duplicative reporting. The term “postmarketing safety” is used in this rule because this rule concerns certain postmarket events, including manufacturing events, device malfunctions, and events causing injury to users, and the reporting requirements that relate to product and patient safety arising from these events. The final rule supports the underlying purpose of postmarketing safety reporting for all medical products, namely to protect the public health by ensuring continued safety and effectiveness of the product once it is placed on the market.
This final rule requires that a “combination product applicant” (an entity holding the application(s), as the term “application” is defined in 21 CFR 4.101 of this rule, for a combination product) and a “constituent part applicant” (an entity holding the application to market a drug, device, or biological product as a constituent part of a combination product the constituent parts of which are marketed under applications held by different applicants) comply with postmarketing safety reporting requirements applicable to the product based on the application type (
The Agency received 16 sets of comments on the proposed rule. Commenters largely sought clarification of the scope of the proposed rule, how reporting requirements, timelines, and reporting standards from the underlying regulations for drugs, devices, and biological products apply, and how and what information must be shared between constituent part applicants. Several commenters, while supporting rulemaking to address postmarketing safety reporting for combination products, recommended alternative approaches. After considering the comments received on the proposed rule, the Agency has made clarifications and other revisions in the final rule to, among other things: (1) Clarify that the final rule applies only to combination product and constituent part applicants; (2) clarify when a single report may suffice to comply with more than one reporting requirement; and (3) incorporate biological product deviation reporting and device correction and removal reporting requirements applicable to combination product applicants.
The legal framework underlying this final rule is twofold. The first aspect is that drugs, devices, and biological products do not lose their discrete regulatory identities when they become constituent parts of a combination product. In general, the postmarketing safety reporting requirements specific to each constituent part of a combination product also apply to the combination product itself. Although the constituent parts of combination products retain their regulatory identities, the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FD&C Act) also recognizes combination products as a category of products that are distinct from products that are solely drugs, devices, or biological products. FDA has the authority to develop regulations to ensure sufficient and appropriate ongoing assessment of the risks associated with combination products.
The second aspect of the framework is founded on the postmarketing safety reporting regulatory scheme associated with the application under which the combination product received marketing authorization, plus any applicable requirements associated with the additional six specified report types listed in this rule. Although similar in effect to the first aspect of the framework, this aspect is based on the legal authority FDA used to issue each of its existing regulations for postmarketing safety reporting for drugs, devices, and biological products.
The final rule will generate one-time administrative costs from reading and understanding the rule, assessing current compliance, modifying existing standards of practice, changing storage and reporting software, and training personnel on the requirements under this rule. Firms that do not currently comply with the reporting requirements identified in 21 CFR 4.102(c) of this rule will also incur annual reporting costs from the submission of field alert reports, 5-day reports, 15-day reports, malfunction reports, correction or removal reports, and biological product deviation reports. The annualized total costs of the rule are between $1.36 and $2.68 million at a 7 percent discount rate and between $1.35 and $2.65 million at a 3 percent discount rate.
The final rule will benefit firms through reduced uncertainty about the reporting requirements for their specific combination product and through decreased duplicative reporting. The final rule will also benefit public health by helping to ensure that important safety information is submitted and directed to the appropriate Agency components, so that the Agency may receive and review this information in a timely manner.
As set forth in 21 CFR part 3, a combination product is a product comprised of a drug and a device; a device and a biological product; a biological product and a drug; or a drug, a device, and a biological product. A combination product includes the following: (1) A product comprised of two or more regulated components,
In the proposed rule (74 FR 50744 at 50745 to 50751, October 1, 2009), FDA described its rationale and goals for the proposed rulemaking. To date, the Agency has not issued regulations on postmarketing safety reporting (PMSR) specifically for combination products. Instead, the Agency has applied provisions to combination products from the PMSR regulations applicable to the constituent parts of the combination product (
FDA held a public hearing on November 25, 2002, entitled “FDA Regulation of Combination Products” (Ref. 1) and a public workshop on July 8, 2003, entitled “Innovative Systems for Delivery of Drugs and Biologics: Scientific, Clinical and Regulatory Challenges” (Ref. 2) to discuss postmarketing safety reporting, among other issues pertaining to combination products. In developing the proposed rule, we carefully considered the comments offered by stakeholders, including written comments submitted to the docket that we opened to facilitate further input on combination product issues. Two common themes from the comments were the need for consistency in postmarketing safety reporting requirements for combination products and the importance of avoiding unnecessarily duplicative reporting. Some stakeholders suggested that FDA consider developing an entirely new postmarketing safety reporting scheme for combination products, but we concluded that because of the broad similarities in the postmarketing safety reporting regulations for drugs, devices, and biological products and industry's familiarity and experience with current postmarketing safety reporting requirements, the most appropriate approach would be to rely on existing rules and to explain how to comply with them.
FDA is issuing this final rule to ensure appropriate and consistent PMSR requirements for combination products that have received FDA marketing authorization by describing how combination product applicants and constituent part applicants must comply with the PMSR regulations for drugs, devices, and biological products, and also to eliminate unnecessary PMSR requirements for such combination products.
Entities subject to the proposed rule included those subject to PMSR duties under 21 CFR parts 314, 600, 606, and 803, except for user facilities and distributors as defined under part 803.
Those four sets of regulations expressly address PMSR for: (1) Drugs (part 314); (2) biological products (parts 600 and 606); and (3) devices (part 803). These sets of regulations have certain similarities. For example, the PMSR regulations for biological products, devices, and drugs each requires reports of death and other serious adverse events; each provides for expedited reporting for certain types of safety events; and each provides for followup and non-expedited reports. However, there are also certain significant differences in these sets of regulations designed, in part, to address the distinct characteristics and potential safety issues related to a particular type of product (
Accordingly, we proposed to require that entities comply with the PMSR requirements associated with the combination product's application type (
The proposed rule also addressed circumstances in which the constituent parts of a combination product are marketed under separate applications, or are legally marketed by different reporters without separate applications. For constituent parts marketed under separate applications, we proposed that the reporter must comply with the reporting requirements associated with that application type. In addition, we proposed for constituent parts marketed under separate applications held by different entities or legally marketed by separate entities without an approved or cleared marketing application, that each of these entities would have a duty to share within 5 calendar days information it receives about the event, either with the other entity or entities for the combination product or with FDA. We further proposed that entities that receive postmarketing safety information from another such entity, would have to investigate the event and comply with applicable reporting obligations under the rule.
We proposed that reporters submit their reports and maintain records for them in accordance with the requirements of the underlying regulations from which the reporting duty arises (parts 314, 600, 606, or 803).
Following publication of the proposed rule, FDA participated in a workshop on January 21, 2010, entitled “Understanding Implications of the Postmarket Safety for Combination Products Proposed Rule,” sponsored by the Advanced Medical Technology Association, the Combination Products Coalition, and the Regulatory Affairs Professional Society. At this workshop, the Agency provided a summary of the proposed rule, and stakeholders then worked in groups to identify issues on which to comment.
The final rule follows the approach presented in the proposed rule, with certain simplifications, clarifications, additions, and other changes, generally made in light of comments received, as described in sections II.A through II.F. The goal of the final rule remains the same as for the proposed rule, to ensure consistent and appropriate postmarketing safety reporting for combination products, while enabling this reporting to be as efficient as possible. Accordingly, this rulemaking seeks to apply those postmarketing safety reporting requirements to combination products necessary to ensure their safety and effectiveness, clarify how to comply with reporting requirements applicable to combination products, and enable efficiencies including submission of a single report if multiple reporting duties apply to an event. Following is a section-by-section overview of the final rule, and then a summary chart of the requirements presented in the rule.
The scope of the rule remains largely the same as proposed. As in the proposed rule, § 4.100(a) reflects that the rule describes PMSR requirements for combination products. We have revised § 4.100(a) to clarify that the rule only applies to “combination product applicants” and “constituent part applicants” (as defined in § 4.101); this rule does not apply to any other entities. We have also revised § 4.100(b) to clarify that the rule does not apply to investigational combination products or to combination products that have not received marketing authorization. We have eliminated proposed § 4.102 as that section was largely duplicative of proposed § 4.100.
We eliminated unnecessary definitions, including terms not used in this final rule. We also simplified certain definitions, using cross-references to definitions provided in other provisions of Title 21 of the CFR without restating those definitions. We made these changes for clarity and to minimize the need for amendments to this rule if a change is made in the future to the terminology or definitions in the cross-referenced provisions.
The final rule newly includes definitions for “biological product deviation report” (BPDR) (by reference to §§ 600.14 and 606.171), and “correction or removal report” (by reference to 21 CFR 806.10), because the final rule incorporates these reporting requirements as discussed in relation to § 4.102(c) in section III.C. Similarly, we added a definition for “Product Development Protocol” (PDP) (by reference to section 515(f) of the FD&C Act (21 U.S.C. 360e(f))) and de novo classification request (by reference to section 513(f)(2) of the FD&C Act (21 U.S.C. 360c(f)(2))) because the final rule addresses these types of applications.
In addition, we included definitions for “applicant”, “combination product applicant”, “constituent part applicant”, and “device application” to help clarify which entities are subject to which duties under this rule. Specifically, we clarified that an applicant is the person holding an application under which a combination product or constituent part has received marketing authorization, and that there is a combination product applicant if there is one applicant that either holds the application for a combination product or, holds the applications for each constituent part if the constituent parts of the combination product are marketed under separate applications (as could be the case for the constituent parts of a cross-labeled combination product). We also clarified that a constituent part applicant is the applicant for a constituent part of a combination product the constituent parts of which marketed under applications held by different applicants. We defined the term “device application” to mean a PMA, PDP, humanitarian device exemption (HDE),
The requirements listed in § 4.102 include those that were in § 4.103 of the proposed rule with certain adjustments and additional requirements to address, in part, comments received on the proposed rule.
Specifically, we have eliminated the requirement to comply with blood fatality reporting requirements as described in § 606.170 for combination products that received marketing authorization under an application other than a biologics license application (BLA). We have also revised the requirement for all combination product applicants to submit 15-day reports as described in §§ 314.80 and 600.80, to permit these reports to be submitted within 30 days rather than 15 days for combination products that received marketing authorization under a device application.
In addition, we have incorporated BPDR and correction and removal reporting requirements for combination product applicants to ensure that the issues addressed by these reporting requirements, for biological products and devices, respectively, are also addressed for combination products that include these types of constituent parts. We have also made other adjustments in § 4.102 for clarity.
Following is a description of § 4.102 as finalized, including explanations of changes from § 4.103 of the proposed rule.
A new § 4.102(a) clarifies that all applicants must comply with the applicable PMSR requirements with respect to their product. A constituent part applicant must comply with applicable requirements for the constituent part it is marketing, and a combination product applicant must comply with applicable requirements for the combination product it is marketing.
As in § 4.103(a) of the proposed rule, § 4.102(b) lists the PMSR requirements that apply based on the application type for the product. Section 4.102(b) clarifies that combination product applicants and constituent part applicants must comply with the requirements identified under § 4.102(b)(1) through (3) that are applicable based on their product's application type. In addition, § 4.102 clarifies that this rule does not require a combination product applicant to submit multiple reports relating to the same event when one report could be used to satisfy both § 4.102(b) and (c). Specifically, if the applicant has submitted one type of report and that report: Includes all of the information that would also be required in another type of report; is required to be submitted in the same manner under this rule as that other report; and is submitted within applicable deadlines, the submission of the single report will be considered to satisfy both reporting obligations.
The requirements of § 4.102(b) are as follows:
This provision applies only to combination product applicants, not to constituent part applicants. It states which requirements combination product applicants must meet in addition to those associated with the product's application type, to ensure consistent and appropriate PMSR for combination products. Like § 4.102(b), it also states how applicants can submit a single report to comply with multiple reporting requirements.
As indicated previously, § 4.102(c) does not require blood fatality reporting for combination products that received marketing authorization under a device application, NDA, or ANDA, and permits combination product applicants for combination products that received marketing authorization under a device application to submit 15-day reports within 30 days rather than 15 days.
We removed the requirement under this rule to make blood fatality reports for combination products that received marketing authorization under a device application, NDA, or ANDA, because facilities at which such events occur are currently required to make blood fatality reports irrespective of the type of application under which the product received marketing authorization. Because these facilities must make such reports, we concluded that it would be unnecessary for a combination product applicant (who is not also the operator of the facility) to report the same information as well.
In light of comments received (as discussed more fully in response to Comments 7, 8, 10), we modified the 15-day report requirement to permit these reports to be made within 30 days for combination products that received marketing authorization under a device application. We made this change based on several factors, including the following. We determined that the Agency would continue to be able to respond in a timely manner to these reports if submitted within 30 days rather than 15 days for such combination products. Further, we determined that permitting such reports to be made within 30 days would enable better alignment of reporting for device-led combination products because this timing would be consistent with the timing for submission of medical device reports. This alignment could be expected to improve the efficiency, clarity and completeness of reports for this class of combination products and to eliminate unnecessary complexity and potential for confusion.
Section 4.102(c) includes additional reporting requirements not in the proposed rule to address specific safety concerns related to medical devices and biological products. Combination product applicants must submit correction and removal reports as described in § 806.10 and comply with related recordkeeping requirements as described in § 806.20 for combination products that include a device constituent part; and combination product applicants must submit BPDRs
In many cases, correction and removal reporting requirements arise in relation to manufacturers' recalls in response to adverse events that may also trigger medical device reporting requirements under part 803. In such cases, submission of a medical device report (MDR) that contains all the information required by part 806 will suffice to comply with both sets of reporting requirements. Under § 806.10(f), no separate correction or removal report is required to be submitted if a report of the correction or removal has been submitted under part 803. However, in some instances, a correction or removal will not be associated with a reportable adverse event, or the action that a manufacturer takes in response will not trigger a 5-day reporting requirement, but the action must still be reported as described in part 806 to ensure, in part, appropriate coordination between the manufacturer and the Agency. In such cases, the correction or removal report currently should be submitted to the appropriate Agency field office.
Further, some corrections and removals may not trigger reporting requirements under part 803 or part 806, but may trigger recordkeeping requirements under part 806, and these recordkeeping requirements must be satisfied for combination products that include a device constituent part. Accordingly, we have incorporated the correction and removal reporting and recordkeeping requirements under § 4.102(c) to ensure that combination product applicants comply with these requirements.
With respect to BPDRs, as discussed more fully in response to Comment 13 in section III, we concluded that these reports are akin to field alert reports for drugs, and that it was important for BPDRs to be submitted for combination products that include biological product constituent parts to enable the applicant and the Agency to address the deviation in a timely, appropriate manner. Further, we note that in most instances, a biological product deviation that is reportable under §§ 600.14 and 606.171 is not associated with an adverse experience. Accordingly, we have included in § 4.102(c) BDPR requirements for all combination product applicants whose combination products contain a biological product constituent part.
The requirements applicable to combination products applicants under § 4.102(c) are now specified as follows:
This provision replaces and has been revised as compared to proposed § 4.103(c) to: (a) Clarify that it applies only to combination product applicants; (b) identify the content expected in periodic safety reports for combination products that received marketing authorization under an NDA, ANDA, or BLA; and (c) provide that additional reporting is required for combination products that received marketing authorization under a device application only upon notification by the Agency if the Agency determines additional or clarifying safety information is required to protect the public health. Section 4.102(d) has two paragraphs stating the following requirements:
As discussed more fully in response to Comment 18 in section III, the final rule makes clear that the duties to share information within 5 calendar days under § 4.103 (replacing § 4.104 in the proposed rule) apply only to constituent part applicants. In addition, we clarified and simplified these requirements. Constituent part applicants must share only information they receive regarding events that involve a death or serious injury within the meaning of § 803.3 or an adverse experience within the meaning of § 314.80(a) or § 600.80(a), and must share this information only with each other; we have eliminated the alternative of sharing the information with FDA as unnecessary and inefficient. Also, we have removed as unnecessary the content of proposed § 4.104(b) regarding how to respond to information received from another constituent part applicant. Section 4.102(b) states which PMSR requirements apply to constituent part applicants, and those PMSR requirements prescribe under what circumstances an entity subject to them must submit a report regarding information that the entity receives.
We have added a new § 4.103(b) addressing recordkeeping for this information sharing duty. This provision has been added to provide constituent part applicants appropriate clarity and certainty regarding what records to keep and what documentation the Agency will consider adequate to demonstrate compliance with the information-sharing requirement.
This section has been revised as compared to proposed § 4.105, to clarify where and how to submit postmarketing safety reports for constituent part applicants (§ 4.104(a)) and combination product applicants (§ 4.104(b)).
Constituent part applicants must make all reports in accordance with the existing regulations applicable to that type of product (for example, making reports in accordance with the requirements of part 314 if the constituent part is a drug). Like an applicant for a non-combination product, a constituent part applicant holds an application for a single type of article (drug, device, or biological product) and is required to make postmarketing safety reports to FDA only for events concerning its product. Accordingly, these reports are most appropriately submitted to the same Agency components in the same manner as they would be by any applicant holding an application for the same type of product.
Combination product applicants are required to submit postmarketing safety reports concerning the combination product, including each of that combination product's constituent parts. The nature of the events and the appropriate Agency component to contact regarding them can vary however. In light of these considerations, § 4.104(b) draws a distinction between individual case study reports (ICSRs) (Ref. 3) for safety events experienced by individual users of combination products
Section 4.104(b) requires that combination product applicants must submit all ICSRs (15-day reports, malfunction reports, serious injury or death reports, and 5-day reports) applicable to the combination product in the manner specified in the PMSR regulations associated with the application type for the combination product. See §§ 4.104(b)(1) and (2).
This approach to submission of ICSRs by combination product applicants best assures the clarity, completeness, and efficiency of such reporting. Having all ICSRs submitted in the same manner to the Center with the lead for the application enables multiple reporting requirements for an event to be satisfied by submitting a single report and ensures that all such reports relating to the same event will be captured in a single series (see also response to Comment 24).
In addition, under § 4.104(b), all BPDRs, field alert reports, and correction and removal reports must be submitted as described in the regulations from which these reporting requirements arise. The Agency currently receives these reports through differing mechanisms and Agency components based on such factors as logistical considerations and expertise to take the lead in assessing and addressing the issues raised in the report. For example, field alert reports for drugs currently must be submitted to FDA district offices as described in part 314, and BPDRs currently must be submitted to the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research (CBER) or the Center for Drug Evaluation and Research (CDER) as appropriate based on which of these two Centers would ordinarily have jurisdiction over the type of biological product included in the combination product, as described in parts 600 and 606. These existing reporting systems are designed to assure timely, effective resolution of the matters raised in these reports.
As discussed in response to Comment 28 and in section III.A., the Agency anticipates issuing a guidance to provide recommendations on how applicants may adopt more streamlined, effective approaches to making reports under this rule.
As discussed more fully in section III, response to Comment 26, we revised this section (replacing § 4.106 in the proposed rule) to clarify and simplify the recordkeeping requirements associated with PMSR obligations for combination product applicants and constituent part applicants. Section 4.105(a) describes the recordkeeping requirements for constituent part applicants and § 4.105(b) describes the requirements for combination product applicants, as follows:
Constituent part applicants must comply with the recordkeeping requirements prescribed in the underlying PMSR regulations identified in § 4.102(b) as applicable to the product based on its application type. In addition, they must retain the records required in § 4.103 (information sharing) for the longest retention period (if more than one period applies) required for records under the PMSR regulations applicable to their constituent part (as explained in response to Comment 26).
Combination product applicants must maintain records relating to their postmarketing safety reports for whichever is the longest required record-keeping period under the PMSR requirements applicable to the combination product applicant under § 4.102. Because both parts 314 and 600 currently require recordkeeping for 10 years, at this time the recordkeeping period for combination product applicant PMSR records would be at least 10 years.
We received comments from 15 entities and one individual on the proposed rule. Commenters included trade organizations and manufacturers of drugs, devices, biological products, and combination products. Many commenters sought clarification on particular points or recommended adjustments to specific aspects of the proposed rule. Several commenters, while supporting rulemaking to address PMSR for combination products, recommended alternative approaches as discussed in Comment 27.
To make it easier to identify comments and our responses, the word “Comment” appears before the descriptions of the comments, and the word “Response” appears before our response. We have also numbered comments to help distinguish among them. The number assigned to each comment is purely for organizational purposes and does not signify relative value or importance of comments or the order in which they were received. Certain comments are grouped together under a single number because the subject matter of the comments was similar.
(Comment 1) Some commenters sought clarification of safety reporting requirements for investigational combination products through guidance or expansion of the scope of the rule, including for investigational combination products that contain a legally marketed article as a constituent part. One commenter asked if the Agency is planning to publish guidance on this issue. One commenter asked that the Agency clearly lay out the responsibilities of the manufacturer of an approved product in the investigational setting.
(Response 1) Safety reporting for investigational products is an important issue for combination products, just as it is for drugs, devices, and biological products. However, this rule only discusses the PMSR requirements for combination products that have received marketing authorization. As stated in § 4.100(b), this rule does not apply to investigational combination products. The safety reporting requirements for investigational new drugs are in 21 CFR 312.32, and the safety reporting requirements for investigational devices are in 21 CFR 812.150. The Agency intends to continue developing guidance relating to this topic for combination products. If you have questions regarding how to comply with the reporting requirements for your investigational combination product, please raise them with the review division in CDER, CBER, or the Center for Devices and Radiological Health (CDRH) that is responsible for reviewing your application, or with the Office of Combination Products (OCP) as needed.
(Comment 2) Some commenters requested that the Agency clarify which entities and products are subject to this rule. Some commenters proposed clarifying that this rule applies only to application holders. Other commenters sought clarification of the rule's applicability to devices marketed under a 510(k) clearance and to non-applicants, including contract manufacturers. One commenter asked for clarification of whether the rule
(Response 2) As also discussed in section II (discussions of §§ 4.100 and 4.101), in light of comments received, we have amended this rule to clarify which entities it addresses and what PMSR requirements apply to them. We have clarified that this rule applies only to “combination product applicants” and “constituent part applicants,” as those terms are defined in § 4.101. We also have clarified the final rule to state which requirements apply to combination product applicants and which apply to constituent part applicants.
Under § 4.101 of this rule, the term “applicant” is defined to mean a person holding an application (BLA, NDA, ANDA, PMA, HDE, PDP,
We note that non-applicants subject to reporting requirements under 314.80 and 600.80 may provide their reports to the applicant rather than the Agency. Similarly, non-applicants subject to reporting requirements under part 803 may request a reporting exemption from CDRH under § 803.19. Accordingly, entities that are not combination product applicants or constituent part applicants, as those terms are defined under this rule (importers, for example), who have reporting duties under part 803 in relation to a combination product may request a reporting exemption, subject to § 803.19. We intend to provide further information on these topics for combination products in guidance.
To illustrate how these definitions are used to determine who is subject to this rule, take the example of a prefilled syringe that received marketing authorization under an NDA or ANDA held by entity A, which purchases the syringe components for this product from entity B, which manufactures the syringe components. Entity A is the only applicant for the combination product, and, therefore, is the combination product applicant and must comply with the provisions of this rule applicable to combination product applicants. There are no constituent part applicants for the combination product. Entity B has no reporting duties under this rule (nor does it have any under part 803 or 806 for the syringe components
To take another example, if entity C receives marketing authorization under a PMA or 510(k) to market an imaging device as a constituent part of a cross-labeled combination product, and entity D receives marketing authorization under an NDA or ANDA to market a contrast agent drug as a constituent part of that same cross-labeled combination product, then entities C and D are both constituent part applicants, and both are subject to the provisions of this rule applicable to constituent part applicants. There is no combination product applicant for this product.
Regarding one commenter's request for the Agency to develop a comprehensive list of products subject to this rule, we note that combination products are marketed for diverse medical purposes and include a wide variety of constituent parts, making a comprehensive listing impractical to compile. The definition of combination product is provided at § 3.2(e), and additional information regarding product classification is available on the Web page for OCP. In addition, regulated entities may seek feedback from OCP regarding the classification of their products, including by submitting a request for designation (RFD) in accordance with part 3 to obtain a formal decision from the Agency of whether their product is a drug, device, biological product, or combination product. Guidance for how to prepare an RFD is available on OCP's Web page (
(Comment 3) One commenter thought we should clarify what we mean by “combination product,” and in particular whether we mean to include products that combine only two or more of the same type of article, such as a drug and a drug.
(Response 3) This rule defines combination products as those products falling within the scope of § 3.2(e). Under § 3.2(e), a combination product must include: A drug and either a device or biological product; a device and either a drug or biological product; a biological product and either a drug or device; or a drug, device, and a biological product. A product that includes only multiple drugs, multiple devices, or multiple biological products is not a combination product as defined in § 3.2(e).
(Comment 4) Some commenters proposed that we clarify what products fall within the scope of “cross-labeled” combination products as described in § 3.2(e)(3), with some noting that the preamble to the part 3 regulation (56 FR 58754, November 21, 1991) states that most drugs, devices, and biological products intended for concomitant use are not combination products. One commenter stated that the Agency must issue “guidance on cross-labeled combination products” before the effective date of this rule “for meaningful implementation of this rule.”
(Response 4) While we disagree that we must issue guidance on cross-labeled combination products prior to the effective date for this final rule, we agree that clarifying when separately distributed articles constitute a combination product would be helpful. This issue may be relevant not only for purposes of postmarketing safety reporting, but to all aspects of the regulation of such combination products. Whether a drug, device, and/or biological product together constitute a cross-labeled combination product generally would be determined during the premarket review process, but sponsors may, for example, wish to clarify the matter earlier in product development. If sponsors have questions regarding whether a drug, device, and/or biological product that are intended to be separately distributed, but intended to be used with one another constitute a cross-labeled combination product, we encourage them to contact OCP. If sponsors wish to obtain a formal classification determination from the Agency, they may submit an RFD to OCP (see Comment 2).
FDA intends to publish a guidance that provides recommendations on how to comply with the requirements under this rule for combination products, including cross-labeled combination products.
(Comment 5) Two commenters noted that the definition of “constituent part” incorrectly cited § 3.1(e), a non-existent provision, rather than § 3.2(e), which is the citation for the “combination product” definition.
(Response 5) We have corrected this error by revising the definition to cite to § 4.2 as “constituent part” is defined in that section.
(Comment 6) Some commenters expressed concerns regarding the definition of “constituent part” for this rule and asked how constituent parts of combination products compare to components of devices. Some commenters specifically raised concerns that the definition of constituent part would result in certain entities, which are currently not subject to reporting requirements, becoming subject to PMSR requirements under this rule. Some commenters proposed revising the definition for “constituent part” and adding a definition for “component” in this rule to clarify that components of drugs, devices, and biological products are not constituent parts.
(Response 6) The purpose of the term “constituent part” is to identify the drug, device, and/or biological products that are part of a combination product. We believe the questions and concerns raised in these comments are fully addressed by the revisions we have made to the rule. As discussed in sections II.A and B (discussions of §§ 4.100 and 4.101) and in response to Comment 2, we have included definitions of “combination product applicant” and “constituent part applicant,” and clarified that this rule applies only to these two categories of entities.
The term “component” is defined elsewhere in Title 21 for drugs and devices (see 21 CFR parts 210, 212, and 820). Because the term “component” is not used in this rule, we determined it is not necessary to define the term as part of this rulemaking.
(Comment 7) Several commenters requested that the Agency clarify under what circumstances this rule might require the submission of multiple reports in relation to the same event. In this regard, some commenters sought clarification of what reports “supersede” others and under what circumstances the submission of one type of report applicable to a combination product would obviate the need to submit a second type of report for the same event. Another commenter sought clarification of reporting requirements for combination products comprised of constituent parts marketed under separate constituent part applications.
(Response 7) Under this rule, combination product applicants and constituent part applicants must submit reports as required by the PMSR requirements applicable to that applicant under § 4.102. Constituent part applicants are subject to only one set of PMSR requirements under this rule (in addition to the duty to share information with other constituent part applicants for the combination product, in accordance with § 4.103 as discussed in section II.D). Specifically, constituent part applicants must comply only with the PMSR requirements listed under § 4.102(b) based on the application type for their constituent part (
We have clarified when a single report may suffice to comply with more than one reporting requirement for combination product applicants.
(Comment 8) Some commenters sought clarification of the standards for submitting a report under this rule. One commenter requested clarification of whether limitations established under §§ 314.80 and 600.80 for 15-day reporting requirements with respect to postmarketing studies apply to combination products under this rule. Other commenters sought clarification of the standard for when to submit an expedited report under § 314.80 or § 600.80, which state that events must be reported if “associated with” the use of the product, “whether or not considered” drug or biologic related. Other commenters requested clarification of how to interpret aspects of the device reporting standards in part 803, such as the meaning of “reasonably suggests” in relation to whether the event is reportable, the meaning of “unreasonable risk of substantial harm to the public health” in relation to 5-day reports, and the meaning of “caused or contributed,” a term defined under § 803.3.
(Response 8) The standards in this rule for when to submit a report are those established in the underlying PMSR regulations listed in § 4.102(b) and (c), including any exceptions provided in those underlying regulations. The standards and definitions for the underlying PMSR requirements, such as the definition of “caused or contributed” in § 803.3, remain applicable for combination products and their constituent parts.
For instance, if you are a combination product applicant for a drug-device combination product, in deciding whether you must submit a 15-day report for a serious, unlabeled adverse event, you must determine if the event was “associated with” the use of the combination product, and if so, you must submit the report regardless of whether you believe the combination product caused or contributed to the event. Similarly, in deciding whether you must submit a malfunction report, you must assess, among other things, whether the information “reasonably suggests” that the product malfunctioned. If the information does not “reasonably suggest” that a malfunction occurred, then a malfunction report would not be required.
If you are a combination product applicant and your combination product received marketing authorization under a device application, in deciding whether you must submit a serious injury or death report, you must consider whether the information “reasonably suggests” that the combination product may have caused or contributed to the death or serious injury in which case you must submit a report even if the event does not trigger submittal of a 15-day report.
In some cases, a report required under § 4.102(c) for a combination product applicant may address a constituent part; in others, it may address the combination product as a whole. For example, correction or removal that triggers a correction or removal report may involve the entire combination product. Bacteriological contamination or a significant change or deterioration to the drug constituent part that triggers a field alert report may relate to an aspect of manufacturing for the drug alone, or may also relate to an aspect of the manufacture of the combination product as a whole that is affecting the drug constituent part. A manufacturing deviation or other event that may affect the safety, purity, or potency of a biological product constituent part and trigger a BPDR may involve the biological product alone, or the combination product as a whole. In all cases, the report should fully present the issues, including with respect to each constituent part and the combination product as a whole, as applicable, to ensure an appropriate response to the event.
(Comment 9) One commenter sought clarification of what adverse events would be considered “unexpected,” for purposes of §§ 314.80 and 600.80 with regard to combination products. Another commenter asked whether a serious adverse event that is expected under the drug labeling for a combination product and that does not involve a device malfunction should be reported in an expedited manner. In relation to these issues, other commenters also raised whether this rule will “require labeling specific to the combination product,” and whether a distinct understanding of “expectedness” would need to be developed with respect to combination products marketed under a device application as opposed to an NDA or BLA due to differences in product review and labeling.
(Response 9) Under this rule, a serious adverse event could trigger a requirement for submission of a 15-day report as described in § 314.80 or § 600.80 by a combination product applicant or a drug or biological product constituent part applicant if the event is not listed in the current FDA-approved labeling for the combination product.
While this rule does not establish any labeling requirements, we recognize that there is a question of what labeling is relevant to a determination of whether an adverse event is unexpected for purposes of 15-day reports described in §§ 314.80 and 600.80, if the constituent parts of the combination product have their own labeling.
Our goal is to ensure timely, complete reporting without creating unnecessary redundancy of reporting. Combination product labeling must meet the labeling requirements for each constituent part, including all required information regarding the risks associated with the use of the combination product. The term “expectedness” for purposes of § 314.80 or § 600.80 should be interpreted in the same manner regardless of the type of application(s) under which the combination product received marketing authorization.
Accordingly, in determining whether an adverse experience is unexpected, it is appropriate to consider all of the FDA-approved labeling for the combination product. For example, if the constituent parts of a cross-labeled combination product have their own labeling, and the event is addressed in the labeling for either constituent part, the event is expected for the combination product.
(Comment 10) One commenter proposed that the requirements for submitting postmarketing 15-day reports and MDRs be consolidated for combination products, arguing that this would eliminate duplicative reporting as much as possible and improve efficiency. Other commenters proposed applying only the reporting requirements associated with the application type if it is unclear which constituent part or parts contributed to the event.
(Response 10) We agree with the goal of consolidating requirements and avoiding unnecessary redundancy in reporting for combination products. To this end, we have not required submission of serious injury and death reports under part 803 for combination products that received marketing authorization under a BLA, NDA, or ANDA and that include a device constituent part, based on the premise that the requirements of §§ 600.80 and 314.80, respectively, ensure timely reporting of such events for such combination products. In addition, as discussed in section II.C, discussion of § 4.102(c), we have revised the requirement for combination product
As discussed in the preamble to the proposed rule, there are certain significant differences in the PMSR regulations for drugs, devices, and biological products, that address distinct characteristics and potential safety issues associated with the particular type of product, and the public health benefit of these unique provisions would be lost if the combination product were subject solely to the reporting requirements associated with the application type (74 FR 50744 at 50746). For example, malfunction reports can address distinct issues that are not captured by other reporting requirements and need to be submitted for all combination products that include a device constituent part. Specifically, malfunction reports ensure that the Agency receives notice of malfunctions of combination products and device constituent parts if that product or a similar one marketed by that applicant would be likely to cause or contribute to a death or serious injury if the malfunction were to recur.
(Comment 11) One commenter argued that the proposed rule included provisions that could result in inconsistent reporting requirements. This commenter stated that an applicant for a drug-device combination product marketed under a single application would have a duty to address adverse events caused by the device under 15-day reporting requirements while, if a drug-device combination product were marketed under separate applications for the drug and device, the 15-day reporting requirements would extend only to the adverse events caused by the drug.
(Response 11) This final rule clarifies these reporting requirements, which we do not consider to be inconsistent. As the commenter indicates, 15-day reports are required for combination product applicants and for drug and biological product constituent part applicants. The scope of these reporting requirements depends on the type of product (drug, biological product, device, combination product) that is marketed by the applicant. A combination product applicant must report unexpected serious adverse events associated with its product,
(Comment 12) One commenter sought clarification of when the clock starts for a 5-day report (as described in §§ 803.3 and 803.53).
(Response 12) This rule does not affect or change when the clock starts for reporting requirements. The clock starts for a 5-day report for a combination product as it would for a device. As required under § 803.53(a), the clock begins when you become aware that a reportable event necessitates remedial action to prevent an unreasonable risk of substantial harm to the public health. Or, as required under § 803.53(b), the clock begins when you receive a written request from FDA for the submission of a 5-day report. Additional information on the timing requirements associated with 5-day reports is in the CDRH guidance document “Medical Device Reporting for Manufacturers” available at
(Comment 13) One commenter proposed BPDRs as an additional type of required report to include among the specified required reports listed in proposed § 4.103(b), arguing that BPDRs serve a purpose similar to field alert reports and, therefore, would be appropriate to include as well.
(Response 13) We agree with this comment. To ensure the completeness of postmarketing safety reports for combination products that include a biological product constituent part, including combination products that received marketing authorization under an NDA, ANDA, or device application, we are explicitly including BPDRs under § 4.102(c). Similar to field alert reports for drugs, BPDRs address events associated with manufacturing that represent a deviation from current good manufacturing practice, applicable regulations, applicable standards or established specifications, or represent an unexpected or unforeseeable event that may affect the safety, purity, or potency of the product. Therefore, we are adding BPDRs to the list of types of reports under § 4.102(c) that a combination product applicant must submit if the combination product includes a biological product constituent part.
(Comment 14) One commenter sought clarification of the application of part 806 device correction and removal reporting requirements within the proposed PMSR system for combination products. The commenter also sought confirmation that part 806 reporting requirements can be met for combination products through part 803 reporting, as they can for devices that are not constituent parts of combination products.
(Response 14) To address this comment, we have expressly incorporated under § 4.102(c) correction and removal reporting described in § 806.10 and associated recordkeeping requirements described in § 806.20. We have made this change to provide clarity, promote efficiency, and ensure the completeness of postmarketing safety reports for combination products that include a device constituent part.
Part 806 implements, in part, section 519(g) of the FD&C Act (21 U.S.C. 360i), which was enacted due to Congressional concern that device manufacturers were carrying out product corrections or removals without notifying FDA or not doing so in a timely fashion (H.R. Rep. No. 101-808, at 29 (1990); S. Rep. No. 101-513, at 23 (1990)). Congress explained that industry's failure to report corrections and removals, particularly those undertaken to reduce risks associated with the use of a device, “denies the agency the opportunity to fulfill its public health responsibilities by evaluating device-related problems and the adequacy of corrective actions” (S. Rep. No. 101-513, at 23), and “has seriously interfered with the FDA's ability to take prompt action against potentially dangerous devices” (H. R. Rep. No. 101-808, at 29).
FDA believes that correction and removal reporting and recordkeeping for combination products containing a device constituent part is necessary to protect the public health as envisioned by Congress, by ensuring that the Agency has current and complete information regarding those actions taken by applicants to reduce risks to health caused by their products. Reports of such actions will improve the Agency's ability to evaluate problems and to take prompt action against potentially dangerous combination products, regardless of the type of
As for all of the PMSR requirements incorporated into this rule by reference, the standards for how to report under § 806.10 and for recordkeeping under § 806.20 are not affected by this rule, including not having to submit an 806 report if the correction or removal is addressed in a report submitted under part 803 (§ 806.10(f)). To enable efficient reporting and avoid unnecessarily redundant reports, this rule provides that part 803 reporting requirements can be satisfied through submission of drug or biological product reports, as explained in response to comment 7. Similarly, part 806 reporting requirements also can be satisfied through submission of an MDR or 15-day report, so long as the report includes all of the information needed to comply with the requirements of part 806 and is filed within 10 working days of initiating the correction or removal, as described in § 806.10.
In circumstances in which a 15-day report or MDR is not triggered but reporting under part 806 is required, reports of corrections or removals should be sent to the FDA in the same manner as for other such reports unless otherwise specified by the Agency. Currently, reports required under part 806 are submitted to the district office for the district in which the reporting facility is located, on the basis that the district office can best monitor the firm's removal or corrections activities in a timely fashion. Combination product applicants for combination products with a device constituent part who initiate a correction or removal that is not required to be reported to FDA under 806.10, must maintain a record of the correction or removal as described in § 806.20.
(Comment 15) Some commenters sought clarification of the applicability of section 227 of the Food and Drug Administration Amendments Act of 2007 (FDAAA) concerning the reporting of malfunctions to FDA, including the use of summary reporting, for Class I devices and for Class II devices that are not permanently implantable, life supporting, or life sustaining. Some commentators sought clarification of how the status of “life-supporting” or “life-sustaining” would apply to combination products, and whether the intended use of the combination product would determine the status of the device constituent part. One commenter sought clarification of how such a class-based approach would be applied to combination products approved under NDA or BLA, for which no express classification may have been made for the device constituent part.
(Response 15) FDA issued a notice in the
(Comment 16) One commenter sought clarification of whether the periodic reports addressed in proposed § 4.103(c) should be considered “expedited” reports for purposes of this rule.
(Response 16) FDA has retitled this provision to “Other reporting requirements for combination product applicants” for clarity because it addresses periodic safety reports for drug and biologic-led combination products and also addresses under what circumstances additional reports for device-led combination products are required upon Agency request. This rule does not modify the timing of periodic safety reports. The purpose of § 4.102(d) is to clarify which combination product applicants must submit periodic safety reports and other safety reports, and what information they must include in such reports. The intent of § 4.102(d), in conjunction with § 4.102(a), (b), and (c) is to ensure that the Agency obtains complete, timely postmarketing safety information regarding combination products while avoiding unnecessary burden to applicants.
(Comment 17) One commenter proposed the reorganization of proposed 4.103(b) to parallel the structure of § 4.103(a).
(Response 17) We have not adopted this approach because § 4.102(c) is intended to address a different issue than § 4.102(b). Section 4.102(b) (like proposed § 4.103(a)) addresses requirements that constituent part applicants and combination product applicants must satisfy for their marketed products depending upon the type of application under which it received marketing authorization, and structuring the provision based on the type of application that the applicant holds provides a clear, efficient way to identify such requirements. In contrast, the purpose of § 4.102(c) (like proposed § 4.103(b)) is to state which additional requirements a combination product applicant must satisfy based on the types of constituent parts included in the combination product, which are most clearly and efficiently listed by constituent part type (drug, biological product, or device).
(Comment 18) Some commenters requested clarification of whether proposed § 4.104(a) applied if there were a single application holder for the combination product but the combination product included an article approved under another application held by another entity for independent marketing not related to the combination product. Other commenters asked for clarification of which applicants for constituent parts of combination products could be subject to proposed § 4.104(a) and (b) if the combination product were not approved under a single application. Some commenters proposed an approach under which, if there is a single application for the combination product, the holder of that application would report to FDA in accordance with proposed § 4.103, and FDA would then decide whether any other application holders for articles included in the combination product should be notified and whether to seek additional reports from them.
(Response 18) As reflected in the preamble to the proposed rule (see 74 FR 50744 at 50749 to 50750), proposed § 4.104(a) was intended to apply if the constituent parts of the combination product were being marketed by different entities, including when the constituent parts received marketing authorization under separate applications held by different applicants. As explained in the response to Comment 2, we have revised the rule to apply to combination product applicants and constituent part applicants, in part to clarify which entities are subject to it. Accordingly, we have revised this provision to clarify that it applies solely to constituent part applicants. Section 4.103 of this final rule is not intended to establish any
For example, if entity A holds an approved application to market a cross-labeled combination product that includes a device and a drug, and entity B holds an approved application to market the drug for a different use (
In contrast, if entity A holds an approved PMA to market a device as one constituent part of a cross-labeled combination product (
Regarding the issue of which entities would be subject to proposed § 4.104(b), we have decided to eliminate the provision as unnecessary. Constituent part applicants that receive information from another constituent part applicant must comply with the same duties under § 4.102(b) with respect to this information as they must with respect to any information they receive regarding a postmarketing safety issue for their product, including the duty to submit postmarketing safety reports as required.
(Comment 19) Some commenters argued that the 5-day deadline under proposed § 4.104(a) for information sharing was too short. Some commenters recommended instead tying the timeframe to the nature of the event. Some argued that it is not warranted or useful to share information automatically within a 5-day timeframe because it leaves entities little time to evaluate the information before sharing it and could result in unnecessary redundancy of reporting.
(Response 19) We disagree with these comments. The provision calls for sharing information that the constituent part applicant receives regarding an adverse event relating to the combination product, and does not require the applicant to prepare a report in accordance with any of the regulatory reporting requirements established under parts 314, 600, 606, 803, or 806. The duty under § 4.103 does not require a constituent part applicant to analyze, investigate, or organize the information or take any other actions beyond forwarding the information as received to the other constituent part applicant(s) for the combination product and maintaining certain records. Accordingly, we believe 5 calendar days is a reasonable deadline that does not impose undue burden, while enabling timely reporting by the constituent part applicant(s) with whom the information is shared.
Such an expedited sharing of information is important to ensure timely, complete reporting with regard to adverse events that may have been brought to the attention of only one constituent part applicant for a combination product. Enabling each constituent part applicant to review in a timely manner the information related to the combination product enhances efficiency and thoroughness of reporting because each constituent part applicant evaluates the information with respect to its own constituent part and with regard to the reporting requirements applicable to that type of constituent part.
(Comment 20) Some commenters stated that the information sharing requirements of proposed § 4.104 should be eliminated; some said these requirements are unnecessary depending on the nature of the event, and likely to produce unnecessary, duplicative reporting. Some commenters proposed that the information sharing requirements under proposed § 4.104 should apply only if the event is potentially reportable and that proposed § 4.104(a) should not apply if the applicant determines that the event does not concern the other constituent part(s) of the combination product. Other commenters proposed that if it can be determined that the event is attributable to only one constituent part, then reporting requirements should apply only to the application holder for that constituent part. Some commenters proposed that the rule be revised such that, in the event that constituent parts of a combination product are being marketed under separate applications, and it is unclear which constituent part(s) contributed to the event, the rule would require compliance only with the reporting requirements for the constituent part providing the primary mode of action for the combination product.
(Response 20) The best way for the Agency to receive complete reports for combination products is to ensure that each constituent part applicant has an opportunity to review the information received regarding the specified types of events (serious injuries, deaths, and other adverse events) for the combination product. Accordingly, we disagree with the proposals to narrow or eliminate the information sharing requirement. We do not agree this requirement will produce unnecessarily duplicative reporting. The trigger for a constituent part applicant to submit a report to the Agency is not the mere act of receiving information but a determination that the event is reportable under the PMSR requirements applicable to that applicant. The Agency may receive multiple reports regarding the same event because of § 4.103 (formerly § 4.104 in the proposed rule), but this approach ensures that the Agency has the benefit of each constituent part applicant's expertise and familiarity regarding its own constituent part in
Regarding the issue of sharing information with FDA as opposed to other constituent part applicants, we have eliminated the option of sharing information with FDA as unnecessary and inefficient. We agree that timely, complete reporting by each constituent part applicant is best assured by having constituent part applicants share information they receive directly with one another.
We also agree that when any constituent part applicant shares information relating to an event with the other constituent part applicant(s), the information sharing duty ends with respect to that event. When information is shared, each constituent part applicant must investigate and report to the Agency, under the applicable PMSR requirements, regarding the event as they would for any event for which they receive information. The constituent part applicants may find it helpful to share with one another additional and followup information they receive or develop relating to the event, but this is not required by this rule.
(Comment 21) Some commenters stated that disclosure of event information to another company might involve disclosure of confidential and proprietary information. One commenter proposed that the information be shared with the other applicant if practicable and if it does not raise concerns regarding confidentiality or proprietary information.
(Response 21) Section 4.103 does not require the sharing of trade secret or confidential commercial information with other constituent part applicants. Further, we have revised this section to specify that the information required to be shared concern events that involve a death or serious injury as described in § 803.3, or an adverse experience as described in § 314.80(a) or § 600.80(a). Such information is likely to be received from health care facilities, consumers, and other sources, and therefore, unlikely to contain trade secret or confidential commercial information.
In regard to the Federal Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA), we note that HIPAA only applies to covered entities (
(Comment 22) Some commenters sought clarification of the start time for meeting the reporting deadlines under proposed § 4.104(b). One commenter recommended that it be the day the information is received from the reporter subject to proposed § 4.104(a).
(Response 22) While the content of proposed § 4.104(b) has been removed from the rule as unnecessary, we note that the start time for determining the submission deadline for postmarketing safety reports is the same as for information received from any other source, and depends on the type of report and the regulation from which the requirement for the report arises.
(Comment 23) Some commenters asked for the Agency to provide examples of the application of proposed § 4.104, including guidance on what information to include in reports under this provision. One commenter asked for guidance on the process for submitting information to the Agency under proposed § 4.104.
(Response 23) Section 4.103 requires the transmittal of information received. Constituent part applicants do not need to modify, organize, or evaluate the information; they must only forward the information to the other constituent part applicant(s) for the combination product. As discussed in Comment 18, we have eliminated the alternative of sharing the information with FDA as unnecessary and inefficient. We intend to provide additional information regarding how to comply with § 4.103 in guidance.
(Comment 24) Some commenters sought clarification of how to comply with the submission requirements for different types of reports for a combination product. One commenter proposed that the rule expressly state reports be submitted to “the approved application” if there is only one reporter for the combination product. Another proposed that reports for a combination product marketed under one application be submitted to the lead center, while those for combination products marketed under separate applications for different constituent parts in some, but not all, cases be submitted to the center responsible for the particular constituent part's application. One commenter noted a need to clarify how to make electronic submissions for combination products.
(Response 24) As discussed in section II.E (discussion of § 4.104), we have revised the rule to clarify how and where to submit postmarketing safety reports for constituent part applicants and for combination product applicants. In keeping with comments received, § 4.104(a) requires constituent part applicants to submit their reports in the same manner as any other applicant holding the same kind of application for a product (
We have drawn a distinction between types of postmarketing safety reports submitted by combination product applicants. With regard to ICSRs, we have adopted an approach consistent with comments suggesting that reports be submitted to the lead center and in accordance with the procedures associated with the application type for the combination product. Specifically, § 4.104(b) requires such combination product applicants to submit 5-day, 15-day, and malfunction reports, if required for their product, in the manner described in the PMSR regulations associated with the application type for the combination product. For example, if the combination product received marketing authorization under an NDA, then 5-day, 15-day, and malfunction reports, and all followup reports, would be submitted how and where described in part 314 for 15-day reports and followup reports to them. This approach promotes efficiency and ensures that all such reports relating to the same event are pooled together, and that multiple ICSR reporting requirements for the same event can be satisfied through a single submission (so long as that submission meets the content and deadlines for each reporting requirement).
At the same time, it is appropriate for specific components of the Agency to have the lead for addressing certain distinct types of reports, in light of such factors as the issues raised in the
The Agency intends to provide guidance concerning procedural and technical details of complying with these requirements, including how to comply with the Centers' electronic reporting requirements. We seek to take best advantage of information technology and other resources to maximize the benefit of PMSR while minimizing the burden.
(Comment 25) Several commenters sought guidance regarding the content, format, and completeness of applicable forms, and appropriate terminology to use with respect to different types of events and constituent parts for combination products.
(Response 25) Applicants should provide relevant information in as complete and clear a manner as possible, consistent with the parameters of the FDA form. Also, we intend to update relevant FDA forms, if appropriate, including the instructions for how to complete them, and to develop guidance that provides recommendations for meeting PMSR requirements under this rule.
(Comment 26) A commenter proposed that the same recordkeeping requirements apply to all types of reports for a combination product.
(Response 26) We agree with the premise that a uniform set of record retention requirements apply to all reports relating to a combination product marketed by a single applicant,
In contrast to combination product applicants, constituent part applicants market only a drug, device, or biological product rather than a complete combination product. This distinction is acknowledged and reflected in the approach taken throughout the rule in establishing PMSR requirements for constituent part applicants. The requirements for record retention by constituent part applicants align with the overall approach of the rule. Specifically, § 4.105(a)(1) requires that constituent part applicants comply with the underlying recordkeeping requirements, including timeframes, established in the PMSR requirements identified in § 4.102(b) as applicable based on their product's application type. This ensures that constituent part applicants comply with the same requirements as any other applicant marketing a drug, device, or biological product.
The essential difference between constituent part applicants and other applicants for drugs, devices, and biological products is the distinct relationship of constituent part applicants' products to one another as parts of a combination product. The information sharing requirements of § 4.103 reflect this distinct relationship and the overarching need for coordination between constituent part applicants to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the combination product. As explained in section II (discussion of § 4.103), § 4.103(b) includes an explicit recordkeeping requirement in relation to the information constituent part applicants are required to share with one another under § 4.103(a). Section 4.103 is intended to ensure complete, timely reporting for the combination product as a whole. To support this goal, while at the same time aligning the record retention requirement for the records required under § 4.103(b) with the overall approach of this rule for constituent part applicants, § 4.105(a)(2) requires constituent part applicants to maintain the specified records of information shared for the retention period established in the PMSR recordkeeping requirements for that constituent part applicant's constituent part if there is only one period established, and the longest recordkeeping requirement established in those requirements if those requirements establish more than one record retention period. We believe that this retention period will ensure that the information remains available to the applicants and the Agency for a sufficiently long period to inform investigation of events and responses to them for the combination product, and enable the Agency to assess compliance with § 4.103, without imposing undue burden on constituent part applicants. This approach also avoids the complexities of tying the retention period for records relating to the information sharing provision to the record retention requirements applicable to the other constituent part applicant(s).
(Comment 27) Several commenters proposed that the Agency adopt a wholly different PMSR approach for combination products, with some supporting the Agency's proposed approach as an interim measure until a unified framework is developed either for combination products in particular or for all FDA-regulated medical products. Some commenters proposed adopting the most stringent set of PMSR requirements applicable to the combination product. Others called for developing a harmonized approach for combination products, with one commenter calling for a public meeting to address the issue and another for such a system to be put in place after a single reporting porthole is established for all regulated products. One commenter called for FDA to develop a
(Response 27) The Agency has considered alternate approaches to PMSR for combination products, including in relation to the public hearing held on November 25, 2002, and the workshop held on July 8, 2003. We have considered such options and presented in the preamble (74 FR 50744 at 50745 to 50747) the Agency's reasons for pursuing the approach described in the proposed rule. In finalizing this rule, FDA again determined that the approach described in this rule allows FDA to receive complete, timely postmarketing safety information regarding combination products, which is necessary to assure the continued safety and effectiveness of such products, using established standards and systems, while minimizing unnecessary duplication and burdens on combination product and constituent part applicants.
(Comment 28) Various commenters requested that the Agency address implementation of this rule through guidance. Commenters noted the importance of ensuring that this rule is as clear as possible. Most commenters requested that the guidance present how the rule would apply to different types of combination products and different types of events. Several commenters requested that this guidance include a decision tree, flow charts, tables, algorithm, or other organizational and explanatory tools to clarify how to comply with the reporting requirements applicable to a combination product. One commenter asked for guidance on whether to cross-reference reports submitted to different locations, such as field alert reports and 15-day reports. Some commenters proposed that the Agency issue guidance prior to publication of this rule. One commenter called for the guidance to address how Agency personnel will coordinate to ensure compliance and how the Agency will monitor implementation of this rule's requirements. One commenter called for the Agency to ensure that the lead center has appropriate expertise to address adverse event reports for a combination product and that training, guidance, and cross-assignment of staff might be helpful in this regard. Another commenter proposed that the Agency take appropriate measures to ensure timely, effective communication between Agency components with respect to postmarketing safety reports for combination products. Some commenters also noted the importance of appropriate training and other Agency personnel considerations.
(Response 28) We intend to publish guidance that provides recommendations on how to comply with the requirements under this rule for combination product applicants and constituent part applicants, including such matters as cross-referencing of reports. We appreciate the comments received on this issue and look forward to further feedback in response to the publication of this final rule and of the draft guidance we may issue. With regard to the requests that we issue guidance prior to issuance of this final rule, we clarified and revised the rule in certain respects, and we did not believe it would be appropriate to anticipate the content of this final rule by publishing guidance concerning its content prior to its finalization.
We agree that appropriate training of Agency staff and timely, effective coordination among Agency components to address postmarketing safety reports for combination products are important efforts that the Agency continues to address.
(Comment 29) Some commenters proposed that the Agency delay the effective date for this rule, arguing that 180 days would not provide sufficient time to take steps to come into compliance, including to develop, validate, and implement new systems, alter procedures and commercial arrangements, and train staff as needed to comply with this rule's requirements. Some proposed making the effective date 1 year after issuance. One commenter proposed 2 years.
(Response 29) We do not agree that it would be appropriate to delay the effective date of this rule. However, in light of these comments, and in consideration of the costs of this rule as discussed in section VIII, we have decided to extend the compliance date with respect to certain provisions of the rule for combination product applicants and constituent part applicants, for a period of 18 months following the effective date of this rule.
The duties for both combination product and constituent part applicants under § 4.102(a) and (b), and for constituent part applicants under §§ 4.104(a) and 4.105(a)(1) are generally the same as for any other entity holding such an application for its product, and we expect all applicants subject to this rule already to be in compliance with these provisions for their products as these provisions generally refer to existing regulations that such applicants have generally followed (see 74 FR 50744 at 50745). Accordingly, the effective date for the rule is 30 days after the date of its publication and the compliance date for these provisions is the same as the effective date for this rule. However, with respect to the requirements of § 4.102(c) and (d) for combination product applicants, the requirements of §§ 4.103 and 4.105(a)(2) for constituent part applicants, and the requirements of §§ 4.104(b) and 4.105(b) for combination product applicants, the compliance date will be 18 months following the effective date of this rule.
(Comment 30) Some comments concerned coordination of various Agency activities related to adverse events including then pending Agency rulemakings concerning electronic reporting, adverse event report database management and searchability, forms referenced in this and other rulemakings, and harmonization efforts with foreign regulatory agencies.
(Response 30) The Agency has taken into account such coordination considerations. Pending FDA rulemakings were one consideration in deciding to streamline this rule by using cross-references to requirements of the underlying regulations listed in § 4.102, without repeating the substance of those requirements. As noted in section II (see discussion of § 4.101), this approach will minimize the need to revise this regulation should the underlying regulations be amended. Similar considerations have informed our determination to reference in § 4.104 the reporting procedures required in the underlying regulations. As discussed in Response 25, we intend to update relevant FDA forms, if appropriate, including the instructions for how to complete them, and to develop guidance that provides recommendations for meeting PMSR requirements under this rule.
With respect to international harmonization, we remain committed to such efforts, including with respect to PMSR requirements for combination
The Agency derives its authority to issue the regulations in proposed part 4 subpart B from 21 U.S.C. 321, 331, 351, 352, 353, 355, 360, 360b-360f, 360h-360j, 360
For a device, section 519 of the FD&C Act requires manufacturers and importers to establish and maintain records, make reports, and provide information, as FDA may reasonably require to assure that such device is not adulterated or misbranded and to otherwise assure its safety and effectiveness. FDA utilized this statutory authority, in addition to other authorities, in issuing the MDR regulation and the correction and removal regulation, found in parts 803 and 806, respectively.
For a biological product, section 351 of the Public Health Service Act (PHS Act) (42 U.S.C. 262) requires FDA to approve a BLA on the basis of a demonstration that the product is safe, pure, and potent (section 351(a)(2)(C) of the PHS Act). Section 351(a)(2)(A) of the PHS Act requires FDA to establish by regulation requirements for the approval, suspension, and revocation of BLAs. Section 351(b) of the PHS Act also prohibits falsely labeling a biological product. FDA used section 351of the PHS Act as statutory authority, along with other sources of statutory authority, in issuing the postmarketing reporting of adverse experiences regulation for biological products. This regulation is found in § 600.80. In proposing § 600.80, FDA indicated that information made available to the Agency through the adverse experience reports contemplated under § 600.80 could establish that a biological product is not safe or properly labeled and that the license should be revoked (55 FR 11611 at 11613, March 29, 1990). FDA used section 351 of the PHS Act as statutory authority, along with other sources of statutory authority, in issuing the BPDR regulations for biological products. These regulations are found in §§ 600.14 and 606.171. In issuing these regulations, FDA stated that these reports would enable FDA to respond when public health may be at risk, provide FDA with uniform data to track trends that may indicate broader threats to the public health, and help ensure facilities are taking appropriate actions to investigate and correct biological product deviations. (65 FR 66621 at 66623, November 7, 2000).
There is considerable overlap in the PMSR requirements for drugs, devices, and biological products. The regulatory schemes for adverse event reporting for drugs and biological products are identical in most respects. The MDR regulation has many similarities to the drug and biological product PMSR regulations. Overall, the regulatory framework governing PMSR for each type of product is intended to achieve the same general goals.
Nevertheless, these three sets of regulations differ somewhat because each is tailored to the characteristics of the types of products for which it was designed. For instance, each set of regulations contains certain specific requirements pertaining to particular products or types of postmarketing safety events that are not found in the other sets of regulations. The additional requirements for combination product applicants that FDA considers necessary are as follows: 5-day reports, 15-day reports, malfunction reports, correction or removal reports, field alert reports, and BPDRs. As set forth in this rule, it is crucial that these additional requirements be met if they apply.
The legal framework underlying this proposed rule is twofold. The first is that drugs, devices, and biological products do not lose their discrete regulatory identities when they become constituent parts of a combination product. In general, the PMSR requirements specific to each constituent part of a combination product also apply to the combination product itself. Therefore, all combination products are subject to at least two sets of PMSR requirements. For example, in the case of a device and biological product combination product, the PMSR requirements applicable to devices and to biological products would apply to the combination product. However, this rule is intended to clarify that a combination product applicant may comply only with the PMSR requirements associated with the application under which the combination product received marketing authorization and certain, specified PMSR requirements associated with the other constituent part(s). Taking the example of a device-biologic combination product, if the combination product has an approved BLA, the combination product applicant (holder of the BLA) would use parts 600 and 606 to make postmarketing safety reports for the combination product. In addition, as explained in this rule, the combination product applicant must also comply with all of the specified requirements that apply to the product. Thus, in this case, the combination product applicant must also comply with the reporting requirements for 5-day reports, correction or removal reports, and malfunction reports if the criteria for such reports are met. Under this legal framework, if you demonstrate compliance with the applicable requirements of the set of regulations (
The legal authority for this streamlining approach is based on the following. Although combination products retain the regulatory identities of their constituent parts, the FD&C Act also recognizes combination products as a category of products that are distinct from products that are solely drugs, devices, or biological products. For example, section 503(g)(4)(A) of the FD&C Act (21 U.S.C. 353b(g)(4)(A)) requires OCP to “designate” a product as a combination product as well as to
The second legal framework for this rule is founded on the postmarket safety reporting regulatory scheme associated with the application under which the combination product is approved, plus any applicable requirements associated with the additional six specified report types listed in this rule. Although similar in effect to the previously discussed framework, this approach is based on the legal authority FDA used to issue each of its three existing regulations for postmarketing safety reporting for drugs, devices, and biological products. In the context of this rule, such authority would include, but not be limited to, sections 505(k) and 519 of the FD&C Act, and section 351 of the PHS Act. Under this authority FDA is now issuing additional requirements based on the six additional specified report types. This means that in the case, for example, of a device-biologic combination product, approved under a BLA, section 351 of the PHS Act (in addition to other applicable authorities) would provide the authority for FDA to require postmarketing safety reporting in accordance with parts 600 and 606. Furthermore, section 351 of the PHS Act also would provide the authority for the Agency to require additional reporting for the device-biologic combination product (5-day reports, malfunction reports, and correction or removal reports) if the criteria for such reports are met.
FDA has determined under 21 CFR 25.30(a), 25.30(h), and 25.31(a) through (c) that this action is of a type that does not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment. Therefore, neither an environmental assessment nor an environmental impact statement is required.
This final rule contains information collection provisions that are subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520). The title, description and respondent description of the information collection provisions are shown in the following paragraphs with an estimate of the annual reporting and recordkeeping burdens. Included in the estimate is the time for reviewing instructions, searching existing data sources, gathering and maintaining the data needed, and completing and reviewing each collection of information.
Given the broad similarities in the PMSR regulations, the Agency determined that, to ensure consistent, appropriate PMSR for combination products that received marketing authorization under a single application, we need only require that combination product applicants comply with the regulatory requirements for PMSR associated with the application, and with additional, specified provisions from the other set(s) of PMSR requirements applicable to the other constituent part(s) of the combination product. This approach recognizes and addresses PMSR considerations relevant to each type of constituent part of a combination product while avoiding unnecessary redundancy and burden.
Specifically, the additional reporting requirements specified in this rule, along with any associated followup reports, are: (1) Submission of a “5-day report” as described in § 803.53 if the combination product contains a device constituent part; (2) submission of a “malfunction report” as described in § 803.50 if the combination product contains a device constituent part; (3) submission of a “correction or removal report” as described in § 806.10 if the combination product contains a device constituent part; (4) submission of a “field alert report” as described in § 314.81 if the combination product contains a drug constituent part; (5) submission of a 15-day report as described in § 314.80 or § 600.80 if the combination product contains a drug or biological product constituent part, respectively; and (6) submission of a “BPDR” as described in §§ 600.14 and 606.171 if the combination product contains a biological product constituent part.
For combination products for which the constituent parts received marketing authorization under separate applications held by different entities, the Agency has determined that compliance with the PMSR requirements associated with the application type for the constituent part is sufficient. In addition, constituent part applicants must share safety information they receive related to certain events with the other constituent part applicant(s).
We note that the PMSR information collections for drugs, biological products, and devices found in §§ 314.80, 314.81, 600.80, 600.81, 606.170, 606.171, 803.50, 803.53, 803.56, 806.10, and 806.20 have already been approved and are in effect. The pertinent PMSR information collection provisions for § 314.80(c) and (e), as well as for § 314.81(b) are approved under OMB control numbers 0910-0001, 0910-0230, and 0910-0291. The information collection provisions for §§ 600.80 and 600.81 are approved under OMB control number 0910-0308. Those for § 606.170 are approved under OMB control number 0910-0116. Those for § 606.171 are approved under OMB control number 0910-0458. The information collection provisions for §§ 803.50, 803.53, and 803.56 are approved under OMB control numbers 0910-0291 and 0910-0437. The information collection provisions for §§ 806.10 and 806.20 are approved under OMB control number 0910-0359.
While this rule serves to permit combination product applicants to comply with a streamlined subset of the PMSR requirements applicable to all of their constituent parts, we recognize that some combination product applicants have been complying with only the reporting requirements associated with their application type. As a result, the information collection described here refers to the reporting and recordkeeping requirements for the six additional report types specified in this rule. It also refers to the new information sharing and related recordkeeping requirement applicable to constituent parts marketed under separate applications.
These requirements are necessary to ensure: (1) Consistent PMSR for combination products and constituent parts, (2) that the Agency receives necessary information to promote and protect the public health, (3) appropriate ongoing assessment of risks, and (4) consistent and appropriate postmarketing regulation of combination products. This rule enables applicants to comply with these requirements while avoiding unnecessary duplicative reporting, for example, by limiting the number of PMSR requirements with which combination product applicants must comply and by authorizing applicants to submit only a single, complete report for an event even if multiple reporting duties apply to the same event.
FDA estimates the burden for this information collection as follows:
Based on FDA's experience regarding receipt of postmarketing safety reports for combination products, the Agency estimates that there will be 401 reporters (who will keep corresponding records) submitting a total of 11,709 reports annually under § 4.102(c) and (d) and 33 reporters (who will keep corresponding records) sharing information eighteen times annually under § 4.103. Further, FDA estimates, based on its experience with information collection regarding postmarketing safety reporting provisions for drugs, biological products, and devices, that each report (or information sharing event under § 4.103) may take from approximately 20 minutes to 10 hours, depending on report type, to prepare and submit, and from approximately 6 to 30 minutes to fulfill the corresponding recordkeeping requirements. FDA believes that there are no significant new operating and maintenance costs associated with this collection of information because, in order to legally market their products, all applicants are required to develop and maintain systems for reporting and maintaining records of postmarketing safety events. Therefore, appropriate mechanisms for PMSR should already be in place, and combination product applicants and constituent part applicants will accrue no significant additional costs to fulfill the requirements set forth here.
In addition, we estimate that there will no significant new costs for 15-day reporting (§ 4.102(c)(2)(ii) and (3)(ii)) and periodic reporting (§ 4.102(d)(1)) under the rule because there is significant overlap between the types of events that trigger a 15-day report for drugs and biological products and the
Before the effective date of this final rule, FDA will publish a notice in the
FDA has analyzed this final rule in accordance with the principles set forth in Executive Order 13132. FDA has determined that the rule does not contain policies that have substantial direct effects on the States, on the relationship between the National Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. Accordingly, the Agency has concluded that the final rule does not contain policies that have federalism implications as defined in the Executive order and, consequently, a federalism summary impact statement is not required.
We have examined the impacts of the final rule under Executive Order 12866, Executive Order 13563, the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601-612), and the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4). Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct us to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, when regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety, and other advantages; distributive impacts; and equity). We have developed a comprehensive Economic Analysis of Impacts that assesses the impacts of the final rule. We believe that this final rule is not a significant regulatory action as defined by Executive Order 12866.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act requires us to analyze regulatory options that would minimize any significant impact of a rule on small entities. Because the final rule essentially describes the application of existing postmarketing safety reporting regulations to certain combination products, we certify that the final rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (section 202(a)) requires us to prepare a written statement, which includes an assessment of anticipated costs and benefits, before issuing “any rule that includes any Federal mandate that may result in the expenditure by State, local, and tribal governments, in the aggregate, or by the private sector, of $100,000,000 or more (adjusted annually for inflation) in any one year.” The current threshold after adjustment for inflation is $146 million, using the most current (2015) Implicit Price Deflator for the Gross Domestic Product. This final rule would not result in an expenditure in any year that meets or exceeds this amount.
The full analysis of economic impacts is available in the docket for this final rule at
The final rule will generate one-time administrative costs from reading and understanding the rule, assessing current compliance, modifying existing standards of practice, changing storage and reporting software, and training personnel on the requirements under this rule. Firms that do not currently comply with the reporting requirements specified by the final rule will also incur annual reporting costs from the submission of field alert reports, 5-day reports, malfunction reports, correction or removal reports, and biological product deviation reports, as applicable. The annualized total costs of the rule are between $1.36 and $2.68 million at a 7 percent discount rate and between $1.35 and $2.65 million at a 3 percent discount rate.
The final rule will benefit firms through reduced uncertainty about the reporting requirements for their specific combination product and through decreased potentially duplicative reporting. The final rule will also benefit public health by helping to ensure that important safety information is submitted and directed to the appropriate components within the Agency, so that we may receive and review this important information in a timely manner for the protection of public health.
The following references are on display in the Division of Dockets Management, Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, and are available for viewing by interested persons between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday; they are also available electronically at
1. FDA Regulation of Combination Products, November 25, 2002, accessed at:
2. Innovative Systems for Delivery of Drugs and Biologics: Scientific, Clinical and Regulatory Challenges, July 8, 2003, accessed at:
3. Individual Case Study Reports, accessed at: (
Biological products, Combination products, Drugs, Medical devices, Regulation of combination products, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Safety.
Therefore, under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, the Public Health Service Act, and under authority delegated to the Commissioner of Food and Drugs, 21 CFR part 4 is amended as follows:
21 U.S.C. 321, 331, 351, 352, 353, 355, 360, 360b-360f, 360h-360j, 360l, 360hh-360ss, 360aaa-360bbb, 371(a), 372-374, 379e, 381, 383, 394; 42 U.S.C. 216, 262, 263a, 264, 271.
(a) This subpart identifies postmarketing safety reporting requirements for combination product applicants and constituent part applicants.
(b) This subpart does not apply to investigational combination products, combination products that have not received marketing authorization, or to persons other than combination product
(c) This subpart supplements and does not supersede other provisions of this chapter, including the provisions in parts 314, 600, 606, 803, and 806 of this chapter, unless a regulation explicitly provides otherwise.
(a)
(b)
(1) If your combination product or device constituent part received marketing authorization under a device application, you must comply with the requirements for postmarketing safety reporting described in parts 803 and 806 of this chapter with respect to your product.
(2) If your combination product or drug constituent part received marketing authorization under an NDA or ANDA, you must comply with the requirements for postmarketing safety reporting described in part 314 of this chapter with respect to your product.
(3) If your combination product or biological product constituent part received marketing authorization under a BLA, you must comply with the requirements for postmarketing safety reporting described in parts 600 and 606 of this chapter with respect to your product.
(c)
(1) If your combination product contains a device constituent part, you must submit:
(i) Five-day reports;
(ii) Malfunction reports; and
(iii) Correction or removal reports, and maintain records as described in § 806.20 of this chapter for corrections and removals not required to be reported.
(2) If your combination product contains a drug constituent part, you must submit:
(i) Field alert reports; and
(ii) Fifteen-day reports as described in § 314.80 of this chapter, which must be
(3) If your combination product contains a biological product constituent part, you must submit:
(i) Biological product deviation reports; and
(ii) Fifteen-day reports as described in § 600.80 of this chapter, which must be submitted within 30 calendar days instead of 15 calendar days if your combination product received marketing authorization under a device application.
(d)
(2) If you are the combination product applicant for a combination product that received marketing authorization under a device application, in addition to the reports required under paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, you must submit reports regarding postmarketing safety events if notified by the Agency in writing that the Agency requires additional information. We will specify what safety information is needed and will require such information if we determine that protection of the public health requires additional or clarifying safety information for the combination product. In any request under this section, we will state the reason or purpose for the safety information request, specify the due date for submitting the information, and clearly identify the reported event(s) related to our request.
(a) When you receive information regarding an event that involves a death or serious injury as described in § 803.3 of this chapter, or an adverse experience as described in § 314.80(a) of this chapter or § 600.80(a) of this chapter, associated with the use of the combination product, you must provide the information to the other constituent part applicant(s) for the combination product no later than 5 calendar days of your receipt of the information.
(b) With regard to information you must provide to the other constituent part applicant(s) for the combination product, you must maintain records that include:
(1) A copy of the information you provided,
(2) The date the information was received by you,
(3) The date the information was provided to the other constituent part applicant(s), and
(4) The name and address of the other constituent part applicant(s) to whom you provided the information.
(a) If you are a constituent part applicant, you must submit postmarketing safety reports in accordance with the regulations identified in § 4.102(b) that are applicable to your product based on its application type.
(b) If you are a combination product applicant, you must submit postmarketing safety reports required under § 4.102 in the manner specified in the regulation applicable to the type of report, with the following exceptions:
(1) You must submit the postmarketing safety reports identified in § 4.102(c)(1)(i) and (ii) in accordance with § 314.80(g) of this chapter if your combination product received marketing authorization under an NDA or ANDA or in accordance with § 600.80(h) of this chapter if your combination product received marketing authorization under a BLA.
(2) You must submit the postmarketing safety reports identified in § 4.102(c)(2)(ii) and (c)(3)(ii) in accordance with § 803.12(a) of this chapter if your combination product received marketing authorization under a device application.
(a) If you are a constituent part applicant:
(1) You must maintain records in accordance with the recordkeeping requirements in the applicable regulation(s) described in § 4.102(b).
(2) You must maintain records required under § 4.103(b) for the longest time period required for records under the postmarketing safety reporting regulations applicable to your product under § 4.102(b).
(b) If you are a combination product applicant, you must maintain records in accordance with the longest time period required for records under the regulations applicable to your product under § 4.102.
Office of the Secretary, HUD.
Final rule.
Through this rule, HUD continues its efforts to narrow the digital divide in low-income communities served by HUD by providing, where feasible and with HUD funding, broadband infrastructure to communities in need of such infrastructure. In this final rule, HUD requires installation of broadband infrastructure at the time of new construction or substantial rehabilitation of multifamily rental housing that is funded or supported by HUD, the point at which such installation is generally easier and less costly than when undertaken as a stand-alone effort. The rule, however, recognizes that installation of broadband infrastructure may not be feasible for all new construction or substantial rehabilitation, and, therefore, it allows limited exceptions to the installation requirements. Installing unit-based broadband infrastructure in multifamily rental housing that is newly constructed or substantially rehabilitated with or supported by HUD funding will provide a platform for individuals and families residing in such housing to participate in the digital economy and increase their access to economic opportunities.
If you have any questions, please contact the following people (the telephone numbers are not toll-free):
The address for all individuals is Department of Housing and Urban Development; 451 7th Street SW.; Washington, DC 20410-0500. Persons with hearing or speech impairments may access these numbers through TTY by calling the Federal Relay Service at 800-877-8339 (this is a toll-free telephone number).
The purpose of this rule is to require installation of broadband infrastructure at the time of new construction or substantial rehabilitation of multifamily rental housing that is funded or supported by HUD. This rule does not require a funding recipient to undertake new construction or substantial rehabilitation, but when a funding recipient does choose to pursue such activity for multifamily rental housing with HUD funding, this rule requires installation of broadband infrastructure. While the rule only requires affected funding recipients to install one form of broadband infrastructure, HUD suggests that funding recipients consider whether installing more than one form of broadband infrastructure would be beneficial to encourage competition among service providers on quality and price. Installing unit-based broadband infrastructure in multifamily rental housing that is newly constructed or substantially rehabilitated with or supported by HUD funding will provide a platform for individuals and families residing in such housing to participate in the digital economy, and increase their access to economic opportunities.
This rule requires installation of broadband infrastructure at the time of new construction or substantial rehabilitation of multifamily rental units funded by the following programs:
1. Choice Neighborhoods Implementation Grant program;
2. Community Development Block Grant (CDBG) program, including the CDBG Disaster Recovery program;
3. Continuum of Care program;
4. HOME Investment Partnerships program;
5. Housing Opportunities for Persons With AIDS program;
6. Housing Trust Fund program;
7. Project-Based Voucher program;
8. Public Housing Capital Fund program;
9. Section 8 project-based housing assistance payments programs, including, but not limited to, the Section 8 New Construction, Substantial Rehabilitation, Loan Management Set-Aside, and Property Disposition programs;
10. Section 202 and Section 811 Supportive Housing for the Elderly and Persons with Disabilities programs.
The requirements of the rule do not apply to multifamily rental housing that only has a mortgage insured by HUD's Federal Housing Administration or with a loan guaranteed under a HUD loan guarantee program.
HUD defines broadband infrastructure as cables, fiber optics, wiring, or other permanent (integral to the structure) infrastructure—including wireless infrastructure—as long as the installation results in broadband infrastructure in each dwelling unit meeting the Federal Communications Commission's (FCC's) definition in effect at the time the pre-construction estimates are generated. Currently, the FCC defines broadband speeds as 25 Megabits per second (Mbps) download, 3 Mbps upload.
The costs and benefits of this rule are difficult to quantify, but they can be described qualitatively. This rule only requires that the broadband infrastructure provided be able to receive high-speed Internet that is “accessible” in each unit. It does not require those recipients of funding undertaking new construction or substantial rehabilitation to provide broadband service to current or future residents even if residents pay for such service. Furthermore, the definition of broadband infrastructure in the rule includes coaxial cable television (TV) wiring that supports cable modem access or even permanent infrastructure that would provide broadband speeds to dwelling units wirelessly. The rule also provides for exceptions to the installation requirements where the installation is too costly to provide due to location or building characteristics.
A recent survey by the National Association of Homebuilders found that 4 percent of the surveyed multifamily housing developers never installed landline wires and jacks in multifamily units completed in the past 12 months.
Given the wide range of technologies that may be employed to meet the requirements of this rule, it is not possible to specify the cost of the technology and how much additional burden this may be for owners or developers building or providing substantial rehabilitation to HUD-assisted rental housing. If the broadband infrastructure consists of wiring connected to proximate telephone or cable company networks, the cost is not expected to be significant, as all electrical work in a multifamily project is estimated to be only about 10 percent of the construction cost;
Materials on the benefits of narrowing the digital divide are voluminous. Having broadband Internet in the home increases household income
On March 23, 2015, President Obama issued a Presidential memorandum on “Expanding Broadband Deployment and Adoption by Addressing Regulatory Barriers and Encouraging Investment and Training.”
On May 18, 2016, at 81 FR 31181, HUD published a proposed rule seeking to require the installation of broadband infrastructure on all new construction or substantial rehabilitation in multifamily projects supported by HUD. This proposed rule was an outgrowth of the President's memorandum and HUD's own Digital Opportunity Demonstration, known as “ConnectHome.” The comment period on the proposed rule closed on July 18, 2016. HUD received 25 comments on the proposed rule from a variety of commenters, including State or local government economic development offices, the National Association of Home Builders, Internet service providers, housing authorities, and nonprofit organizations.
HUD is not changing any of the substantive requirements that were in the proposed rule. Rather, in response to questions raised by public comments, HUD is offering two clarifications in the regulatory text.
First, in the definition in 24 CFR 5.100, HUD is basing the threshold for substantial rehabilitation on the pre-rehabilitation estimates for the work. HUD recognizes that, in the course of rehabilitation, certain cost or work changes may result in the project exceeding the threshold to be defined (for the purposes of installing broadband infrastructure) as substantial rehabilitation. However, in these instances, the funding recipients are already facing higher costs than expected, and to add additional, unplanned-for requirements would be an undue burden.
Second, HUD has clarified the point in the planning process for new construction or substantial rehabilitation at which a project must be, as of the effective date of this rule, to not be subject to the rule's requirements. Due to the different nature of each program covered by this rule, a tailored approach was necessary, instead of a single declaration for all of the programs.
In addition to these two regulatory changes, HUD will offer some future clarifying guidance on how funding recipients are to determine whether installing broadband infrastructure would be infeasible for a given project. This is to be a case-by-case determination, and is very fact-specific. The ultimate decision, however, will be up to the funding recipient, who will also have to maintain adequate documentation of the determination.
A commenter urged HUD to adopt the policy framework of the Internet Franchise (found at
Commenters asked that HUD encourage the installation of infrastructure that is “future-proofed” against higher Internet speeds than what meets the current broadband definition, perhaps by encouraging fiber optic connections to accomplish that goal or by requiring that the infrastructure have capacity of 150 percent of the current standards. Commenters also suggested that, rather than just considering bandwidth capacity, HUD should require that the technology allow for the use of common Internet applications (including voice-over-Internet protocols, or VOIP, and other streaming services).
Commenters also asked how HUD intended to communicate and implement new speed standards from the FCC.
HUD believes that, rather than requiring installation of infrastructure meeting a standard higher than the FCC's then-current definition of “advanced telecommunications capability,” it is enough to install infrastructure that meets that definition, especially as in some areas that speed is more than what may be currently available. Further, HUD believes that by requiring that each unit has access to infrastructure that allows broadband speeds, every family will be able to use Internet applications, such as VOIP, as desired. However, this is established as the minimum. Nothing prevents funding recipients from aiming higher, and nothing prevents other local authorities from establishing higher standards as a local requirement for funding or from using HUD funding to pay for the cost differential of getting to that higher level.
In addition, by tying the infrastructure requirements to the FCC's definition, future changes by the FCC will automatically be incorporated into HUD's requirements. When the definition is revised in the future, HUD will evaluate the most appropriate way to notify its funding recipients covered by this rule of the change.
Commenters responded to HUD's estimates on the cost of installing broadband infrastructure. Many commented that the estimates of the costs of labor and material were too low, particularly when a project is undergoing rehabilitation. Commenters stated that the costs would vary widely across the country, depending on the construction type, the number of units involved, and the regional labor costs. Commenters also stated that HUD should account for operation and maintenance costs for the infrastructure, which may be significant. Commenters stated that the study by the National Association of Home Builders did not specifically address broadband access, and, therefore, it should not be used as evidence that installing broadband is already current practice.
Commenters also suggested that HUD has not justified the costs of compliance with the rule with enough benefits. Some commenters stated that in rural areas, limited access to broadband equipment installers can inflate installation and service costs.
Whatever the cost of the installation of a broadband infrastructure, that cost is borne by HUD in the funds awarded to the funding recipient, or the HUD funds are taken into account when leveraging them for rehabilitation funding. There is no mandate in any of the HUD programs covered by this rule to undertake new construction or substantial rehabilitation.
While HUD funds will cover the cost of installation of the broadband infrastructure, HUD understands that, in tight budgetary times, installing broadband infrastructure may be too expensive for the construction budget to incorporate, given other construction or rehabilitation requirements such as energy efficiency features or improvements or accessible housing features needed by the elderly or persons with disabilities. In such cases, the final rule provides that a funding recipient may be exempted from compliance if the cost of installing broadband infrastructure would result in a fundamental alteration in the nature of its program or activity or in an undue financial burden.
HUD will continue to explore the possibilities of reducing the cost of broadband infrastructure, including allowing HUD funds to be used for operation or maintenance costs or facilitating group purchases to reduce the costs of the infrastructure itself.
Many commenters weighed in on the exceptions to the broadband infrastructure requirements. Several requested examples of projects that would fall under the listed exceptions or more detailed definitions of the provided exceptions. Commenters suggested that, in addition to the exemptions currently included, HUD provide an exception for scattered-site properties with 1 to 4 units.
Some commenters stated that having a building in a rural location should not exempt the housing provider from providing broadband infrastructure as, while the connection to the building may be more expensive, a rural location does not increase the price of installing infrastructure in the building itself. Other commenters stated that requiring the installation of infrastructure where broadband is not currently available could result in the buildings having obsolete infrastructure when broadband access is provided.
Regarding the feasibility determination, some commenters believed that the owner should be the proper entity to determine whether installing broadband infrastructure is feasible, while others stated that HUD should make that determination, moving as quickly as possible to avoid delays in projects. Commenters also requested additional information on the infeasibility exception, particularly what documentation developers should maintain about any determination of feasibility, and any specific formula or source of pre-rehabilitation estimates that HUD will require. Commenters asked at what point a project would be considered infeasible; some stated that the threshold of feasibility should be set such that costs of broadband installation that are over 5 percent of the construction budget should be considered infeasible.
Commenters suggested that HUD should consider the costs of maintaining and operating the infrastructure in determining feasibility. Commenters reminded HUD that, in the future, increased speed requirements could impact the feasibility of installing broadband infrastructure. Commenters also suggested that HUD encourage installation of broadband infrastructure in common areas if it is too expensive to install in every unit.
For the existing exemptions from the rule's requirements, this rule places the burden of determining whether or not an exemption applies and documenting the basis for the determination on the funding recipient. HUD will provide additional guidance with examples and possible ways to make such determinations. HUD also appreciates and supports the suggestion that if a funding recipient determines that providing broadband infrastructure to every unit is too expensive, the funding recipient should consider providing broadband infrastructure to common areas at the property.
HUD notes that a building's location in a rural area not currently served by broadband does not necessarily mean that broadband will not be available in the foreseeable future. In addition, the current unavailability of broadband service to a property does not automatically mean that installing the broadband infrastructure is cost prohibitive. However, HUD acknowledges that, in some situations, the fact that broadband will not be available to a property for an extended time period could be a legitimate justification for meeting the “location” exemption, particularly if the window before broadband service is available is long enough to potentially render any infrastructure installed now obsolete by the time such service is available.
In some programs, maintenance and operating costs are considered eligible expenses of the funding program, and, therefore, there is no need to consider those costs when determining the cost feasibility of installing the broadband infrastructure in the first place. At this time, it is beyond the scope of this rulemaking to amend other program regulations (which are sometimes based on statutory limitations) to allow such costs when it is not currently allowable. However, HUD will continue to look for situations in which program regulations can be revised to allow Internet operation and maintenance costs to be eligible uses of program funds.
Commenters also asked for additional detail on the timing of when the requirements of the new rule would apply. Some stated that for substantial rehabilitation, HUD should state that any project beyond the earliest stage of project budget development should be exempted from the rule. Commenters also suggested that the rule should not apply if a request for proposals (RFP) has been issued for a given project.
However, HUD encourages funding recipients who are currently developing projects for new construction or substantial rehabilitation that would not be covered by this rule to seriously consider whether they can include broadband infrastructure in those construction or rehabilitation plans.
Commenters suggested other changes to HUD's requirements for the broadband infrastructure. Several stated that the broadband wiring should enter the building at a central point and then flow to each unit and common space in the building. Commenters stated that HUD should encourage building owners to consider ways to future proof the infrastructure, including how to replace broken wires and how to make access points easily accessible. Others wrote that HUD should specify that buildings using wireless should have sufficient access points to ensure that each unit has fast, reliable service.
Commenters also stated that HUD should require broadband infrastructure be provided for common areas and meeting spaces.
Some commenters objected to HUD allowing broadband over power lines (BPL) or very-high-bit-rate digital subscriber lines (VDSL), as the commenters felt those technologies needed significant improvements and more widespread adoption to become viable ways of receiving broadband.
In addition, HUD is not requiring the installation of broadband infrastructure in common areas and meeting spaces, but HUD highly encourages funding recipients to do so when possible. In projects where installing such infrastructure in individual units is cost prohibitive, HUD encourages funding recipients to install broadband infrastructure in common areas, unless the recipient determines that is also cost prohibitive.
Several commenters stated that HUD should encourage housing providers to install broadband infrastructure that enables multiple competitive providers in the same project, or a managed solution to allow for subsidized services. Commenters stated that HUD should prohibit owners from entering into arrangements with providers that limit other providers' access to inside wiring, interfering with the right of residents to request or receive broadband service from a specific provider, or entering into exclusive marketing arrangements in HUD-supported housing.
Commenters stated that infrastructure running from the street to the building should have sufficient conduit capacity to allow for use by multiple providers.
Commenters were divided on whether HUD should include additional programs beyond those in the proposed rule. Some wrote that HUD should not include more programs. Others asked that HUD include all programs providing housing assistance for low-income populations, which may make the regulation easier to enforce in general. Commenters also stated that HUD should include all multifamily
Commenters suggested some sanctions HUD could consider. Some stated that HUD should fine owners for inappropriate use of exemptions from the requirements, perhaps using the funds for digital literacy programs. Commenters stated that HUD could, in egregious cases, disqualify recipients from future HUD funding. Other commenters suggested that instead of sanctions, HUD could require funding recipients to develop ways to bring the Internet to a project's residents.
Commenters suggested that HUD reconsider applying the requirements to substantial rehabilitation projects. Others suggested that HUD expand the definition to include other trigger activities, such as updating or replacing coaxial cables, installing fiber optics, or installing Ethernet. Commenters stated that the definition of substantial rehabilitation should not include the electrical system standard, because work on electrical systems does not always translate easily into providing broadband infrastructure.
Commenters addressed HUD's question about how to determine whether a rehabilitation project rises to the level of substantial rehabilitation. Some stated that HUD should rely on pre-rehabilitation cost estimates because, if there are unexpected expenses that take the project over the substantial rehabilitation threshold, adding broadband requirements on top of those expenses may be too much for the project. However, other comments stated that HUD should use actual costs to judge the substantial threshold.
Commenters also asked how the standard applies to scattered sites, where only a single unit or a few units are being renovated.
HUD appreciates the responses to the question about which construction costs to use when determining whether or not work rises to the level of substantial rehabilitation. HUD has decided that the percentage-of-cost threshold for substantial rehabilitation should be based on the pre-rehabilitation cost estimates, and this has been incorporated into the substantial rehabilitation definition.
Because this rule only affects structures with more than 4 rental units, scattered-site housing with fewer than 4 rental units is not covered by the rule.
Commenters stated that HUD should couple the rule with additional support for subsidies and digital literacy programs, including treating the provision of broadband service as an eligible expenditure in affordable rental housing. Others asked for additional funding for the infrastructure costs themselves. Commenters further stated that HUD could leverage its size and buying power to secure broadband service at lower prices. Some suggested that HUD should explore additional subsidies to use “white space” in the over-air spectrum in rural areas for wireless Internet or to subsidize seniors or families with children.
Commenters also suggested that HUD should coordinate with the United States Department of Agriculture (USDA) to work with “last mile” connection issues.
HUD encourages funding recipients to make their own connections with other programs, or to establish local requirements to accomplish these goals. HUD will continue to seek out opportunities to foster such partnerships at the national and local level. Several HUD programs can be used to pay for such complementary services, and HUD encourages funding recipients to leverage those resources. HUD will also continue to explore ways to expand the eligibility of such complementary services and for infrastructure work in HUD programs. However, Congress, not HUD, establishes program funding levels, so we are unable to provide additional programmatic funds at this time.
Commenters asked HUD to expand the scope of the rule beyond new construction and substantial rehabilitation to also include existing facilities. Commenters also disagreed with HUD's encouragement to deploy competing infrastructure or delivery mechanisms.
Under Executive Order 12866 (Regulatory Planning and Review), a determination must be made whether a regulatory action is significant and, therefore, subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) in accordance with the requirements of the order. Executive Order 13563 (Improving Regulations and Regulatory Review) directs executive agencies to analyze regulations that are “outmoded, ineffective, insufficient, or excessively burdensome, and to modify, streamline, expand, or repeal them in accordance with what has been learned.” Executive Order 13563 also directs that, where relevant, feasible, and consistent with regulatory objectives, and to the extent permitted by law, agencies are to identify and consider regulatory approaches that reduce burdens and maintain flexibility and freedom of choice for the public. This rule was determined to be a “significant regulatory action” as defined in section 3(f) of Executive Order 12866 (although not an economically significant regulatory action, as provided under section 3(f)(1) of the Executive Order).
As discussed, this rule furthers HUD's efforts to narrow the digital divide in low-income communities served by HUD. Specifically, HUD is requiring installation of broadband infrastructure at the time of new construction or substantial rehabilitation of multifamily rental housing that is funded by HUD. As noted in the Executive Summary, the costs and benefits of this rule are difficult to quantify, but they can be described qualitatively.
The benefits of narrowing the digital divide are well documented. In just one example, a study conducted by a former chair of the President's Council of Economic Advisers used data on the amount of time Internet users spend online to estimate that Internet access produces thousands of dollars of consumer surplus per user each year.
Additionally, individuals with vision, learning, and physical disabilities affecting manual dexterity rely on assistive technologies to interact with computers and the Internet, and such technologies function best on broadband Internet. Without access to broadband infrastructure, these individuals may have limited access to basic services that are now offered online.
HUD recognizes that the rule's limited scope in only requiring the installation of infrastructure, instead of providing Internet access, also limits the benefits of the rule. Specifically, the benefit of the rule is that where broadband Internet can be made available at a limited price, the tenants, residing in housing with broadband infrastructure, will be assured of the ability to access broadband Internet service, whether they choose and are able to afford Internet service or not. This rule, therefore, would put broadband Internet service within reach where other charitable and public social programs, including HUD's ConnectHome program, provide free or reduced-cost service.
It is not possible to specify the exact costs that recipients and owners may incur as a result of the rule, given the variety of available technologies that may be used to satisfy the new broadband requirements. However, available data indicate that any costs associated with this rule will be minimal.
As is displayed on Table I, broadband Internet access can be provided using two general technologies: Wired and wireless, each with several specific technologies. Broadband can be delivered over wired lines using very-high-bit-rate digital subscriber lines (VDSL), cable lines, power lines (BPL), or fiber optic platforms. Using wireless technologies, broadband can be provided using satellite, fixed wireless, mobile wireless, and Wi-Fi platforms.
Whereas wired lines technologies may require some sort of physical infrastructure consisting of internal wiring within the dwelling unit, wireless technologies do not require any additional physical infrastructure
Building costs of installing wired infrastructure are limited to in-dwelling wiring, as this is all that is required by the rule. Within the unit or the building, the electrical work consists of running cable (meeting the requirements of category (Cat) 5e or Cat 6 wire), installing jacks and plates, and minor construction work (such as drilling and patching walls). Fiber optic cables are rarely run in the dwelling unit but are installed by the service provider outside the unit; the non-fiber optic wiring then makes broadband accessible within the unit. Depending on the market, some of the cost is also borne by the service provider.
The average per-unit cost for wiring for broadband Internet is approximately $200 (see Table II). These costs are simply estimates of one method of complying with the requirements of the rule. Labor costs will also vary based on the region and whether the installation is being done as part of substantial rehabilitation or new construction. At most, installation of broadband infrastructure may reduce the provision of other amenities or nonessential finishes, but even these reductions are considered
HUD also notes that the rule is drafted so as to minimize the costs of the new installation requirements. For example, the rule does not mandate any rehabilitation or construction, and the decision to undertake such activities appropriately remains with recipients and owners. Rather, the scope of the regulatory changes is limited to requiring the installation of broadband infrastructure if the recipient or owner elects to undertake new construction or substantial rehabilitation. The rule minimizes the economic impacts on recipients and owners by recognizing that the installation of broadband infrastructure is generally less burdensome and costly at the time of new construction or substantial rehabilitation than when such installation is undertaken as a stand-alone effort.
Moreover, this rule only requires the installation of broadband infrastructure that is “accessible” in each unit. The rule does not require recipients or owners to provide a regular subscription to broadband Internet service (even at a cost) to residents. Also minimizing the economic costs of the regulatory changes is the fact that the definition of broadband infrastructure includes cable television, fiber optic cabling, and wireless infrastructure providing appropriate broadband connectivity to the individual units. As discussed above in this Executive Summary, multifamily HUD or standard-market new construction typically provides telephone landline and cable TV connectivity. Further, HUD's competitive grants for new construction under the Choice Neighborhoods program have, in recent years, sought the provision of broadband.
A review of HUD internal databases, summarized on Table III, shows that, in 2013, 58,677 units within the targeted programs were newly constructed or rehabilitated. However, HUD's data did not contain specific information to be able to determine how many of the units that underwent rehabilitation met the definition of “substantial rehabilitation” contained in the rule, so the number of affected units would be smaller than is contained in the table. In addition, data on affected units newly constructed using CDBG funding are unavailable, as grantee reports do not separate multifamily from single-unit new construction.
Further, a review found that multifamily (5-plus units) HUD or standard-market new construction typically provides telephone landlines and many provide cable TV connectivity.
Accordingly, most recipients and owners already meet the standards established in the rule, and the new regulatory requirements will impose minimal, if any, new economic costs. HUD has addressed those rare situations where the new requirements may prove too costly by allowing exceptions to the installation requirements where the installation is documented to be economically infeasible due to location or building characteristics.
The docket file is available for public inspection online at
The Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) (5 U.S.C. 601
This rule provides that for new construction or substantial rehabilitation of multifamily rental housing funded by HUD, as part of the new construction or substantial rehabilitation to be undertaken, such activity must include installation of broadband infrastructure. None of the programs covered by this rule require a funding recipient to undertake new construction or substantial rehabilitation. Instead, new construction and substantial rehabilitation are eligible activities that funding recipients may take using HUD funds. Therefore, small entities will not incur any costs they would not otherwise incur by voluntarily undertaking new construction or substantial rehabilitation, since the costs of these activities, including the installation of broadband infrastructure, are funded by HUD. For these reasons, this rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
Title II of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (UMRA) establishes requirements for Federal agencies to assess the effects of their regulatory actions on State, local, and tribal governments and the private sector. This rule will not impose any Federal mandates on any State, local, or tribal governments or the private sector within the meaning of the UMRA.
The information collection requirements contained in this rule were submitted to OMB under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520) for review and approval and are pending or are covered by OMB control numbers 2577-0269, 2577-0191, 2506-0165, 2506-0077, 2506-0085, 2506-0170, 2506-0199, 2506-0171, 2506-0133, 2577-0169, 2577-0157, 2502-0587, 2502-0612, 2502-0462, and 2502-0608. In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act, an agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless the collection displays a currently valid OMB control number.
A Finding of No Significant Impact (FONSI) with respect to the environment was made at the proposed rule stage in accordance with HUD regulations in 24 CFR part 50 that implement section 102(2)(C) of the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4332(2)(C)). That FONSI remains applicable to this final rule and is available for public inspection online at
Executive Order 13132 (entitled “Federalism”) prohibits an agency from publishing any rule that has federalism implications if the rule either imposes substantial direct compliance costs on State and local governments and is not required by statute, or the rule preempts State law, unless the agency meets the consultation and funding requirements of section 6 of the Executive order. This rule does not have federalism implications and does not impose substantial direct compliance costs on State and local governments nor preempts State law within the meaning of the Executive order.
The Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance numbers applicable to the programs that would be affected by this rule are: 14.218, 14.225, 14.228, 14.239, 14.241, 14.267, 14.850, 14.871, and 14.872.
Administrative practice and procedure, Aged, Claims, Crime, Government contracts, Grant programs-housing and community development, Individuals with disabilities, Intergovernmental relations, Loan programs-housing and community development, Low and moderate income housing, Mortgage insurance, Penalties, Pets, Public housing, Rent subsidies, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Social security, Unemployment compensation, Wages.
Administrative practice and procedure, Low and moderate income housing, Manufactured homes, Rent subsidies, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Administrative practice and procedure, Grant programs-housing and community development, Low and moderate income housing, Manufactured homes, Rent subsidies, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Administrative practice and procedure, American Samoa, Community development block grants, Grant programs-education, Grant programs-housing and community development, Guam, Indians, Loan programs-housing and community development, Low and moderate income housing, Northern Mariana Islands, Pacific Islands Trust Territory, Puerto Rico, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Student aid, Virgin Islands.
Community facilities, Grant programs-housing and community development, Grant programs-social programs, HIV/AIDS, Low and moderate income housing, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Community development, Community facilities, Grant programs-housing and community development, Grant programs-social programs, Homeless, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Grant programs-housing and community development, Rent subsidies, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Grant programs-housing and community development, Rent subsidies, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Grant programs-housing and community development, Rent subsidies, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Grant programs-housing and community development, Rent subsidies, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Rural areas.
Grant programs-housing and community development, Lead poisoning, Rent subsidies, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Aged, Grant programs-housing and community development, Individuals with disabilities, Loan programs-housing and community development, Rent subsidies, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Grant programs-housing and community development, Public housing, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Grant programs-housing and community development, Low and moderate income housing, Rent subsidies, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Accordingly, for the reasons stated in the preamble, HUD amends 24 CFR parts 5, 92, 93, 570, 574, 578, 880, 881, 883, 884, 886, 891, 905, and 983 as follows:
42 U.S.C. 1437a, 1437c, 1437f, 1437n, 3535(d), Sec. 327, Pub. L. 109-115, 119 Stat. 2936, Sec. 607, Pub. L. 109-162, 119 Stat. 3051, E.O. 13279, and E.O. 13559.
(1) Significant work on the electrical system of the multifamily rental housing. “Significant work” means complete replacement of the electrical system or other work for which the pre-construction cost estimate is equal to or greater than 75 percent of the cost of replacing the entire electrical system. In the case of multifamily rental housing with multiple buildings with more than 4 units, “entire system” refers to the electrical system of the building undergoing rehabilitation; or
(2) Rehabilitation of the multifamily rental housing in which the pre-construction estimated cost of the rehabilitation is equal to or greater than 75 percent of the total estimated cost of replacing the multifamily rental housing after the rehabilitation is complete. In the case of multifamily rental housing with multiple buildings with more than 4 units, the replacement cost must be the replacement cost of the building undergoing rehabilitation.
42 U.S.C. 3535(d) and 12701-12839.
(a) * * *
(2)
(vi)
(A) The location of the new construction makes installation of broadband infrastructure infeasible; or
(B) The cost of installing the infrastructure would result in a fundamental alteration in the nature of its program or activity or in an undue financial burden.
(b) * * *
(1) * * *
(x)
(A) The location of the substantial rehabilitation makes installation of broadband infrastructure infeasible;
(B) The cost of installing broadband infrastructure would result in a fundamental alteration in the nature of its program or activity or in an undue financial burden; or
(C) The structure of the housing to be substantially rehabilitated makes installation of broadband infrastructure infeasible.
42 U.S.C. 3535(d), 12 U.S.C. 4568.
(a) * * *
(2)
(vi)
(A) The location of the new construction makes installation of broadband infrastructure infeasible; or
(B) The cost of installing broadband infrastructure would result in a fundamental alteration in the nature of its program or activity or in an undue financial burden.
(b) * * *
(1) * * *
(x)
(A) The location of the substantial rehabilitation makes installation of broadband infrastructure infeasible;
(B) The cost of installing broadband infrastructure would result in a fundamental alteration in the nature of its program or activity or in an undue financial burden; or
(C) The structure of the housing to be substantially rehabilitated makes installation of broadband infrastructure infeasible.
42 U.S.C. 3535(d) and 5301-5320.
(g)
(1) The location of the substantial rehabilitation makes installation of broadband infrastructure infeasible;
(2) The cost of installing broadband infrastructure would result in a fundamental alteration in the nature of its program or activity or in an undue financial burden; or
(3) The structure of the housing to be substantially rehabilitated makes installation of broadband infrastructure infeasible.
(a) * * *
(5) Any new construction or substantial rehabilitation, as substantial rehabilitation is defined by 24 CFR 5.100, of a building with more than 4 rental units, for which CDBG funds are first obligated by the recipient on or after April 19, 2017, must include installation of broadband infrastructure, as this term is also defined in 24 CFR 5.100, except where the recipient determines and, in accordance with § 570.506, documents the determination that:
(i) The location of the new construction or substantial rehabilitation makes installation of broadband infrastructure infeasible;
(ii) The cost of installing broadband infrastructure would result in a fundamental alteration in the nature of its program or activity or in an undue financial burden; or
(iii) The structure of the housing to be substantially rehabilitated makes installation of broadband infrastructure infeasible.
(c) * * *
(5)
(i) The location of the new construction or substantial
(ii) The cost of installing broadband infrastructure would result in a fundamental alteration in the nature of its program or activity or in an undue financial burden; or
(iii) The structure of the housing to be substantially rehabilitated makes installation of broadband infrastructure infeasible.
(c) * * *
(2) Where applicable, records which either demonstrate compliance with the requirements of § 570.202(g) or § 570.204(a)(5) or document the State's or State's grant recipient's basis for an exception to the requirements of those paragraphs.
42 U.S.C. 3535(d) and 12901-12912.
Any new construction or substantial rehabilitation, as substantial rehabilitation is defined by 24 CFR 574.3, of a building with more than 4 rental units, for which HOPWA funds are first obligated by the grantee or project sponsor on or after January 19, 2017 must include installation of broadband infrastructure, as this term is defined in 24 CFR 5.100, except where the grantee or project sponsor determines and, in accordance with § 574.530, documents the determination that:
(a) The location of the new construction or substantial rehabilitation makes installation of broadband infrastructure infeasible;
(b) The cost of installing broadband infrastructure would result in a fundamental alteration in the nature of its program or activity or in an undue financial burden; or
(c) The structure of the housing to be substantially rehabilitated makes installation of broadband infrastructure infeasible.
42 U.S.C. 11371
(d)
(1) The location of the substantial rehabilitation makes installation of broadband infrastructure infeasible;
(2) The cost of installing broadband infrastructure would result in a fundamental alteration in the nature of its program or activity or in an undue financial burden; or
(3) The structure of the housing to be substantially rehabilitated makes installation of broadband infrastructure infeasible.
(c)
(1) The location of the new construction makes installation of broadband infrastructure infeasible; or
(2) The cost of installing broadband infrastructure would result in a fundamental alteration in the nature of its program or activity or in an undue financial burden.
42 U.S.C. 1437a, 1437c, 1437f, 3535(d), 12701, and 13611-13619.
Any new construction or substantial rehabilitation, as substantial rehabilitation is defined by 24 CFR 5.100, of a building with more than 4 rental units and that is subject to a Housing Assistance Payments contract executed or renewed after January 19, 2017 must include installation of broadband infrastructure, as this term is also defined in 24 CFR 5.100, except where the owner determines and documents the determination that:
(a) The location of the new construction or substantial rehabilitation makes installation of broadband infrastructure infeasible;
(b) The cost of installing broadband infrastructure would result in a fundamental alteration in the nature of its program or activity or in an undue financial burden; or
(c) The structure of the housing to be substantially rehabilitated makes installation of broadband infrastructure infeasible.
42 U.S.C. 1437a, 1437c, 1437f, 3535(d), 12701, and 13611-13619.
Any new construction or substantial rehabilitation, as substantial rehabilitation is defined by 24 CFR 5.100, of a building with more than 4 rental units and that is subject to a Housing Assistance Payments contract executed or renewed after January 19, 2017 must include installation of broadband infrastructure, as this term is also defined in 24 CFR 5.100, except where the owner determines and documents the determination that:
(a) The location of the new construction or substantial rehabilitation makes installation of broadband infrastructure infeasible;
(b) The cost of installing broadband infrastructure would result in a fundamental alteration in the nature of its program or activity or in an undue financial burden; or
(c) The structure of the housing to be substantially rehabilitated makes installation of broadband infrastructure infeasible.
42 U.S.C. 1437a, 1437c, 1437f, 3535(d), and 13611-13619.
Any new construction or substantial rehabilitation, as substantial rehabilitation is defined by 24 CFR 5.100, of a building with more than 4 rental units and that is subject to a Housing Assistance Payments contract executed or renewed after January 19, 2017 must include installation of broadband infrastructure, as this term is also defined in 24 CFR 5.100, except where the owner determines and documents the determination that:
(a) The location of the new construction or substantial rehabilitation makes installation of broadband infrastructure infeasible;
(b) The cost of installing broadband infrastructure would result in a fundamental alteration in the nature of its program or activity or in an undue financial burden; or
(c) The structure of the housing to be substantially rehabilitated makes installation of broadband infrastructure infeasible.
42 U.S.C. 1437a, 1437c, 1437f, 3535(d), and 13611-13619.
Any new construction or substantial rehabilitation, as substantial rehabilitation is defined by 24 CFR 5.100, of a building with more than 4 rental units and that is subject to a Housing Assistance Payments contract executed or renewed after January 19, 2017 must include installation of broadband infrastructure, as this term is also defined in 24 CFR 5.100, except where the owner determines and documents the determination that:
(a) The location of the new construction or substantial rehabilitation makes installation of broadband infrastructure infeasible;
(b) The cost of installing broadband infrastructure would result in a fundamental alteration in the nature of its program or activity or in an undue financial burden; or
(c) The structure of the housing to be substantially rehabilitated makes installation of broadband infrastructure infeasible.
42 U.S.C. 1437a, 1437c, 1437f, 3535(d), and 13611-13619.
Any new construction or substantial rehabilitation, as substantial rehabilitation is defined by 24 CFR 5.100, of a building with more than 4 rental units and that is subject to a Housing Assistance Payments contract executed or renewed after January 19, 2017 must include installation of broadband infrastructure, as this term is also defined in 24 CFR 5.100, except where the owner determines and documents the determination that:
(a) The location of the new construction or substantial rehabilitation makes installation of broadband infrastructure infeasible;
(b) The cost of installing broadband infrastructure would result in a fundamental alteration in the nature of its program or activity or in an undue financial burden; or
(c) The structure of the housing to be substantially rehabilitated makes installation of broadband infrastructure infeasible.
Any new construction or substantial rehabilitation, as substantial rehabilitation is defined by 24 CFR 5.100, of a building with more than 4 rental units and that is subject to a Housing Assistance Payments contract executed or renewed after January 19, 2017 must include installation of broadband infrastructure, as this term is also defined in 24 CFR 5.100, except where the owner determines and documents the determination that:
(a) The location of the new construction or substantial rehabilitation makes installation of broadband infrastructure infeasible;
(b) The cost of installing broadband infrastructure would result in a fundamental alteration in the nature of its program or activity or in an undue financial burden; or
(c) The structure of the housing to be substantially rehabilitated makes installation of broadband infrastructure infeasible.
12 U.S.C. 1701q; 42 U.S.C. 1437f, 3535(d), and 8013.
(f)
(a) The location of the new construction or substantial rehabilitation makes installation of broadband infrastructure infeasible;
(b) The cost of installing broadband infrastructure would result in a fundamental alteration in the nature of its program or activity or in an undue financial burden; or
(c) The structure of the housing to be substantially rehabilitated makes installation of broadband infrastructure infeasible.
Any new construction or substantial rehabilitation, as substantial rehabilitation is defined by 24 CFR 5.100, of a building with more than 4 rental units and funded by a grant awarded after January 19, 2017 must include installation of broadband infrastructure, as this term is also defined in 24 CFR 5.100, except where the owner determines and documents the determination that:
(a) The location of the new construction or substantial rehabilitation makes installation of broadband infrastructure infeasible;
(b) The cost of installing broadband infrastructure would result in a fundamental alteration in the nature of
(c) The structure of the housing to be substantially rehabilitated makes installation of broadband infrastructure infeasible.
42 U.S.C. 1437g, 42 U.S.C. 1437z-2, 42 U.S.C. 1437z-7, and 3535(d).
(e)
(1) The location of the new construction or substantial rehabilitation makes installation of broadband infrastructure infeasible;
(2) The cost of installing broadband infrastructure would result in a fundamental alteration in the nature of its program or activity or in an undue financial burden; or
(3) The structure of the housing to be rehabilitated makes installation of broadband infrastructure infeasible.
42 U.S.C. 1437f and 3535(d).
Any new construction or substantial rehabilitation, as substantial rehabilitation is defined by 24 CFR 5.100, of a building with more than 4 rental units and where the date of the notice of owner proposal selection or the start of the rehabilitation while under a HAP contract is after January 19, 2017 must include installation of broadband infrastructure, as this term is also defined in 24 CFR 5.100, except where the owner determines and documents the determination that:
(a) The location of the new construction or substantial rehabilitation makes installation of broadband infrastructure infeasible;
(b) The cost of installing broadband infrastructure would result in a fundamental alteration in the nature of its program or activity or in an undue financial burden; or
(c) The structure of the housing to be substantially rehabilitated makes installation of broadband infrastructure infeasible.
Employee Benefits Security Administration, Department of Labor.
Final rule.
This document contains an amendment to a final regulation that describes how states may design and operate payroll deduction savings programs for private-sector employees, including programs that use automatic enrollment, without causing the states or private-sector employers to have established employee pension benefit plans under the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (ERISA). The amendment expands the final regulation beyond states to cover qualified state political subdivisions and their programs that otherwise comply with the regulation. This final rule affects individuals and employers subject to such programs.
This rule is effective 30 days after the date of publication in the
Janet Song, Office of Regulations and Interpretations, Employee Benefits Security Administration, (202) 693-8500. This is not a toll-free number.
On August 30, 2016, the Department issued a final regulation establishing a safe harbor pursuant to which state governments can establish payroll deduction savings programs for private-sector employees, including programs with automatic enrollment, without causing either the state or the employers of those employees to have established employee pension benefit plans subject to ERISA. The Department published the safe harbor regulation in response to legislation in some states, and strongly-expressed interest in others, to encourage private-sector employees to save for retirement by giving those employees broader access to retirement savings arrangements through their employers. The safe harbor regulation became effective on October 31, 2016.
As the Department noted in the final regulation's preamble, concerns that tens of millions of America's workers do not have access to workplace retirement savings arrangements led some states to establish state-administered programs that allow private-sector employees to contribute salary withholdings to tax-favored individual retirement accounts described in 26 U.S.C. 408(a), individual retirement annuities described in 26 U.S.C. 408(b), and Roth IRAs described in 26 U.S.C. 408A (collectively, IRAs). California, Connecticut, Illinois, Maryland, and Oregon, for example, have adopted laws along these lines.
The Department also noted in the 2016 final safe harbor regulation's preamble that some stakeholders had expressed concern that their payroll deduction savings programs might cause either the state or the covered employers to inadvertently establish ERISA-covered plans, despite the states' express intent to avoid such a result. The states' concern is based in part on ERISA's broad definition of “employee pension benefit plan” and “pension plan,” which ERISA defines, in relevant part, as “any plan, fund, or program which was heretofore or is hereafter established or maintained by an employer or by an employee organization, or by both, to the extent that by its express terms or as a result of surrounding circumstances such plan, fund, or program . . .provides retirement income toemployees . . . .”
The states' desire to avoid inadvertently creating ERISA plans through their payroll deduction savings programs stems from the fact that, with certain exceptions, ERISA preempts state laws that relate to ERISA-covered employee benefit plans.
The Department responded to these concerns by publishing the 2016 final safe harbor regulation, which described specific conditions pursuant to which state payroll deduction savings programs, including those with automatic enrollment, would not result in the state or private-sector employers having established ERISA-covered employee pension benefit plans. The 2016 final safe harbor regulation thus helps states to establish and operate payroll deduction savings programs in a manner that reduces the risk that ERISA would preempt their laws and programs. That final regulation did not, however, include within its scope payroll deduction savings programs established by state political subdivisions.
On August 30, 2016, the Department published in the
Although the Department retained the section 3(10) definition in the 2016 final safe harbor regulation, the Department nevertheless agreed with commenters that there may be good reasons for expanding the safe harbor, subject to certain conditions, to cover political subdivisions and their programs. While it is not clear to the Department how many such political subdivisions eventually will have an interest in establishing programs of the kind described in the final safe harbor regulation, thus far the Department has only received written letters of interest from representatives of Seattle, Philadelphia and New York City.
The proposed amendment also added a new subparagraph (h)(4) to define the term “qualified political subdivision” as any governmental unit of a state, including any city, county, or similar governmental body that met three criteria. First, the political subdivision must have the authority, under state law, whether implicit or explicit, to require employers' participation in the
The Department's goal in defining “qualified political subdivision” in this way was to reduce the number of political subdivisions that can fit within the safe harbor and focus the authority on those subdivisions most likely to have the capacity to implement successful programs. As the Department noted in the proposed rule's preamble, the U.S. Census Bureau reports that there are approximately 90,000 local governmental units in the United States, many of which could be considered “political subdivisions” for purposes of the proposed regulation.
The first proposed criterion limiting the potential number of political subdivisions eligible for the safe harbor requires that the political subdivision have either explicit or implicit authority under state law to establish and operate a payroll deduction savings program and to require employers within its jurisdiction to participate. In the case of programs with automatic enrollment, that authority must encompass the power to require employers to execute payroll deduction wage withholdings.
The second proposed criterion limiting the number of potentially-eligible political subdivisions requires that the political subdivision have a population equal to or greater than the population of the least populous U.S. state (excluding the District of Columbia and the territories listed in section 3(10) of the ERISA). Based on the most recent U.S. Census Bureau statistics available, the least populous U.S. state had approximately 600,000 residents.
The proposal's third criterion further limited the safe harbor to political subdivisions in states that do not offer their own statewide retirement savings program for private-sector employees.
The Department solicited public comments on all aspects of the proposed amendment, including comments on criteria the Department did not specifically address in the proposal, but which might be useful in refining the qualified political subdivision definition. In addition, the Department also requested comments on other facets of the safe harbor more generally. In response to these solicitations, the Department received approximately 27 written comments, many of which are discussed under the topical headings below.
The final rule largely adopts the proposal's general structure. Specifically, it amends paragraph (h) of § 2510.3-2 by adding the term “or qualified political subdivision” wherever the term “State” appears in the regulation. Thus, with these amendments, the final regulation's safe harbor provisions generally apply in the same manner to qualified political subdivision payroll deduction savings programs as they apply to state programs.
The final rule also adopts proposed new subparagraph (h)(4), but with modifications. In the final rule, paragraph (h)(4) defines the term “qualified political subdivision” as any governmental unit of a state, including any city, county, or similar governmental body that meets four criteria.
The final rule adopts the proposal's requirement that in order to be “qualified” a political subdivision must have the “authority, implicit or explicit, under State law to require employers' participation in the program . . . .” § 2510.3-2(h)(4)(i). This provision serves two purposes. The main purpose is to ensure that the political subdivision has the authority under state law to require employers within its jurisdiction to participate in the payroll deduction savings program and, in the case of programs with automatic enrollment, to require wage withholding. This is not to say, however, that a state law must explicitly authorize the political subdivision to establish a payroll deduction savings program; rather, it means that the political subdivision must have some measure of legal authority, even if implicit, to establish and operate the program and to compel employers to participate.
The final rule adopts the proposal's population test for safe harbor qualification, with one modification. As noted above, the final rule states, in relevant part, that a political subdivision must have “a population equal to or greater than the population of the least populated State,” and defines the term “State” to have the same meaning as in section 3(10) of ERISA (excluding the District of Columbia and territories listed in that section). 29 CFR 2510.3-2(h)(4)(ii)(A).
The Department has two primary policy reasons for adopting the population test. First, it is important that the safe harbor not include political subdivisions that may not have the experience, capacity, and resources to establish and oversee payroll deduction savings programs. Second, the Department is interested in reducing the possibility that employers would be subject to a multiplicity of overlapping political subdivision programs. It is the Department's view that the population test is an important measure in achieving both of those purposes. In the preamble to the proposed rule, the Department articulated these policy considerations for public notice and comment.
The Department received a number of comments on this issue that reflected apparently conflicting viewpoints. Some commenters supported the population test because they agree with the Department that population size correlates with a political subdivision having the experience, capacity, and resources to implement the necessary structures to establish and oversee payroll deduction savings programs and meet the safe harbor regulation's various requirements.
The Department agrees with those commenters who recognize a relationship between population, on the one hand, and resources, experience, and capacity on the other. This is because larger cities and counties (in terms of population) likely have, among other things, a larger tax base and governmental infrastructure, which provides access to greater resources, experience, and capacity than smaller
The provisions of the Department's safe harbor pertaining to state payroll deduction savings programs assume that even the least populated states have the capacity and resources to manage a payroll deduction savings program. In the Department's view, political subdivisions that are the population size of small states could, in the right circumstances, have similar capacity and resources as their state counterparts of the same size. For that reason, the Department has decided not to flatly exclude such entities from coverage under the safe harbor. At the same time, however, the Department notes that states necessarily have a breadth of responsibilities, administrative systems, and experience that may not be matched by political subdivisions of equal size. Accordingly, the final regulation also adopts the demonstrated capacity test for these subdivisions, as discussed below. Together these tests ensure a high likelihood that qualified political subdivisions will have sufficient resources, experience, and capacity to safely and competently establish and oversee a payroll deduction savings programs. The application of both the size restriction and the demonstrated capacity test reduce the possibility that employers would be subject to a multiplicity of overlapping political subdivision programs. The population test directly advances this important policy interest by limiting the universe of political subdivisions potentially eligible for the safe harbor from approximately 40,000 general purpose political subdivisions to a far smaller number. As of 2015, there were approximately 136 general-purpose political subdivisions with populations equal to or greater than the population of Wyoming.
Even though the final regulation excludes smaller political subdivisions from the safe harbor, the Department acknowledges that cities and counties are not
As noted above, the Department did make one technical improvement to the proposed population test. Public comments raised concerns about the possibility that fluctuating populations could cause a qualified political subdivision to fall below the required population threshold—and therefore drop outside the safe harbor—after it had already enacted a payroll deduction savings program. To eliminate this possibility and its attendant uncertainty, the final rule contains new language to clarify that such cities and counties would not lose their qualified status merely because of population fluctuations. In that regard, the final regulation adds to paragraph (h)(4)(ii) the phrase “[a]t the time of the enactment of the political subdivision's payroll deduction savings program.”
Finally, some commenters suggested that, because population size is only a rough indicator of a political subdivision's capacity and ability to safely operate a payroll deduction savings program, the Department should consider pairing the population test with some other more refined test or indicator. As mentioned above, the Department agrees that the population test could be improved by being paired with an additional criterion to gauge whether a sufficiently-large political subdivision should nonetheless fail to qualify under the safe harbor for lack of experience. The section below discusses the changes made to accomplish this result.
The final regulation adopts a “demonstrated capacity” test in addition to the population test. As noted in the preceding sections, the population test removed from the safe harbor a significant number of smaller political subdivisions based solely on their size. The demonstrated capacity test, on the other hand, focuses on a political subdivision's ability to operate a payroll deduction savings program by requiring direct and objectively verifiable evidence of a political subdivision's experience, capacity, and resources to operate or administer such programs. The two tests (population test and demonstrated capacity test) combine to ensure a strong likelihood that political subdivisions that meet the safe harbor have sufficient experience, capacity, and resources to safely establish and oversee payroll deduction savings programs in a manner that sufficiently protects private-sector employees and that would not require employer involvement beyond the limits of the safe harbor regulation.
The Department adopted this new test in response to a significant number of commenters that strongly support this idea. These commenters encouraged the Department to consider two different approaches for developing a demonstrated capacity test. The first suggested approach focuses on whether the political subdivision has implemented and administers a retirement plan for its own employees.
The final regulation adopts the suggested plan sponsorship approach as the sole basis for a demonstrated capacity test. Thus, in order to be qualified for the safe harbor under the final regulation, a political subdivision must implement and administer its own retirement plan. The Department agrees with the commenters that administering a public retirement plan for the political subdivision's own employees is sufficiently similar to establishing and overseeing a payroll deduction savings program for employees of other entities that successfully performing the former is strong evidence of an ability to successfully perform the latter. Both endeavors require, for example, receiving contributions, custodianship, investing assets or selecting investment options, deciding claims, furnishing account statements, meeting reporting requirements, distributing benefit payments, or selecting and overseeing others to perform some or all of these tasks. A political subdivision that does not implement and administer a retirement plan for its own employees, on the other hand, will fail to qualify under the safe harbor even if it passes the population test and all the other safe harbor conditions set forth in the qualified political subdivision definition.
The Department declined to adopt as part of the demonstrated capacity test the second of the commenters' suggested approaches,
Finally, the new test does not prescribe the type or size of plan a political subdivision must implement and administer in order to meet the safe harbor's new “plan administration” criterion. Thus, a political subdivision can satisfy this criterion by administering a defined benefit plan, an individual account plan, or both. Although a number of commenters suggested that the Department consider a plan size requirement, such as a minimum level of assets under management or number of participants covered, the Department declines to adopt these suggestions in the final rule.
The final rule eliminates lingering ambiguity regarding the requirement in proposed paragraph (h)(1)(iii) that the state or political subdivision must assume responsibility for the security of payroll deductions. The Department previously attempted to clarify this requirement in the preamble to the final regulation dealing with state payroll deduction savings programs.
In response to these concerns, the final rule clarifies and strengthens the requirement that states and political subdivisions must assume responsibility for the security of payroll deductions. Specifically, paragraph (h)(1)(iii) contains a new sub-clause clarifying that this requirement—to assume responsibility for the security of payroll deductions—includes two subsidiary requirements. The first subsidiary requirement is that states and political subdivisions must require that employers promptly transmit wage withholdings to the payroll deduction savings program. The second subsidiary requirement is that states and political subdivisions must provide an enforcement mechanism to ensure employer compliance with the first subsidiary requirement. These new requirements protect employees by ensuring that their payroll deductions are transmitted to their IRAs as quickly as possible, where they become subject to applicable Internal Revenue Code provisions, including the protective prohibited transaction provisions found in section 4975 of the Code.
The final regulation does not prescribe what is meant for wage withholdings to be transmitted “promptly.” Instead, each state and qualified political subdivision is best positioned to calibrate the appropriate timeframe for its own program. Nevertheless, in the interest of providing certainty to states and political subdivisions, the final regulation contains a special safe harbor for promptness. Paragraph (h)(5) provides that, for purposes of paragraph (h)(1)(iii), employer wage withholdings are “deemed to be transmitted promptly” if such amounts are
The proposed rule limited the safe harbor to political subdivisions that are not located in a state that establishes a statewide retirement savings program for private-sector employees.
A number of commenters expressed concern that including non-mandatory state programs within this limiting criterion is overly broad.
Commenters also expressed concern that the proposed rule's provision excluding a political subdivision from the safe harbor if the state subsequently enacts its own payroll deduction savings program could, in certain circumstances, result in legitimate political subdivision programs automatically dropping out of the safe harbor.
The Department agrees with the commenters that this criterion was overly broad. Accordingly, the final rule modifies the proposed rule to clarify that in order to be eligible for the safe harbor a political subdivision must not be located in a state that has enacted a
The Department agrees with commenters that an otherwise-qualified political subdivision that has relied on the safe harbor to enact a payroll deduction savings program should not automatically lose its qualified status when its state subsequently enacts its own program. To allow an otherwise-qualified, pre-existing program to precipitously drop outside the safe harbor due to actions outside of its control would impose upon affected employers and participants undesirable uncertainty and complexities.
Some commenters asked the Department to clarify how the safe harbor would apply to political subdivisions that each enact a mandatory payroll deduction savings program for employees within their potentially overlapping jurisdictions. Some of those commenters further suggested that the Department should
As a practical matter, and in view of the fact that only three political subdivisions have expressed a potential interest in establishing payroll deduction savings programs, the Department does not anticipate that there will be overlapping programs among political subdivisions. After careful deliberation, however, the Department decided to address concerns regarding the potential for conflicting requirements by modifying the proposed rule to preclude potentially overlapping political subdivision programs. As explained in the proposed rule's preamble, the Department has taken substantial measures to mitigate the potential that overlapping programs could simultaneously meet the safe harbor,
Some commenters suggested that political subdivisions could petition or apply to the Department for an individual opinion or decision regarding whether or not the political subdivisions qualify for the safe harbor. These commenters propose that such a process could be available for political subdivisions that meet at least some of the four conditions in paragraph (h)(4) of the final regulation, but fail to meet all of the conditions. For example, the process could be available for a city or county that satisfies the demonstrated capacity test but not the population test, or vice-versa. These commenters envision a process in which the petitioner or applicant would present to the Department its best case for safe harbor status using a list of factors or criteria to be developed by the Department. This approach would give “close-call” cities and counties an avenue to obtain qualified status, while reserving to the Department the ability to deny potentially unsafe or improper applicants.
The Department declines to adopt this suggestion. The qualified political subdivision definition in paragraph (h)(4) of the final rule consists of four criteria, each of which is a bright-line measure that is either met or not. These objective criteria enable interested parties to readily determine whether or not they meet the definition. The commenters' suggested petition or application process, by contrast, is inherently subjective, and thus runs entirely counter to the Department's objective approach. Moreover, under the commenters' proposed model, the outcome in any particular case would depend on, among other things, the Department's view of the relevant facts and its weighing and balancing of a given list of factors or criteria. The present public record provides little, if any, direction on the type of criteria or factors the Department could or should adopt under such an approach, or whether each individual criterion or factor should be given equal weight. Apart from these significant shortcomings, the commenters' suggested proposal also raises Departmental budgetary and resource issues that are beyond the scope of this rulemaking.
The proposal required that states and political subdivisions assume and retain full responsibility for the payroll deduction savings programs they implement and administer. More specifically, the proposal provided that states and political subdivisions must assume responsibility (i) for investing employee savings or for selecting investment alternatives; (ii) for the security of payroll deductions and employee savings; and (iii) for operating and administering their programs, even if they delegate those functions to service or investment providers.
At least one commenter requested that the Department clarify what it means for a state or political subdivision to assume and retain full responsibility for program operations, especially where the state or political subdivision chooses to delegate some of its responsibilities to third-party experts.
The final regulation contains no such modification. The essence of the regulation's requirement that states and political subdivisions assume and retain full responsibility for operating and administering their payroll deduction savings programs is simply that states and political subdivisions must retain ultimate authority over those programs. Such authority includes, for example, determining whether or not to hire and fire qualified third-party service providers, and determining the scope of those service providers' duties. In drafting this rule, the Department fully anticipated that states and political subdivisions might choose to delegate program administration to qualified service providers that the states or political subdivisions oversee.
A few commenters asked the Department to delay extending the safe harbor to qualified political subdivisions until after the Department has had a chance to accumulate and fully analyze experience data on state-sponsored payroll deduction savings programs.
Although the Department declines the commenters' requests to delay implementing this final rule, the final rule reflects that the Department did take the commenters' concerns into account. As noted above in this preamble, the final rule addresses the commenters' concerns about potentially overlapping programs by adopting a new condition that further reduces the number of political subdivisions that can meet the safe harbor. That condition requires that in order to be eligible for the safe harbor a political subdivision must already administer a public-employee retirement program. The Department believes that this condition—which a number of commenters supported—measures, in objective terms, a political subdivision's ability to operate and administer a payroll deduction savings program for private-sector employees. The final rule also clarifies that an otherwise-qualified political subdivision will not automatically drop outside the safe harbor due to a drop in population, and it adds important consumer protections by requiring that employers remit employee wage withholdings to state and political subdivision programs in a timely manner. Moreover, the final rule does not preclude a state from moving forward with establishing its own payroll deduction savings program simply because a political subdivision within its borders has already done so.
The Department also notes that one very large political subdivision has already taken steps to establish a payroll deduction savings program for its private-sector employee residents, and, based on the comments the Department has received, it seems two others have expressed a potential interest in doing so.
Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, distributive impacts, and equity). Executive Order 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, of reducing costs, of harmonizing and streamlining rules, and of promoting flexibility. It also requires federal agencies to develop a plan under which the agencies will periodically review their existing significant regulations to make the agencies' regulatory programs more effective or less burdensome in achieving their regulatory objectives.
Under Executive Order 12866, the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) must determine whether a regulatory action is “significant” and therefore subject to the requirements of the Executive Order and review by the OMB. Section 3(f) of the Executive Order defines a “significant regulatory action” as an action that is likely to result in a rule (1) having an annual effect on the economy of $100 million or more, or adversely and materially affecting a sector of the economy, productivity, competition, jobs, the environment, public health or safety, or state, local or tribal governments or communities (also referred to as an “economically significant” action); (2) creating serious inconsistency or otherwise interfering with an action taken or planned by another agency; (3) materially altering the budgetary impacts of entitlement grants, user fees, or loan programs or the rights and obligations of recipients thereof; or (4) raising novel legal or policy issues arising out of legal requirements, the President's priorities, or the principles set forth in the Executive Order.
OMB has determined that this regulatory action is not economically significant within the meaning of section 3(f)(1) of the Executive Order. However, it has determined that the action is significant within the meaning of section 3(f)(4) of the Executive Order. Accordingly, OMB has reviewed the final rule and the Department provides the following assessment of its benefits and costs.
As discussed in detail above in Section I of this preamble, several
In response, on August 30, 2016, the Department published a proposed rule
In analyzing benefits and costs associated with this final rule, the Department focuses on the direct effects, which include both benefits and costs directly attributable to the rule. These benefits and costs are limited, because as stated above, the final rule would merely establish a safe harbor describing the circumstances under which qualified political subdivisions with authority under state law could establish payroll deduction savings programs that would not give rise to ERISA-covered employee pension benefit plans. It does not require qualified political subdivisions to take any actions nor employers to provide a retirement savings programs to their employees.
The Department also addresses indirect effects associated with the final rule, which include (1) potential benefits and costs directly associated with the requirements of qualified political subdivision payroll deduction savings programs, and (2) the potential increase in retirement savings and potential cost burden imposed on covered employers to comply with the requirements of such programs. Indirect effects vary by qualified political subdivisions depending on their program requirements and the degree to which the final rule might influence how political subdivisions design their payroll deduction savings programs.
Although the Department estimates that approximately 51 political subdivisions are potentially eligible to use this final rule,
The Department believes that political subdivisions and other stakeholders would directly benefit from expanding the scope of the Department's final safe harbor regulation to include payroll deduction savings programs established by qualified political subdivisions. As with the states, this action will provide political subdivisions with clear guidelines to determine the circumstances under which programs they create for private-sector workers would not give rise to the establishment of ERISA-covered plans. The Department expects that the final rule will reduce legal costs, including litigation costs political subdivisions might otherwise incur, by (1) removing uncertainty about whether such political subdivision payroll deduction savings programs give rise to the establishment of plans that are covered by Title I of ERISA, and (2) creating efficiencies by eliminating the need for multiple political subdivisions to incur the same costs to determine that their programs would not give rise to the establishment of ERISA-covered plans. However, these benefits will be limited to qualified political subdivisions meeting all criteria set forth in this final rule. Those governmental units of a state, including any city, county, or similar governmental body that are not eligible to use the safe harbor may incur legal costs if they elect to establish their own payroll deduction savings programs.
In order to constitute a “qualified political subdivision,” the proposed rule required the political subdivision to have a population equal to or greater than the population of the least populous state. Several commenters asserted that based on this provision, it is possible that fluctuating populations could cause a previously qualified political subdivision to fall below the required population threshold and fall outside the safe harbor after it has established its program. To eliminate this possibility and reduce uncertainty, the Department clarified in the final rule that political subdivisions satisfying the population threshold when they enact a payroll deduction savings program would not lose their qualified status solely due to subsequent population fluctuations. This change will especially benefit political subdivisions close to the population threshold and encourage them to establish payroll deduction savings programs, because they will not have to continuously monitor their population if their population is equal to or greater than the population of the least populous state when their program is enacted.
In response to comments, the final rule clarifies that a qualified political subdivision would not automatically lose its qualified political subdivision status if the state establishes a payroll deduction savings program after the political subdivision has done so. Political subdivisions will benefit from this provision, because they will not have to be concerned that their programs will fall outside the safe harbor if the state subsequently establishes a program. The Department notes that in such situations, it expects that the state and qualified political subdivision will coordinate potentially overlapping programs to ensure a smooth transition. Although they may incur some costs associated with communication and coordination, these costs would be smaller compared to the costs that employers and participants may face if the qualified political subdivision's program experiences any disruptions or unexpected changes due to the lack of communication and coordination between the state and qualified political subdivision.
The Department estimates that there are approximately eight combinations where political subdivisions could potentially establish conflicting payroll deduction savings programs due to overlapping boundaries. In the final rule, the Department mitigated the possibility that political subdivisions with overlapping geographic boundaries could each become qualified political subdivisions by providing that a
The final rule also clarifies the requirement that states and political subdivisions assume responsibility for the security of payroll deduction contributions in paragraph (h)(1)(iii). A number of commenters specifically focused on the need to clarify and strengthen this provision and some specifically stressed the importance of clear and strong standards protecting payroll deductions. The Department received similar comments on the 2015 proposed rule for state payroll deduction savings programs. In response to these comments, the Department buttressed paragraph (h)(1)(iii) in the final rule by including a new sub-clause clarifying that states and political subdivisions must (1) require that employers promptly transmit wage withholdings to the payroll deduction savings program, and (2) provide an enforcement mechanism to ensure that withheld wages are promptly transmitted.
These new requirements will benefit employees by ensuring that their payroll deductions are transmitted as quickly as possible to their IRAs, where they become subject to applicable Internal Revenue Code provisions, including the protective prohibited transaction provisions found in section 4975 of the Code. States and political subdivisions may adopt the new required protections in a variety of ways, including, for example, through legislation, ordinance, or administrative rulemaking. The provision also benefits states and political subdivisions that create payroll deduction savings programs and employers by providing clarity regarding the specific actions that are necessary to comply with the requirement for states and political subdivisions to assume responsibility for the security of payroll deductions.
The Department notes that the final rule would not prevent political subdivisions from identifying and pursuing alternative policies, outside of the safe harbor, that also would not require employers to establish or maintain ERISA-covered plans. Thus, while the final rule would reduce uncertainty about political subdivision activity within the safe harbor, it would not impair political subdivision activity outside of it. This final regulation is a safe harbor and as such, it does not require employers to participate in qualified political subdivision payroll deduction savings programs; nor does it purport to define every possible program that does not give rise to the establishment of ERISA-covered plans.
The final rule does not require any new action by employers or the political subdivisions. It merely establishes a safe harbor describing certain circumstances under which qualified political subdivision-required payroll deduction savings programs would not give rise to an ERISA-covered employee pension benefit plan and, therefore, would reduce the risks of being preempted by ERISA. Political subdivisions may incur legal costs to analyze the rule and determine whether their programs fall within the safe harbor. However, the Department expects that these costs will be less than the costs that would be incurred in the absence of the final rule. If a qualified political subdivision interested in developing its own payroll deduction savings program overlaps with another qualified political subdivision, it would also need to monitor the activities by the qualified political subdivision with an overlapping boundary and communicate with it to avoid any potential complications in relying on this safe harbor rule as the final rule precludes overlapping payroll deduction savings programs. Only one qualified political subdivision, out of approximately eight possible combinations, with a potentially overlapping boundary expressed interest in establishing its own payroll deduction savings program to the Department. Thus, the Department expects the monitoring and communication costs to be relatively small.
Qualified political subdivisions may incur administrative and operating costs including mailing and form production costs. These potential costs, however, are not directly attributable to the final rule; they are attributable to the political subdivision's creation of the payroll deduction savings program pursuant to its authority under state law.
Some commenters expressed the concern that smaller political subdivisions without the experience or capabilities to administer a payroll deduction savings program may contemplate creating and operating their own programs if the safe harbor rule is extended to all political subdivisions without any restrictions. This final rule addresses this concern by requiring political subdivisions to have a population equal to or greater than the least populous state and have a demonstrated capacity to operate a payroll deduction savings program in order to be qualified. The premise underlying these requirements is that political subdivisions that meet them are likely to have sufficient existing resources, experience, and infrastructure to create and implement payroll deduction savings programs.
The Department is confident that the final rule will benefit political subdivisions and many other stakeholders otherwise beset by uncertainty by clarifying the circumstances under which qualified political subdivisions can create payroll deduction savings programs, including programs with automatic enrollment, without causing the political subdivision or employer to create an ERISA-covered employee benefit pension plan. However, the Department is unsure of the magnitude of the benefits, costs and transfer impacts of these programs, because they will depend on the qualified political subdivisions' independent decisions on whether and how best to take advantage of the safe harbor and on the cost that otherwise would have been attached to uncertainty about the legal status of the qualified political subdivisions' actions. The Department is also unsure of (1) the final rule's effects on political subdivisions that do not meet the safe harbor criteria, (2) whether any of these ineligible political subdivisions are currently developing their own payroll deduction savings programs, and (3) the extent to which ineligible political subdivisions would be discouraged from designing and implementing payroll deduction savings programs. The Department cannot predict what actions political subdivisions will take,
As discussed above, the impact of qualified political subdivision payroll deduction savings programs is directly attributable to the qualified political subdivision legislation that creates such programs. As discussed below, however, under certain circumstances, these effects could be indirectly attributable to the final rule. For example, it is conceivable that more qualified political subdivisions could create payroll deduction savings programs due to the clear guidelines provided in the final rule and the reduced risk of an ERISA preemption challenge, and therefore, the increased prevalence of such programs would be indirectly attributable to the final rule. However, such an increase would be bounded by the eligibility restrictions for political subdivisions. With the authority, population and demonstrated capacity tests, and the preclusion of overlapping programs, the number of political subdivisions that are potentially eligible to use the safe harbor is very small (51). Moreover, as stated above, the Department is aware of only three political subdivisions that have expressed an interest in creating such programs. An additional possibility is that the rule would not change the prevalence of political subdivision payroll deduction savings programs, but would accelerate the implementation of programs that would exist anyway. With any of these possibilities, there would be benefits, costs and transfer impacts that are indirectly attributable to this rule, via the increased or accelerated creation of political subdivision-level payroll deduction savings programs.
The possibility exists that the final rule could result in an acceleration or deceleration of payroll deduction savings programs at the state level depending on the circumstances. For example, if multiple cities in a state set up robust, successful payroll deduction savings programs, a state that might otherwise create its own program could conclude that a statewide program no longer is necessary. On the other hand, states could feel pressure to create a statewide program if a city in the state does so in order to provide retirement income security for all of its citizens. However, problems could arise if the state and city programs overlap. Therefore, the Department solicited comments regarding whether the final regulation should clarify the status of a payroll deduction savings program of a qualified political subdivision when the state in which the subdivision is located establishes a statewide retirement savings program after the qualified political subdivision establishes and operates its program. Many commenters suggested that the Department should leave to the state to determine the appropriate relationship between the political subdivision's and the state's programs. Although this may appear to add another layer of complexity, the appropriate resolution would depend on the circumstances of each state and political subdivision. In some circumstances, it might be most cost effective to scale a political subdivision's payroll deduction program up to the entire state, whereas it might economically make more sense to maintain a political subdivision's program independent of the state's under different circumstances. As a commenter pointed out, it would be generally more cost effective if payroll deduction savings programs are able to take advantage of economies of scale.
Qualified political subdivisions that elect to establish payroll deduction savings programs pursuant to the safe harbor would incur administrative and operating costs, which can be substantial especially in the beginning years until the payroll deduction savings programs become self-sustaining.
Employers may incur costs to update their payroll systems to transmit payroll deductions to the political subdivision or its agent, develop recordkeeping systems to document their collection and remittance of payments under the payroll deduction savings program, and provide information to employees regarding the political subdivision programs. As with political subdivisions' operational and administrative costs, some portion of these employer costs would be indirectly attributable to the rule if more political subdivision payroll deduction savings programs are implemented in the rule's presence than would be in its absence. Because the final rule narrows the number of political subdivisions that are eligible for the safe harbor by the population and demonstrated capacity tests, the aggregate costs imposed on employers would be limited. Moreover, in order to satisfy the safe harbor, most associated costs for employers would be nominal because the roles of employers are limited to ministerial functions, such as withholding the required contribution from employees' wages, remitting contributions to the political subdivision program and providing information about the program to employees. These costs would be incurred disproportionately by small employers and start-up companies, which tend to be least likely to offer pensions. These small employers may incur additional costs to acquire payroll software, use on-line payroll programs, or use external payroll companies to comply with their political subdivisions' programs.
Employers, particularly those operating in multiple political subdivisions, may face potentially increased costs to comply with several political subdivision payroll deduction
The Department believes that well-designed political subdivision-level payroll deduction savings programs have the potential to effectively reduce gaps in retirement security. The political subdivisions that expressed interest in establishing their own payroll deduction savings programs for private-sector workers in the political subdivision seem to be motivated by those workers' significantly lower access rates to employment-based retirement plans compared to the rates for workers nationwide.
The Department believes that well-designed political subdivision payroll deduction savings programs can achieve their intended, positive effects of fostering retirement security. However, the potential benefits—primarily increases in retirement savings—might be somewhat limited, because the final safe harbor does not allow employer contributions to political subdivisions' payroll deduction savings programs. Additionally, the initiatives potentially might have some unintended consequences. Those workers least equipped to make good retirement savings decisions arguably stand to benefit most from these programs, but also arguably could be at greater risk of suffering adverse unintended effects. Workers who would not benefit from increased retirement savings could opt out, but some might fail to do so. Such workers might increase their savings too much, unduly sacrificing current economic needs. Consequently, they might be more likely to cash out early and suffer tax losses (unless they receive a non-taxable Roth IRA distribution), and/or to take on more expensive debt to pay necessary bills. Similarly, political subdivisions' payroll deduction savings programs directed at workers who do not currently participate in workplace savings arrangements may be imperfectly targeted to address gaps in retirement security. For example, some college students might be better advised to take less in student loans rather than open an IRA and some young families might do well to save more first for their children's education and later for their own retirement. In general, workers without retirement plan coverage tend to be younger, lower-income or less attached to the workforce, thus these workers may be financially stressed or have other savings goals. Because only large political subdivisions can create and implement programs under the final rule, these demographic characteristics can be more pronounced, assuming large political subdivisions tend to have more diverse workforces. If so, then the benefits of political subdivisions' payroll deduction savings programs could be further limited and in some cases potentially harmful for certain workers. Although these might be valid concerns, political subdivisions are responsible for designing effective programs that minimize these types of harm and maximize benefits to participants.
Commenters have stated another concern—that political subdivision initiatives may “crowd-out” ERISA-covered plans. The final rule may inadvertently encourage employers operating in multiple political subdivisions to switch from ERISA-covered plans to political subdivision payroll deduction savings programs in order to reduce costs, especially if they are required to cover employees currently ineligible to participate in ERISA-covered plans under political subdivision programs. This final rule makes clear that political subdivision programs directed toward employers that do not offer other retirement plans fall within this final safe harbor rule.
There is also the possibility that some workers who would otherwise have saved more might reduce their savings to the low, default levels associated with some political subdivision programs. Political subdivisions can address this concern by incorporating into their programs participant education or “auto-escalation” features that increase default contribution rates over time and/or as pay increases.
As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, the Department of Labor conducts a preclearance consultation program to provide the general public and Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on final and continuing collections of information in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)). This helps to ensure that the public understands the Department's collection instructions, respondents can provide the requested data in the desired format, reporting burden (time and financial resources) is minimized, collection instruments are clearly understood, and the Department can properly assess the impact of collection requirements on respondents.
In accordance with the requirements of the PRA, the Department solicited comments regarding its determination that the proposed rule is not subject to the requirements of the PRA, because it does not contain a “collection of information” as defined in 44 U.S.C. 3502(3). The Department's conclusion was based on the premise that the proposed rule does not require any action by or impose any requirements on employers or the political subdivisions. It merely clarifies that certain political subdivision payroll deduction savings programs that encourage retirement savings would not result in the creation of employee benefit plans covered by Title I of ERISA.
The Department did not receive any comments regarding this assessment. Therefore, the Department has determined that the final rule is not subject to the PRA, because it does not contain a collection of information. The PRA definition of “burden” excludes time, effort, and financial resources necessary to comply with a collection of information that would be incurred by respondents in the normal course of their activities.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
Although several commenters maintained that the proposed rule would impose significant costs on small employers, similar to the proposal, the final rule merely establishes a new safe harbor describing circumstances in which payroll deduction savings programs established and maintained by political subdivisions would not give rise to ERISA-covered employee pension benefit plans. Therefore, the final rule imposes no requirements or costs on small employers, and the Department believes that it will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small employers. Similarly, because the final rule does not impose any requirements or costs on small governments, the Department believes that it will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small government entities, either. Accordingly, pursuant to section 605(b) of the RFA, the Assistant Secretary of the Employee Benefits Security Administration hereby certifies that the final rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
For purposes of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1501
The final rule is subject to the Congressional Review Act provisions of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (5 U.S.C. 801
Executive Order 13132 outlines fundamental principles of federalism. It
In the Department's view, the final rule, by clarifying that payroll deduction savings programs by certain political subdivisions will not result in creation of employee benefit plans under ERISA, would provide more latitude and certainty to political subdivisions and employers regarding the treatment of such arrangements under ERISA. Therefore, the final rule does not contain policies with federalism implications within the meaning of the Order.
Nonetheless, in respect for the fundamental federalism principles set forth in the Order, the Department affirmatively engaged in outreach, including meetings, conference calls, and outreach events, with officials of political subdivisions and other stakeholders regarding the final rule and sought their input on the safe harbor. The Department also received comment letters from local governments and their representatives. Many of the changes in the final rule stem from suggestions contained in the comment letters.
Accounting, Employee benefit plans, Employee Retirement Income Security Act, Coverage, Pensions, Reporting.
For the reasons stated in the preamble, the Department of Labor amends 29 CFR part 2510 as set forth below:
29 U.S.C. 1002(2), 1002(21), 1002(37), 1002(38), 1002(40), 1031, and 1135; Secretary of Labor's Order No. 1-2011, 77 FR 1088 (Jan. 9, 2012); Sec. 2510.3-101 also issued under sec. 102 of Reorganization Plan No. 4 of 1978, 5 U.S.C. App. at 727 (2012), E.O. 12108, 44 FR 1065 (Jan. 3, 1979) and 29 U.S.C. 1135 note. Sec. 2510.3-38 is also issued under sec. 1, Pub. L. 105-72, 111 Stat. 1457 (1997).
(h)
(i) The program is specifically established pursuant to State or qualified political subdivision law;
(ii) The program is implemented and administered by the State or qualified political subdivision establishing the program (or by a governmental agency or instrumentality of either), which is responsible for investing the employee savings or for selecting investment alternatives for employees to choose;
(iii) The State or qualified political subdivision (or governmental agency or instrumentality of either) assumes responsibility for the security of payroll deductions and employee savings, including by requiring that amounts withheld from wages by the employer be transmitted to the program promptly and by providing an enforcement mechanism to assure compliance with this requirement;
(iv) The State or qualified political subdivision (or governmental agency or instrumentality of either) adopts measures to ensure that employees are notified of their rights under the program, and creates a mechanism for enforcement of those rights;
(v) Participation in the program is voluntary for employees;
(vi) All rights of the employee, former employee, or beneficiary under the program are enforceable only by the employee, former employee, or beneficiary, an authorized representative of such a person, or by the State or qualified political subdivision (or governmental agency or instrumentality of either);
(vii) The involvement of the employer is limited to the following:
(A) Collecting employee contributions through payroll deductions and remitting them to the program;
(B) Providing notice to the employees and maintaining records regarding the employer's collection and remittance of payments under the program;
(C) Providing information to the State or qualified political subdivision (or governmental agency or instrumentality of either) necessary to facilitate the operation of the program; and
(D) Distributing program information to employees from the State or qualified political subdivision (or governmental agency or instrumentality of either) and permitting the State or qualified political subdivision (or governmental agency or instrumentality of either) to publicize the program to employees;
(viii) The employer contributes no funds to the program and provides no bonus or other monetary incentive to employees to participate in the program;
(ix) The employer's participation in the program is required by State or qualified political subdivision law;
(x) The employer has no discretionary authority, control, or responsibility under the program; and
(xi) The employer receives no direct or indirect consideration in the form of cash or otherwise, other than consideration (including tax incentives and credits) received directly from the State or qualified political subdivision (or governmental agency or instrumentality of either) that does not exceed an amount that reasonably approximates the employer's (or a typical employer's) costs under the program.
(2) A payroll deduction savings program will not fail to satisfy the provisions of paragraph (h)(1) of this section merely because the program—
(i) Is directed toward those employers that do not offer some other workplace savings arrangement;
(ii) Utilizes one or more service or investment providers to operate and administer the program, provided that the State or qualified political subdivision (or the governmental agency or instrumentality of either) retains full responsibility for the operation and administration of the program; or
(iii) Treats employees as having automatically elected payroll deductions in an amount or percentage of compensation, including any automatic increases in such amount or percentage, unless the employee specifically elects not to have such deductions made (or specifically elects to have the deductions made in a different amount or percentage of compensation allowed by the program), provided that the employee is given adequate advance notice of the right to make such elections, and provided, further, that a program may also satisfy this paragraph (h) without requiring or otherwise providing for automatic elections such as those described in this paragraph (h)(2)(iii).
(3) For purposes of this paragraph (h), the term “State” shall have the same
(4) For purposes of this paragraph (h), the term “qualified political subdivision” means any governmental unit of a State, including a city, county, or similar governmental body, that—
(i) Has the authority, implicit or explicit, under State law to require employers' participation in the program as described in paragraph (h)(1)(ix) of this section; and
(ii) At the time of the enactment of the political subdivision's payroll deduction savings program:
(A) Has a population equal to or greater than the population of the least populated State (excluding the District of Columbia and territories listed in section 3(10) of the Act);
(B) Has no geographic overlap with any other political subdivision that has enacted a mandatory payroll deduction savings program for private-sector employees and is not located in a State that has enacted such a program statewide; and
(C) Has implemented and administers a plan, fund, or program that provides retirement income to its employees, or results in a deferral of income by its employees for periods extending to the termination of covered employment or beyond.
(5) For purposes of paragraph (h)(1)(iii) of this section, amounts withheld from an employee's wages by the employer are deemed to be transmitted promptly if such amounts are transmitted to the program as of the earliest date on which such contributions can reasonably be segregated from the employer's general assets, but in no event later than the last day of the month following the month in which such amounts would otherwise have been payable to the employee in cash.
Under Secretary of Defense for Personnel and Readiness, DoD.
Final rule.
DoD is establishing policies to implement the Interstate Compact on Educational Opportunity for Military Children (referred to as the “Compact”) within the DoD, informed by the sense of Congress, and in furtherance of the operation of DoD schools. The final rule provides components with policies to support the intent of the Compact, which is to aid the transition of school-age children in military families between school districts (to include between Department of Defense Educational Activity (DoDEA) schools and state school districts). Each state joining the Compact agrees to address specific school transition issues in a consistent way and minimize school disruptions for military children transferring from one state school system to another. The Compact consists of general policies in four key areas: Eligibility, enrollment, placement, and graduation. Children of active duty members of the uniformed services, National Guard and Reserve on active duty orders, and members or veterans who are medically discharged or retired for one year are eligible for assistance under the Compact.
This rule is effective on January 19, 2017.
Marcus Beauregard, 571-372-5357.
On March 7, 2016 (81 FR 11698-11706), the Department of Defense published a proposed rule titled Interstate Compact on Educational Opportunity for Military Children for a 60-day public comment period. The public comment period closed on May 6, 2016. Ten public comments were received. The preamble to this final rule addresses the comments. Due to one of the public comments received, the Department has revised the final rule to reflect that the Military Departments will nominate military representatives by position to act as liaisons to State Councils and the Deputy Assistant Secretary of Defense for Military Community and Family Policy (DASD(MC&FP)) will designate them in this manner.
Edits were made to adjust the process established to designate DoD liaisons to State Councils, so that liaisons are designated by position rather than by individual.
As the result of further internal coordination, administrative edits were made to the regulatory text.
This final rule provides components of the DoD with policies to support the intent of the Compact, which is to aid the transition of school-age children in military families between school districts. The intent of the program is to ensure children are enrolled immediately in their new school, placed in the appropriate academic program, and are able to graduate on time.
Each state joining the Compact agrees to address specific school transition issues in a consistent way and minimize
As of August 2014, 50 states and DC have passed legislation to become members of the Compact, including most of those with large numbers of military residents. DoDEA cannot be a member of the Compact, but is complying with its provisions as a matter of policy in both overseas and domestic schools. In return, the Compact member states have agreed to treat students coming from a DoDEA school as though they were transferring from a member state.
The Compact has provisions for member states to facilitate school transition in the following areas:
The Compact asks school districts in member states to assist military families with the transfer of education records, additional time for immunization and continuity of enrollment in kindergarten and first grade:
• Education records. When a family leaves a school district in a member state, the parents may receive a set of unofficial records to carry to the new school in another member state. It will include all the information the new school needs to enroll and place the child until it receives the official records. In addition, the Compact requires all sending school districts within member states to send official transcripts within 10 days of a request from the receiving state school district.
• Immunizations. If a child transferring to a member state needs additional immunizations, he or she may enroll and begin school. Parents then have 30 days to see that the child gets the required immunizations. If further immunizations are required, they must be started within 30 calendar days of enrollment. Tuberculosis testing is not covered under the Compact since the TB test is not an immunization but rather a health screening.
• Kindergarten and first grade entrance age. If the entrance age requirement in the new school system is different, transitioning children may continue in the same grade if they have already started kindergarten or first grade where the family was previously stationed. This provision also allows children to move up to first or second grade, regardless of age requirements, if they have completed kindergarten or first grade in another state.
Students from military families often miss appropriate placement in required classes, advanced placement and special-needs programs while awaiting evaluation at the new school. The Compact requires cooperation in the following areas:
• Course and education program placement. A receiving school district in a member state must initially honor placement of a student based on his or her enrollment in the sending state, provided the new school has a similar or equivalent program. The receiving school may evaluate the student after placement to ensure it is appropriate, but the school may not put children into “holding classes” while they await assessment. The receiving school may allow the student to attend similar education courses in other schools within the district if the receiving school does not offer such courses.
• Special education services. Students covered by the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act receive the same services (although not necessarily identical programs) identified in the individual education plan from the sending state. This is a parallel requirement under federal law.
• Placement flexibility. School districts are encouraged to determine if course or program prerequisites can be waived for students who have completed similar coursework in the sending school district. This process allows students to take advanced courses rather than repeat similar basic courses.
• Absence related to deployment activities. Students in member states may request additional, excused absences to visit with their parent or legal guardian immediately before, during, and after deployment. Schools have flexibility in approving absences if there are competing circumstances such as state testing or if the student already has excessive absences.
The Compact asks school districts in member states to examine their rules for eligibility to allow children of military parents to have the continuity they need. The Compact requires cooperation in the following areas:
•
•
School transitions can be especially challenging for high school students. The Compact requires school districts to make the following accommodations to facilitate on-time graduation:
• Course waivers. School districts in member states may waive courses required for graduation if similar coursework has been completed in another school. Such waivers are not mandatory under the Compact, but a school district must show reasonable justification to deny a waiver.
•
•
The Compact does not address the quality of education or require a state to change any of its standards or education criteria. MIC3 has created a variety of downloadable brochures, webinars, and other resources to help parents and educators learn more about the Compact—See more at:
If a family has a concern about a provision of the Compact as it relates to a child, it's best to contact the school first. Each installation has a school liaison to help work with schools to get questions answered or to provide information on next steps to take if concerns cannot be successfully resolved.
The legal authorities for this rule clarify the definition of children in military families covered by this rule, cover the protections afforded these children, and provide the authority for establishing the policies included in this rule that describe the implementation of the principles of the Compact within DoD, including DoDEA:
(1) 10 U.S.C. 2164—Department of Defense Domestic Dependent Elementary and Secondary Schools (DDESS). This law authorizes DoD to operate a school system within the United States for DoD dependents when it is determined that appropriate educational programs are not available through a local educational agency.
(2) 20 U.S.C.—Education, Chapter 25A—Overseas Defense Dependents' Education. This law authorizes DoD to operate a program to provide a free public education through secondary school for dependents in overseas areas. It is the statutory basis for the DoD Dependent Schools.
The major provisions of this regulatory action include designating military representatives as liaisons to State Councils of member states of the Compact, designating the DoD ex-officio member as a liaison to the Compact Commission (
(1) As required by the Compact, states establish Councils to oversee the implementation of the Compact within the state. The Compact prescribes membership of the State Council, which may include a representative from the military community within the state. Since this individual represents the interests of the military community to the State Council, the military representative can only fulfill a liaison role on the Council and must be designated by DoD. This rule defines the role for the military representative (§ 89.7(a)), along with the process (§ 89.7(b)) for coordinating the requests from State Commissioners and designating these military representatives.
(2) The Compact describes how DoD may send an ex-officio liaison to the Commission meetings, and also describes how the DoD ex-officio member will participate as a liaison on the Executive Committee of the Commission. This rule provides guidelines for the DoD ex-officio member (§ 89.7(d)).
(3) This rule establishes policies for DoDEA governing the transition of school age children in military families (§ 89.8 of this rule), which are equivalent to the following policies included in the Compact: Article IV—records and enrollment, Article V—placement and attendance, Article VI—eligibility for enrollment, and Article VII—graduation.
(4) This rule establishes a committee to advise DoDEA on compliance with provisions in § 89.8. The DoDEA Committee also provides input to the ex-officio member of the Commission on issues arising from DoDEA school interactions with member States of the Compact, and acts as a counterpart to State Councils of member States. Policies for assigning a representative from the Military Departments to this committee are included in § 89.7(c).
There are no provisions in this final rule that are expected to increase costs for members of the public. Requirements included in this rule may require action to be taken by state education departments and local education agencies as a result of requirements of the state laws.
The costs to the Department are summarized below:
• Military representative attending State Council meetings as a liaison. State Council meetings are generally held at a central location for the state, and are expected to be held at least once per year. The military representative would be required, while on duty and at government expense, to travel to and attend the meeting. A meeting would be expected to demand an average of 1.5 days (travel and meeting time), which would cost an approximate average of $569
•
•
Additionally, this final rule will direct DoDEA to transition children under specific policies. These are the same policies that are included in the Compact, Articles IV-VII, which have been shown to be cost-neutral (and perhaps a cost-benefit) when implemented by local education agencies within the states that are
The benefits derived from DoD's participation in the Compact accrue to Service members and their families, particularly the 676,000 school-age children educated by local education agencies and DoDEA.
The Compact Articles IV-VII were developed as a result of input from 17 representative national and state stakeholders who were asked to participate in a working group sponsored by the Council of State Governments, National Center for Interstate Compacts.
Executive Orders 13563 and 12866 direct agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, distributive impacts, and equity). Executive Order 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, reducing costs, harmonizing rules, and promoting flexibility. It has been determined that this rule is not a significant regulatory action. The rule does not: (1) Have an annual effect on the economy of $100 million or more or adversely affect in a material way the economy; a section of the economy; productivity; competition; jobs; the environment; public health or safety; or State, local, or tribal governments or communities; (2) Create a serious inconsistency or otherwise interfere with an action taken or planned by another Agency; (3) Materially alter the budgetary impact of entitlements, grants, user fees, or loan programs, or the rights and obligations of recipients thereof; or (4) Raise novel legal or policy issues arising out of legal mandates, the President's priorities, or the principles set forth in these Executive Orders.
Section 202 of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1532) requires agencies assess anticipated costs and benefits before issuing any rule whose mandates require spending in any 1 year of $100 million in 1995 dollars. This rule will not mandate any requirements for State, local, or tribal governments, nor will it affect private sector costs.
DoD certifies that this rule is not subject to the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601) because it would not, if promulgated, have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. Therefore, the Regulatory Flexibility Act, as amended, does not require us to prepare a regulatory flexibility analysis.
This rule does not impose reporting and record keeping requirements under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
This rule was analyzed in accordance with the principles and criteria contained in Executive Order 13132 (“Federalism”). It has been determined that it does not have sufficient Federalism implications to warrant the preparation of a Federalism summary impact statement. This rule has no
Children, Education, Interstate Compact.
10 U.S.C. 2164, 20 U.S.C. 921-932.
In accordance with the sense of Congress as set forth in section 539 of Public Law 111-84, this part establishes policy, assigns responsibilities, and provides procedures to implement the Interstate Compact on Educational Opportunity for Military Children (referred to in this part as the “Compact”) within the DoD.
This part applies to the Office of the Secretary of Defense, the Military Departments, the Office of the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and the Joint Staff, the Combatant Commands, the Office of the Inspector General of the DoD, the Defense Agencies, the DoD Field Activities, and all other organizational entities within the DoD.
These terms and their definitions are for the purposes of this part.
(1) Are on active duty, including members of the National Guard and Reserve on active duty orders pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 1211;
(2) Are active duty or veterans who are severely wounded, ill, or injured; or
(3) Die on active duty or as a result of injuries sustained on active duty;
Children of military members who are severely wounded, ill, or injured retain this designation for 1 year after discharge or retirement. Children of military members who die on active duty or as a result of injuries sustained on active duty, retain this designation for 1 year after death.
In accordance with the sense of Congress as set forth in section 539 of Public Law 111-84, “National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2010” and DoD 5500.07-R, “Joint Ethics Regulations (JER)” (available at
(a) Designating military liaisons, by position, to State Councils of member States, the DoDEA Committee, and the MIC3.
(b) Implementing the intent of the Compact in the DoDEA to ensure:
(1) Timely enrollment of children in school so they are not penalized due to:
(i) Late or delayed transfers of education records from the previous school district(s); or
(ii) Differences in entrance or age requirements.
(2) Placement of children in educational courses and programs, including special educational services, so they are not penalized due to differences in attendance requirements, scheduling, sequencing, grading, or course content.
(3) Flexible qualification and eligibility of children so they can have an equitable chance at participation in extracurricular, academic, athletic, and social activities.
(4) Graduation within the same timeframe as the children's peers.
(c) Promoting through DoDEA and the Military Departments:
(1) Flexibility and cooperation among SEAs or LEAs, DoDEA, Military Departments, parents, and children to achieve educational success.
(2) Coordination among the various State agencies, LEAs, and military installations regarding the State's participation in the Compact.
(a) Under the authority, direction, and control of the Under Secretary of Defense for Personnel and Readiness, the Assistant Secretary of Defense for Manpower and Reserve Affairs (ASD(M&RA)) oversees the implementation of this part.
(b) Under the authority, direction, and control of the ASD(M&RA), the DASD(MC&FP):
(1) Designates military representatives by position as liaisons to State councils, nominated by the Secretaries of the Military Departments by the procedures outlined in § 89.7 of this part.
(2) Designates the DoD ex-officio member serving as a liaison to MIC3, insofar as DoD is invited to do so by MIC3.
(3) Maintains a roster of designated liaisons to State councils in accordance with 32 CFR part 310.
(4) Monitors issues arising under the Compact:
(i) Affecting children of military families attending and transferring between member State schools; and
(ii) The implementation of § 89.8 of this part, affecting children of military families transferring between member state schools and DoDEA's schools (consisting of the Department of Defense Schools (DoDDS)—Europe, DoDDS—Pacific, and DDESS.
(c) Under the authority, direction, and control of ASD(M&RA), the Director, DoDEA:
(1) To the extent allowable by 10 U.S.C. 2164 and 20 U.S.C. 921-932, adjusts operating policies and procedures issued pursuant to DoD Directive 1342.20, “Department of Defense Education Activity (DoDEA)” (available at
(2) Informs boards and councils, described in DoD Instruction 1342.15, “Educational Advisory Committees and Councils” (available at
(3) Addresses disputes over provisions in § 89.8 of this part between member States and DoDEA. When differences cannot be resolved with a member State, works with MIC3 to resolve these disputes.
(4) Establishes the DoDEA Committee to review compliance with the provisions in § 89.8 of this part and to address issues raised by the Secretaries of the Military Departments concerning the implementation of these provisions.
(5) Ensures all personally identifiable information is collected, maintained, disseminated, and used in accordance with 32 CFR part 310.
(6) Ensures that DoDEA schools comply with § 89.8 and that DoDEA school-level officials inform DoDEA students transferring to schools in member States of the benefits extended by receiving States under the Compact.
(d) The Secretaries of the Military Departments:
(1) Nominate military representatives by position, in accordance with the procedures outlined in § 89.7 of this part, for designation as liaisons to State Councils by the DASD(MC&FP) when such DoD liaison is requested.
(2) Establish departmental policies and procedures to inform military communities of:
(i) The provisions of this part as it affects children of military families attending and transferring between member State schools; and
(ii) The provisions in § 89.8 of this part concerning students transferring between DoDEA and member State schools.
(3) Procedures to resolve issues or challenges raised by parents concerning the provisions of § 89.8 of this part.
DoD implements policy in this part by:
(a) Establishing a committee within DoDEA (referred to in this part as the “DoDEA Committee”).
(b) Designating military representatives by position to serve as liaisons to the State Councils of the member States and the DoDEA Committee in accordance with procedures in § 89.7.
(c) Designating the ex-officio member to serve as a liaison to MIC3 in accordance with § 89.5 and § 89.7.
(d) Ensuring DoDEA compliance with the selected provisions of the Compact described in § 89.8.
(a)
(1) Be a military member or a civilian employee of DoD who has a direct interface with the State education system as part of official duties or has supervisory responsibility for those who do.
(2) Only represent DoD interests (not the interests of the State Council), and consequently may not:
(i) Engage in management or control of the State Council (therefore, may not vote or make decisions on daily administration of council);
(ii) Endorse or allow the appearance of DoD endorsement of the State Council or its events, products, services, or enterprises;
(iii) Represent the State Council to third parties; or
(iv) Represent the State Council to the U.S. Government, as prohibited by federal criminal statues.
(3) Make clear to the State Council that:
(i) The opinions expressed by the representative do not bind DoD or any DoD Component to any action.
(ii) If included on State Council Web sites, all references to the representative by name or title must indicate that they are the “Military Representative” as opposed to a council member.
(4) Notify the chain of command of issues requiring policy decisions or actions requested of the military community within the State.
(5) When called upon to act as the spokesperson for one or more than one installation:
(i) Get feedback from the designated points of contact at each military installation within his or her responsibility.
(ii) Coordinate proposed input to the State Council with the appropriate points of contact for each military installation within his or her responsibility.
(iii) Act as a conduit for information between the State Council and each military installation within his or her responsibility.
(iv) Provide feedback through the chain of command to the points of contact for each military installation within his or her responsibility and, as appropriate, to the OASA(M&RA), the OASN(M&RA), or the OASAF(M&RA).
(b)
(2) When there is more than one military representative to a State Council (
(3) In circumstances where the State requests an individual by name, the
(4) In accordance with the Compact, State officials appoint or designate the Military Family Education Liaison for the State. Service members and DoD civilians cannot be appointed or designated to fill this position for the State.
(c)
(d)
(1) Be a military member or a civilian employee of DoD who can remain in the position for at least 2 years and who has a direct interface with DoDEA and the U.S. public education system as part of official duties or has supervisory responsibility for those who do.
(2) Attend as a liaison meetings of MIC3, its Executive Committee, and other standing committees where requested by the Commission.
(3) Only represent DoD interests (not the interests of MIC3), and consequently may not:
(i) Engage in management or control of MIC3 (therefore, may not vote or make decisions on daily administration of MIC3);
(ii) Endorse or allow the appearance of DoD endorsement of MIC3, or its events, products, services, or enterprises;
(iii) Represent the Commission to third parties; or
(iv) Represent MIC3 to the U.S. Government, as prohibited by criminal statutes.
(4) Make clear to MIC3 that:
(i) The opinions expressed by the incumbent do not bind DoD or any DoD Component to any action.
(ii) If included on MIC3 Web sites, all references to the incumbent by name or title must indicate that they are the “DoD Ex-Officio Member” as opposed to a MIC3 member.
(5) Notify the chain of command of issues requiring policy decisions or actions requested of DoD.
(a)
(1) For the purposes of DoD's implementation of the Compact in the schools it operates, DoDEA's area offices (DoDDS—Europe, DoDDS—Pacific, and DDESS) and their schools are considered as the equivalent of LEAs and SEAs, respectively.
(2) Each DoDEA area acts as the “receiving LEA” and “sending LEA” in working with LEAs or SEAs in member States.
(b)
(1)
(B) Upon receipt of the unofficial education records, the DoDEA school, as the school in the receiving LEA shall enroll and appropriately place the child as quickly as possible based on the information in the unofficial records, pending validation by the official records.
(ii)
(B) Upon receipt of the request for a child's records, the school in DoDEA, acting as the sending LEA will provide the child's official education records to the school in the receiving State, within 10 work days. If there is a designated school staff break, records will be provided as soon as possible; however, the time will not exceed 10 work days after the return of staff. DoDEA will initiate actions to meet these deadlines without violating the disclosure rules of the Privacy Act, 5 U.S.C. 552a.
(iii)
(B) For a series of immunizations, parents must begin initial vaccinations of their child(ren) within 30 days.
(iv)
(B) A child who has satisfactorily completed the prerequisite grade level in the sending state's LEA will be eligible for enrollment in the next higher grade level in DoDEA school, acting as the receiving LEA, regardless of the child's age.
(C) To be admitted to a school in the receiving State, the parent or guardian of a child transferring from a DoDEA (sending) LEA must provide:
(
(
(
(
(2)
(B) Course placement includes, but is not limited to, Honors, International Baccalaureate, Advanced Placement, vocational, technical, and career pathways courses.
(C) Continuing the child's academic program from the previous school and promoting placement in academically and career challenging courses shall be a primary consideration when DoDEA considers the placement of a transferring child.
(D) DoDEA, acting as the receiving LEA, may perform subsequent evaluations to ensure the child's appropriate course placement.
(ii)
(B) The receiving State school may perform subsequent evaluations to ensure the child's appropriate educational program placement.
(iii)
(B) DoDEA, acting as the receiving LEA, will make reasonable accommodations and modifications to address the needs of incoming children with disabilities, in compliance with the requirements of 29 U.S.C. 794 and Executive Order 13160, and subject to an existing 504 plan to provide the child with equal access to education.
(iv)
(v)
(3)
(ii)
(4)
(i)
(B) If DoDEA, as a receiving LEA, does not grant a waiver to a child who would qualify to graduate from the sending school, DoDEA will provide an alternative means of acquiring required coursework so that graduation may occur on time.
(C) If DoDEA, as the receiving LEA, requires a graduation project, volunteer community service hours, or other DoDEA specific requirement, DoDEA may waive those requirements.
(ii)
(
(
(
(B) If the alternatives in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section cannot be accommodated by DoDEA as the receiving LEA for a child transferring in his or her senior year, then the provisions of paragraph (b)(1)(iv)(C) of this section will apply.
(iii)
(B) If one of the States in question is not a member of this Compact, DoDEA, as a receiving state, will use best efforts to facilitate a transferring child's on-time graduation in accordance with paragraphs (b)(1)(iv)(A) and (b)(1)(iv)(B) of this section.
Coast Guard, DHS.
Notice of deviation from drawbridge regulations.
The Coast Guard has issued a temporary deviation from the operating schedule that governs the operation of the US 90 highway bridge (East Pearl
This deviation is effective from 6 a.m. on Thursday January 19, 2017, through 5 p.m. on Tuesday, March 21, 2017.
The docket for this deviation, [USCG-2016-1049] is available at
If you have questions on this temporary deviation, call or email Donna Gagliano, Bridge Administration Branch, Coast Guard, telephone (504) 671-2128, email
Boh Bros. Construction Company, on behalf of the Louisiana Department of Transportation and Development, requested a temporary deviation from the operating schedule for the swing span bridge across the Pearl River, mile 8.8, between Slidell, St. Tammany Parish, Louisiana and Pearlington, Hancock County, Mississippi. The deviation was requested to accommodate necessary repairs to the swing span operation due to the complexity of the work requiring rewiring. The draw currently operates under 33 CFR 117.486(b).
For purposes of this deviation, the bridge over the Pearl River will be closed to marine traffic for three extended periods of time from Thursday, January 19, 2017, through Tuesday, March 21, 2017. This deviation allows the bridge to remain closed-to-navigation for the duration of these Phases.
Phase I: A 12-day closure from 6 a.m. on January 19, 2017 through 5 p.m. on January 30, 2017. Phase II: A 10-day closure from 6 a.m. on February 9, 2017 through 5 p.m. on February 18, 2017. Phase III: A 10-day closure from 6 a.m. on March 12, 2017 through 5 p.m. on March 21, 2017. During all Three Phases, the work requires the removal of gear motors #1, #2, and #3, delivery to machine shop to replace bearings and seals, sandblasting and painting, removal of motor armature from input shaft, cutting and broaching of the shafts, and repairing damaged conduit and wiring from the control house to span junction box. Due to the complexity of the work, it will require rewiring of electrical components and conducting testing and troubleshooting of the bridge to safely continue operation of the bridge.
Any vessel with a vertical clearance requirement of less than 10 feet above mean high water in the closed-to-navigation position may pass beneath the bridge at any time. Navigation on the waterway consists of small tugs with and without tows, commercial vessels, and recreational craft, including sailboats.
The bridge will not be able to open for emergencies, and there is no alternate route. LDOTD has coordinated these closing with the Stennis Space Center and other waterway users. The Coast Guard will also inform the users of the waterways through our Local and Broadcast Notices to Mariners of the change in operating schedule for the bridge to minimize any impact caused by the temporary deviation.
In accordance with 33 CFR 117.35(e), the drawbridge must return to its regular operating schedule immediately at the end of the effective period of this temporary deviation. This deviation from the operating regulations is authorized under 33 CFR 117.35.
Coast Guard, DHS.
Notice of deviation from drawbridge regulations.
The Coast Guard has issued a temporary deviation from the operating schedule that governs the Westlake Bridge across the Calcasieu River, mile 36.4, at Westlake, Calcasieu Parish, Louisiana. The deviation is necessary to repair and replace the existing lift rails and actuators on the east end of the bridge. These repairs are essential for the continued safe operation of the bridge. This deviation allows the bridge to remain closed-to-navigation for a total of 36 hours on four different dates in December 2016 and January 2017.
This temporary deviation is effective from 6 a.m. on Sunday, December 25, 2016 through noon on Monday, January 2, 2017, as discussed in greater detail below.
The docket for this deviation, [USCG-2016-1056] is available at
If you have questions on this temporary deviation, call or email Giselle MacDonald, Bridge Administration Branch, Coast Guard, telephone (504) 671-2128, email
The Union Pacific Railroad requested a temporary deviation from the operating schedule of the Westlake Swing-Span Bridge across the Calcasieu River, mile 36.4, at Westlake, Calcasieu Parish, Louisiana.
The vertical clearance of the bridge is 1.07 feet above Mean High Water, elevation 3.56 feet Mean Gulf Level in the closed-to-navigation position and unlimited in the open-to-navigation position. The bridge will not be able to open for emergencies and there are no alternate routes available. Navigation on the waterway consists of tugs with tows, fishing vessels and recreational craft. These closures will not have a significant effect on vessels that use the waterway in the determination and coordination with waterway users.
In accordance with 33 CFR 117.5, the draw shall open on signal for the passage of vessels. This deviation allows the drawbridge to remain in the closed-to-navigation position for 36 hours, from 6 a.m. through 6 p.m. on Sunday, December 25, 2016; from 6 a.m. through noon on Monday, December 26, 2016; from 6 a.m. through 6 p.m. on Sunday, January 1, 2017; and from 6 a.m. through noon on Monday, January 2, 2017.
In accordance with 33 CFR 117.35(e), the drawbridge must return to its regular operating schedule immediately at the end of the effective period of this temporary deviation. This deviation from the operating regulations is authorized under 33 CFR 117.35.
Environmental Protection Agency.
Final rule, correcting amendment.
On October 6, 2016, the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) published a final rule in the
This action is effective on December 20, 2016.
Laura Yannayon, EPA Region IX, (415) 972-3534,
This action corrects inadvertent errors in a rulemaking related to NSCAPCD's rules governing the issuance of permits for stationary sources. On October 6, 2015 (81 FR 69390), the EPA published a rulemaking action finalizing approval of three rules, and a limited approval and limited disapproval of two rules as revisions to the California SIP. This action contained regulatory text amendments to 40 CFR part 52, subpart F. The amendments incorporated material by reference into section 52.220, Identification of plan, paragraphs (c)(461) and (c)(480), and eleven other amendments which indicated the deletion, with or without replacement, of obsolete regulatory language. Those amendments deleting obsolete language with replacement in paragraph (c)(480) erroneously state that they are being replaced by various regulations in paragraph (c)(481). Specifically, the amendments at paragraphs (c)(124)(ix)(D), (c)(156)(vi)(B), (c)(162)(i)(B), (c)(164)(i)(B)(
The EPA has determined that this action falls under the “good cause” exemption in section 553(b)(3)(B) of the Administrative Procedures Act (APA) which, upon finding “good cause,” authorizes agencies to dispense with public participation where public notice and comment procedures are impracticable, unnecessary, or contrary to the public interest. Public notice and comment for this action is unnecessary because this action correcting inadvertent regulatory text errors included in the EPA's October 6, 2016 final rule is consistent with the substantive revision to the California SIP as described in the preamble of said action concerning regulations governing the issuance of permits in NSCAPCD. In addition, the EPA can identify no particular reason why the public would be interested in having the opportunity to comment on the correction prior to this action being finalized, since this correction action does not change the EPA's analysis or overall action related to the approval of NSCAPCD's revisions to their rules in the California SIP.
The EPA also finds that there is good cause under APA section 553(d)(3) for this correction to become effective on the date of publication of this action. Section 553(d)(3) of the APA allows an effective date of less than 30 days after publication “as otherwise provided by the agency for good cause find and published with the rule.” 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3). The purpose of the 30-day waiting period prescribed in APA section 553(d)(3) is to give affected parties a reasonable time to adjust their behavior and prepare before the final rule takes effect. This rule does not create any new regulatory requirements such that affected parties would need time to prepare before the rule takes effect. This action merely corrects inadvertent errors for the regulatory text of the EPA's prior rulemaking for the California SIP. For these reasons, the EPA finds good cause under APA section 553(d)(3) for this correction to become effective on the date of publication of this action.
As published, the final regulations incorrectly referenced 40 CFR 52.220(c)(481) in 5 instances, when they should have referenced 40 CFR 52.220(c)(480).
Under Executive Order 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993), this action is not a “significant regulatory action” and is therefore not subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget. In addition, this action does not impose any enforceable duty or contain any unfunded mandate as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4), or require prior consultation with state officials as specified by Executive Order 12875 (58 FR 58093, October 28, 1993), or involve special consideration of environmental justice related issues as required by Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
Because this action is not subject to notice-and-comment requirements under the APA or any other statute, it is not subject to the provisions of the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
Under 5 U.S.C. 801(a)(1)(A) as added by the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996, the EPA will submit a report containing this rule and other required information to the U.S. Senate, the U.S. House of Representatives and the Comptroller General of the General Accounting Office prior to publication of this rule in the
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Carbon monoxide, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Particulate matter, Sulfur oxides, Volatile organic compounds, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Accordingly, 40 CFR part 52 is corrected by making the following correcting amendments:
42 U.S.C. 7401
(c) * * *
(124) * * *
(ix) * * *
(D) Previously approved on July 31, 1985 in paragraph (c)(124)(ix)(B) of this section and now deleted without replacement, Rule 130 (introductory text, b.1, n1, p5, and s2), and now deleted with replacement in paragraphs (c)(480)(i)(A)(
(156) * * *
(vi) * * *
(B) Previously approved on July 31, 1985 in paragraph (c)(156)(vi)(A) of this section and now deleted without replacement, Rule 130 (b2, m1, p3, p3a, and s7), and now deleted with replacement in Paragraph (c)(480)(i)(A)(
(162) * * *
(i) * * *
(B) Previously approved on July 31, 1985 in paragraph (c)(162)(i)(A) of this section and now deleted with replacement in Paragraph (c)(480)(i)(A)(
(164) * * *
(i) * * *
(B) * * *
(
(385) * * *
(i) * * *
(B) * * *
(
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule; notice of public meeting.
The U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is finalizing a Safe Drinking Water Act (SDWA) rule that requires public water systems to collect occurrence data for contaminants that may be present in drinking water but are not yet subject to EPA's drinking water standards set under the SDWA. This rule identifies eleven analytical methods to support water system monitoring for a total of 30 chemical contaminants, consisting of nine cyanotoxins and one cyanotoxin group; two metals; eight pesticides plus one pesticide manufacturing byproduct (hereinafter collectively referred to as “pesticides”); three brominated haloacetic acid disinfection byproduct groups; three alcohols; and three semivolatile organic chemicals. EPA is also announcing a public meeting and webinar to discuss the implementation of the fourth Unregulated Contaminant Monitoring Rule.
This final rule is effective on January 19, 2017, 30 days after publication in the
The EPA has established a docket for this action under Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OW-2015-0218. All documents in the docket are listed on the
Brenda D. Parris, Standards and Risk Management Division (SRMD), Office of Ground Water and Drinking Water (OGWDW) (MS 140), Environmental Protection Agency, 26 West Martin Luther King Drive, Cincinnati, OH 45268; telephone number: (513) 569-7961; or email address:
The fourth Unregulated Contaminant Monitoring Rule (UCMR 4) applies to public water systems (PWSs). PWSs are systems that provide water for human consumption through pipes, or other constructed conveyances, to at least 15 service connections or that regularly serve an average of at least 25 individuals daily at least 60 days out of the year. This rule applies to all large community and non-transient non-community water systems (NTNCWSs) serving more than 10,000 people. A community water system (CWS) is a PWS that has at least 15 service connections used by year-round residents or regularly serves at least 25 year-round residents. A NTNCWS is a PWS that is not a CWS and that regularly serves at least 25 of the same people over six months per year. Some examples of NTNCWS are schools, factories, office buildings and hospitals, which have their own water systems. EPA selects the nationally representative sample of small CWSs and NTNCWSs serving 10,000 or fewer people that are required to monitor (see
States, territories and tribes with primary enforcement responsibility (primacy) to administer the regulatory program for PWSs under the SDWA can participate in the implementation of UCMR 4 through Partnership Agreements (PAs). Primacy agencies with PAs can choose to be involved in various aspects of the UCMR 4 monitoring for the PWSs they oversee; however, the PWS remains responsible for compliance with the rule requirements. Examples of potentially regulated categories and entities are identified in the following table.
This table is not intended to be exhaustive, but rather provides a guide for readers regarding entities likely to be regulated by this action. This table summarizes the types of entities that EPA is aware could potentially be regulated by this action. If you are uncertain whether your entity is regulated by this action, carefully examine the definition of a PWS found in §§ 141.2 and 141.3, and the applicability criteria found in § 141.40(a)(1) and (2) of Title 40 in the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR). If you have questions, please consult the contacts listed in the preceding
This final rule requires PWSs to analyze drinking water samples for 29 unregulated contaminants that do not have health based standards set under the SDWA, as well as one group of regulated contaminants (described in section I.C), and to report their results to EPA. This is the fourth national monitoring effort under the UCMR program, and builds upon the framework established under the prior three UCMR actions (see section II.A). The monitoring provides data to inform future regulatory actions to protect public health.
The public benefits from the information about whether or not unregulated contaminants are present in their drinking water. If contaminants are not found, consumer confidence in their drinking water will improve. If contaminants are found, illnesses may be avoided when subsequent actions, such as regulations, reduce or eliminate those contaminants.
As part of its responsibilities under the SDWA, EPA implements section 1445(a)(2), “Monitoring Program for Unregulated Contaminants.” This section, as amended in 1996, requires that once every five years, beginning in August 1999, EPA issue a list of no more than 30 unregulated contaminants to be monitored by PWSs. The list can include contaminants included in previous UCMR cycles but will generally focus on contaminants not yet monitored under UCMR. SDWA section 1445(g)(7) requires that EPA enter the monitoring data into the Agency's publicly-available National Contaminant Occurrence Database (NCOD). The SDWA also requires that EPA ensures that systems serving a population larger than 10,000 people, as well as a nationally representative sample of PWSs serving 10,000 or fewer people, monitor for the unregulated contaminants. EPA must vary the frequency and schedule for monitoring based on the number of persons served, the source of supply, and the contaminants likely to be found. EPA is using this authority as the basis for monitoring 29 of the 30 contaminants.
Section 1445(a)(1)(A) of the SDWA, as amended in 1996, requires that every person who is subject to any SDWA requirement establish and maintain such records, make such reports, conduct such monitoring and provide such information as the Administrator may reasonably require by regulation to assist the Administrator in establishing SDWA regulations. Pursuant to this provision, EPA can also require the monitoring of contaminants already subject to EPA's drinking water standards. EPA is using this authority as the basis for monitoring one of the chemical groups (Haloacetic Acids 5 (HAA5)) under this rule. Sample collection and analysis for HAA5 can be done concurrently with the unregulated HAA monitoring (for HAA6Br and HAA9) described in section III.B.3 (resulting in no significant additional burden since all three HAA groups can be measured by a single method) and will allow EPA to better understand co-occurrence between regulated and unregulated disinfection byproducts.
Hereinafter, all 30 chemicals/groups are collectively referred to as “contaminants.”
EPA estimates the total average national cost of this action will be $24.3 million per year from 2017-2021. EPA has documented the assumptions and data sources used in the preparation of this estimate in the Information Collection Request (ICR) (USEPA, 2016a). EPA identified eleven analytical methods (nine EPA-developed analytical methods and two alternate, equivalent, consensus organization-developed methods) to analyze samples for 30 UCMR 4 contaminants. EPA's estimate of the analytical cost for the UCMR 4 contaminants and related indicators is $2,500 per sample set. EPA calculated these costs by summing the laboratory unit cost of each method.
Small PWSs selected for UCMR 4 monitoring sample an average of 6.7 times per PWS (
Exhibit 1 presents a breakdown of estimated annual average national costs. Estimated PWS (
EPA expects that states will incur labor costs associated with voluntary assistance with UCMR 4 implementation. EPA estimated state costs using the relevant assumptions from the State Resource Model, which was developed by the Association of State Drinking Water Administrators (ASDWA) (ASDWA, 2013) to help states forecast resource needs. Model estimates were adjusted to account for actual levels of state participation under UCMR 3. State participation is voluntary; thus, the level of effort is expected to vary among states and will depend on their individual agreements with EPA.
Additional details regarding EPA's cost assumptions and estimates can be found in the “Information Collection Request for the Unregulated Contaminant Monitoring Rule (UCMR 4)” (USEPA, 2016a) EPA ICR Number 2192.08, which presents estimated cost and burden for the 2017-2019 period, consistent with the 3-year timeframe for ICRs. Estimates of costs over the entire 5-year UCMR 4 period of 2017-2021 are attached as an appendix to the ICR. Specifically, most of the burden is incurred in the second, third and fourth year (
Copies of the ICR and its appendix are available in the EPA public docket for this final rule, under Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OW-2015-0218. The total estimated annual costs (labor and non-labor) are as follows:
The determination of whether a PWS is required to monitor under UCMR 4 is based on the type of system (
EPA published the list of contaminants for the first UCMR (UCMR 1) in the
EPA designed the Assessment Monitoring sampling approach (USEPA, 2001a) to ensure that sample results would yield a high level of confidence and a low margin of error. The design for a nationally representative sample of small systems called for the sample set to be stratified by water source type (ground water (GW) or surface water (SW)), service size category and state (where each state is allocated a
This final action identifies 30 List 1 contaminants to be measured during Assessment Monitoring from 2018-2020, with pre-monitoring activity in 2017 and post-monitoring activity in 2021. EPA developed this rule after considering input from public comments. For more information on EPA's response to public comments, please see section III.
Under the 1996 amendments to the SDWA, Congress established a stepwise, risk-based approach for determining which contaminants would become subject to drinking water standards. Under the first step, EPA is required to publish, every five years, a list of contaminants that are not yet regulated but which are known or anticipated to occur in PWSs; this is known as the Contaminant Candidate List (CCL). Under the second step, EPA must require, every five years, monitoring of up to 30 unregulated contaminants (many of which have been selected from the CCL for the UCMR monitoring to-date) to determine their occurrence in drinking water systems; this is known as the UCMR program. Under the third step, EPA is required to determine, every five years, whether or not to begin the process of developing a national primary drinking water regulation for at least five CCL contaminants; this is known as a Regulatory Determination and involves evaluating the following questions:
(1) May the contaminant have an adverse effect on human health?
(2) Is the contaminant known to occur or substantially likely to occur in PWSs with a frequency and at levels of public health concern?
(3) In the sole judgement of the Administrator, does regulation of such contaminants present a meaningful opportunity for risk reduction for people served by PWSs?
Finally, the SDWA requires EPA to issue national primary drinking water regulations (NPDWRs) for contaminants the Agency determines should be regulated.
The CCL process identifies contaminants that may require regulation, while the UCMR program helps provide the data necessary for the Regulatory Determination process previously outlined. The data collected through the UCMR program are stored in the drinking water NCOD to facilitate analysis and review of contaminant occurrence, and support the Administrator's determination on whether regulation of a contaminant is in the public health interest, as required under SDWA section 1412(b)(1). UCMR results can be viewed by the public at:
EPA published “Revisions to the Unregulated Contaminant Monitoring Rule (UCMR 4) for Public Water Systems and Announcement of a Public Meeting;” Proposed Rule, on December 11, 2015 (80 FR 76897, (USEPA, 2015a)). The UCMR 4 proposal identified eleven new analytical methods to support water system monitoring for a total of 30 new contaminants, and detailed other potential changes relative to UCMR 3. Among the other changes reflected in the UCMR 4 proposal were identification of water systems subject to UCMR 4 and provisions for sampling locations, timeframe and frequency, as well as updated data elements.
EPA received input on the UCMR 4 proposal from 34 public commenters, including state and local government, utilities and utility stakeholder organizations, laboratories, academia, non-governmental organizations and other interested stakeholders . After considering the comments, EPA made the changes described in Exhibit 2 to develop the final UCMR 4 action. Sections III A-C summarize key aspects of this final rule and the associated notable and recurring comments received in response to the proposed rule. EPA has compiled all public comments and EPA's responses in the “Response to Comments Document for the Unregulated Contaminant Monitoring Rule (UCMR 4),” (USEPA, 2016b), which can be found in the electronic docket listed in the
EPA is maintaining the proposed list of unregulated contaminants and the methods associated with analyzing those contaminants, with the exception of updating the ELISA method for “total microcystins” (see Exhibit 3). Further information on the prioritization process, as well as contaminant-specific information (source, use, production, release, persistence, mobility, health effects and occurrence) that EPA used to select the contaminants is contained in “UCMR 4 Contaminants—Information Compendium for Final Rule” (USEPA, 2016c). This Information Compendium can be found in the electronic docket listed in the
Commenters who expressed an opinion about the proposed UCMR 4 analytes were generally supportive. Some commenters suggested alternative ways to collect the HAA information. Suggestions included collecting results for all nine HAAs individually; only collecting results for HAA9; or doing targeted research studies of HAAs independent of UCMR. EPA has concluded that monitoring for the three HAA groups (HAA5, HAA6Br and HAA9) will provide the information of interest on the relative occurrence between regulated and unregulated HAAs as well as brominated versus chlorinated HAAs. Though the targeted research proposed by some commenters is beyond the scope of today's action, EPA will take the recommendation under advisement and consider how such research may complement the UCMR data.
Some commenters supported EPA's proposal to not include
Multiple commenters expressed concerns with the ELISA methodology and some of the specific elements of the ELISA Standard Operating Procedure (SOP) (Ohio EPA, 2015) identified in the proposal for cyanotoxins. In 2016, EPA finalized EPA Method 546: “Determination of Total Microcystins and Nodularins in Drinking Water and Ambient Water by Adda Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay” as the prescribed method for total microcystins (USEPA, 2016e). The fundamentals of Method 546 are quite similar to those of the Ohio EPA methodology, and Method 546 addresses concerns expressed about minimum reporting levels (MRLs), holding times and quality control.
EPA is maintaining the 2018 to 2020 monitoring timeframe identified in the proposal. Preparations prior to 2018 will include coordinating laboratory approval, selecting representative small systems (USEPA, 2001a), developing SMPs and establishing monitoring schedules. Exhibit 4 illustrates the major activities that will take place in preparation for and during the implementation of UCMR 4.
To minimize the impact of the rule on small systems (those serving 10,000 or fewer people), EPA pays for the sample kit preparation, sample shipping fees and analysis costs for these systems. In addition, no small system will be required to monitor for both cyanotoxins and the 20 additional UCMR contaminants. Consistent with prior UCMRs, large systems (those serving more than 10,000 people) pay for all costs associated with their monitoring. A summary of the estimated number of systems subject to monitoring is shown in Exhibit 5.
Today's rule maintains the proposed increased sampling frequency and narrower monitoring timeframe for total microcystins and the nine cyanotoxins. Sampling will take place twice a month for four consecutive months (total of eight sampling events) for SW and GWUDI systems. These water systems will collect samples during the monitoring timeframe of March through November (excluding December, January and February). GW systems are excluded from cyanotoxin monitoring.
Monitoring for the 20 additional UCMR 4 contaminants will be based on the traditional UCMR sampling frequency and timeframe. For SW and GWUDI systems, sampling will take place for four consecutive quarters over the course of 12 months (total of four sampling events). Sampling events will occur three months apart. For example, if the first sample is taken in January, the second will then occur anytime in April, the third will occur anytime in July and the fourth will occur anytime in October. For GW systems, sampling will take place twice over the course of 12 months (total of two sampling events). Sampling events will occur five to seven months apart. For example, if the first sample is taken in April, the second sample will then occur anytime in September, October or November.
EPA, in conjunction with the states, will initially determine schedules (year and months of monitoring) for large water systems. These PWSs will then have an opportunity to modify their schedule for planning purposes or other reasons (
Commenters generally supported the narrower timeframe for cyanotoxin sampling but disfavored the narrower March through November timeframe for the 20 additional contaminants. For the latter group of contaminants, EPA received multiple comments that recommended using the traditional sampling frequency and timing of previous UCMR cycles. Commenters cited the potential for cost savings by allowing the UCMR 4 HAAs to be sampled on the same schedule as compliance monitoring, and they also suggested that traditional 12-month monitoring would be appropriate for assessing lifetime exposure. EPA agrees with these points and today's rule includes the traditional monitoring schedule for the 20 additional contaminants. EPA's response is detailed more fully in the “Response to Comments Document for the Unregulated Contaminant Monitoring Rule (UCMR 4),” (USEPA, 2016b), which can be found in the electronic docket listed in the
Several commenters recommended that the Agency reduce the number of sample events for GW systems to one instead of the traditional two. Commenters provided an assessment of data on UCMR 3 contaminants in GW systems, and suggested that there is no significant statistical difference between the results for the two sample events for many of the contaminants. EPA acknowledges that based on the UCMR 3 data, the correlation between sample event 1 and sample event 2 for GW systems can be high, and the distributions of measured values can be very similar. However, when making regulatory determinations, EPA evaluates the number of systems (and populations) with means or single measured values above health levels of concern, as both values provide important information on the occurrence of UCMR contaminants in PWSs. The approach suggested by commenters would yield less accurate data for several reasons. First, the analysis provided by the commenters shows that the counts or percentage of systems above a concentration of interest can vary between sample events, and that there are individual cases where the contaminant is not detected in one sample event but occurs at significant levels in the second event. In addition, the analysis by commenters did not find a strong correlation between the two GW sampling events for chlorate, a disinfectant byproduct, likely due to the temporal variability in disinfection practices. This strongly suggests that having a single sample
Finally, it is worth noting that the Agency does allow systems the opportunity to reduce monitoring by using approved GW representative entry points and, in the case of water systems that purchase water from the same source, by using representative connections.
Today's rule utilizes a phased sample analysis approach for the microcystins to reduce analytical costs (
In lieu of the proposed source-water ELISA monitoring, this final rule requires PWSs to answer four simple “metadata” questions (identifying the appropriate responses from the options provided) to help EPA understand the source water quality at the time their EPTDS samples are collected. These questions are identified in the Data Elements section III.C.1.
EPA received multiple comments on the proposed phased approach to microcystins and the utility of measuring pH and temperature in the source water. Some commenters recommended omitting source water sampling for microcystins, suggesting that a correlation cannot be drawn between source water and finished water using the proposed approach. Commenters also suggested the following: Targeted studies should collect treatment plant metadata to support future analyses; the phased approach could potentially miss an increase in cyanotoxins released as a result of treatment (
EPA also received comments reflecting confusion about the interpretation of results from the Adda ELISA microcystin method and Method 544 (microcystins by LC-MS/MS). EPA notes that the two methods provide different measures of microcystin occurrence and risk, and one result cannot practically be used to confirm the other. The Adda ELISA allows for an aggregate quantification of a wide spectrum of microcystin congeners based on the ability of the antibodies used in the assay to recognize microcystins, while Method 544 focuses on quantifying six specific microcystin congeners. The microcystins addressed in Method 544 may or may not be the dominant congeners in particular source waters.
If a water system is not subject to HAA5 monitoring under the D/DBPRs (see § 141.622 for D/DBPR monitoring requirements), the water systems is not required to collect and analyze UCMR 4 HAA samples.
One commenter suggested that EPA remove the UCMR 4 requirement for water systems to monitor for HAAs if the system is not subject to HAA5 monitoring under the D/DBPRs. The logic is that non-disinfecting GW systems would not be expected to have measureable HAAs as DBPs. EPA agrees with the comment and has removed the requirement. This change reduces the UCMR 4 cost by $826,000 from the proposed rule's cost over the 5-year UCMR 4 period.
Consistent with previous UCMRs and as described in § 141.35(c)(3), UCMR 4 maintains the option for large GW systems that have multiple EPTDSs to sample, with prior approval, at representative sampling locations rather than at each EPTDS. Representative sampling plans approved under prior UCMRs will be recognized as valid for UCMR 4. Systems must submit a copy of documentation from their state or EPA representing the prior approval of their alternative sampling plan. Any
Consistent with previous UCMRs and as described in § 141.40, Table 1, systems that purchase water with multiple connections from the same wholesaler may select one representative connection from that wholesaler. This EPTDS sampling location must be representative of the highest annual volume connections. If the connection selected as the representative EPTDS is not available for sampling, an alternate highest volume representative connection must be sampled. Water provided by multiple wholesalers will be considered different sources and will each need a representative connection.
EPA received multiple comments about representative wholesale connections from consecutive systems. Commenters were concerned that this approach to reduce monitoring would be eliminated in UCMR 4. The proposed rule preamble explicitly highlighted the flexibility for
Sample collection for the UCMR 4 contaminants will take place at the EPTDS for all contaminant groups except for the HAAs, which will take place in the distribution system. Sampling for the HAA indicators, TOC and bromide, will take place at a single source water influent for each treatment plant.
If the system's treatment plant/water source is subject to the D/DBPR's HAA5 monitoring requirements under § 141.622, the water system will collect samples for the UCMR 4 HAAs at the D/DBPR sampling location(s). UCMR 4 HAA samples and D/DBPR HAA5 compliance monitoring samples may be collected by the PWS at the same time. However, EPA notes that PWSs are required to arrange for UCMR 4 HAA samples to be analyzed by a UCMR 4 approved laboratory using EPA Method 552.3 or 557 (both of which are compliance methods also approved for analysis of D/DBPR samples).
For those systems subject to UCMR 4 HAA monitoring, sampling for the HAA indicators (TOC and bromide) will take place at the source water influent for each treatment plant (concurrent with UCMR 4 HAA sampling in the distribution system). This indicator-monitoring requirement does not pertain to consecutive systems (
SW and GWUDI systems subject to TOC monitoring under the D/DBPRs will use their TOC source water sampling site(s) defined at § 141.132 for UCMR 4 TOC and bromide samples. If a SW or GWUDI system is not subject to the D/DBPR TOC monitoring, it will use its Long Term 2 Enhance Surface Water Treatment Rule (LT2) source water sampling site(s) (§ 141.703) to collect UCMR 4 samples for TOC and bromide. GW systems that are subject to the D/DBPRs will take TOC and bromide samples at their influents entering their treatment train.
With the exception of microcystin monitoring, commenters generally agreed with the sampling location approach described in the proposal. Changes made to address the microcystin comments are addressed in section III.B.2.
Today's final rule maintains the 26 data elements described in the proposed rule and updates some of the definitions for clarity and consistency in the reporting requirements. Additionally, EPA has included four data elements to address collection of the source water metadata discussed in section III.B.2.
The four new metadata elements are all yes or no questions, with a corresponding drop down menu of options if yes is selected:
(1) Bloom Occurrence—preceding the finished water sample collection, did you observe an algal bloom in your source waters near the intake?
(2) Cyanotoxin Occurrence—preceding the finished water sample collection, were cyanotoxins ever detected in your source waters, near the intake and prior to any treatment (based on sampling by you or another party)?
(3) Indicator of Possible Bloom—Treatment—preceding the finished water sample collection, did you notice any changes in your treatment system operation and/or treated water quality that may indicate a bloom in the source water?
(4) Indicator of Possible Bloom—Source Water Quality Parameters—preceding the finished water sample collection, did you observe any notable changes in source water quality parameters (if measured)?
Please see Table 1 of § 141.35(e) for the complete list of data elements, definitions and drop down options that will be provided in the data reporting system.
EPA received many comments on the proposed data elements, particularly regarding the complexity and utility of collecting the new quality control (QC) parameters; concerns with how the data will be gathered and processed; and questions about how the database will function.
EPA will collect all 30 data elements in SDWARS 4, an updated version of the data reporting system used in previous UCMR actions. More than half of these data elements (
SDWARS 4 will include improvements in the user interface and new QC checks will be built into the system to review the data in real-time. Consistent with prior UCMR cycles, states and EPA will have access to data once posted by the laboratory and reviewed by the PWS (or 60 days after the laboratory posting, whichever comes first). EPA will offer two database training sessions in 2017 to help users become familiar with the new system. One training session will be for the water systems and the other training session will be for the laboratories. A future
Other comments regarding the data elements included the following specific points: a request for a simpler
The final rule simplifies and clarifies the treatment options available for the PWS to select as metadata; includes the collection of all disinfectant practices and information describing the treatment in place; simplifies the data elements and data definitions; and does not include the collection of metadata about oxidant order of application, dose or contact time. EPA's response is detailed more fully in the “Response to Comments Document for the Unregulated Contaminant Monitoring Rule (UCMR 4),” (USEPA, 2016b), which can be found in the electronic docket listed in the
Consistent with the proposal, and with past practice, the final rule requires EPA approval of all laboratories conducting analyses for UCMR 4. EPA will follow the traditional Agency approach, outlined in the proposal, to approving UCMR laboratories, which requires laboratories seeking approval to: (1) Provide EPA with data that demonstrates a successful completion of an initial demonstration of capability (IDC) as outlined in each method; (2) verify successful analytical performance at or below the MRLs as specified in this action; (3) provide information about laboratory operating procedures; and (4) successfully participate in an EPA proficiency testing (PT) program for the analytes of interest. Audits of laboratories may be conducted by EPA prior to and/or following approval. The “UCMR 4 Laboratory Approval Requirements and Information Document” (USEPA, 2016d) provides guidance on the EPA laboratory approval program and the specific method acceptance criteria.
EPA may supply analytical reference standards for select analytes to participating/approved laboratories when reliable standards are not readily available through commercial sources.
This final rule's structure for the laboratory approval program is the same as that proposed for UCMR 4 and employed in previous UCMRs, and provides an assessment of the laboratories' ability to perform analyses using the methods listed in § 141.40(a)(3), Table 1. The UCMR 4 laboratory approval process is designed to assess whether laboratories possess the required equipment and analyst skills and can meet the laboratory-performance and data-reporting criteria described in this action. Laboratory participation in the UCMR laboratory approval program is voluntary. However, as in previous UCMRs and as proposed for UCMR 4, EPA will require PWSs to exclusively use laboratories that have been approved under the program to analyze UCMR 4 samples. EPA expects to post a list of approved UCMR 4 laboratories to
Laboratories interested in the UCMR 4 laboratory approval program can request registration materials by emailing EPA at
Laboratory applicants will provide registration information that includes: Laboratory name, mailing address, shipping address, contact name, phone number, email address and a list of the UCMR 4 methods for which the laboratory is seeking approval. This registration step provides EPA with the necessary contact information, and ensures that each laboratory receives a customized application package. Laboratories must complete and submit the necessary registration information by February 21, 2017.
Laboratories wishing to participate will complete and return a customized application package that includes the following: IDC data, including precision, accuracy and results of MRL studies; information regarding analytical equipment and other materials; proof of current drinking water laboratory certification (for select compliance monitoring methods); and example chromatograms for each method under review. Laboratories must complete and submit the necessary application materials by April 19, 2017.
As a condition of receiving and maintaining approval, the laboratory is expected to confirm that it will post UCMR 4 monitoring results and quality control data that meet method criteria (on behalf of its PWS clients) to EPA's UCMR electronic data reporting system, SDWARS.
EPA will review the application packages and, if necessary, request follow-up information. Laboratories that successfully complete the application process become eligible to participate in the UCMR 4 PT program.
A PT sample is a synthetic sample containing a concentration of an analyte or mixture of analytes that is known to EPA, but unknown to the laboratory. To be approved, a laboratory is expected to meet specific acceptance criteria for the analysis of a UCMR 4 PT sample(s) for each analyte in each method, for which the laboratory is seeking approval. EPA intends to offer at least two opportunities for a laboratory to successfully analyze UCMR 4 PT samples after publication of the final rule. A laboratory is expected to pass one of the PT studies for each analytical method for which it is requesting approval, and will not be required to pass a PT study for a method it has already passed in a previous UCMR 4 PT study. EPA does not expect to conduct additional PT studies after the start of system monitoring; however, laboratory audits will likely be ongoing throughout UCMR 4 implementation. Initial laboratory approval is expected to be contingent on successful completion of a PT study. Continued laboratory approval is contingent on successful completion of the audit process and satisfactorily meeting all the other stated conditions.
For laboratories that have already successfully completed the preceding steps (A through E), EPA will have sent the applicant a letter listing the methods for which approval is pending (
EPA did not receive any adverse comments on the laboratory approval process or criteria that it proposed.
UCMR is a direct implementation rule (
SMPs include tabular listings of the systems that EPA selected and the proposed schedule for their monitoring. Initial SMPs also typically include instructions to states for revising and/or correcting system information in the SMPs, including modifying the sampling schedules for small systems. EPA will incorporate revisions from states, resolve any outstanding questions and return the final SMPs to each state.
EPA incorporates stakeholder involvement into each UCMR cycle. Specific to the development of UCMR 4, EPA held three public stakeholder meetings and is announcing a fourth in today's preamble (see section V.C). EPA held a meeting focused on drinking water methods for CCL contaminants on May 15, 2013, in Cincinnati, Ohio. Participants included representatives of state agencies, laboratories, PWSs, environmental organizations and drinking water associations. Meeting topics included an overview of the regulatory process (CCL, UCMR and Regulatory Determination) and drinking water methods under development, primarily for CCL contaminants (see USEPA, 2013 for presentation materials). EPA held a second stakeholder meeting on June 25, 2014, in Washington, DC. Attendees representing state agencies, tribes, laboratories, PWSs, environmental organizations and drinking water associations participated in the meeting via webinar and in person. Meeting topics included a status update on UCMR 3; UCMR 4 potential sampling design changes relative to UCMR 3; UCMR 4 candidate analytes and rationale; and the laboratory approval process (see USEPA, 2014 for meeting materials). The third stakeholder meeting was held on January 13, 2016, via a webinar, during the public comment period for the proposed rule. Attendees representing state agencies, laboratories, PWSs, environmental organizations and drinking water associations participated. Meeting topics included the proposed UCMR 4 monitoring requirements, analyte selection and rationale, analytical methods, the laboratory approval process and GW representative monitoring plans (see USEPA, 2016f for meeting materials).
EPA will hold the fourth UCMR 4 public stakeholder meeting in Washington, DC, on April 12, 2017. Attendees can participate in person or via webinar. Topics will include the final UCMR 4 requirements for monitoring, sampling and reporting, analytical methods, the laboratory approval process, GW representative monitoring plans and consecutive system monitoring plans.
Those who wish to participate in the public meeting, whether in person or via webinar, need to register in advance no later than 5:00 p.m., eastern time on April 7, 2017, by going to
Materials are expected to be sent by email to all registered attendees prior to the meeting. EPA will post the materials on the Agency's Web site for persons who are unable to participate.
Executive Order 13045 does not apply to UCMR 4, however, EPA's Policy on Evaluating Health Risks to Children is applicable (See VII.G. Executive Order 13045). By monitoring for unregulated contaminants that may pose health risks via drinking water, UCMR furthers the protection of public health for all citizens, including children. EPA considered children's health risks during the development of UCMR 4. This includes considering public comments about candidate contaminant priorities.
The objective of UCMR 4 is to collect nationally representative drinking water data on a set of unregulated contaminants. EPA generally collects occurrence data for contaminants at the lowest levels that are feasible for the national network of approved drinking water laboratories to quantify accurately. By setting reporting levels as low as is feasible, the Agency positions itself to better address contaminant risk information in the future, including that associated with unique risks to children.
The EPA has concluded that this action is not subject to Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994) because it does not establish an environmental health or safety standard (see VII.J. Executive Order 12898). This regulatory action provides EPA and other interested parties with scientifically valid data on the national occurrence of selected contaminants in drinking water. By seeking to identify unregulated contaminants that may pose health risks via drinking water from all PWSs, UCMR furthers the protection of public health for all citizens. EPA recognizes that unregulated contaminants in drinking water are of interest to all populations and structured the rulemaking process and implementation of the UCMR 4 rule to allow for meaningful involvement and transparency. EPA organized public meetings and webinars to share information regarding the development of UCMR 4; coordinated with tribal governments; and convened a
EPA will continue to collect U.S. Postal Service Zip Codes for each PWS's service area, as collected under UCMR 3, to support assessment in future regulatory evaluations of whether or not minority, low-income and/or indigenous-population communities are uniquely impacted by particular drinking water contaminants.
The following methods are incorporated by reference into this section for UCMR 4 monitoring. All approved material is available for inspection electronically at
The following methods are from the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Water Docket, EPA/DC, EPA West, Room 3334, 1301 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20004.
1. Method 200.8 “Determination of Trace Elements in Waters and Wastes by Inductively Coupled Plasma—Mass Spectrometry,” Revision 5.4, EMMC Version, 1994. Available on the Internet at
2. Method 300.0 “Determination of Inorganic Anions by Ion Chromatography Samples,” Revision 2.1, August 1993. Available on the Internet at
3. Method 300.1 “Determination of Inorganic Anions in Drinking Water by Ion Chromatography,” Revision 1.0, 1997. Available on the Internet at
4. Method 317.0 “Determination of Inorganic Oxyhalide Disinfection By-Products in Drinking Water Using Ion Chromatography with the Addition of a Postcolumn Reagent for Trace Bromate Analysis,” Revision 2.0, July 2001, EPA 815-B-01-001. Available on the Internet at
5. Method 326.0 “Determination of Inorganic Oxyhalide Disinfection By-Products in Drinking Water Using Ion Chromatography Incorporating the Addition of a Suppressor Acidified Postcolumn Reagent for Trace Bromate Analysis,” Revision 1.0, June 2002, EPA 815-R-03-007. Available on the Internet at
6. Method 415.3 “Determination of Total Organic Carbon and Specific UV Absorbance at 254 nm in Source Water and Drinking Water,” Revision 1.1, February 2005, EPA/600/R-05/055. Available on the Internet at
7. Method 415.3 “Determination of Total Organic Carbon and Specific UV Absorbance at 254 nm in Source Water and Drinking Water,” Revision 1.2, September 2009, EPA/600/R-09/122. Available on the Internet at
8. Method 525.3 “Determination of Semivolatile Organic Chemicals in Drinking Water by Solid Phase Extraction and Capillary Column Gas Chromatography/Mass Spectrometry (GC/MS),” Version 1.0, February 2012, EPA/600/R-12/010. Available on the Internet
9. Method 530 “Determination of Select Semivolatile Organic Chemicals in Drinking Water by Solid Phase Extraction and Gas Chromatography/Mass Spectrometry (GC/MS),” Version 1.0, January 2015, EPA/600/R-14/442. Available on the Internet at
10. EPA Method 541: “Determination of 1-Butanol, 1,4-Dioxane, 2-Methoxyethanol and 2-Propen-1-ol in Drinking Water by Solid Phase Extraction and Gas Chromatography/Mass Spectrometry,” November 2015, EPA 815-R-15-011. Available on the Internet at
11. Method 544 “Determination of Microcystins and Nodularin in Drinking Water by Solid Phase Extraction and Liquid Chromatography/Tandem Mass Spectrometry (LC/MS/MS),” Version 1.0, February 2015, EPA 600-R-14/474. Available on the Internet at
12. EPA Method 545: “Determination of Cylindrospermopsin and Anatoxin-a in Drinking Water by Liquid Chromatography Electrospray Ionization Tandem Mass Spectrometry (LC/ESI-MS/MS),” April 2015, EPA 815-R-15-009. Available on the Internet at
13. EPA Method 546: “Determination of Total Microcystins and Nodularins in Drinking Water and Ambient Water by Adda Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay,” August 2016, EPA-815-B-16-011. Available on the Internet at
14. Method 552.3 “Determination of Haloacetic Acids and Dalapon in Drinking Water by Liquid-Liquid Microextraction, Derivatization, and Gas Chromatography with Electron Capture Detection,” Revision 1.0, July 2003, EPA 815-B-03-002. Available on the Internet at
15. EPA Method 557: “Determination of Haloacetic Acids, Bromate, and Dalapon in Drinking Water by Ion Chromatography Electrospray Ionization Tandem Mass Spectrometry (IC-ESI-MS/MS),” Version 1.0, September 2009, EPA 815-B-09-012. Available on the Internet at
The following methods are from American Public Health Association—Standard Methods (SM), 800 I Street NW., Washington, DC 20001-3710
1. “Standard Methods for the Examination of Water & Wastewater,” 21st edition (2005).
a. SM 3125 “Metals by Inductively Coupled Plasma/Mass Spectrometry.” This is a Standard Method for the analysis of metals and metalloids in water by ICP-MS and is used for the analysis of germanium and manganese.
b. SM 5310B “Total Organic Carbon (TOC): High-Temperature Combustion Method.” This is a Standard Method for the analysis of TOC in water samples using a conductivity detector or a nondispersive infrared detector.
c. SM 5310C “Total Organic Carbon (TOC): Persulfate-UV or Heated-Persulfate Oxidation Method.” This is a Standard Method for the analysis of TOC in water samples using conductivity detector or a nondispersive infrared detector.
d. SM 5310D “Total Organic Carbon (TOC): Wet-Oxidation Method.” This is a Standard Method for the analysis of TOC in water samples using a conductivity detector or a nondispersive infrared detector.
2. “Standard Methods Online.,” approved 2000 (unless noted). Available for purchase on the Internet at
a. SM 3125 “Metals by Inductively Coupled Plasma/Mass Spectrometry” Editorial revisions, 2011 (SM 3125-09). This is a Standard Method for the analysis of metals and metalloids in water by ICP-MS and is used to measure germanium and manganese.
b. SM 5310B “Total Organic Carbon: High-Temperature Combustion Method,” (5310B-00). This is a Standard Method for the analysis of TOC in water samples using a conductivity detector or a nondispersive infrared detector.
c. SM 5310C “Total Organic Carbon: Persulfate-UV or Heated-Persulfate Oxidation Method,” (5310C-00). This is a Standard Method for the analysis of TOC in water samples using a conductivity detector or a nondispersive infrared detector.
d. SM 5310D “Total Organic Carbon: Wet-Oxidation Method,” (5310D-00). This is a Standard Method for the analysis of TOC in water samples using a conductivity detector or a nondispersive infrared detector.
The following methods are from ASTM International, 100 Barr Harbor Drive, West Conshohocken, PA 19428-2959.
1. ASTM D5673-10 “Standard Test Method for Elements in Water by Inductively Coupled Plasma-Mass Spectrometry,” approved August 1, 2010. Available for purchase on the Internet at
2. ASTM D6581-12 “Standard Test Methods for Bromate, Bromide, Chlorate, and Chlorite in Drinking Water by Suppressed Ion Chromatography,” approved March 1, 2012. Available for purchase on the Internet at
This action is a significant regulatory action that was submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review. Any changes made in response to OMB recommendations have been documented in the docket, “Documentation of OMB Review Under Executive Order 12866: Revisions to the Unregulated Contaminant Monitoring Regulation (UCMR 4) for Public Water Systems.” The EPA prepared an analysis of the potential costs associated with this action, and this is also available in the docket, “Information Collection Request for the Unregulated Contaminant Monitoring Rule (UCMR 4).”
The information collection activities in this rule have been submitted for approval to OMB under the PRA. The ICR document that the EPA prepared has been assigned EPA ICR number 2192.08. You can find a copy of the ICR in the docket for this rule, and it is briefly summarized here. The ICR requirements are not enforceable until OMB approves them.
The information that EPA will collect under this rule fulfills the statutory requirements of section 1445(a)(2) of the SDWA, as amended in 1996. EPA will collect information that describes the source of the water, location and test results for samples taken from PWSs as described in 40 CFR 141.35(e). The information collected will support Agency decisions as to whether or not to regulate particular contaminants under the SDWA. Reporting is mandatory. The data are not subject to confidentiality protection.
EPA received a number of comments regarding cost and burden of the proposed rule. Those comments recommended the following: Omit source water monitoring for microcystins; omit UCMR 4 HAA monitoring for PWSs that do not conduct HAA compliance monitoring; allow monitoring over a 12-month period for contaminants other than cyanotoxins; and provide more accurate cost estimates. Based on these public comments, the following changes were made to the final rule. EPA's response is detailed more fully in the “Response to Comments Document for the Unregulated Contaminant Monitoring Rule (UCMR 4),” (USEPA, 2016b), which can be found in the electronic docket listed in the
1. Removed the proposed source water monitoring requirement for microcystins, temperature and pH.
2. Limited UCMR 4 HAA monitoring to only those PWSs that are subject to the D/DBPRs.
3. Restored the traditional 12-month monitoring schedule for the 20 additional (non-cyanotoxin) contaminants. This will support PWSs
4. Increased the wage estimates to 2016 rates using the Employment Cost Index for waters and salaries in trade, transport and utilities.
5. Updated the analytical costs of each method with new cost estimates from more laboratories.
The annual burden and cost estimates described in this section are based on the implementation assumptions described in section III. In general, burden hours were calculated by:
1. Determining the activities that PWSs and states would complete to comply with the UCMR activity;
2. Estimating the number of hours per activity;
3. Estimating the number of respondents per activity; and
4. Multiplying the hours per activity by the number of respondents for that activity.
Respondents to UCMR 4 include 1,600 small PWSs (800 for cyanotoxin monitoring and a different set of 800 for monitoring the additional 20 contaminants), the ~4,292 large PWSs and the 56 states and primacy agencies (~5,948 total respondents). The frequency of response varies across respondents and years. System costs (particularly laboratory analytical costs) vary depending on the number of sampling locations. For cost estimates, EPA assumed that systems will conduct sampling evenly from January 2018 through December 2020, excluding December, January and February of each year for cyanotoxins (
Small PWSs that are selected for UCMR 4 monitoring will sample an average of 6.7 times per PWS (
The annual average per-respondent burden hours and costs for the ICR period are: Small PWSs—6.1 hours, or $169, for labor; large PWSs—23.3 hours, or $684, for labor and $5,756 for analytical costs; very large PWSs—46.4 hours, or $1,253, for labor and $15,680 for analytical costs; and states—244.3 hours, or $11,789, for labor. Annual average burden and cost per respondent (including both systems and states) is estimated to be 23.3 hours, with a labor plus non-labor cost of $3,718 per respondent. Burden is defined at 5 CFR 1320.3(b).
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. The OMB control numbers for EPA's rules in 40 CFR are listed in 40 CFR part 9. When OMB approves this ICR, the Agency will announce that approval in the
For purposes of assessing the impacts of this rule on small entities, EPA considered small entities to be PWSs serving 10,000 or fewer people, because this is the system size specified in the SDWA as requiring special consideration with respect to small system flexibility. As required by the RFA, EPA proposed using this alternative definition in the FR, (63 FR 7606, February 13, 1998 (USEPA, 1998a)), sought public comment, consulted with the Small Business Administration (SBA) and finalized the alternative definition in the Consumer Confidence Reports rulemaking, (63 FR 44512, August 19, 1998 (USEPA, 1998b)). As stated in that Final Rule, the alternative definition will be applied to future drinking water rules, including this rule.
An agency certifies that a rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the RFA. In making this determination, the impact of concern is any significant adverse economic impact on a substantial number of small entities if the rule relieves regulatory burden, has no net burden or otherwise has a positive economic effect on the small entities subject to the rule. The evaluation of the overall impact on small systems, summarized in the preceding discussion, is further described as follows. EPA analyzed the impacts for privately-owned and publicly-owned water systems separately, due to the different economic characteristics of these ownership types, such as different rate structures and profit goals. However, for both publicly- and privately-owned systems, EPA used the “revenue test,” which compares annual system costs attributed to the rule to the system's annual revenues. EPA used median revenue data from the 2006 CWS Survey for public and private water systems (USEPA, 2009c). The revenue figures were updated to 2016 dollars, and increased by three percent to account for inflation. EPA assumes that the distribution of the sample of participating small systems will reflect the proportions of publicly- and privately-owned systems in the national inventory. The estimated distribution of the representative sample, categorized by ownership type, source water and system size, is presented in Exhibit 6.
The basis for the UCMR 4 RFA certification is as follows: For the 1,600 small water systems that will be affected, the average annual cost for complying with this rule represents no more than 0.7% of system revenues (the highest estimated percentage is for GW systems serving 500 or fewer people, at 0.7% of its median revenue). Exhibit 7 presents the yearly cost to small systems and to EPA for the small system sampling program, along with an illustration of system participation for each year of UCMR 4.
PWS costs are attributed to the labor required for reading about UCMR 4 requirements, monitoring, reporting and record keeping. The estimated average annual burden across the 5-year UCMR 4 implementation period of 2017-2021 is 2.8 hours at $102 per small system. Average annual cost, in all cases, is less than 0.7% of system revenues. By assuming all costs for laboratory analyses, shipping and quality control for small entities, EPA incurs the entirety of the non-labor costs associated with UCMR 4 small system monitoring, or 95% of total small system testing costs. Exhibit 8 and Exhibit 9 present the estimated economic impacts in the form of a revenue test for publicly- and privately-owned systems.
The Agency has determined that 1,600 small PWSs (for Assessment Monitoring), or approximately 4.2% of all small systems, will experience an impact of no more than 0.7% of revenues; the remainder of small systems will not be impacted.
Although this rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities, EPA has attempted to reduce this impact by assuming all costs for analyses of the samples and for shipping the samples from small systems to laboratories contracted by EPA to analyze UCMR 4 samples (the cost of shipping is now included in the cost of each analytical method). EPA has set aside $2.0 million each year from the Drinking Water State Revolving Fund (SRF), with its authority to use SRF monies for the purposes of implementing this provision of the SDWA. Thus, the costs to these small systems will be limited to the labor associated with collecting a sample and preparing it for shipping.
I certify that this action will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the RFA. In making this determination, the impact of concern is any significant adverse economic impact on small entities. The Agency therefore concluded that this action will have no net regulatory burden for all directly regulated small entities.
This action does not contain an annual unfunded mandate of $100 million or more as described in UMRA, 2 U.S.C. 1531-1538, and does not significantly or uniquely affect small governments. The action implements mandate(s) specifically and explicitly set forth in the SDWA without the exercise of any policy discretion by the EPA.
This action does not have federalism implications. It will not have substantial direct effects on the states, on the relationship between the national government and the states, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
This action will neither impose substantial direct compliance costs on federally recognized tribal governments, nor preempt tribal law. As described previously, this rule requires monitoring by all large PWSs. Information in the SDWIS/Fed water system inventory indicates there are 17 large tribal PWSs (ranging in size from 10,001 to 40,000 customers). EPA estimates the average annual cost to each of these large PWSs, over the 5-year rule period, to be $3,864. This cost is based on a labor component (associated with the collection of samples), and a non-labor component (associated with shipping and laboratory fees), and represents 1.1% of average revenue/sales for large PWSs. UCMR also requires monitoring by a nationally representative sample of small PWSs. EPA estimates that approximately 1.5% of small tribal systems will be selected as a nationally representative sample for Assessment Monitoring. EPA estimates the average annual cost to small tribal systems over the 5-year rule period to be $102. Such cost is based on the labor associated with collecting a sample and preparing it for shipping and represents less than 0.7% of average revenue/sales for small PWSs. All other small PWS expenses (associated with shipping and laboratory fees) are paid by EPA.
EPA consulted with tribal officials under the EPA Policy on Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribes early in the process of developing this rule to permit them to have meaningful and timely input into its development. A summary of that consultation is provided in the electronic docket listed in the
This action is not subject to Executive Order 13045 because it is not economically significant as defined in Executive Order 12866, and because EPA does not think the environmental health or safety risks addressed by this action present a disproportionate risk to children. This action's health and risk assessments are addressed in section V.D of the preamble.
This action is not a “significant energy action” because it is not likely to have a significant adverse effect on the supply, distribution or use of energy. This is a national drinking water occurrence study that was submitted to OMB for review.
This action involves technical standards. This rule uses methods developed by the Agency and two major voluntary consensus method organizations to support UCMR 4 monitoring. The voluntary consensus method organizations are Standard Methods and ASTM International. EPA
All of these standards are reasonably available for public use. The Agency methods are free for download on EPA's Web site. The methods in the Standard Method 21st edition are consensus standards, available for purchase from the publisher, and are commonly used by the drinking water community. The methods in the Standard Method Online are consensus standards, available for purchase from the publisher's Web site, and are commonly used by the drinking water community. The methods from ASTM International are consensus standards, are available for purchase from the publisher's Web site, and are commonly used by the drinking water community.
The EPA concludes that this action is not subject to Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994) because it does not establish an environmental health or safety standard. Background information regarding EPA's consideration of Executive Order 12898 in the development of this final rule is provided in section V.E of this preamble, and an additional supporting document has been placed in the electronic docket listed in the
This action is subject to the CRA, and the EPA will submit a rule report to each House of the Congress and to the Comptroller General of the United States. This action is not a “major rule” as defined by 5 U.S.C. 804(2).
ASDWA. 2013.
ASTM. 2010.
ASTM. 2012.
Fischer, W.J., Garthwaite, I., Miles, C.O., Ross, K.M., Aggen, J.B., Chamberlin, A.R., Towers, N.R., Dietrich, D.R. 2001. Congener-Independent Immunoassay for Microcystins and Nodularins.
McElhiney, J., and Lawton, L.A. 2005. Detection of the Cyanobacterial Hepatotoxins Microcystins.
Ohio EPA. 2015.
SM Online. 2000a. SM 5310B-00—The Determination of Total Organic Carbon by High-Temperature Combustion Method.
SM Online. 2000b. SM 5310C-00—Total organic carbon by Persulfate-UV or Heated-Persulfate Oxidation Method.
SM Online. 2000c. SM 5310D-00—Total organic carbon by Wet-Oxidation Method.
SM. 2005a. SM 3125—Metals by Inductively Coupled Plasma/Mass Spectrometry.
SM. 2005b. SM 5310B—The Determination of Total Organic Carbon by High-Temperature Combustion Method.
SM. 2005c. SM 5310C-00—Total Organic Carbon by Persulfate-UV or Heated-Persulfate Oxidation Method.
SM. 2005d. SM 5310D—Total Organic Carbon by Wet-Oxidation Method.
SM Online. 2009. SM 3125-09—Metals by Inductively Coupled Plasma/Mass Spectrometry (Editorial revisions, 2011).
USEPA. 1993.
USEPA. 1994.
USEPA. 1997.
USEPA. 1998a. National Primary Drinking Water Regulations: Consumer Confidence Reports; Proposed Rule.
USEPA. 1998b. National Primary Drinking Water Regulation: Consumer Confidence Reports; Final Rule.
USEPA. 1999. Revisions to the Unregulated Contaminant Monitoring Regulation for Public Water Systems; Final Rule.
USEPA. 2001a.
USEPA. 2001b.
USEPA. 2002.
USEPA. 2003.
USEPA. 2005.
USEPA. 2007. Unregulated Contaminant Monitoring Regulation (UCMR) for Public Water Systems Revisions.
USEPA. 2009a.
USEPA. 2009b.
USEPA. 2009c.
USEPA. 2012a. Revisions to the Unregulated Contaminant Monitoring Regulation (UCMR 3) for Public Water Systems; Final Rule.
USEPA. 2012b.
USEPA. 2013. Meetings and Materials for the Unregulated Contaminant Monitoring Program. Available on the Internet at
USEPA. 2014.
USEPA. 2015a. Revisions to the Unregulated Contaminant Monitoring Rule (UCMR 4) for Public Water Systems and Announcement of a Public Meeting; Proposed Rule.
USEPA. 2015b.
USEPA. 2015c.
USEPA. 2015d.
USEPA. 2015e.
USEPA. 2015f.
USEPA. 2016a. Information Collection Request for the Unregulated Contaminant Monitoring Rule (UCMR 4). EPA 815-B-16-019, November 2016.
USEPA. 2016b. Response to Comments Document for the Unregulated Contaminant Monitoring Rule (UCMR 4). EPA 815-R-16-002, October 2016.
USEPA. 2016c.
USEPA. 2016d.
USEPA. 2016e.
USEPA. 2016f. Meetings and Materials for the Unregulated Contaminant Monitoring Program. Available on the Internet at
Zeck, A., Weller, M.G., Bursill, D., Niessner, R. 2001. Generic Microcystin Immunoassay Based on Monoclonal Antibodies Against Adda.
Environmental protection, Chemicals, Incorporation by reference, Indian-lands, Intergovernmental relations, Radiation protection, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Water supply.
For the reasons set forth in the preamble, EPA amends 40 CFR part 141 as follows:
42 U.S.C. 300f, 300g-1, 300g-2, 300g-3, 300g-4, 300g-5, 300g-6, 300j-4, 300j-9, and 300j-11.
The revisions and additions read as follows:
(b) * * *
(1) * * * Information that must be submitted using EPA's electronic data reporting system must be submitted through:
(2) * * * If you have received a letter from EPA or your State concerning your required monitoring and your system does not meet the applicability criteria for UCMR established in § 141.40(a)(1) or (2), or if a change occurs at your system that may affect your requirements under UCMR as defined in § 141.40(a)(3) through (5), you must mail or email a letter to EPA, as specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section. The letter must be from your PWS Official and must include your PWS Identification (PWSID) Code along with an explanation as to why the UCMR requirements are not applicable to your PWS, or have changed for your PWS, along with the appropriate contact information.* * *
(c) * * *
(2) * * * You must provide your sampling location(s) and inventory information by December 31, 2017, using EPA's electronic data reporting system. You must submit, verify or update the following information for each sampling location, or for each approved representative sampling location (as specified in paragraph (c)(3) of this section regarding representative sampling locations): PWSID Code; PWS Name; PWS Facility Identification Code; PWS Facility Name; PWS Facility Type; Water Source Type; Sampling Point Identification Code; Sampling Point Name; and Sampling Point Type Code; (as defined in Table 1 of paragraph (e) of this section).
(3) * * *
(i) * * * You must submit a copy of the existing alternate EPTDS sampling
(ii) * * * You must submit the following information for each proposed representative sampling location: PWSID Code; PWS Name; PWS Facility Identification Code; PWS Facility Name; PWS Facility Type; Sampling Point Identification Code; and Sampling Point Name (as defined in Table 1, paragraph (e) of this section). * * *
(5) * * *
(i)
(6)
(d) * * *
(2)
(e)
The revisions and addition read as follows:
(a) * * *
(1)
(2) * * *
(i) * * *
(A)
(ii) * * *
(A)
(C)
(3)
(4) * * *
(i) * * *
(B)
(C)
(ii)
(iii)
(5) * * *
(v)
(vi) * * * You must require your laboratory to submit these data electronically to the State and EPA using EPA's electronic data reporting system, accessible at
(c)
(1) U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Water Docket, EPA/DC, EPA West, Room 3334, 1301 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20004.
(i) Method 200.8 “Determination of Trace Elements in Waters and Wastes by Inductively Coupled Plasma—Mass Spectrometry,” Revision 5.4, EMMC Version, 1994. Available on the Internet at
(ii) Method 300.0 “Determination of Inorganic Anions by Ion Chromatography Samples,” Revision 2.1, August 1993. Available on the Internet at
(iii) Method 300.1 “Determination of Inorganic Anions in Drinking Water by Ion Chromatography,” Revision 1.0, 1997. Available on the Internet at
(iv) Method 317.0 “Determination of Inorganic Oxyhalide Disinfection By-Products in Drinking Water Using Ion Chromatography with the Addition of a Postcolumn Reagent for Trace Bromate Analysis,” Revision 2.0, July 2001, EPA 815-B-01-001. Available on the Internet at
(v) Method 326.0 “Determination of Inorganic Oxyhalide Disinfection By-Products in Drinking Water Using Ion Chromatography Incorporating the Addition of a Suppressor Acidified Postcolumn Reagent for Trace Bromate Analysis,” Revision 1.0, June 2002, EPA 815-R-03-007. Available on the Internet at
(vi) Method 415.3 “Determination of Total Organic Carbon and Specific UV Absorbance at 254 nm in Source Water and Drinking Water,” Revision 1.1, February 2005, EPA/600/R-05/055. Available on the Internet at
(vii) Method 415.3 “Determination of Total Organic Carbon and Specific UV Absorbance at 254 nm in Source Water and Drinking Water,” Revision 1.2, September 2009, EPA/600/R-09/122. Available on the Internet at
(viii) Method 525.3 “Determination of Semivolatile Organic Chemicals in Drinking Water by Solid Phase Extraction and Capillary Column Gas Chromatography/Mass Spectrometry (GC/MS),” Version 1.0, February 2012, EPA/600/R-12/010. Available on the Internet
(ix) Method 530 “Determination of Select Semivolatile Organic Chemicals in Drinking Water by Solid Phase Extraction and Gas Chromatography/Mass Spectrometry (GC/MS),” Version 1.0, January 2015, EPA/600/R-14/442. Available on the Internet at
(x) EPA Method 541: “Determination of 1-Butanol, 1,4-Dioxane, 2-Methoxyethanol and 2-Propen-1-ol in Drinking Water by Solid Phase Extraction and Gas Chromatography/Mass Spectrometry,” November 2015, EPA 815-R-15-011. Available on the Internet at
(xi) Method 544 “Determination of Microcystins and Nodularin in Drinking Water by Solid Phase Extraction and Liquid Chromatography/Tandem Mass Spectrometry (LC/MS/MS),” Version 1.0, February 2015, EPA 600-R-14/474. Available on the Internet at
(xii) EPA Method 545: “Determination of Cylindrospermopsin and Anatoxin-a in Drinking Water by Liquid Chromatography Electrospray Ionization Tandem Mass Spectrometry (LC/ESI-
(xiii) EPA Method 546: “Determination of Total Microcystins and Nodularins in Drinking Water and Ambient Water by Adda Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay,” August 2016, EPA-815-B-16-011. Available on the Internet at
(xiv) Method 552.3 “Determination of Haloacetic Acids and Dalapon in Drinking Water by Liquid-Liquid Microextraction, Derivatization, and Gas Chromatography with Electron Capture Detection,” Revision 1.0, July 2003, EPA 815-B-03-002. Available on the Internet at
(xv) EPA Method 557: “Determination of Haloacetic Acids, Bromate, and Dalapon in Drinking Water by Ion Chromatography Electrospray Ionization Tandem Mass Spectrometry (IC-ESI-MS/MS),” Version 1.0, September 2009, EPA 815-B-09-012. Available on the Internet at
(2) American Public Health Association—Standard Test Method for Elements in Water by Inductively Coupled Plasma-Mass Spectrometry,” approved August 1, 2010. Available for purchase on the Internet at
(i) “Standard Methods for the Examination of Water & Wastewater,” 21st edition (2005).
(A) SM 3125 “Metals by Inductively Coupled Plasma/Mass Spectrometry.”
(B) SM 5310B “Total Organic Carbon (TOC): High-Temperature Combustion Method.”
(C) SM 5310C “Total Organic Carbon (TOC): Persulfate-UV or Heated-Persulfate Oxidation Method.”
(D) SM 5310D “Total Organic Carbon (TOC): Wet-Oxidation Method.”
(ii) The following methods are from “Standard Methods Online.,” approved 2000 (unless noted). Available for purchase on the Internet at
(A) SM 3125 “Metals by Inductively Coupled Plasma/Mass Spectrometry” Editorial revisions, 2011 (SM 3125-09).
(B) SM 5310B “Total Organic Carbon: High-Temperature Combustion Method,” (5310B-00).
(C) SM 5310C “Total Organic Carbon: Persulfate-UV or Heated-Persulfate Oxidation Method,” (5310C-00).
(D) SM 5310D “Total Organic Carbon: Wet-Oxidation Method,” (5310D-00).
(3) ASTM International, 100 Barr Harbor Drive, West Conshohocken, PA 19428-2959.
(i) ASTM D5673-10 “Standard Test Method for Elements in Water by Inductively Coupled Plasma-Mass Spectrometry,” approved August 1, 2010. Available for purchase on the Internet at
(ii) ASTM D6581-12 “Standard Test Methods for Bromate, Bromide, Chlorate, and Chlorite in Drinking Water by Suppressed Ion Chromatography,” approved March 1, 2012. Available for purchase on the Internet at
Office of the Secretary, Interior.
Final rule.
This rule revises the regulations that the Department of the Interior (Department) follows in processing records under the Freedom of Information Act in part to comply with the FOIA Improvement Act of 2016. The revisions clarify and update procedures for requesting information from the Department and procedures that the Department follows in responding to requests from the public.
This rule is effective on January 19, 2017.
Cindy Cafaro, Office of Executive Secretariat and Regulatory Affairs, 202-208-5342.
In late 2012, the Department published a final rule updating and replacing the Department's previous Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) regulations. In early 2016, the Department updated that final rule, primarily to authorize the Office of Inspector General to process their own FOIA appeals. On June 30, 2016, the FOIA Improvement Act of 2016, Public Law 114-185, 130 Stat. 538 (the Act) was enacted. The Act specifically requires all agencies to review and update their FOIA regulations in accordance with its provisions. In addition, the Department has received feedback from its FOIA practitioners and requesters and identified areas where it would be possible to further update, clarify, and streamline the language of some procedural provisions.
On September 20, 2016, the Department published a proposed rule in the
• Section 2.4(e) is amended to provide additional guidance on how bureaus handle misdirected requests.
• Section 2.15 is amended to bring attention to the Department's existing FOIA Request Tracking Tool (
• Section 2.19 is amended to bring further attention to the services provided by the Office of Government Information Services (OGIS), in accordance with the provisions of the Act.
• Section 2.21 is amended to reflect that the OGIS would be defined earlier in the regulations than it previously had been and to reference bureaus' FOIA Public Liaisons, in addition to the OGIS.
• Section 2.24 is amended to require a foreseeable harm analysis, in accordance with the provisions of the Act, and to require bureaus to provide an explanation to the requester when an estimate of the volume of any records withheld in full or in part is not provided.
• Section 2.37(f) is amended to reflect the provisions of the Act.
• Section 2.39 is amended to remove what will be superfluous language, after the changes to section 2.37(f).
• Section 2.58 is amended to provide more time for requesters to appeal, in accordance with the provisions of the Act.
• Section 2.66(d) is amended to reflect an updated Web site link.
Six commenters responded to the invitation for comments, including two commenters from subcomponents of Federal agencies and four commenters from non-Federal sources. Two of these commenters offered substantive suggestions on specific existing provisions of the rule that are not being amended; these suggestions are outside the scope of this rulemaking and are not
In the interests of clarity and consistency, the Department made very minor clarifications and added, moved, and deleted phrases in § 2.37(f)(2)(i) and (ii). The Department also updated a Web site link in § 2.66(d).
Executive Order (E.O.) 12866 provides that the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs will review all significant rules. The Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs has determined that this rulemaking is not significant.
Executive Order 13563 reaffirms the principles of E.O. 12866 while calling for improvements in the nation's regulatory system to promote predictability, to reduce uncertainty, and to use the best, most innovative, and least burdensome tools for achieving regulatory ends. The Executive Order directs agencies to consider regulatory approaches that reduce burdens and maintain flexibility and freedom of choice for the public where these approaches are relevant, feasible, and consistent with regulatory objectives. E.O. 13563 emphasizes further that regulations must be based on the best available science and that the rulemaking process must allow for public participation and an open exchange of ideas. We have developed this rule in a manner consistent with these requirements.
The Department of the Interior certifies that this rule will not have a significant economic effect on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
This is not a major rule under 5 U.S.C. 804(2), the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act. This rule:
a. Does not have an annual effect on the economy of $100 million or more.
b. Will not cause a major increase in costs or prices for consumers, individual industries, Federal, State, or local government agencies, or geographic regions.
c. Does not have significant adverse effects on competition, employment, investment, productivity, innovation, or the ability of U.S.-based enterprises to compete with foreign-based enterprises.
This rule does not impose an unfunded mandate on State, local, or tribal governments or the private sector of more than $100 million per year. This rule does not have a significant or unique effect on State, local, or tribal governments or the private sector. A statement containing the information required by the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act (2 U.S.C. 1531
In accordance with Executive Order 12630, this rule does not have significant takings implications. A takings implication assessment is not required.
In accordance with Executive Order 13132, this rule does not have sufficient federalism implications to warrant the preparation of a federalism summary impact statement. It would not substantially and directly affect the relationship between the Federal and state governments. A federalism summary impact statement is not required.
In accordance with Executive Order 12988, the Office of the Solicitor has determined that this rule does not unduly burden the judicial system and meets the requirements of sections 3(a) and 3(b)(2) of the Executive Order.
Under the criteria in Executive Order 13175, we have evaluated this rule and determined that it has no potential effects on federally recognized Indian tribes. This rule does not have tribal implications that impose substantial direct compliance costs on Indian Tribal governments.
This rule does not contain information collection requirements, and a submission to the Office of Management and Budget under the Paperwork Reduction Act is not required.
This rule does not constitute a major Federal action significantly affecting the quality of the human environment. A detailed statement under the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969, 42 U.S.C. 4321
This rule is not a significant energy action under the definition in Executive Order 13211. A Statement of Energy Effects is not required. This rule will not have a significant effect on the nation's energy supply, distribution, or use.
We are required by Executive Orders 12866 and 12988 and by the Presidential Memorandum of June 1, 1998, to write all rules in plain language. This means that each rule we publish must:
(a) Be logically organized;
(b) Use the active voice to address readers directly;
(c) Use clear language rather than jargon;
(d) Be divided into short sections and sentences; and
(e) Use lists and tables wherever possible.
Freedom of information.
For the reasons stated in the preamble, the Department of the Interior amends part 2 of title 43 of the Code of Federal Regulations as follows:
5 U.S.C. 301, 552, 552a, 553; 31 U.S.C. 3717; 43 U.S.C. 1460, 1461.
(e) If your request is received by a bureau that believes it is not the appropriate bureau to process your request, the bureau that received your request will attempt to contact you (if possible, via telephone or email) to confirm that you deliberately sent your request to that bureau for processing. If you do not confirm this, the bureau will deem your request misdirected and route the misdirected request to the appropriate bureau to respond under the basic time limit outlined in § 2.17.
(g) You may track the status of your request, including its estimated processing completion date, at
(a) * * * The bureau's written response will include a statement about the services offered by its FOIA Public Liaison. The bureau's written response will also include a statement about the services offered by OGIS, using standard language that can be found at:
(f) If the bureau does not comply with any time limit in the FOIA:
(1) Except as provided in paragraph (f)(2) of this section, the bureau cannot assess any search fees (or, if you are in the fee category of a representative of the news media or an educational and noncommercial scientific institution, duplication fees).
(2)(i) If the bureau has determined that unusual circumstances apply (as the term is defined in § 2.70) and the bureau provided you a timely written notice to extend the basic time limit in accordance with § 2.19, the noncompliance is excused for an additional 10 workdays.
(ii) If the bureau has determined that unusual circumstances apply and more than 5,000 pages are necessary to respond to the request, the noncompliance is excused if the bureau has provided you a timely written notice in accordance with § 2.19 and has discussed with you via written mail, email, or telephone (or made not less than 3 good-faith attempts to do so) how you could effectively limit the scope of the request.
(iii) If a court has determined that exceptional circumstances exist (as that term is defined in § 2.70), the noncompliance is excused for the length of time provided by the court order.
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Final rule.
This rule identifies communities where the sale of flood insurance has been authorized under the National Flood Insurance Program (NFIP) that are scheduled for suspension on the effective dates listed within this rule because of noncompliance with the floodplain management requirements of the program. If the Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) receives documentation that the community has adopted the required floodplain management measures prior to the effective suspension date given in this rule, the suspension will not occur and a notice of this will be provided by publication in the
The effective date of each community's scheduled suspension is the third date (“Susp.”) listed in the third column of the following tables.
If you want to determine whether a particular community was suspended on the suspension date or for further information, contact Patricia Suber, Federal Insurance and Mitigation Administration, Federal Emergency Management Agency, 400 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-4149.
The NFIP enables property owners to purchase Federal flood insurance that is not otherwise generally available from private insurers. In return, communities agree to adopt and administer local floodplain management measures aimed at protecting lives and new construction from future flooding. Section 1315 of the National Flood Insurance Act of 1968, as amended, 42 U.S.C. 4022, prohibits the sale of NFIP flood insurance unless an appropriate public body adopts adequate floodplain management measures with effective enforcement measures. The communities listed in this document no longer meet that statutory requirement for compliance with program regulations, 44 CFR part 59. Accordingly, the communities will be suspended on the effective date in the third column. As of that date, flood insurance will no longer be available in the community. We recognize that some of these communities may adopt and submit the required documentation of legally enforceable floodplain management measures after this rule is published but prior to the actual suspension date. These communities will not be suspended and will continue to be eligible for the sale of NFIP flood insurance. A notice withdrawing the suspension of such communities will be published in the
In addition, FEMA publishes a Flood Insurance Rate Map (FIRM) that identifies the Special Flood Hazard Areas (SFHAs) in these communities. The date of the FIRM, if one has been published, is indicated in the fourth column of the table. No direct Federal financial assistance (except assistance pursuant to the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act not in connection with a flood) may be provided for construction or acquisition of buildings in identified SFHAs for communities not participating in the NFIP and identified for more than a year on FEMA's initial FIRM for the community as having flood-prone areas (section 202(a) of the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973, 42 U.S.C. 4106(a), as amended). This prohibition against certain types of Federal assistance becomes effective for the communities listed on the date shown in the last column. The Administrator finds that notice and public comment procedures under 5 U.S.C. 553(b), are impracticable and unnecessary because communities listed in this final rule have been adequately notified.
Each community receives 6-month, 90-day, and 30-day notification letters addressed to the Chief Executive Officer stating that the community will be suspended unless the required floodplain management measures are met prior to the effective suspension date. Since these notifications were made, this final rule may take effect within less than 30 days.
Flood insurance, Floodplains.
Accordingly, 44 CFR part 64 is amended as follows:
42 U.S.C. 4001
Administration on Aging, Administration for Community Living, HHS.
Final rule; correction and correcting amendments.
In the February 11, 2015
This correcting document is effective December 19, 2016.
Becky Kurtz, Director, Office of Long-Term Care Ombudsman Programs, Administration for Community Living, Administration on Aging, Atlanta Federal Center, 61 Forsyth Street SW., Suite 5M69, Atlanta, Georgia 30303-8909, 404-562-7592.
In FR Doc. 2015-01914 of February 11, 2015 (80 FR 7704), the final rule entitled “State Long-Term Care Ombudsman Programs,” there were a number of technical and typographical errors that are identified and corrected in this correcting amendment. On July 1, 2016, those provisions of the final rule which had been originally codified as 45 CFR part 1327 were re-numbered as 45 CFR parts 1324 in FR Doc. 2016-13138 (81 FR 35644). The remaining provisions (originally codified as amendments to 45 CFR part 1321) remain unchanged. All of the provisions below refer to errors found in 45 CFR part 1324.
1. On page 7765, in the regulations text for § 1324.19(b)(5), we erroneously used the word “paragraph” instead of “through.” To correct this error, we have removed the word “paragraph” and replaced it with the word “through.”
2. On page 7765, in the regulations text for § 1324.19(b)(7)(i), we erroneously included the term “has no resident representative.” Since this situation (regarding the authority for the Ombudsman program to make a referral when a resident has “no resident representative”) is not needed in this paragraph and already provided for in § 1324.19(b)(6)(ii), the redundancy of this provision was in error. We believe elimination of this language will not change the requirements of this provision and will lessen confusion regarding its implementation.
The corrections to the errors summarized in this section appear in the regulations text of this correcting amendment.
Under 5 U.S.C. 553(b) of the Administrative Procedure Act (APA), the agency is required to publish a notice of the proposed rule in the
In addition, section 553(d) of the APA mandates a 30-day delay in the effective date after issuance or publication of a rule. The section, however, creates an exception at section 553(d)(3) that allows the agency to avoid the 30-day delay in effective date when it has good cause and publishes it with the rule. We have found good cause to avoid the 30-day delay. As discussed above, this rule is merely a technical correction and makes no substantive changes to the rule. We believe the public is best served by having the final rule reflect these corrections as soon as possible.
Administrative practice and procedure, Aged, Long-term care.
Accordingly, 45 CFR chapter XIII, subchapter C, is corrected by making the following correcting amendments to part 1324:
42 U.S.C. 3001
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Final rule.
NMFS issues regulations to implement Amendment 47 to the Fishery Management Plan for Bering Sea/Aleutian Islands King and Tanner Crabs (Crab FMP) and to make minor clarifications to regulations implementing the Crab FMP. This final rule addresses how individual processing quota (IPQ) use caps apply to the Bering Sea
Effective January 19, 2017.
Electronic copies of Amendment 47 to the Crab FMP, the Regulatory Impact Review (RIR), Initial Regulatory Flexibility Analysis (IRFA), and the Categorical Exclusion prepared for this action are available from
The Environmental Impact Statement (Program EIS), RIR (Program RIR), Final Regulatory Flexibility Analysis (Program FRFA), and Social Impact Assessment prepared for the Crab Rationalization Program (Program) are available from the NMFS Alaska Region Web site at
Keeley Kent, 907-586-7228.
This final rule implements Amendment 47 to the Crab FMP and regulatory amendments to the Program. NMFS published a notice of availability for Amendment 47 in the
This final rule modifies regulations that specify how IPQ use caps apply to IPQ issued for EBT and WBT crab fisheries. The following sections describe: (1) The Bering Sea and Aleutian Islands (BSAI) crab fisheries under the Program, (2) IPQ use caps and custom processing arrangements, and (3) this final rule.
This section and the following section of the preamble provide a brief description of the Program, and the elements of the Program, that apply to Amendment 47 and this final rule. For a more detailed description of the Program as it relates to this final rule, please see Sections 2.5 and 2.6 of the RIR (see
The Program was implemented on March 2, 2005 (70 FR 10174). The Program established a limited access privilege program for nine crab fisheries in the BSAI, including the EBT and WBT crab fisheries, and assigned quota share (QS) to persons based on their historic participation in one or more of those nine BSAI crab fisheries during a specific period. Under the Program, NMFS issued four types of QS: catcher vessel owner (CVO) QS was assigned to holders of License Limitation Program (LLP) licenses who delivered their catch to shoreside crab processors or to stationary floating crab processors; catcher/processor vessel owner QS was assigned to LLP license holders who harvested and processed their catch at sea; catcher/processor crew QS was issued to captains and crew on board catcher/processor vessels; and catcher vessel crew QS was issued to captains and crew on board catcher vessels. Each year, a person who holds QS may receive an exclusive harvest privilege for a portion of the annual total allowable catch, called individual fishing quota (IFQ).
NMFS also issued processor quota share (PQS) under the Program. Each year, PQS yields an exclusive privilege to process a portion of the IFQ in each of the nine BSAI crab fisheries. This annual exclusive processing privilege is called individual processor quota (IPQ). Only a portion of the QS issued yields IFQ that is required to be delivered to a processor with IPQ. QS derived from deliveries made by catcher vessel owners (
NMFS issued QS and PQS for the EBT and WBT crab fisheries. Unlike the QS and PQS issued for most other Program fisheries, the QS and PQS issued for the EBT and WBT crab fisheries are not subject to regional delivery and processing requirements, commonly known as regionalization. Therefore, the Class A IFQ that results from EBT and WBT QS, and the IPQ that results from EBT and WBT PQS, can be delivered to, and processed at, any otherwise eligible processing facility. In addition, the PQS and resulting IPQ issued for the EBT and WBT crab fisheries are not subject to right-of-first-refusal (ROFR) provisions included in the Program. The ROFR provisions provide certain communities with an option to purchase PQS or IPQ that would otherwise be used outside of the community holding the ROFR.
Because the EBT and WBT crab fisheries are not subject to regionalization or ROFR provisions, crab harvested under a Class A IFQ permit in these fisheries can be delivered to processors in a broad geographic area more easily than crab harvested under Class A IFQ permits in Program fisheries subject to regionalization and ROFR provisions. The rationale for exempting the EBT and WBT crab fisheries from regionalization and ROFR provisions is described in the Program EIS (see
The Program limits the amount of QS that a person can hold (
In most of the nine BSAI crab fisheries under the Program, including the Tanner crab fisheries, a person is limited to holding no more than 30 percent of the PQS initially issued in the fishery, and to using no more than the amount of IPQ resulting from 30 percent of the initially issued PQS in a given fishery, with a limited exemption for persons receiving more than 30 percent of the initially issued PQS. No person in the EBT or WBT crab fisheries received in excess of 30 percent of the initially issued PQS (see Section 2.5.2 of the RIR). Therefore, no person may use an amount of EBT or WBT IPQ greater than an amount resulting from 30 percent of the initially issued EBT or WBT PQS. The rationale for the IPQ use caps is described in the Program EIS and the final rule implementing the Program (70 FR 10174, March 2, 2005).
Section 680.7(a)(7) provides that IPQ use by a person is calculated by summing the total amount of IPQ that is held by that person and IPQ held by other persons who are affiliated with that person. The term “affiliation” is defined in § 680.2 as a relationship between two or more entities where one entity directly or indirectly owns or controls 10 percent or more of the other entity. Additional terms used in the definition of “affiliation” are described in § 680.2.
Under § 680.7(a)(7), any IPQ crab that is “custom processed” at a facility an IPQ holder owns will be applied against the IPQ use cap of the facility owner, unless specifically exempted by § 680.42(b)(7). A custom processing arrangement exists when an IPQ holder has a contract with the owners of a processing facility to have his or her crab processed at that facility, and the IPQ holder does not have an ownership interest in that processing facility or is not otherwise affiliated with the owners of that processing facility. In custom processing arrangements, the IPQ holder contracts with a facility operator to have the IPQ crab processed according to that IPQ holder's specifications. Custom processing arrangements typically occur when an IPQ holder does not own a shoreside processing facility or cannot economically operate a stationary floating crab processor.
Below is a brief description of this final rule. For a more detailed description of the rationale for this final rule, please see Sections 1 and 2.9.2 of the RIR (see
This final rule modifies § 680.42(b)(7)(ii)(A) by adding EBT and WBT IPQ crab to the list of BSAI crab fisheries already receiving a custom processing arrangement exemption. This final rule will allow EBT and WBT IPQ crab received for custom processing by the three processors currently operating in these fisheries to qualify for a custom processing arrangement exemption and not apply against the IPQ use caps for these processors. With this final rule, all EBT and WBT IPQ crab received under custom processing arrangements at the facilities owned by the three existing EBT and WBT processors (Maruha-Nichiro Corporation, Trident Seafoods, or Unisea Seafoods) will not be counted against the IPQ use cap of the facility or the facility owners. The custom processing arrangement exemption allows these processors to custom process crab for unaffiliated IPQ holders who have custom processing arrangements with the processors, thereby allowing harvesters to fully harvest and deliver their EBT and WBT Class A IFQ crab to IPQ holders with a custom processing arrangement at facilities operating in these fisheries.
At its June 2016 meeting, the North Pacific Fishery Management Council (Council) voted to recommend Amendment 47, which creates a custom processing arrangement exemption for EBT and WBT crab. The Council recognized that consolidation within the Tanner crab processing sector has constrained the ability of the processing sector to process all of the EBT and WBT Class A IFQ crab without exceeding the IPQ use caps. The Council determined that the likelihood of additional unique and unaffiliated processing facilities entering the Tanner crab processing sector for the 2016/2017 crab fishing year or the near future is low, creating a significant risk that the portion of the Tanner crab allocation in excess of the caps will not be processed. Without the ability to have all EBT and WBT Class A IFQ processed, that portion of the Tanner crab allocation in excess of the caps will likely go unharvested because sufficient processing facilities do not currently exist in the Bering Sea region.
The anticipated effects of this final rule include allowing the full processing of all EBT and WBT Class A IFQ crab
The Council and NMFS considered whether this final rule could result in further consolidation of Tanner crab processing to fewer facilities than currently operating. Since EBT and WBT crab are not subject to regionalization or ROFR, there would be no regulatory limitations preventing all of the EBT and WBT IPQ crab from being processed by one company at one facility. The Council and NMFS determined that operational factors make it unlikely that additional consolidation will occur. First, the extent to which the exemption allows further consolidation depends on whether processors choose to enter custom processing arrangements with IPQ holders. The choice to enter those arrangements depends largely on the benefit to the IPQ holder arising from using the IPQ at the holder's own facility or custom processing the IPQ at a plant unaffiliated with the IPQ holder. Collectively, the three companies and their facilities that process Tanner crab have substantial holdings of IPQ (see Table 2-3 of the RIR). It is likely more economical for these companies to process the IPQ they hold at their facilities rather than to negotiate a custom processing agreement with another processor, which reduces the likelihood of further consolidation.
Second, the extent of further consolidation depends on the business decisions that participants make regarding their participation in other crab fisheries, such as Bristol Bay red king crab and Bering Sea
Third, processors are likely to maintain processing facilities near the fishing grounds. Proximity to the fishing grounds may help prevent or reduce deadloss—dead crab landed at the dock, which is associated with increased transit time between the fishing grounds and offload. Additionally, proximity to the fishing grounds can help harvesters maximize their efficiency and prevent the need to spend significant time transiting to and from processing facilities for offload. Given these factors, the Council and NMFS concluded that additional consolidation of processing activity in the EBT and WBT fisheries is unlikely under current and projected operations.
This final rule will provide a benefit to processors willing to custom process Class A IFQ for EBT and WBT crab, and those IPQ holders who do not own processing facilities and must have their crab custom processed. The custom processing arrangement exemption for EBT and WBT IPQ crab avoids the adverse economic impacts created by the 30-percent IPQ use cap for Tanner crab fisheries to IPQ holders who own and operate processing facilities. This final rule will also benefit those IPQ holders who do not have processing facilities since their IPQ could be custom processed by an existing facility and their custom processing arrangement will not count against the 30-percent IPQ use cap (see Section 2.9.2 of the RIR for further information).
This final rule will benefit harvesters who hold Class A IFQ for EBT and WBT crab. Without this rule, harvesters with EBT or WBT Class A IFQ likely will be unable to fully harvest allocations provided to them due to IPQ use cap limitations imposed on IPQ holders and the three existing processors that receive EBT and WBT crab. This rule allows Class A IFQ holders in the EBT and WBT crab fisheries to fully harvest their IFQ allocations, because those Class A IFQ holders who match with IPQ holders who do not own processing facilities will be able to deliver their IFQ to a processing facility that has a custom processing arrangement with that IPQ holder.
The effects of this final rule on communities and community sustainability are expected to be beneficial relative to no action. This final rule continues the delivery of EBT and WBT Class A IFQ crab to processors at facilities owned by the Maruha-Nichiro Corporation, Trident Seafoods, or UniSea Seafoods in BSAI communities. This final rule is expected to maintain the amount of income generated and the amount of tax revenues in communities where existing processing facilities are located.
Although this final rule provides a benefit to the existing three processors with processing facilities, this final rule does not preclude the ability for new, unaffiliated processing companies to enter the EBT and WBT fisheries, establish custom processing arrangements with IPQ holders, and process EBT and WBT crab. Section 2.9.2 of the RIR provides more detail on the potential for new unaffiliated processing companies to enter the EBT and WBT crab fisheries.
This final rule also modifies § 680.42(b)(7)(ii)(B) to clarify the meaning of the phrase “on the effective date of this rule” that occurs in § 680.42(b)(7)(ii)(B). The phrase “on the effective date of this rule” in § 680.42(b)(7)(ii)(B) refers to the effective date of the regulations that implemented Amendment 27 to the Crab FMP and that added § 680.42(b)(7)(ii)(B) to the regulations (74 FR 25449, May 28, 2009). Regulations implementing Amendment 27 to the Crab FMP were published on May 28, 2009, and became effective on June 29, 2009. The phrase “on the effective date of this rule” was inadvertently left in the regulatory text and not replaced with the actual effective date of the rule. This final rule revises the phrase “on the effective date of this rule” to read “on June 29, 2009” to reduce any confusion about the applicable date for the requirements in § 680.42(b)(7)(ii)(B). This minor correction does not substantively change the intent or effect of § 680.42(b)(7)(ii)(B).
The commenter does not provide any data to support the assertion that unreported harvest is occurring. NMFS does not have any data that indicates that unreported harvest is occurring. The NOAA Office of Law Enforcement allocates law enforcement resources as it deems necessary and appropriate to ensure adequate enforcement.
The decision to enter into a custom processing arrangement is a voluntary decision made by each processor. The commenter incorrectly stated that the RIR concluded that processor consolidation would impede the development of new products. Section 2.9.2 of the RIR states that the theoretical interest of processor `A' in the development of new products but the disinterest of other processors in new product forms may be a reason why processor `A' would not engage in custom processing arrangements with other processors, thereby inhibiting further consolidation in the sector. Although the commenter states that there has been a “quantifiable” lack of new product forms due to processor consolidation, NMFS does not have data to determine the range of product forms provided by crab processors, and cannot determine if consolidation in the number of processors in the fishery has resulted in fewer new product forms. Although the commenter's suggestion to initiate a new analysis and FMP amendment to assess this issue is outside of the scope of this final rule, when the Council adopted Amendment 47 it also requested Council staff to prepare a discussion paper that will review various approaches to processor consolidation within the EBT and WBT crab fisheries, such as raising the Tanner crab IPQ use cap to 40%; converting Class A IFQ to Class B IFQ; and applying a custom processing arrangement exemption only in years when processing capacity is not sufficient (
The Administrator, Alaska Region, NMFS, has determined that Amendment 47 to the Crab FMP and this final rule are necessary for the conservation and management of the EBT and WBT fisheries and are consistent with the Magnuson-Stevens Act and other applicable law.
This final rule has been determined to be not significant for the purposes of Executive Order 12866.
Section 212 of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 states that, for each rule or group of related rules for which an agency is required to prepare a final regulatory flexibility analysis, the agency shall publish one or more guides to assist small entities in complying with the rule, and shall designate such publications as “small entity compliance guides.” The agency shall explain the actions a small entity is required to take to comply with a rule or group of rules. The preamble to the proposed rule (81 FR 65615, September 23, 2016) and the preamble to this final rule serve as the small entity compliance guide for this action.
Section 604 of the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) requires an agency to prepare a final regulatory flexibility analysis (FRFA) after being required by that section or any other law to publish a general notice of proposed rulemaking and when an agency promulgates a final rule under section 553 of Title 5 of the U.S. Code. The following paragraphs constitute the FRFA for this action.
This FRFA incorporates the Initial Regulatory Flexibility Analysis (IRFA), a summary of the significant issues raised by the public comments, NMFS' responses to those comments, and a summary of the analyses completed to support the action. Analytical requirements for the FRFA are described in the RFA, section 604(a)(1) through (6). The FRFA must contain:
1. A statement of the need for, and objectives of, the rule;
2. A statement of the significant issues raised by the public comments in response to the IRFA, a statement of the assessment of the agency of such issues, and a statement of any changes made in the proposed rule as a result of such comments;
3. The response of the agency to any comments filed by the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration (SBA) in response to the proposed rule, and a detailed statement of any change made to the proposed rule in the final rule as a result of the comments;
4. A description and an estimate of the number of small entities to which the rule will apply, or an explanation of why no such estimate is available;
5. A description of the projected reporting, recordkeeping, and other compliance requirements of the rule, including an estimate of the classes of small entities which will be subject to the requirement and the type of professional skills necessary for preparation of the report or record; and
6. A description of the steps the agency has taken to minimize the significant economic impact on small entities consistent with the stated objectives of applicable statutes, including a statement of the factual, policy, and legal reasons for selecting the alternative adopted in the final rule and why each one of the other significant alternatives to the rule considered by the agency which affect the impact on small entities was rejected.
The “universe” of entities to be considered in a FRFA generally includes only those small entities that can reasonably be expected to be directly regulated by the action. If the effects of the rule fall primarily on a distinct segment of the industry, or portion thereof (
In preparing a FRFA, an agency may provide either a quantifiable or numerical description of the effects of a rule (and alternatives to the rule), or more general descriptive statements, if quantification is not practicable or reliable.
NMFS published the proposed rule to implement Amendment 47 on September 23, 2016 (81 FR 65615). An IRFA was prepared and summarized in the Classification section of the preamble to the proposed rule. The comment period on the proposed rule ended on October 24, 2016. NMFS received 4 comments on Amendment 47 and the proposed rule. None of these comments raise issues in response to the IRFA. The Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the SBA did not file any comments on the IRFA or the proposed rule. The public comments received for Amendment 47 were mostly supportive of the action. One comment requested further analysis of how the development of new products by some processors may not be possible or advantageous under custom processing arrangements. However, under this final rule, custom processing arrangements are not required, but rather remain a voluntary business arrangement that a processor may choose to enter. No changes were made to this rule or the RFA analysis as a result of public comments.
For RFA purposes only, NMFS has established a small business size standard for businesses, including their affiliates, whose primary industry is commercial fishing (see 50 CFR 200.2). A business primarily engaged in commercial fishing (NAICS code 11411) is classified as a small business if it is independently owned and operated, is not dominant in its field of operation (including its affiliates), and has combined annual receipts not in excess of $11 million for all its affiliated operations worldwide.
The SBA has established size criteria for all other major industry sectors in the United States, including fish processing businesses. A seafood processor is a small business if it is independently owned and operated, not dominant in its field of operation, and employs 750 or fewer persons on a full-time, part-time, temporary, or other basis, at all its affiliated operations worldwide. A wholesale business servicing the fishing industry is a small business if it employs 100 or fewer persons on a full-time, part-time, temporary, or other basis, at all its affiliated operations worldwide.
The entities directly regulated by this action are those entities that process EBT and WBT crab. It does not include entities that harvest Class A IFQ EBT and WBT crab. From 2012 through
This action will also directly regulate registered crab receivers (RCRs) as all Program crab must be received by an RCR. Some RCRs are the same entities that process Tanner crab, and others are those that have their Tanner crab custom processed. In 2015/2016, there were 10 RCRs that received Tanner crab, seven of which are considered large entities due to their affiliations with large seafood processing companies. The remaining three are considered small entities because they are affiliated with not-for-profit organizations.
This action does not require any new recordkeeping and reporting requirements, or any modification of existing requirements.
The Council and NMFS did not identify any alternatives to the action alternative that would minimize the impact on small entities better than the action alternative and still meet the objectives for this final rule. The impacts on small entities are defined in the IRFA for this action and are not repeated here. The action alternative will allow the full harvest and processing of the Tanner crab total allowable catch. This action is not expected to have negative economic impacts on the small entities directly impacted by this action.
The Council considered a limited duration option that would have created a temporary rule to provide a fix for the near term, but would require the Council to take further action if it intended to create a more long-term revision. The Council did not select this option as it already has the ability to examine processing activity in the Tanner crab fishery at any time and take future action on this subject. This option would not have had less economic impact on small entities than the action alternative, as the action alternative is not expected to have negative impacts.
Alaska, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
For the reasons set out in the preamble, 50 CFR part 680 is amended as follows:
16 U.S.C. 1862; Pub. L. 109-241; Pub. L. 109-479.
(b) * * *
(7) * * *
(ii) The IPQ crab meets the conditions in paragraphs (b)(7)(ii)(A) and (B) of this section or the IPQ crab meets the conditions in paragraph (b)(7)(ii)(C) of this section:
(A) The IPQ crab is:
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(B) That IPQ crab is processed at:
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Grain Inspection, Packers and Stockyards Administration, USDA.
Proposed rule.
The Department of Agriculture's (USDA) Grain Inspection, Packers and Stockyards Administration (GIPSA), Packers and Stockyards Program (P&SP) is proposing to amend the regulations issued under the Packers and Stockyards Act, 1921, as amended and supplemented (P&S Act). The proposed amendments will clarify the conduct or action by packers, swine contractors, or live poultry dealers that GIPSA considers unfair, unjustly discriminatory, or deceptive and a violation of section 202(a) of the P&S Act. The proposed amendments will also identify criteria that the Secretary will consider in determining whether conduct or action by packers, swine contractors, or live poultry dealers constitutes an undue or unreasonable preference or advantage and a violation of section 202(b) of the P&S Act.
This proposed rule identifies the conduct or action that is a per se violation of section 202(a) of the P&S Act, includes an illustrative list of conduct or action, absent demonstration of a legitimate business justification, GIPSA believes is unfair, unjustly discriminatory, or deceptive and a violation of section 202(a) of the P&S Act regardless of harm to competition, and clarifies that any conduct or action that harms or is likely to harm competition is a violation of section 202(a) of the P&S Act. The proposed rule also includes criteria the Secretary will consider in determining whether conduct or action constitutes an undue or unreasonable preference or advantage and a violation of section 202(b) of the P&S Act.
We will consider comments we receive by February 21, 2017.
We invite you to submit comments on this proposed rule. You may submit comments by any of the following methods:
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S. Brett Offutt, Director, Litigation and Economic Analysis Division, P&SP, GIPSA, 1400 Independence Ave. SW., Washington, DC 20250, (202) 720-7051,
In June 2010, GIPSA proposed a new regulation designated as § 201.210. Paragraph (a) in that regulation introduced a list of examples of conduct that GIPSA considered unfair, unjustly discriminatory, or deceptive under section 202(a) of the P&S Act. GIPSA intended the first seven examples in the list to exemplify conduct that would violate section 202(a) regardless of proof of harm or likely harm to competition. The seven (7) examples proposed were as follows: (1) An unjustified material breach of a contractual duty or an action or omission that a reasonable person would consider unscrupulous, deceitful, or in bad faith in connection with any transaction in or contract involving the production, maintenance, marketing or sale of livestock or poultry; (2) a retaliatory action or omission, such as coercion, intimidation, or disadvantage, by a packer, swine contractor, or live poultry dealer in response to the lawful expression, association, or action of a poultry grower, livestock producer, or swine production contract grower; (3) a refusal to provide to a poultry grower or swine production contract grower statistical information and data (
Comments in opposition to proposed § 201.210 argued that the regulation was unclear, vague, and ambiguous. Some questioned whether the lack of clarity would make it impossible to determine whether a company was behaving in compliance with § 201.210. Other comments questioned whether it allowed for a balancing of interests. As
In this new proposed rule, GIPSA restructured § 201.210 into three paragraphs designated by letters (a) through (c). Paragraph (a) addresses “per se” violations of section 202(a), which are those behaviors specifically identified with the P&S Act as unfair, unjustly discriminatory, or deceptive practices or devices. A delay in payment or attempt to delay payment for livestock purchases by a market agency, dealer, or packer is specifically identified as an “unfair practice” in Section 409(c) of the P&S Act. When a packer violates section 409(c) of the P&S Act (7 U.S.C. 228b), the conduct is also a “per se” violation of section 202(a) of the P&S Act. Likewise, delays in payment or attempts to delay payment by a live poultry dealer are “per se” violations because such conduct is identified as an “unfair practice” in section 410(b) of the P&S Act (7 U.S.C. 228b-1). Paragraph (b) provides a list of examples of conduct or action that absent demonstration of a legitimate business justification, GIPSA considers as unfair, unjustly discriminatory, or deceptive and a violation of section 202(a) of the P&S Act whether or not the conduct harms or is likely to harm competition. Paragraph (c) states that any conduct or action that harms or is likely to harm competition is unfair, unjustly discriminatory, or deceptive and is a violation of section 202(a).
Proposed § 201.210 is consistent with USDA's long held position that a showing of harm or likely harm to competition is not required for all violations of section 202(a) of the P&S Act and with the scope of section 202(a) as set forth in the aforementioned interim final rule, § 201.3(a), which also appears in this edition of the
GIPSA is proposing § 201.210(a) to affirmatively assert that any conduct or action by a packer, swine contractor, or live poultry dealer that the P&S Act explicitly deems to be unfair, unjustly discriminatory, or deceptive is a violation of section 202(a) without a showing of harm or likely harm to competition. Examples of such conduct or action that would fall under this section are in sections 409(c) and 410(b) of the P&S Act, which state that a packer and live poultry dealer, respectively, have engaged in an “unfair practice” when they fail to pay timely for livestock or poultry.
GIPSA is proposing § 201.210(b) as a non-exhaustive list of the types of conduct or action that GIPSA believes is unfair, unjustly discriminatory, or deceptive and a violation of section 202(a) of the P&S Act regardless of whether the conduct harms or is likely to harm competition. Neither the P&S Act nor the regulations have ever specifically defined the terms “unfair,” “unjustly discriminatory,” or “deceptive.” This list is intended to reduce confusion regarding conduct that is unfair, unjustly discriminatory, or deceptive, without harming or the likelihood of harming competition. This list provides a sufficient number of examples to convey an understanding of this category of conduct and is not intended to list all conduct that would fit this category. These examples are violations if there is no legitimate business justification for the conduct. Legitimate business justifications would allow certain conduct that otherwise would be deemed a violation of section 202(a).
Proposed § 201.210(b)(1) identifies retaliatory action or threat of retaliatory action by a packer, swine contractor or live poultry dealer as violations of section 202(a) when done in response to lawful communication, association, or assertion of rights by a livestock producer, swine production contract grower, or poultry grower. The threat of terminating a contract in retaliation for some action may be sufficient unfair conduct to violate the P&S Act. These retaliatory acts or threats of retaliatory action may be directed toward a single grower or small group of growers, causing them harm, but not having significant effects on competition. For this reason, we propose to include both “retaliatory action” and the “threat of retaliatory action” in proposed § 201.210(b)(1), as an example of conduct or action that is unfair, unjustly discriminatory, or deceptive and a violation of section 202(a) of the P&S Act regardless of whether the conduct harms or is likely to harm competition.
Proposed § 201.210(b)(2) identifies conduct or action that attempts to contractually limit the legal rights or remedies afforded by law to a livestock producer, swine production contract grower, or poultry grower as unfair, unjustly discriminatory or deceptive in violation of section 202(a) of the P&S Act. This proposed paragraph only contains an illustrative list of examples of such conduct or action limiting the legal contractual rights and remedies afforded to livestock producers, swine production contract growers, or poultry growers. This list is intended to provide a sufficient number of examples of the types of legal rights and remedies intended to be protected under this section. It is an illustrative list and is not intended to list all applicable legal rights and remedies.
Under proposed § 201.210(b)(2)(i), GIPSA considers conduct or action that contractually limits a livestock producer, swine production contract grower, or poultry grower's right to a trial by jury as unfair, unjustly discriminatory, or deceptive and a violation of section 202(a) of the P&S Act. Proposed § 201.210(b)(2)(i) provides for an exception when the livestock producer, swine production contract grower, or poultry grower has agreed to be bound by arbitration provisions in a contract that complies with § 201.218(a) and that provides a meaningful opportunity to participate fully in the arbitration process after applying the criteria outlined in § 201.218(b).
The 2008 Farm Bill added section 209,
Under proposed §§ 201.210(b)(2)(iii) and (iv), GIPSA considers any conduct or action that contractually limits a livestock producer's, swine production contract grower's, or poultry grower's right to pursue all damages available under applicable law, or right to seek an award of attorney fees, if such an award is available, under applicable law, respectively, as unfair, unjustly discriminatory, or deceptive in violation
Proposed §§ 201.210(b)(3) through (7) identify the failure to act in compliance or in accordance with other specified regulations as conduct or action that is unfair, unjustly discriminatory, or deceptive and a violation of section 202(a) of the P&S Act. Section 201.210(b)(3) clarifies that failing to comply with the requirements of § 201.100 is unfair, unjustly discriminatory or deceptive in violation of section 202(a) of the P&S Act. Regulation § 201.100 specifies certain information and notices that must be provided to poultry growers. The live poultry dealer has control over most, if not all, of the information relevant to the grower's operations. This information is critical to the grower in operating his or her business and places the grower at a great disadvantage without this information. The 2008 Farm Bill directed GIPSA to, among other things, promulgate regulations establishing criteria the Secretary will consider in determining: (1) Whether a live poultry dealer has provided reasonable notice to poultry growers of any suspension of the delivery of birds under a poultry growing arrangement; (2) when a requirement of additional capital investments over the life of a poultry growing arrangement or swine production contract constitutes a violation of the P&S Act; (3) whether a live poultry dealer or swine production contractor has provided a reasonable period of time for a poultry grower or a swine production contract grower to remedy a breach of their arrangement or contract that could lead to the termination of the poultry growing arrangement or swine production contact; and (4) whether the arbitration process provided in a contract provides a grower or producer a meaningful opportunity to participate fully in the arbitration process. As directed by the 2008 Farm Bill, GIPSA published the regulations establishing the criteria in a final rule on December 9, 2011 [76 FR 76874]. The regulations are codified in 9 CFR part 201 as 9 CFR 201.215,
Existing regulations under the P&S Act govern the weighing of livestock, poultry, and feed (§§ 201.55, 201.71, 201.72, 201.73, 201.73-1, 201.76, 201.82, 201.99, 201.108-1). The regulations at § 201.71 also address the proper use of carcass merit evaluation systems and devices. Packers, swine contractors, and live poultry dealers use sophisticated scales and electronic devices to determine weight and quality characteristics of live animals and carcasses. The weights and quality measurements are used in formulas that determine payment to livestock producers and poultry growers. Failure to properly use these devices can affect producer and grower payment. GIPSA has always considered inaccurate weighing and the use of inaccurate scales to be unfair conduct. This proposed rule sets forth GIPSA's position on these practices as unfair, unjustly discriminatory or deceptive in violation of section 202(a) of the P&S Act.
The regulations regarding the weighing of livestock, poultry, and feed require that packers, swine contractors, and live poultry dealers properly install, maintain, inspect, and operate scales to ensure livestock producers, swine production contract growers, and poultry growers are paid on accurate weights. Inaccurate weighing and inaccurate scales can have a significant impact on a poultry grower or livestock producer. Even slight inaccuracies can result in large financial losses when applied over an entire flock or large number of livestock. GIPSA considers, and now proposes for clarification, the failure to accurately weigh poultry and livestock to be a violation of section 202(a) of the P&S Act.
In 2014, GIPSA incorporated by reference applicable requirements of the 2013 edition of the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) Handbook 44. The referenced requirements include standards for livestock, meat, and poultry evaluation systems and/or devices. These standards reference specifications established by the American Society for Testing Materials (ASTM) International. By incorporating the standards in Handbook 44, GIPSA requires regulated entities to comply with the standards. Misuse of these systems and devices or use of inaccurate devices can cause significant harm to a single producer or group of producers without necessarily harming competition. GIPSA considers such harm to producers unfair, unjustly discriminatory or deceptive in violation of section 202(a) of the P&S Act. GIPSA is therefore proposing to add, as a final example of an unfair practice that violates section 202(a) of the P&S Act that does not require a showing of harm or likely harm to competition, a failure to ensure accurate evaluation systems or devices at § 201.210(b)(9).
The specific conduct listed in this proposed rule violates section 202(a) of the P&S Act regardless of whether the conduct or action harms or is likely to harm competition. This list does not imply that conduct that harms competition or is likely to harm competition would not also violate the P&S Act. To make this clear, GIPSA is proposing to add § 201.210(c), which clarifies that, absent demonstration of a legitimate business justification, any conduct or action that harms or is likely to harm competition is an “unfair,” “unjustly discriminatory,” or “deceptive” practice or device and a violation of section 202(a) of the P&S Act. However, nothing in this provision would apply to mergers and acquisitions by packers, swine contractors, or live poultry dealers.
Section 11006(1) of the 2008 Farm Bill directed GIPSA to amend the
Throughout the history of the P&S Act, an “undue or unreasonable preference or advantage” has been determined according to the facts of each case within the purposes of the P&S Act. In proposed § 201.211, GIPSA proposed the following three (3) criteria the Secretary could consider to determine if an undue or unreasonable preference or advantage, or an undue or unreasonable prejudice or disadvantage, had occurred in violation of the P&S Act: (1) Whether contract terms based on number, volume or other condition, or contracts with price determined in whole or in part by the volume of livestock sold are made available to all poultry growers, livestock producers or swine production contract growers who individually or collectively meet the conditions set by the contract; (2) whether price premiums based on standards for product quality, time of delivery and production methods are offered in a manner that does not discriminate against a producer or group of producers that can meet the same standards; and (3) whether information regarding acquiring, handling, processing, and quality of livestock is disclosed to all producers when it is disclosed to one or more producers.
Many commenters supported proposed § 201.211 and specifically the criterion related to contract terms based on number, volume or other conditions. These commenters saw this section as a way to address potential disadvantages to small and medium-scale producers.
GIPSA received several comments expressing concerns regarding the practicality of the proposed criteria on contract distribution by the packer, swine contractor, or live poultry dealer to all livestock producers, swine production contract growers, or live poultry dealers. Some commenters also expressed a concern with the ambiguity and lack of clarity in certain criteria.
Many commenters expressed concerns that the proposed criterion related to price premiums and related types of contracts would have the unintended consequence of either directly or indirectly eliminating alternative marketing arrangements (AMA) Livestock producers use AMAs to market their livestock to a packer at least 14 days prior to slaughter under a verbal or written agreement. Many commenters opined that the proposed regulations would increase the potential for litigation thereby jeopardizing the continued use of these arrangements. The rapid growth of value-added segments of the livestock industry (
In this new proposed rule, GIPSA would add new § 201.211, “
In response to concerns raised in comments received in 2010 about ambiguity and clarity, GIPSA deleted the criterion regarding contract terms based on number, volume, or other conditions. The originally proposed criteria related to price premiums and disclosing information have also been deleted. Additionally, we propose to add criteria addressing types of conduct considered to be favorable toward some producers and growers as compared to others.
Under proposed § 201.211(a), the Secretary will consider whether a packer, swine contractor, or live poultry dealer treats one or more livestock producers, swine production contract growers, or poultry growers more favorably as compared to others similarly situated who have engaged in lawful communication, association, or assertion of their rights. Producers and growers are entitled to exercise their rights of speech and association, such as forming or joining a contract growers' union, without fear of experiencing disparate treatment. Packers, swine contractors or live poultry dealers who treat some producers and growers more favorably than producers or growers who choose to exercise their rights are giving an undue preference or advantage to a group of producers or growers to the detriment of others. GIPSA believes this conduct violates section 202(b) of the P&S Act and is proposing this regulation to clarify its position.
Under proposed § 201.211(b), the Secretary will consider whether a packer, swine contractor, or live poultry dealer treats one or more livestock producers, swine production contract growers, or poultry growers more favorably as compared to others similarly situated who the packer, swine contractor, or live poultry dealer contend have taken an action or engaged in conduct that violates any applicable law, rule or regulation related to the livestock or poultry operation without a reasonable basis to determine that the livestock producer, swine production contract grower, or poultry grower committed the violation. GIPSA has become aware of situations in which a packer, swine contractor, or live poultry dealer has terminated a contract with a producer or grower based on an allegation that some law or regulation was violated. For example, a live poultry dealer might terminate a poultry grower's contract on the basis that the live poultry dealer believes the poultry grower violated some aspect of the Clean Water Act. Unless there is some reasonable basis for such a determination, such as a finding by a government agency charged with enforcing the Clean Water Act, GIPSA believes treating growers differently under these circumstances would violate the prohibition of section 202(b) against giving undue preferences or advantages to some producers and growers as compared to other producers and growers.
Under proposed § 201.211(c), the Secretary will consider whether a packer, swine contractor, or live poultry dealer treats one or more livestock producers, swine production contract growers, or poultry growers more favorably as compared to others similarly situated for an arbitrary reason unrelated to the livestock or poultry operation. This is necessary to prevent disparate treatment for any reason unrelated to the sale or production of livestock or poultry. If the packer, swine contractor, or live poultry dealer demonstrates a legitimate business reason for the action, the action would not violate section 202(b) of the P&S Act.
Under proposed § 201.211(d), the Secretary will consider whether a packer, swine contractor, or live poultry
Finally under proposed § 201.211(e), the Secretary will consider whether the packer, swine contractor, or live poultry dealer has demonstrated a legitimate business justification for conduct or action that may otherwise constitute an undue or unreasonable preference or advantage. A packer, swine contractor, or live poultry dealer may have a legitimate business reason for treating some livestock producers, swine production contract growers, or poultry growers more favorably. In evaluating the criteria proposed above, the Secretary will also consider the proffered justification for the conduct in determining whether the packer swine contractor, or live poultry dealer has violated section 202(b) of the P&S Act.
This rulemaking has been determined to be significant for the purposes of Executive Order 12866 and, therefore, has been reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget. GIPSA is proposing to make two changes to the regulations. The first will help to clarify the types of conduct considered unfair, unjustly discriminatory, or deceptive in violation of § 202(a) of the P&S Act. The second provides criteria, in response to requirements of the 2008 Farm Bill, to consider in determining whether a packer, swine contractor, or live poultry dealer has engaged in conduct resulting in an undue preference or advantage to one or more livestock producers or poultry growers in violation of § 202(b) of the P&S Act. As a required part of the regulatory process, GIPSA prepared an economic analysis of proposed §§ 201.210 and 201.211. The first section of the analysis is an introduction and a discussion of the prevalence of contracting in the cattle, hog, and poultry industries as well as a discussion of potential market failures. Next, GIPSA discusses three regulatory alternatives it considered and presents a summary cost-benefit analysis of each alternative. GIPSA then discusses the impact on small businesses.
GIPSA issued a proposed rule on June 22, 2010, which included §§ 201.3, 201.210, and 201.211. GIPSA has revised the 2010 versions of §§ 201.210 and 201.211 and is now proposing new §§ 201.210 and 201.211 and issuing § 201.3(a) as an interim final rule. Section 201.3(a) states that certain conduct or action can be found to violate sections 202(a) and/or 202(b) of the P&S Act without a finding of harm or likely harm to competition. Section 201.3(a) formalizes GIPSA's longstanding position that, in some cases, violations of sections 202(a) and 202(b) can be proven without demonstrating harm or likely harm to competition. Section 201.210, among other things, provides clarity to the industry regarding the conduct or action, absent demonstration of a legitimate business justification, that constitutes an unfair, unjustly discriminatory, or deceptive practice or device and a violation of section 202(a) regardless of harm to competition. Section 201.211 provides clarity to the industry regarding the conduct or action that constitutes an undue or unreasonable preference or advantage and a violation of section 202(b) by establishing criteria that the Secretary will consider in making such a determination. GIPSA believes the proposed regulations will serve to strengthen the protection afforded the nation's livestock producers and growers while promoting fairness and equity among industry segments.
Proposed § 201.210(a) specifies that any conduct or action by a packer, swine contractor, or live poultry dealer that is explicitly deemed to be an “unfair,” “unjustly discriminatory,” or “deceptive” practice or device by the P&S Act is a per se violation of section 202(a). Section 201.210(b) provides examples of conduct or action that, absent demonstration of a legitimate business justification, are “unfair,” “unjustly discriminatory,” or “deceptive” and a violation of section 202(a) regardless of whether the conduct or action harms or is likely to harm competition. Section 201.210(c) specifies that any conduct or action that harms or is likely to harm competition is an “unfair,” “unjustly discriminatory,” or “deceptive” practice or device and a violation of section 202(a). Many of the examples provided in § 201.210(b) relate to conduct or action that limits, by contract, the legal rights and remedies afforded by law to poultry growers, swine production contract growers, and livestock producers. Other examples include conduct or action that could be violations of section 202(a) of the P&S Act upon application and consideration of criteria contained within other specified regulations.
As required by the 2008 Farm Bill, proposed § 201.211 specifies criteria the Secretary will consider when determining whether an undue or unreasonable preference or advantage has occurred in violation of section 202(b). The first four (4) criteria require the Secretary to consider whether one or more livestock producers, swine production contract growers, or poultry growers is treated more favorably as compared to other similarly situated livestock producers, swine contract growers, or poultry growers. The fifth criterion in § 201.211 requires the Secretary to consider whether the packer, swine contractor, or live poultry dealer has demonstrated a legitimate business justification for conduct or action that may otherwise be an undue or unreasonable preference or advantage.
Sections 201.210 and 201.211 focus heavily on contracts between livestock producers and packers, swine production contract growers and swine contractors, and poultry growers and live poultry dealers. A discussion of contracting in these industries is, therefore, useful in explaining the need for these additional regulations.
Contracting is an important and prevalent feature in the production and marketing of livestock and poultry. Several provisions in §§ 201.210 and 201.211 affect livestock and poultry grown or marketed under contract. For example, under § 201.210(b)(2), absent demonstration of a legitimate business justification, GIPSA considers conduct or action by packers, swine contractors, or live poultry dealers that limit or attempt to limit, by contract, the legal rights and remedies of livestock producers, swine production contract growers, or poultry growers as unfair, unjustly discriminatory, or deceptive and a violation of section 202(a) regardless of whether the conduct or action harms or is likely to harm competition. Section 201.211 establishes criteria the Secretary will consider in determining whether conduct or action by a packer, swine contractor, or live poultry dealer
The type of contracting varies among cattle, hogs, and poultry. Broilers, the largest segment of poultry, are almost exclusively grown under production contracts, in which the live poultry dealers own the birds and provide poultry growers with feed and medication to raise and care for the birds until they reach the desired market size. Poultry growers provide the housing, labor, water, electricity, fuel, and provide for waste removal. Cattle production contracts are not subject to the jurisdiction of the P&S Act. Hog production falls between these two extremes. As shown in Table 1 below, over 96 percent of all broilers and over 40 percent of all hogs are grown under contractual arrangements. Similarly, swine contractors typically own the slaughter hogs and sell the finished hogs to pork packers. The swine contractors typically provide feed and medication to the swine production contract growers who own the growing facilities and provide growing services. With the exception of turkey production, the use of contract growing arrangements has remained relatively stable over the last years that the Census of Agriculture has published data on commodities raised and delivered under production contracts as Table 1 shows.
Another
USDA's Agricultural Marketing Service (AMS) reports the number of cattle sold to packers under formula, forward contract, and negotiated pricing mechanisms. The following table illustrates the prevalence of contracting in the marketing of fed cattle. Formula pricing methods and forward contracts are two forms of AMA contracts. Thus, the first two columns in Table 2 are cattle marketed under contract and the third column represents the spot market for fed cattle. The data in Table 2 show that the contracting of cattle has increased since 2005. Approximately 35 percent of fed cattle were marketed under contracts in 2005. By 2015, the percentage of fed cattle marketed to packers under contracts had increased to almost 75 percent.
As
Similar to cattle, the percentage of hogs sold under marketing contracts has increased since 2005 to over 97 percent in 2015. The spot market for hogs has declined to 2.6 percent in 2015. As these data demonstrate, almost all hogs are marketed under some type of marketing contract.
Contracts have many benefits. They help farmers and livestock producers manage price and production risks, elicit the production of products with specific quality attributes by tying prices to those attributes, and facilitate the smooth the flow of commodities to processing plants encouraging more efficient use of farm and processing capacities. Agricultural contracts can also lead to improvements in efficiency throughout the supply chain for products by providing farmers with incentives to deliver products consumers desire and produce products in ways that reduce processing costs and, ultimately, retail prices.
In 2007, RTI International conducted a comprehensive study of marketing practices in the livestock and red meat industries from farmers to retailers (the RTI Study).
The RTI Study found that increased economic efficiencies came from less volatility in volume and more intensive use of production and processing facilities, meaning less capital, labor, and feed per pound of meat produced. Increased economic efficiencies also came from reduced transaction costs and from sending price signals to better match the meat attributes to consumer demand. Consumers benefit from lower meat prices and from getting meat with desired attributes. In turn, the consumer benefits increase livestock demand, which provides benefits to livestock producers.
As the above discussion highlights, there are important benefits associated with the use of agriculture contracts in the cattle, hog, and poultry industries. However, if there are large disparities in the bargaining power among contracting parties resulting from size differences between contracting parties or the use of market power by one of the contracting parties, the contracts may have detrimental effects on one of the contracting parties and may result in inefficiencies in the marketplace.
For example, a contract that ties a grower to a single purchaser of a specialized commodity, even if the contract provides for fair compensation to the grower, still leaves the grower subject to default risks should the contractor fail. Another example is a contract that covers a shorter term than the life of the capital (a poultry house, for example). The grower may face the hold-up risk that the contractor may require additional capital investments or may impose lower returns at the time of contract renewal. Hold-up risk is a potential market failure and is discussed in detail in the next section. These risks may be heightened when there are no alternative buyers for the grower to switch to, or when the capital investment is specific to the original buyer.
The data in the table show that 52 percent of broiler growers, accounting for 56 percent of total production, report having only one or two integrators in their local areas. This limited integrator choice may accentuate the contract risks. A 2006 survey indicated that growers facing a single integrator received 7 to 8 percent less compensation, on average, than farmers located in areas with 4 or more integrators.
Many beef, pork, and poultry processing markets face barriers to entry including; (1) Economies of scale; (2) high asset-specific capital costs with few alternative uses of the capital; (3) brand loyalty of consumers, customer loyalty to the incumbent processors, and high customer switching costs; and (4) governmental food safety, bio-hazard, and environmental regulations. Consistent with these barriers, there has been limited new entry.
However, an area where entry has been successful is in developing and niche markets, such as organic meat and free-range chicken. Developing and niche markets have a relatively small consumer market that is willing to pay higher prices, which supports smaller plant sizes. Niche processors are generally small, however, and do not offer opportunities to many producers or growers.
Economies of scale have resulted in large processing plants in the beef, pork, and poultry processing industries. The barriers to entry discussed above may have limited the entry of new processors, which limits the expansion of choice of processors to which livestock producers market their livestock. Barriers to entry also limit the expansion of choice for poultry growers who have only one or two integrators in their local areas with no potential entrants on the horizon. The limited expansion of choice of processors by livestock producers, swine production contract growers, and poultry growers may limit contract choices and the bargaining power of producers and growers in negotiating contracts.
One indication of potential market power is industry concentration.
The table above shows the concentration of the four largest steer and heifer slaughterers has remained relatively stable between 79 and 86 percent since 2005. Hog and broiler slaughter concentration has also remained relatively steady at over 60 percent and 50 percent, respectively.
The data in Table 5 are estimates of national concentration and the size differences discussed below are also at the national level, but the economic markets for livestock and poultry may be regional or local, and concentration in regional or local areas may be higher than national measures. For example, while poultry markets may appear to be the least concentrated in terms of the four-firm concentration ratios presented above, economic markets for poultry growing services are more localized than markets for fed cattle or hogs, and local concentration in poultry markets is greater than in hog and other livestock
Empirical evidence does not show a strong or simple relationship between increases in concentration and increases in market power. Other factors matter, including the ease of entry by new producers into a concentrated industry and the ease with which retail food buyers or agricultural commodity sellers can change their buying or marketing strategies in response to attempts to exploit market power.
For example, in 2009, the Government Accountability Office (GAO) reviewed 33 studies published since 1990 that were relevant for assessing the effect of concentration on commodity or food prices in the beef, pork, or dairy sectors.
Several studies reviewed by the GAO did find evidence of market power in the retail sector, in that food prices exceeded competitive levels or that commodity prices fell below competitive levels. However, the GAO study also concluded that it was not clear whether market power was caused by concentration or some other factor. In interviews with experts, the GAO report concluded that increases in concentration may raise greater concerns in the future about the potential for market power and the manipulation of commodity or food prices.
Another factor GIPSA considered in proposing §§ 201.210 and 201.211 is the contrast in size and scale between livestock producers, swine production contract growers, and poultry growers and the packers, swine contractors, and live poultry dealers they supply. The disparity in size between large oligopsonistic buyers and atomistic sellers may lead to market power and asymmetric information. The 2012 Census of Agriculture reported 740,978 cattle and calf farms with 69.76 million head of cattle for an average of 94 head per operation. Ninety-one percent of these were family or individually-owned operations.
There were 33,880 cattle feeding operations in 2012 that sold 25.47 million head of fed cattle for an average of 752 head per feedlot. The 607 largest feedlots sold about 75 percent of the fed cattle, and averaged 32,111 head sold. About 80 percent of feedlots were family or individually owned.
The USDA, National Agricultural Statistics Service 2012 livestock slaughter summary reported that in 2012, 113.16 million head of hogs were commercially slaughtered in the United States.
The National Chicken Council states that in 2016, approximately 35 companies were involved in the business of raising, processing, and marketing chicken on a vertically integrated basis, while about 25,000 family farmers had production contracts with those companies.
As the above discussion highlights, there are large size differences between livestock producers and meat packers. There are also large size differences between poultry growers and the live poultry dealers which they supply. These size differences may contribute to unequal bargaining power due to monopsony market power or oligopsony market power, or asymmetric information. The result is that the contracts bargained between the parties may have detrimental effects on livestock producers, swine production contract growers, and poultry growers due to the structural issues discussed above and may result in inefficiencies in the marketplace.
Integrators demand investment in fixed assets from the growers. One example is specific types of poultry houses and equipment the integrator may require the grower to utilize in their growing operations. These investments may improve efficiency by more than the cost of installation. Typically, the improved efficiency would accrue to both the integrator and the grower. The integrator has lower feed costs, and the grower performs better relative to other poultry growers in a settlement group. If the grower bears the entire cost of installation, then the grower should be further compensated for the feed conversion gains that accrue to the integrator. The
Hold-up can have two consequences that result in a misallocation of resources. If the growers do not anticipate hold-up, then growers will spend too much on investments because the integrator who demands them is not incurring any cost. That is inefficient. If the grower does anticipate hold-up, they will act as if the integrator were going to renege even when they were not, resulting in too little investment and loss of potential efficiency gains.
Hold-up can be resolved with increased competition. If an integrator developed a reputation for reneging, and growers could go elsewhere, the initial integrator would be punished and disincentivized from reneging in the future. Unfortunately, in practice, many growers do not have the option of going elsewhere.
Data shown above in Table 4 indicate that there are few integrators in these markets, and that growers have limited choice. Table 5, above, indicates the level of concentration in the livestock and poultry slaughtering industries and shows that integrators and livestock packers operate in concentrated markets.
This rule would allow growers to file complaints against integrators that renege, giving some of the incentive benefit of competition, without compromising the efficiency of having a few large processors.
There are benefits of contracting in the livestock and poultry industries, as well as structural issues that may result in unequal bargaining power and market failures. These structural issues and market failures will be mitigated by relieving plaintiffs from the requirement to demonstrate competitive injury. Because proving competitive injury is difficult and costly, removing that burden will facilitate the use of litigation by producers and growers to address violations of the Packers and Stockyards Act. If growers are able to seek legal remedies, then their contracts are easier to enforce. This will incentivize packers, swine contractors, and integrators to avoid exploitation of market power and asymmetric information, as well as behaviors that result in the market failure of hold-up. The result will be improved efficiency in the livestock and poultry markets.
GIPSA has a clear role to ensure that market failures are mitigated so that livestock and poultry markets remain fair and competitive. Moreover, even assuming that the market organization is efficient from a societal perspective, the disparity in bargaining power between the regulated entities and the producers from whom they purchase may lead to individual cases of unfair, unjustly discriminatory, deceptive, or undue or unreasonable prejudice or disadvantage that result in harm to individual producers but not harm to competition at a market level. Sections 201.210 and 201.211 promote fairness and equity for livestock producers, swine production contract growers, and poultry growers regardless of whether or not harm rises to the level of harm to competition.
GIPSA issued a proposed rule on June 22, 2010, which included §§ 201.3, 201.210, and 201.211. GIPSA considered thousands of comments before proposing the current versions of §§ 201.210 and 201.211. Many of the provisions that contributed to the costs estimated by the Informa Study and the Elam Study are not in the current proposed regulations. The following provisions were in the 2010 rule, but are not in the currently proposed regulations.
• Requirement that packers, live poultry dealers, and swine contractors maintain records justifying differences in prices (§ 201.210(a)(5)).
• Provision prohibiting packers from purchasing livestock from other packers (§ 201.212(c)).
• Requirement that packers offer the same terms to groups of small producers as offered to large producers when the group can collectively meet the same quantity commitments (§ 201.211(a)).
• Requirement that packers refrain from entering into exclusive agreements with livestock dealers (§ 201.212(b)).
• Requirements that packers and live poultry dealers submit sample contracts to GIPSA for posting to the public (§ 201.213).
Additionally, GIPSA adjusted the rule proposed in 2010 to give live poultry dealers more flexibility in suspending the delivery of birds and requiring capital improvements and those adjustments are reflected in current §§ 201.215 and 201.216, respectively, which were finalized in 2011 and modified in 2015. Although many thousands of the comments submitted contained general qualitative assessments of either the costs or benefits of the proposed rule, only two comments systematically described quantitative costs across the rule provisions. Comments from the National Meat Association (NMA) included cost estimates by Informa Economics (the Informa Study). The Informa Study projected costs of $880 million, $401 million, and $362 million for U.S. cattle and beef, hogs and pork, and poultry industries respectively.
Comments from the National Chicken Council included cost estimates prepared by Dr. Thomas E. Elam, President, FarmEcon LLC (the Elam Study).
Estimates of the costs in the Informa Study and the Elam Study were largely due to projections that packers, swine contractors, and live poultry dealers would alter business practices in
The studies relied on interviews that queried the willingness of packers, swine contractors, or live poultry dealers to alter their business practices. The estimates, based on interviews, may overstate costs because the packers, swine contractors, live poultry dealers, and other stakeholders would face adjustment costs from the rule proposed in 2010 and had incentives to respond that they would discontinue current practices.
There also may have been some confusion concerning GIPSA's administrative enforcement authority. The Informa Study indicated that 75 percent of the costs of the rule proposed in 2010, were directly related to proposed § 201.3(c) enabling a finding of a violation of sections 202(a) or (b) of the P&S Act without a finding of harm or likely harm to competition.
Given the changes made in response to comments, GIPSA does not expect that either new proposed § 201.210 or new proposed § 201.211 will cause packers to reduce their use of AMAs.
Executive Order 12866 requires an assessment of costs and benefits of potentially effective and reasonably feasible alternatives to the planned regulation and an explanation of why the planned regulatory action is preferable to the identified potential alternatives.
If §§ 201.210 and 201.211 are never finalized, there are no marginal costs and marginal benefits as industry participants will not alter their conduct. This alternative would not address the 2008 Farm Bill requirement to promulgate regulations establishing criteria the Secretary would consider in determining whether an undue or unreasonable preference or advantage has occurred in violation of the P&S Act, nor would it connect the criteria established in 2011 to a violation of the P&S Act. From a cost standpoint, this alternative costs the least as compared to the other two alternatives. This alternative also has no marginal benefits. Since there are no changes from the status quo under this regulatory alternative, it will serve as the baseline against which to measure the other two alternatives.
GIPSA believes that the costs of §§ 201.210 and 201.211 will mostly consist of the costs of reviewing and re-writing marketing and production contracts to ensure that packers, swine contractors, and live poultry dealers are not engaging in conduct or action that is unfair, unjustly discriminatory, or deceptive or that in any way gives an undue or unreasonable preference or advantage to any livestock producer, swine production contract grower, or poultry grower or subjects any livestock producer, swine production contract grower, or poultry grower to an undue or unreasonable prejudice or disadvantage.
Sections 201.210 and 201.211 do not impose any new requirements and mainly serve as guidance for compliance with sections 202(a) and 202(b). GIPSA does not expect the proposed regulations will result in a decrease in the use of AMAs or other incentive payment systems, or decreased efficiencies in the cattle, hog, and poultry industries. The only indirect costs that GIPSA anticipates are the effects of the increase in administrative costs on supply and demand and the resulting quantity and price impacts on the retail markets for beef, pork, and chicken and the related input markets for cattle, hogs, and broilers.
To estimate costs, GIPSA divided costs into two major categories, direct and indirect costs. GIPSA expects the direct costs to be comprised of administrative costs. Administrative costs for regulated entities include items such as review of marketing and production contracts, additional record keeping, and all other associated administrative office work to demonstrate that they are not engaging in conduct or action that is unfair, unjustly discriminatory, or deceptive or that in any way gives an undue or unreasonable preference or advantage to any livestock producer, swine production contract grower, or poultry grower or subjects any livestock producer, swine production contract grower, or poultry grower to an undue or unreasonable prejudice or disadvantage.
Indirect costs include costs caused by changes in supply and/or demand in the markets for beef, pork, and chicken and the related input markets for cattle, hogs, and poultry resulting from the proposed rule.
To estimate administrative costs of the proposed rule, GIPSA relied on its experience reviewing contracts and other business records commonly maintained in the livestock and poultry industries for compliance with the P&S Act and regulations. GIPSA has data on the number of production contracts between swine production contract growers and swine contractors and poultry growers and live poultry dealers. GIPSA estimated the number of
Based on GIPSA's experience, it developed time estimates for the number of hours for attorneys and company managers to review and revise marketing and production contracts and for staff to make changes, copy, and obtain signed copies of the contracts. For poultry contracts, GIPSA estimates that each unique contract type would require 12 hours of attorney time to review and rewrite a contract, 20 hours of company management time, and for each individual contract, 4 hours of administrative time, and 6.5 hours of additional record keeping time. GIPSA estimates that each of the 133 live poultry dealers who report to GIPSA rely on 10 unique contract types on average. For cattle marketing contracts, GIPSA estimates that each contract would require 4 hours of attorney time to review and rewrite a contract, 4 hours of company management time, 2 hours of administrative time, and 8 hours of additional record keeping time. For hog production and marketing contracts, GIPSA estimates that each contract would require 2 hours of attorney time to review and rewrite a contract, 2 hours of company management time, 1 hour of administrative time, and 6.5 hours of additional record keeping time.
GIPSA multiplied estimated hours to conduct these administrative tasks by the average hourly wages for managers at $58/hour, attorneys at $83/hour, and administrative assistants at $34/hour as reported by the U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics in its Occupational Employment Statistics to arrive at its estimate of contract review costs for regulated entities.
GIPSA recognizes that contract review costs will also be borne by livestock producers, swine production contract growers, and poultry growers. GIPSA estimates that each livestock producer, swine production contract grower, and poultry grower will spend two hours of time reviewing a contract and will spend two hours of their attorney's time to review the contract. GIPSA multiplied two hours of livestock producer, swine production contract grower, and poultry grower time and two hours of attorney time to conduct the marketing and production contract review by the average hourly wages for attorneys at $83/hour and managers at $58/hour as reported by the U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics in its Occupational Employment Statistics to arrive at its estimate of contract review costs for livestock producers, swine contract growers, and poultry growers. GIPSA then applied this cost to the estimated 2,355 cattle marketing contracts, 1,290 hog marketing contracts, 8,031 hog production contracts, and 21,925 poultry growing contracts that have been reported to GIPSA.
After determining the administrative costs to both the regulated entities and those they contract with, GIPSA then added the administrative costs of the regulated entities and the livestock producers, swine production contract growers, and poultry growers together and subsequently split them in half to arrive at the first-year total estimated administrative costs attributable to each of the two regulations. A summary of the first-year total estimated administrative costs for implementation of §§ 201.210 and 201.211 appear in the following table:
The first-year total administrative costs are $27.19 million and are the same for §§ 201.210 and 201.211 for cattle, hogs, and poultry because packers, swine contractors, live poultry dealers, livestock producers, swine production contract growers, and poultry growers must conduct the same administrative functions of contract review and record keeping in response to both regulations. The administrative costs are the highest for poultry, followed by hogs and cattle. This is due to the greater prevalence of contract growing arrangements in the poultry industry.
Interim final regulation 201.3(a) will be in effect when §§ 201.210 and 201.211 become effective. GIPSA expects that § 201.3(a) will result in additional litigation as this rule states that certain conduct or action can be found to violate sections 202(a) and/or 202(b) of the P&S Act without harm or likely harm to competition in all cases. Section 201.3(a) formalizes GIPSA's longstanding position that, in some cases, violations of sections 202(a) and 202(b) can be proven without demonstrating harm or likely harm to competition in all cases. Section 201.210 provides clarity to the industry regarding the conduct or action, absent demonstration of a legitimate business justification that constitutes an unfair, unjustly discriminatory, or deceptive practice or device and a violation of section 202(a) regardless of harm to competition. Section 201.211 provides
Regulation 201.3(a) is broad in nature. Sections 201.210 and 201.211 provide additional clarity. Thus, GIPSA considers the additional litigation under § 201.3(a) to be the baseline litigation costs for §§ 201.210 and 201.211 and that the litigation costs for § 201.3(a) already include the litigation costs of §§ 201.210 and 201.211. Since those litigation costs have already been counted under § 201.3(a), GIPSA does not allocate any additional litigation costs to §§ 201.210 and 201.211. For the purposes of this RIA, the marginal litigation costs of §§ 201.210 and 201.210 are zero.
The total first-year direct costs of §§ 201.210 and 201.211 are the sum of administrative and litigation costs from above and are summarized in the following table.
GIPSA estimates that the total direct costs of proposed §§ 201.210 and 201.211 to be $27.19 million. As the above table shows, the costs are highest for the poultry industry, followed by hogs and cattle. The primary reason is the high utilization of growing contracts and the estimated higher administrative costs in the poultry industry.
As previously discussed, GIPSA does not expect that proposed §§ 201.210 and 201.211 will result in a decreased use of AMAs, use of grower ranking systems or other incentive pay, reduced capital formation, or decreased efficiencies in the meat and poultry industries because the regulations simply clarify conduct and action that are unfair, unjustly discriminatory, and deceptive and a violation of section 202(a) and clarify the conduct or action that constitutes an undue or unreasonable preference or advantage and a violation of section 202(b) by establishing criteria the Secretary will consider in making such a determination. The only indirect costs that GIPSA expects are the effects of the increase in total industry costs from the administrative costs on supply and demand, and the resulting quantity and price impacts of the retail markets for beef, pork, and poultry, and the related input markets for cattle, hogs, and poultry.
GIPSA modeled the impact of the increase in total industry costs resulting from the direct costs of implementing §§ 201.210 and 201.211 in a Marketing Margins Model (MMM) framework.
GIPSA modeled the increases in industry costs resulting from higher direct costs as an inward (or upward) shift in the supply curves for beef, pork, and poultry. This has the effect of increasing the equilibrium prices and reducing the equilibrium quantity traded. This also has the effect of reducing the derived demand for cattle, hogs, and poultry, which causes a reduction in the equilibrium prices and quantity traded. Economic theory suggests that these shifts in the supply curves and derived demand curves and the resulting price and quantity impacts will result in a reduction in social welfare through a deadweight loss.
To estimate the output and input supply and demand curves for the MMM, GIPSA constructed linear supply and demand curves around equilibrium price and quantity points using price elasticities of supply and demand from the GIPSA Livestock Meat and Marketing Study and from USDA's Economic Research Service.
ERS Price Elasticities:
GIPSA then shifted the supply curves for beef, pork, and chicken up by the amount of the increase in total cost for each industry and calculated the new equilibrium prices and quantities. GIPSA calculated the new equilibrium prices and quantities in the input markets resulting from the decreases in derived demand. GIPSA also calculated the resulting social welfare changes in the input and output markets for each industry.
The calculation of the price impacts from the increases in industry costs from §§ 201.210 and 201.211 resulted in price increases of approximately one-hundredth of a cent or less in retail prices for beef, pork, and poultry. This is because the increase in total industry costs is very small in relation to overall industry costs.
GIPSA added all direct costs to the indirect costs (equal to zero), to arrive at the estimated total first-year costs of §§ 201.210 and 201.211. The total first-year costs are summarized in the following table.
GIPSA estimates that the total costs of §§ 201.210 and 201.211 will be $27.19 million in the first year of implementation.
To arrive at the estimated ten-year costs of §§ 201.210 and 201.211, GIPSA expects the costs of the regulations to be constant for the first five years while courts are setting precedents for the interpretation of the regulations. GIPSA expects that case law with respect to the regulations will be settled after five years and by then, industry participants will know how GIPSA will enforce the regulations and how courts will interpret the regulations. Once courts establish precedents in case law, GIPSA expects the direct administrative costs of reviewing and revising contracts to decrease rapidly as contracts will already contain any language modifications necessitated by implementation of the regulations.
To arrive at the estimated ten-year costs of §§ 201.210 and 201.211, GIPSA estimates that in the first five years, 20 percent of all contracts will either expire and need to be renewed each year or new marketing and production contracts will be put in place each year. As discussed above, GIPSA expects the costs of reviewing and revising contracts will remain constant in the first five years. However, the overall costs will be lower because the direct administrative costs of reviewing and revising contracts will only apply to the 20 percent of expiring contracts or new contracts. GIPSA estimates that in the second five years, the direct administrative costs of reviewing and revising contracts will decrease by 50 percent per year as the courts establish precedents and contracts already contain any language modifications necessitated by implementation of the regulations.
The total ten-year costs of the regulations appear in the table below.
Based
The total costs of §§ 201.210 and 201.211 in the table above show that the costs are highest in the first year, decline to a constant lower level over the next four years, and then gradually decrease again over the subsequent five years. Costs to be incurred in the future are less expensive than the same costs to be incurred today. This is because the money that will be used to pay the costs in the future can be invested today and earn interest until the time period in which the cost is incurred.
To account for the time value of money, the costs of the regulations to be incurred in the future are discounted back to today's dollars using a discount rate. The sum of all costs discounted back to the present is called the net present value (NPV) of total costs. GIPSA relied on both a three percent and seven percent discount rate as discussed in Circular A-4.
GIPSA calculated the NPV of the ten-year total costs of the regulations using both a three percent and seven percent discount rate and the NPVs appear in the following table.
GIPSA expects the NPV of the ten-year total costs of §§ 201.210 and 201.211 will be $50.33 million at a three percent discount rate and $45.95 million at a seven percent discount rate.
GIPSA then annualized the NPV of the ten-year total costs (referred to as annualized costs) of §§ 201.210 and 201.211 using both a three percent and seven percent discount rate as required by Circular A-4 and the results appear in the following table.
GIPSA expects the annualized costs of §§ 201.210 and 201.211 will be $5.90 million at a three percent discount rate and $6.54 million at a seven percent discount rate.
Concurrent with proposing §§ 201.210 and 201.211, GIPSA is issuing an interim final version of § 201.3(a). Section 201.3(a) states that conduct or action can be found to violate sections 202(a) and/or 202(b) of the P&S Act without a finding of harm or likely harm to competition. As a stand-alone regulation, § 201.3(a) formalizes GIPSA's longstanding position that, in some cases, violations of sections 202(a) and 202(b) can be proven without
In its Regulatory Impact Analysis, GIPSA estimated the annualized costs of § 201.3(a) to range from $6.87 million to $96.01 million at a three percent discount rate and from $7.12 million to $98.60 million at a seven percent discount rate. The range of potential costs is broad and GIPSA relied on its expertise to arrive at a point estimate of expected annualized costs. GIPSA expects the cattle, hog, and poultry industries to primarily take a “wait and see” approach to how courts will interpret § 201.3(a) and only slightly adjust its use of AMAs, and incentive or performance-based payment systems. GIPSA estimates that the annualized costs of § 201.3(a) at the point estimate will be $51.44 million at a three percent discount rate and $52.86 million at a seven percent discount rate based on an anticipated “wait and see” approach by the cattle, hog, and poultry industries.
GIPSA recognizes that courts, after the implementation of § 201.3(a), may opt to continue to apply earlier precedents of requiring the showing of harm or potential harm to competition in section 202(a) and 202(b) cases. This has the potential to affect the costs of §§ 201.210 and 201.211 should they become finalized. GIPSA expects that even if courts continue to require showing of harm or potential harm to competition in section 202(a) and 202(b) cases, that firms will likely still incur costs of complying with §§ 201.210 and 201.211. Even if regulated entities expect that courts will require showing of a harm to competition for §§ 201.210 and 201.211 violations, the regulated entities may still expect litigation as private parties test the courts application of § 201.3 as it relates to §§ 201.210 and 201.211 violations. To reduce this threat of litigation, regulated entities may still incur the administrative costs detailed above. Should §§ 201.210 and 201.211 become finalized and courts still require a showing of harm or potential harm to competition, regulated entities may still voluntarily undertake the adjustment costs detailed above.
GIPSA expects proposed §§ 201.210 and 201.211 to reduce the costs of implementing § 201.3 by providing more clarity in the appropriate application of sections 202(a) and (b) of the P&S Act. Section 201.210 provides illustrative examples of conduct or action, absent demonstration of a legitimate business justification, that GIPSA considers as unfair, unjustly discriminatory, or deceptive and a violation of section 202(a) regardless of whether the conduct or action harms or is likely to harm competition. Section 201.211 provides criteria the Secretary will consider in determining whether conduct or action constitutes an undue or unreasonable preference or advantage and a violation of section 202(b).
GIPSA was unable to quantify the benefits of §§ 201.210 and 201.211. However, there are qualitative benefits of §§ 201.210 and 201.211 coupled with § 201.3(a) that merit discussion.
An important qualitative benefit of § 201.210 coupled with § 201.3(a) is the increased ability for the enforcement of the P&S Act for violations of 202(a) that do not result in harm or likely harm to competition. An illustrative example is the inaccurate weighing of live poultry grown to a target slaughter weight by a poultry grower under contract for a live poultry dealer. The weight of poultry is used as one factor to determine the payment to growers under most contract growing arrangements. The poultry grower is harmed if the true weight is more than the inaccurate weight used to compensate the poultry grower. The harm to the poultry grower is very small when compared to the entire industry and there is no discernible or provable harm to competition from this one instance. Because there is no discernible or provable harm or likely harm to competition, courts have been reluctant to find a violation of section 202(a) of the P&S Act in such a situation, despite the harm suffered by the individual poultry grower. However, if similar, though unrelated, harm is experienced by a large number of poultry growers, the cumulative effect does result in significant harm to competition. The individual harm is inconsequential to the industry, but the sum total of all individual harm has the potential to be quite significant when compared to the poultry industry. Under proposed § 201.210(b)(8), failing to ensure accurate weights of live poultry, absent a legitimate business justification, will constitute unfair, unjustly discriminatory, or deceptive practices or devices and a violation of section 202(a) of the P&S Act. Whether or not the conduct harms or is likely to harm competition becomes irrelevant.
The sum of all individual harm is likely to increase total industry costs of producing beef, pork, and chicken due to inefficiencies through the production and marketing complex due to an inefficient allocation of resources. The costs of all unfair, unjustly discriminatory, or deceptive practices or devices are reflected in higher costs of producing cattle, hogs, and poultry at the producer/grower level of the industry and of producing beef, pork, and chicken in the packing/wholesale level of the industry, with some portion of these costs passed along to consumers in the form of higher prices.
GIPSA expects proposed §§ 201.210 and 201.211 coupled with interim final § 201.3(a) to increase enforcement actions against packers, swine contractors, and live poultry dealers for violations of sections 202(a) and/or 202(b) when the conduct or action does not harm or is not likely to harm competition. Several appellate courts have disagreed with USDA's interpretation of the P&S Act that harm or likely harm to competition is not necessary in all cases to prove a violation of sections 202(a) or 202(b). In some cases in which the United States was not a party, these courts have concluded that plaintiffs could not prove their claims under sections 202(a) and/or 202(b) without proving harm to competition or likely harm to competition. One reason the courts gave for declining to defer to USDA's interpretation of the statute is that USDA had not previously formalized its interpretation in a regulation. Section 201.3(a) addresses that issue and §§ 201.210 and 201.211 provide further clarity.
GIPSA expects the successful litigation of enforcement actions brought under proposed §§ 201.210 or 201.211 combined with interim final 201.3(a) to deter violations of sections 202(a) and (b). Successful deterrence will result in lower overall costs throughout the entire production and marketing complex of all livestock, poultry, and meat.
Sections 201.210 and 201.211 also contain several provisions that GIPSA expects will improve efficiencies in the regulated markets for cattle, hogs, and poultry and reduce market failures. For regulations to improve efficiencies for market participants and generate benefits for consumers and producers, they must increase the amount of relevant information to market participants, protect private property rights, and foster competition.
Section 201.210(b) will increase the amount of relevant information to market participants by providing notice to all market participants of specific examples of conduct or action that, absent demonstration of a legitimate business justification, are unfair, unjustly discriminatory, or deceptive and a violation of section 202(a) of the P&S Act regardless of whether the conduct or action harms or is likely to harm competition. Market participants will all know, for example, that absent demonstration of a legitimate business justification, retaliatory conduct and the
Similarly, § 201.211 increases the amount of relevant information to market participants and offsets any potential abuse of market power by clearly stating to all contracting parties the criteria that the Secretary will consider in determining whether conduct or action constitutes an undue or unreasonable preference or advantage and a violation of 202(b) of the P&S Act.
Both regulations may also serve to reduce the risk of violating sections 202(a) and 202(b) because they provide clarification to the livestock and poultry industries as to the conduct or action that, absent demonstration of a legitimate business justification, is unfair, unjustly discriminatory, or deceptive and violates section 202(a) of the Act regardless of whether the conduct or action harms or is likely to harm competition and the criteria that the Secretary will consider in determining whether conduct or action constitutes an undue or unreasonable preference or advantage and a violation of section 202(b) of the P&S Act. Less risk through the clarification provided in the regulations will likely foster competitiveness and fairness in contracting and provide protections for livestock producers, swine production contract growers, and poultry growers against unfair, unjustly discriminatory, and deceptive practices and devices and undue or unreasonable preferences or advantages.
Benefits to the livestock and poultry industries and the cattle, hog, and poultry markets also arise from establishing parity of negotiating power between packers, swine contractors, and live poultry dealers and livestock producers, swine production contract growers, and poultry growers by reducing the ability to use market power with the resulting deadweight losses.
GIPSA expects the annualized costs of §§ 201.210 and 201.211 will be $5.90 million at a three percent discount rate and $6.54 million at a seven percent discount rate. GIPSA expects the costs to be highest for the poultry industry due to its extensive use of poultry growing contracts, followed by the hog industry and the cattle industry, respectively.
GIPSA was unable to quantify the benefits of the regulations, but explained numerous qualitative benefits that will protect livestock producers, swine production contract growers, and poultry growers from retaliation, promote fairness and equity in contracting, increase economic efficiencies, and reduce the negative effects of market failures throughout the entire livestock and poultry value chain. The primary benefit of § 201.210 and § 201.211 is the increased ability for the enforcement of the P&S Act for violations of sections 202(a) and (b) that do not result in harm or likely harm to competition. This, in turn, will reduce instances of unfair, unjustly discriminatory, or deceptive practices or devices, unfair advantages and increased efficiencies in the marketplace. This benefit of additional enforcement of the P&S Act will accrue to all segments of the value chain in the production of livestock and poultry, and ultimately to consumers.
GIPSA considered a third regulatory alternative of phased implementation. Under this third alternative, §§ 201.210 and 201.211 would only apply to marketing and production contracts when they expire, are altered, or new contracts are put in place. Consider for example, a poultry growing contract with three years remaining in the contract when the regulations become effective. The provisions of the regulations that apply to contracts would not be applicable to this contract until the contract expires after three years and is either renewed or replaced.
GIPSA estimated the costs of phased implementation by multiplying the costs of §§ 201.210 and 201.211 for the preferred alternative (Table 8) for each year of the first 10 years the regulations would be effective starting in 2018 by the percentage of contracts expiring or altered in the same year. USDA's Economic Research Service Agricultural Resource Management Surveys conducted in 2003 and 2011 provided data about the length of hog and broiler production contracts. GIPSA relied on its knowledge of hog and cattle marketing contracts based on regular reviews of packer procurement practices to estimate contract lengths for hog and cattle marketing contracts. The data on contract length appear in the following table:
The data in the table show that 65.2 percent of broiler production contracts have a duration of 12 months or less. GIPSA estimates that 100 percent of all hog and cattle marketing contracts expire or are altered every 12 months or less. Even if the contracts do not expire, GIPSA expects changes every year to the base prices, premiums and discounts, lean percentages, etc. of hog and cattle marketing contracts and GIPSA would consider a change to any one of these items in the contract as an alteration to the contract, which would trigger the application of the new regulations.
For the first year of the regulations, GIPSA multiplied the poultry costs of the regulations by 65.20 percent, the percentage of the hog costs attributable to hog production contracts by 40.5 percent, the percentage of the hog costs attributable to hog marketing contracts by 100 percent, and the cattle costs by 100 percent. For years two through five, GIPSA followed the same procedure, but adjusted poultry and hog production costs by the number of contracts that are five years or less. For broilers, 84.4 percent are five years or less in duration and 44 percent of all hog production contracts are five years or less years in duration. For years six through ten, GIPSA applied 100 percent of the preferred alternative costs to reflect full implementation costs.
The following table shows the ten-year total costs for each year of the phased implementation alternative. The ten-year total costs for each year of the preferred alternative (Table 9) are also shown for convenience.
GIPSA estimates that the first-year total costs of §§ 201.210 and 201.211 under the phased implementation alternative will be $17.45 million and the ten-year total costs will be $39.43 million. As the table shows, the costs in the first five years are lower under the phased implementation alternative than under the preferred alternative because the regulations apply to fewer contracts until the time period in which all contracts are phased in.
GIPSA calculated the NPV of the ten-year total costs of §§ 201.210 and 201.211 under phased implementation using both a three percent and seven percent discount rate and the NPVs are shown in the following table.
GIPSA expects the NPV of the ten-year total costs of §§ 201.210 and 201.211 under the phased implementation option to be $36.33 million at a three percent discount rate and $32.86 million at a seven percent discount rate.
GIPSA then annualized the costs of §§ 201.210 and 201.211 using both a three percent and seven percent discount rate as required by Circular A-4 and the results appear in the following table.
GIPSA expects the annualized costs of §§ 201.210 and 201.211 under phased implementation will be $4.26 million at a three percent discount rate and $4.68 million at a seven percent discount rate.
The benefits of phased implementation are identical to the benefits of the preferred alternative with the exception of when the benefits will be received and the amount of the benefits. Like the costs, the benefits will be received only when contracts expire, are altered, or new contracts are put in place. Moreover, benefits to be received in the future are worth less than benefits received today. The benefits will be received in the same proportion of the total costs and are based on contract durations. The benefits of the phased implementation alternative are less than under the preferred alternative, because the full benefits will not be received until all contracts have expired, been altered, or replaced by new contracts. The full benefits of phased implementation will be received beginning in year six.
GIPSA expects the annualized costs of §§ 201.210 and 201.211 under phased implementation will be $4.26 million at a three percent discount rate and $4.68 million at a seven percent discount rate. The benefits will be received in the same proportion as total costs and are based on contract durations. The benefits of the phased implementation alternative are less than under the preferred alternative because the full benefits will not be received until all contracts have expired, been altered, or replaced by new contracts.
The status quo alternative has zero marginal costs and benefits as GIPSA does not expect any changes in the livestock and poultry industries. GIPSA compared the annualized costs of the preferred alternative to the annualized costs of the phased implementation alternative by subtracting the annualized costs of the phased implementation alternative from the preferred alternative and the results appear in the following table.
The annualized costs of the phased implementation alternative is $1.64 million less expensive using a three percent discount rate and $1.86 million less expensive using a seven percent discount rate. As is the case with costs, the benefits will be highest for the preferred alternative because the full benefits will be received immediately and not when contracts have expired, been altered, or replaced by new contracts as is the case under the phased implementation alternative.
Though the phased implementation alternative would save between $1.64 million and $1.86 million on an annualized basis, this alternative would deny the benefits offered by §§ 201.210 and 201.211 to a substantial percentage of poultry growers and swine production contract growers for five or more years based on the length of their production contracts. As the data in Table 12 show, 15.6 percent of poultry growers and 56 percent of swine production contract growers have contracts with durations exceeding five years. Under the phased implementation alternative, these poultry growers and swine production contract growers would continue to be exposed to the potential market failures discussed above in the section on
The Small Business Administration (SBA) defines small businesses by their North American Industry Classification System Codes (NAICS).
The Census of Agriculture (Census) indicates there were 558 farms that sold their own hogs and pigs in 2012 and that identified themselves as contractors or integrators. The Census provides the number of head sold from their own operations by size classes for swine contractors, but not the value of sales nor number of head sold from the farms of the contracted production. Thus, to estimate the entity size and average per-entity revenue by the SBA classification, the average value per head for sales of all swine operations is multiplied by production values for firms in the Census size classes for swine contractors. The estimates reveal that although about 65 percent of swine contractors had sales of less than $750,000 in 2012 and would have been classified as small businesses, these small businesses accounted for only 2.8 percent of the hogs produced under production contracts. Additionally, there were 8,031 swine producers in 2012 with swine contracts and about half of these producers would have been classified as small businesses.
GIPSA maintains data on live poultry dealers from the annual reports these firms file with GIPSA. Currently, there are 133 live poultry dealers that would be subject to the proposed regulations. According to U.S. Census data on County Business Patterns, there were 74 poultry slaughter firms that had more than 1,250 employees in 2013. The difference yields approximately 59 poultry slaughterers that have fewer than 1,250 employees and would be considered as small businesses that would be subject to the proposed regulations.
Another factor that is important in determining the economic effect of the regulations is the number of contracts held by a firm. GIPSA records for 2014 indicated there were 21,925 poultry production contracts in effect, of which 13,370, or 61 percent, were held by the largest six poultry slaughterers and 90 percent (19,673) were held by the largest 25 firms. These 25 firms are all in the large business SBA category, whereas the 21,925 poultry growers holding the other end of the contracts are almost all small businesses by SBA's definitions.
Live poultry dealers classified as large businesses are responsible for about 89.7 percent of the poultry contracts. Assuming that small businesses will bear 10.3 percent of the costs, in the first year the regulations are effective, $1.7
As of June 2016, GIPSA records identified 359 beef and pork packers actively purchasing cattle or hogs for slaughter. Many firms slaughtered more than one species of livestock. Of the 359 beef and pork packers, 161 processed both cattle and hogs, 132 processed cattle but not hogs, and 66 processed hogs but not cattle.
GIPSA estimates that small businesses accounted for 19.3 percent of the cattle and 17.8 percent of the hogs slaughtered in 2015. If the costs of implementing §§ 201.210 and 201.211 are proportional to the number of head processed, then in 2018, the first year the regulations would be effective, GIPSA estimates that $538,000
On average, $188,000
Annualized costs discounted at a three percent interest rate would be $117,000 for the cattle industry, $80,500 for the hog industry, and $374,000 for the poultry industry. This amounts to annualized costs of $410 for each beef packer, $190 for each pork packer, $110 for each swine contractor, and $6,300 for each live poultry dealer that is a small business. The total annualized costs for small businesses would be $571,500.
Annualized costs at a seven percent discount rate would be $129,400 for the cattle industry, $89,300 for the hog industry, and $415,000 for the poultry industry. This amounts to annualized costs of $450 for each beef packer, $206 for each pork packer, $122 for each swine contractor, and $7,000 for each live poultry dealer that is a small business. The total annualized costs for small businesses would be $633,800.
The table below lists the estimated additional costs associated with the proposed regulations in the first year. It also lists annualized costs discounted at three percent and seven percent discount rates.
In considering the impact on small businesses, GIPSA considered the average costs and revenues of each small business impacted by §§ 201.210 and 201.211. The number of small businesses impacted by §§ 201.210 and 201.211, by NAICS code, as well as the per entity, first-year and annualized costs at both the three percent and seven percent discount rates appear in the following table.
The following table compares the average per entity first-year and annualized costs of §§ 201.210 and 201.211 to the average revenue per establishment for all firms in the same NAICS code. The annualized costs are slightly higher at the seven percent rate than at the three percent rate, so only the seven percent rate is shown as it is the higher annualized cost.
The revenue figures in the above table come from Census data for live poultry dealers and cattle and hog slaughterers, NAICS codes 311615 and 311611, respectively.
As the results in Table 19 demonstrate, the costs of §§ 201.210 and 201.211 as a percent of revenue are small as they are less than one percent, with the exception of the upper boundary for swine contractors.
Annualized cost savings of exempting small businesses would be about $570,000 using a three percent discount rate and about $634,000 using a seven percent discount rate.
One purpose of § 201.3(a) is to mitigate the risks of potential market failures or unequal bargaining power to all livestock producers, swine production contract growers, and poultry growers, not just the livestock producers, swine production contract growers, and poultry growers selling or growing livestock and poultry for large packers, swine contractors, and poultry dealers. Exempting small businesses would continue to subject the livestock producers, swine production contract growers, and poultry growers with contractual arrangements with small packers, swine contractors, and live poultry dealers to the contracting risks and potential market failures discussed above. GIPSA believes that the benefits of §§ 201.210 and 201.211 should be captured by all livestock producers, swine production contract growers, and poultry growers.
Based on the above analyses regarding §§ 201.210 and § 201.211, GIPSA certifies that this rule is not expected to have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small business entities as defined in the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
This proposed rule has been reviewed under Executive Order 12988, Civil Justice Reform. These actions are not intended to have retroactive effect, although in some instances they merely reiterate GIPSA's previous interpretation of the P&S Act. This proposed rule will not pre-empt state or local laws, regulations, or policies, unless they present an irreconcilable conflict with this rule. There are no administrative procedures that must be exhausted prior to any judicial challenge to the provisions of this proposed rule. Nothing in this proposed rule is intended to interfere with a person's right to enforce liability against any person subject to the P&S Act under authority granted in section 308 of the P&S Act.
This proposed rule has been reviewed in accordance with the requirements of Executive Order 13175, “Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments.” Executive Order 13175 requires Federal agencies to consult and coordinate with tribes on a government-to-government basis on policies that have tribal implications, including regulations, legislative comments or proposed legislation, and other policy statements or actions that have substantial direct effects on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes.
GIPSA has assessed the impact of this rule on Indian tribes and determined that this rule does not, to our knowledge, have tribal implications that require tribal consultation under EO 13175. If a tribe requests consultation, GIPSA will work with the Office of Tribal Relations to ensure meaningful consultation is provided where changes, additions, and modifications identified herein are not expressly mandated by Congress.
This proposed rule does not contain new or amended information collection requirements subject to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
GIPSA is committed to compliance with the E-Government Act, to promote the use of the Internet and other information technologies to provide increased opportunities for citizen access to Government information and services, and for other purposes.
Contracts, Poultry, Livestock, Trade Practices.
For the reasons set forth in the preamble, we propose to amend 9 CFR part 201 as follows:
7 U.S.C. 181-229c.
Any packer, swine contractor, or live poultry dealer is prohibited from engaging in conduct or action that constitutes an unfair, unjustly discriminatory, or deceptive practice or device in violation of section 202(a) of the Act. Such conduct or action includes, but is not limited to:
(a)
(b)
(1) A retaliatory action or the threat of retaliatory action in response to lawful communication, association, or assertion of rights by a livestock producer, swine production contract grower, or poultry grower. A retaliatory action or the threat of retaliatory action against any livestock producer, swine production contract grower, or poultry grower includes, but is not limited to, coercion, intimidation, or unjust discrimination;
(2) Conduct or action that limits or attempts to limit by contract the legal rights and remedies afforded by law of a livestock producer, swine production contract grower, or poultry grower:
(i) The right to a trial by jury except when the livestock producer, swine production contract grower, or poultry grower has agreed to be bound by arbitration provisions in a contract that complies with § 201.218(a) and that provides a meaningful opportunity to participate fully in the arbitration process after applying the criteria in § 201.218(b);
(ii) The right, pursuant to section 209(a) of the Act, to resolve any dispute among the parties to a poultry growing arrangement, or swine production or marketing contract, in the Federal judicial district in which the principal part of the performance took place under the arrangement or contract;
(iii) The right to pursue all damages available under applicable law; or
(iv) The right to seek an award of attorney fees available under applicable law;
(3) Failing to comply with the requirements of § 201.100;
(4) Failing to provide reasonable notice to a poultry grower before suspending the delivery of birds after applying the criteria in § 201.215;
(5) Requiring unreasonable additional capital investments from a poultry grower or swine production contract grower after applying the criteria in § 201.216;
(6) Failing to provide a reasonable period of time to remedy a breach of contract before termination of the contract after applying the criteria in § 201.217;
(7) Failing to provide a meaningful opportunity to participate fully in the arbitration process after applying the criteria in § 201.218;
(8) Failing to ensure accurate scales and weighing of livestock, livestock carcasses, live poultry, or feed for the purposes of purchase, sale, acquisition, payment, or settlement as required by the regulations under the Act; or
(9) Failing to ensure the accuracy of livestock, meat, and poultry electronic evaluation systems and devices for the purposes of purchase, sale, acquisition, payment, or settlement as required by the regulations under the Act.
(c)
The Secretary will consider the following criteria when determining whether a packer, swine contractor, or live poultry dealer has engaged in conduct or action that constitutes an undue or unreasonable preference or advantage and a violation of section 202(b) of the Act. These criteria include, but are not limited to:
(a) Whether a packer, swine contractor, or live poultry dealer treats one or more livestock producers, swine production contract growers, or poultry growers more favorably as compared to one or more similarly situated livestock producers, swine production contract growers, or poultry growers who have engaged in lawful communication, association, or assertion of their rights;
(b) Whether a packer, swine contractor, or live poultry dealer treats one or more livestock producers, swine production contract growers, or poultry growers more favorably as compared to one or more similarly situated livestock producers, swine production contract growers, or poultry growers who the packer, swine contractor, or live poultry dealer contends have taken an action or engaged in conduct that violates any applicable law, rule, or regulation related to the livestock or poultry operation without a reasonable basis to determine that the livestock producer, swine production contract grower, or poultry grower committed the violation;
(c) Whether a packer, swine contractor, or live poultry dealer treats one or more livestock producers, swine production contract growers, or poultry growers more favorably as compared to one or more similarly situated livestock producers, swine production contract growers, or poultry growers for an arbitrary reason unrelated to the livestock or poultry operation;
(d) Whether a packer, swine contractor, or live poultry dealer treats one or more livestock producers, swine production contract growers, or poultry growers more favorably as compared to one or more similarly situated livestock producers, swine production contract growers, or poultry growers on the basis of race, color, national origin, sex, religion, age, disability, political beliefs, sexual orientation, or marital or family status;
(e) Whether the packer, swine contractor, or live poultry dealer has demonstrated a legitimate business justification for conduct or action that may otherwise constitute an undue or unreasonable preference or advantage; and
(f) Whether the conduct or action by a packer, swine contractor, or live poultry dealer harms or is likely to harm competition.
Grain Inspection, Packers and Stockyards Administration, USDA.
Proposed rule.
The Department of Agriculture's (USDA) Grain Inspection, Packers and Stockyards Administration (GIPSA), Packers and Stockyards Program (P&SP) is proposing to amend the regulations issued under the Packers and Stockyards Act, 1921, as amended and supplemented (P&S Act). The proposed amendments will identify criteria that the Secretary may consider when determining whether a live poultry dealer's use of a poultry grower ranking system for ranking poultry growers for settlement purposes is unfair, unjustly discriminatory, or deceptive or gives an undue or unreasonable preference, advantage, prejudice, or disadvantage. The proposed amendments will also clarify that absent demonstration of a legitimate business justification, failing to use a poultry grower ranking system in a fair manner after applying the identified criteria is unfair, unjustly discriminatory, or deceptive and a violation of section 202(a) of the P&S Act regardless of whether it harms or is likely to harm competition.
We will consider comments we receive by February 21, 2017.
We invite you to submit comments on this proposed rule. You may submit comments by any of the following methods:
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S. Brett Offutt, Director, Litigation and Economic Analysis Division, P&SP, GIPSA, 1400 Independence Ave. SW., Washington, DC 20250-3601, (202) 720-7051,
GIPSA previously published a notice of proposed rulemaking on June 22, 2010, which included requirements regarding a live poultry dealer's use of a poultry grower ranking system when determining payment for grower services. That proposed rule would have required live poultry dealers paying growers on a tournament system to pay growers raising the same type and kind of poultry the same base pay and further required that growers be settled in groups with other growers with like house types. Upon review of public comments received both in writing and through public meetings held during the comment period in 2010, we have elected not to publish this rule as a final rule, but rather have modified proposed § 201.214 and are publishing it as a proposed rule and requesting further public comment.
The P&S Act (7 U.S.C. 181
GIPSA is proposing these regulations to clarify when certain conduct in the poultry industry related to poultry grower ranking systems violates sections 202(a) or 202(b) of the P&S Act. A poultry grower ranking system, sometimes called a “tournament,” is the process used by live poultry dealers to determine final payment to poultry growers upon settlement of each flock. Under a poultry grower ranking system, growers whose flocks are slaughtered during the same settlement week are paid according to a structure that compares growers' feed efficiency and live weight of the grown birds delivered to the plant. Growers with better performance according to a live poultry dealer's standards are ranked higher than growers with lower performance and, therefore, receive more compensation.
Poultry grower ranking systems are widely used by live poultry dealers operating as vertically integrated companies. The vertically integrated company is responsible for every step of the poultry production process except the raising and caring of the live birds meant for slaughter. Independent farmers, acting as contractors and referred to as “poultry growers,” perform this function. The vertically integrated live poultry dealer provides the chicks,
GIPSA has received complaints from poultry growers alleging unfair treatment in poultry grower ranking systems. Many of the underlying factors in these complaints were shared with GIPSA in the comments to the 2010 proposed rule. The 2010 proposed rule (§ 201.214) would have required live poultry dealers paying growers on a tournament system to pay growers raising the same type and kind of poultry the same base pay and further required that growers be settled in groups with other growers with like house types. Comments in favor of the proposed rule most often cited the imbalance in power and control between the poultry companies and the growers. Most common among the reasons for supporting the proposed rule was the control the poultry company has over inputs. Growers have no control over numerous inputs that ultimately determine pay. In particular, the poultry companies control the following inputs and production variables: Chick health, number of chicks placed, feed quality, medications, growout time, breed and type of bird, weighing of the birds, and weighing of the feed. Commenters complained that the poultry grower ranking system is a poor indicator of the grower's abilities and performance in growing chickens. One commenter pointed out that bird age can vary as much as 9 days in a group. Due to the relatively short growing period for poultry, there can be significant differences in bird size, and as a result, grower pay, in birds just a few days apart in age. Comments also expressed concern that company employees who are also poultry growers get preferential treatment and may get better birds or get to keep flocks longer.
Comments opposed to the proposed rule overwhelmingly cited the loss of the incentive for growers to perform. For example, commenters complained that “there will be no incentive available for above-average growers,” “the pay system rewards the ones who strive to do best,” it “will take money from the most progressive growers,” and “is grossly unfair to the most productive and successful growers, only benefits the least productive and least successful.” Those opposed to the proposed rule commented that everyone should not be paid the same, that competition is good for the industry, and that those that spend money and expend effort should be rewarded. Some commenters stated there will not be enough like houses to group together for ranking purposes.
A few commenters offered recommendations. Specifically, they suggested “same type and kind” of poultry should be defined as same breed, age range, sex, and target weight. Also, they suggested that the base pay rate should reflect grower's cost of production plus a reasonable rate of return. Other commenters suggested that GIPSA should clarify that incentive pay would still be allowed under the proposed rule. In GIPSA's experience reviewing live poultry dealer records, some poultry companies use the base pay as the minimum pay rate, so implementing the provision regarding base pay would not be difficult. Several comments said that “like house type” was poorly defined. Depending on the interpretation, there could be many different categories of like house types in which case, there could be very few growers in a given settlement group.
Commenters critical of the poultry grower ranking system focused on the live poultry dealer's control over the inputs. Inputs and other factors influencing performance and pay are not equal among growers. Commenters noted that variations in chicks, feed, and medications have a significant influence on the poultry grower's performance, but the grower has no control or influence over the quality of those inputs. As an example, one comment stated that male chickens have higher average weight gain than female chickens. Therefore, if one grower gets a higher percentage of male chickens than other growers, that grower could
Other comments focused on the quantity and quality of feed. One poultry grower commented about the effect on rankings when the live poultry dealer assumes that the grower receives more feed than the live poultry dealer actually delivered. The grower explained that a 200 pound under-delivery of feed in a system where production costs are averaged to ten-thousandths of a cent, would affect the rankings and cause the grower to be paid less than other growers in the settlement group. Another grower commented that he had received a delivery of bad feed that made the chickens sick. Although the live poultry dealer replaced the bad or spoiled feed, the damage had been done and the grower's flock ranked at the bottom of the poultry grower ranking for that settlement group. These commenters were expressing their frustration with the poultry grower ranking system that relied on inputs over which they had no control.
Recognizing that not all inputs are the same, in proposed new § 201.214, GIPSA is not proposing that all poultry growers receive the same quality inputs, or that growers only be ranked in settlement groups where all growers receive the same quality inputs. In each settlement group, it is very likely that the live poultry dealer will place chicks on some farms that are inferior to other chicks simply due to the variation in the birds. Likewise, feed quality or the delivery quantity may vary.
Unlike the proposed rule published in 2010 regarding poultry grower ranking systems, this proposed rule would not prohibit or prescribe certain conduct, nor would it prescribe specific payment to be made to growers. Instead, after consideration of the comments received, we are proposing a rule that encourages better sharing of information with growers and fairness in areas under a live poultry dealer's control. Proposed new § 201.214 sets forth criteria that the Secretary may consider to determine whether live poultry dealers have used the poultry grower ranking system in a manner that violates sections 202(a) or (b) of the P&S Act.
Proposed new § 201.214, “Poultry Grower Ranking Systems” would establish a non-exhaustive list of criteria the Secretary may consider when determining whether a live poultry dealer has violated the P&S Act with respect to the use of a poultry grower ranking system. Under proposed § 201.214(a), the Secretary may consider whether the grower is provided enough information to make informed decisions regarding the grower's poultry production operation. Such information would include the anticipated number of flocks per year and the average gross income from each flock. Because most growers borrow substantial sums of money to build and upgrade houses to meet the live poultry dealer's specifications, a grower would want a contract of sufficient length and with sufficient poultry production to repay the loan. For that reason, it is important for the poultry grower to know the anticipated average gross income from each flock in order to plan accordingly for future earnings and investments. Live poultry dealers should disclose information necessary to enable the grower to make informed decisions.
Under proposed § 201.214(b), the Secretary may consider whether a live poultry dealer supplies inputs (
Proposed § 201.214(d) provides that the Secretary may consider whether the live poultry dealer has demonstrated a legitimate business justification for conduct that may otherwise be unfair, unjustly discriminatory, or deceptive, or that gives an undue or unreasonable preference or advantage to any poultry grower or subjects any poultry grower to an undue or unreasonable prejudice or disadvantage. A legitimate business justification for certain conduct may be sufficient to find that the conduct does not violate the P&S Act. We request comment on the types of conduct that might be considered for a legitimate business justification, in order to give further context to this provision in the final rule.
Concurrent with the publication of this proposed rule, GIPSA is also proposing another rule in this issue of the
This rulemaking has been determined to be significant for the purposes of Executive Order 12866 and, therefore, has been reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget. As a required part of the regulatory process, GIPSA prepared an economic analysis of proposed § 201.214. The first section of the analysis is an introduction and discussion of the prevalence of contracting in the poultry industry as well as a discussion of potential market failures. Next, GIPSA discusses three regulatory alternatives it considered and presents a summary cost-benefit analysis of each alternative. GIPSA then discusses the impact on small businesses.
GIPSA issued a proposed rule on June 22, 2010, which included § 201.214. GIPSA has revised the 2010 version of § 201.214 and is now proposing a new § 201.214. The rule GIPSA proposed on June 22, 2010, included several requirements regarding live poultry dealers' use of tournament systems. That section of the proposed rule would have required live poultry dealers paying growers on a tournament system to pay growers raising the same type and kind of poultry the same base compensation and further required that growers be settled in groups with other growers with like house types. The rule also prohibited live poultry dealers from offering poultry growing arrangements containing provisions that decrease or reduce grower compensation below the base compensation amount.
Upon review of public comments received both in writing and through public meetings held during the comment period in 2010, GIPSA elected not to publish this rule as a final rule and has removed the requirements and prohibitions in the rule proposed on June 22, 2010.
GIPSA has re-written § 201.214 and is proposing this regulation to establish criteria the Secretary may consider in determining whether a live poultry dealer has used a poultry grower ranking system to compensate poultry growers in an unfair, unjustly discriminatory, or deceptive manner, or in a way that gives an undue or unreasonable preference or advantage to any poultry grower or subjects any poultry grower to an undue or unreasonable prejudice or disadvantage.
Interim Final § 201.3(a) states that certain conduct or action can be found to violate sections 202(a) and/or 202(b) of the P&S Act without a finding of harm or likely harm to competition in all cases. Proposed § 201.210(b)(10) would add to proposed § 201.210(b), which is published as part of a separate proposed rule in this edition of the
The criteria in proposed § 201.214 would include whether a live poultry dealer has provided sufficient information to enable a poultry grower to make informed business decisions. The criteria would also address whether the inputs, including birds, feed, and medication, provided by live poultry dealers to poultry growers are of consistent quality and quantity. The criteria would recognize the non-uniformity of inputs provided by live poultry dealers to growers and discourage the live poultry dealer from consistently providing superior or inferior inputs to growers in a manner that consistently affects grower compensation. The criteria also would consider whether live poultry dealers have provided poultry growers with dissimilar production variables such as the density at which the live poultry dealer places birds, target bird sizes, and age of birds at slaughter that affects the performance and grower ranking. Finally, the criteria would consider whether a live poultry dealer has demonstrated a legitimate business justification for conduct that may otherwise be unfair, unjustly discriminatory, or deceptive or gives an undue or unreasonable preference or advantage to any poultry grower or subjects any poultry grower to an undue or unreasonable prejudice or disadvantage.
The production of poultry is highly vertically integrated with live poultry dealers owning or controlling most segments of the value chain. Live poultry dealers typically own the breeding stock, the hatcheries, the feedmills, the live birds, and they own and operate the slaughter operations. Live poultry dealers typically contract out the growing operations for their live birds to independent poultry growers. Live poultry dealers who own or control most segments of the value chain and contract out the growing operations of live birds are commonly referred to as integrators.
Broilers are almost exclusively grown under production contracts. In 2012, 96.4% of broilers were grown under contract, while 68.5% of turkeys were grown under production contracts. Under a production contract, the live poultry dealer provides the poultry grower with many inputs including the live chicks, feed, and medications. The poultry grower in turn provides the housing, labor, water, electricity, fuel,
Under a typical poultry grower ranking system, all growers who grew birds that were shipped to the same plant in the same week are grouped together for payment purposes. Their cost per pound of live weight is averaged using standard costs for chicks and feed. Live poultry dealers then rank the growers based on cost. Live poultry dealers typically reward growers with lower costs by providing higher compensation for their growing services. Live poultry dealers typically provide less compensation to growers with higher costs.
Contracting is an important and prevalent feature in the production of poultry. The following table shows the share of poultry, by type, produced under contract over the years that the Census of Agriculture has published data on commodities raised and delivered under production
Agricultural production contracts have many benefits. They help farmers and livestock producers manage price and production risks, elicit the production of products with specific quality attributes by tying prices to those attributes, and facilitate the smooth flow of commodities to processing plants encouraging more efficient use of farm and processing capacities. Agricultural production contracts can also lead to improvements in efficiency throughout the supply chain for products by providing farmers with incentives to deliver products consumers desire and produce products in ways that reduce processing costs and, ultimately, retail prices. Poultry production contracts are a specific type of agricultural production contract that are widely used due to the benefits of growing poultry under production contract arrangements.
There are benefits to both live poultry dealers and poultry growers from entering into agricultural production contracts, referred to as contract poultry growing arrangements
The pervasive use of contract poultry growing arrangements has benefited the poultry industry and consumers by increasing the rate of adoption of new technology, increasing feed conversion, and increasing the ability of the industry to respond to changes in consumer demand.
As the above discussion highlights, there are important benefits associated with the use of agriculture contracts in the poultry industry. However, if there are large disparities in the bargaining power among contracting parties resulting from size differences between contracting parties or the use of market power by one of the contracting parties, the contracts may have detrimental effects on one of the contracting parties and may result in inefficiencies in the marketplace.
For example, a contract that ties a grower to a single purchaser of a specialized commodity, even if the contract provides for fair compensation to the grower, still leaves the grower subject to default risks should the contractor fail. Another example is a contract that covers a shorter term than the life of the capital (a poultry house, for example). The grower may face the hold-up risk that the contractor (live poultry dealer) may require additional capital investments or may impose lower returns at the time of contract renewal. Hold-up risk is a potential market failure and is discussed in detail in the next section. These risks may be heightened when there are no alternative buyers for the grower to switch to, or when the capital investment is specific to the original buyer.
The data
Many poultry processing markets face barriers to entry, including: (1) Economies of scale; (2) high asset-specific capital costs with few alternative uses of the capital; (3) brand loyalty of consumers, customer loyalty to the incumbent processors, and high customer switching costs; and (4) governmental food safety, bio-hazard, and environmental regulations. Consistent with these barriers, there has been limited new entry.
However, an area where entry has been successful is in developing and niche markets, such as organic meat and free-range chicken. Developing and niche markets have a relatively small consumer market that is willing to pay higher prices, which supports smaller plant sizes. Niche processors are generally small, however, and do not offer opportunities to many producers or growers.
Economies of scale have resulted in large processing plants in the poultry processing industry. Barriers to entry limit the expansion of choice for poultry growers who have only one or two integrators in their local areas with no potential entrants on the horizon. The limited expansion of choice of processors by poultry growers may limit contract choices and the bargaining power of growers in negotiating contracts.
One indication of potential market power is industry concentration.
The table above shows the concentration of the four largest broiler and turkey processors has remained relatively steady at between 50 and 60 percent.
The data in Table 5 are estimates of national concentration and the size differences discussed below are also at the national level, but the economic markets for poultry may be regional or local, and concentration in regional or local areas may be higher than national measures.
Another factor GIPSA considered in proposing § 201.214 is the contrast in size and scale between poultry growers and the live poultry dealers they supply. The disparity in size between large oligopsonistic buyers and atomistic sellers may lead to market power. The National Chicken Council states that in 2016, approximately 35 companies were involved in the business of raising, processing, and marketing chicken on a vertically integrated basis, while about 25,000 family farmers had production contracts with those companies.
As the above discussion highlights, there are large size differences between poultry growers and the live poultry dealers which they supply. These size differences may contribute to unequal
Integrators demand investment in fixed assets from the growers. One example is specific types of poultry houses and equipment the integrator may require the grower to utilize in their growing operations. These investments may improve efficiency by more than the cost of installation. Typically, the improved efficiency would accrue to both the integrator and the grower. The integrator has lower feed costs, and the grower performs better relative to other poultry growers in a settlement group. If the grower bears the entire cost of installation, then the grower should be further compensated for the feed conversion gains that accrue to the integrator. The risk is that after the assets are installed, the cost to the grower is “sunk.” This means that if the integrator reneges on paying compensation for the additional capital investments, and insists on maintaining the lower price, the grower will accept that lower price rather than receive nothing. This allows the integrator to get the benefit of efficiency gains, at no expense to them, with the grower bearing all of the cost. This reneging is termed “hold-up” in the economic literature.
Hold-up can have two consequences that result in market failures. If the growers do not anticipate hold-up, then growers will spend too much on investments because the integrator who demands them is not incurring any cost. That is inefficient. If the grower does anticipate hold-up, they will act as if the integrator was going to renege even when it was not, resulting in too little investment and loss of potential efficiency gains.
Hold-up can be resolved with increased competition. If an integrator developed a reputation for reneging, and growers could go elsewhere, the initial integrator would be punished and disincentivized from reneging in the future. Unfortunately, in practice, many growers do not have the option of going elsewhere.
Data shown above in Table 4 indicate that there are few integrators in these markets, and that growers have limited choice. Table 5, above, indicates the level of concentration in the poultry processing industry and shows that integrators operate in concentrated markets.
This rule would allow growers to file complaints against integrators that renege, giving some of the incentive benefit of competition, without compromising the efficiency of having few large processors. In addition to addressing the potential market failure of hold-up, this rule would address inefficiencies due to incomplete and asymmetric information in poultry markets. Poultry growers who lack adequate information on the expected revenue from a growing arrangement may make inefficient investment decisions. For instance, a grower may invest too much money in building new houses or purchasing upgrades relative to what they would choose if they were fully informed about the expected return from those investments. By requiring that growers be provided sufficient information to make informed business decisions, this rule would help mitigate non-optimal investment by growers and improves social welfare.
There are benefits of contracting in the poultry industry, as well as structural issues that may result in unequal bargaining power and market failures. These structural issues and market failures would be mitigated by relieving plaintiffs from the requirement to demonstrate competitive injury. For instance, contracting parties can alleviate hold-up problems if they are able to write complete contracts, and are able to litigate to enforce the terms of those contracts when there is an attempt to engage in ex-post hold-up. Because proving competitive injury is difficult and costly, removing that burden facilitate the use of litigation by producers and growers to address violations of the Packers and Stockyards Act. If growers are able to seek legal remedies, then their contracts would be easier to enforce. This will incentivize integrators to avoid exploitation of market power and asymmetric information, as well as behaviors that result in the market failure of hold-up. The result will be improved efficiency in poultry markets. GIPSA has a clear role to ensure that market failures are mitigated so that poultry markets remain fair and competitive. Section 201.214 seeks to fulfill that role by promoting fairness and equity for poultry growers.
GIPSA issued a proposed rule on June 22, 2010, with several new regulations, many of which had the potential to impact the poultry industry. A brief summary of the regulations proposed in 2010 follows.
• Proposed § 201.3(c) stated that certain conduct may be found to violate sections 202(a) and/or 202(b) of the P&S Act without a finding of harm or likely harm to competition.
• Proposed § 201.210 would have provided specific examples of conduct that violate section 202(a) regardless of whether the conduct harms or is likely to harm competition.
• Proposed § 201.211 would have provided specific criteria the Secretary may consider when determining whether an undue or unreasonable preference or advantage or an undue or unreasonable prejudice or disadvantage has occurred in violation of section 202(b) of the P&S Act.
• Proposed § 201.213 stated that live poultry dealers obtaining poultry under a poultry growing arrangement must submit a sample copy of each unique contract or agreement to GIPSA for posting on its Web site.
• Proposed § 201.214 would have required live poultry dealers paying growers on a tournament system to pay growers raising the same type and kind of poultry the same base compensation and further required that growers be settled in groups with other growers with like house types. Proposed § 201.214 also would have prohibited live poultry dealers from offering poultry growing arrangements containing provisions that decrease or reduce grower compensation below the base compensation amount.
• Proposed § 201.215 would have provided specific criteria the Secretary may consider when determining whether a poultry grower was provided with reasonable notice prior to suspension of the delivery of birds to a poultry grower.
• Proposed § 201.216 would have set forth specific criteria the Secretary may consider when determining whether a requirement that a poultry grower make additional capital investments constitutes an unfair practice in violation of the P&S Act.
• Proposed § 201.217 would have set forth the conditions under which a poultry grower may be required to make additional capital investments.
• Proposed § 201.218 would have provided specific criteria the Secretary may consider in determining whether a live poultry dealer has provided a poultry grower a reasonable period of time to remedy a breach of contract.
• Proposed § 201.219 would have provided specific criteria the Secretary may consider when determining whether the arbitration process in a contract provides a meaningful opportunity for the poultry grower to participate fully in the arbitration process.
GIPSA considered thousands of comments before proposing the current version of § 201.214. The following provisions were in the 2010 rule, but not in the currently proposed regulation.
• Requirement that live poultry dealers paying poultry growers on a tournament system pay poultry growers raising the same type and kind of poultry the same base compensation, and that poultry growers be settled in groups with other poultry growers with like house types (§ 201.214).
• Prohibition on live poultry dealers from offering growing arrangements containing provisions that decrease or reduce poultry grower compensation below the base compensation amount (§ 201.214(a)).
• Requirement that live poultry dealers submit sample contracts to GIPSA for posting to the public (§ 201.213).
Additionally, GIPSA has adjusted the rule proposed in 2010 to give live poultry dealers more flexibility in suspending the delivery of birds and requiring capital improvements and those adjustments are reflected in current proposed §§ 201.215 and 201.216, respectively.
GIPSA is issuing § 201.3(a) as an interim final rule concurrently in this issue of the
GIPSA has now revised § 201.214 and instead of proscribing certain conduct, new proposed § 201.214 would establish criteria the Secretary may consider in determining whether a live poultry dealer has used a poultry grower ranking system to compensate poultry growers in an unfair, unjustly discriminatory, or deceptive manner, or in a way that gives an undue or unreasonable preference or advantage to any poultry grower or subjects any poultry grower to an undue or unreasonable prejudice or disadvantage.
GIPSA received numerous comments on the proposed rule in 2010. Although many thousands of the comments submitted contained general qualitative assessments of either the costs or benefits of the proposed rule, only two comments systematically described quantitative costs across the rule's provisions.
Comments from the National Meat Association included cost estimates by Informa Economics (the Informa Study). The Informa Study estimated that the proposed rule would cost the U.S. poultry industry approximately $361.6 million.
The Informa Study recognized that the economic costs of the 2010 proposed rule would take time to materialize. The Informa Study estimated that only the direct, one-time costs would occur shortly after implementation and the more significant impacts, such as declining efficiency, would happen more slowly and would not reach the full impact until years 3 and 4 in the poultry industry after the rule become effective.
The Informa Study posited that the several elements in the proposed rule would likely alter the integrator-grower relationship in such a way as to slow down the adoption of new technologies that increase efficiency and reduce costs.
Comments from the National Chicken Council included cost estimates prepared by Dr. Thomas E. Elam, President, FarmEcon LLC (the Elam Study).
Estimates of the costs in the Informa Study and the Elam Study were largely due to business practices that live poultry dealers were projected to alter in reaction to the proposed rule rather than changes in business practices directly imposed by the rule proposed in 2010. For example, the Elam Study expected live poultry dealers to assay (a test to determine the quality of feed) each load of feed delivered to growers to avoid litigation.
GIPSA believes the cost estimates presented in the Informa Study and the Elam Study were overstated. The studies relied on interviews that queried the willingness of live poultry dealers to alter their business practices. The estimates, based on interviews, may overstate costs because the live poultry dealers would face adjustment costs from the rule proposed in 2010 and had incentives to respond that they would discontinue current practices. GIPSA also believes that certain adjustments are unlikely to occur. For example, GIPSA believes it is unlikely that live poultry dealers would take on the costly
Executive Order 12866 requires an assessment of costs and benefits of potentially effective and reasonably feasible alternatives to the planned regulation and an explanation of why the planned regulatory action is preferable to the identified potential alternatives.
If § 201.214 is never finalized, there are no marginal costs and marginal benefits as industry participants will not alter their conduct. From a cost standpoint, this is the least cost alternative compared to the other two alternatives. This alternative also has no marginal benefits. Since there are no changes from the status quo under this regulatory alternative, it will serve as the baseline against which to measure the other two alternatives.
GIPSA expects that the direct costs of proposed § 201.214 would consist of the costs of developing a consistency management system, providing income projections to poultry growers, keeping additional records, and reviewing and re-writing poultry growing contracts to ensure that poultry grower ranking systems are not used in an unfair, unjustly discriminatory, or deceptive manner or in any way that gives an undue or unreasonable preference, advantage, prejudice, or disadvantage.
Based on its expertise regulating the poultry industry over several decades, GIPSA does not expect the proposed rule to result in a decrease in the use of poultry grower ranking systems, lower capital formation, or decreases in efficiencies in the poultry industry. The only indirect costs that GIPSA anticipates are the effects of the increase in industry costs from the direct costs on supply and demand and the resulting quantity and price impacts on the retail market for chicken and the related input market for broilers.
To estimate the costs of the proposed rule, GIPSA divided costs into two major categories, direct and indirect costs. GIPSA expects that direct costs would be comprised of administrative costs. Administrative costs include items such as the following: (1) Providing income projections to growers; (2) development of company-specific consistency management systems (CMSs) to ensure poultry grower ranking systems are not used in an unfair, unjustly discriminatory, or deceptive manner or in any way that gives an undue or unreasonable preference, advantage, prejudice, or disadvantage; (3) additional record keeping; (4) review of written contracts by attorneys and the employees of regulated companies; and (5) all other administrative office work associated with review of contracts.
Indirect costs include costs caused by changes in supply and/or demand resulting from the proposed rule. Indirect costs also include potential efficiency losses due to potential changes in poultry grower ranking systems.
To estimate administrative costs of the proposed rule, GIPSA relied on its experience reviewing the operations and business records of live poultry dealers, poultry growing contracts, and other business records for compliance with the P&S Act and regulations. GIPSA also considered the impact of each criterion contained in § 201.214 on administrative costs.
Under § 201.214(a), the Secretary may consider whether a live poultry dealer has provided sufficient information to a poultry grower to enable the poultry grower to make informed business decisions. Such information should include information necessary to calculate the expected income from the poultry growing arrangement. Current poultry growers who have been compensated for multiple flocks under a poultry grower ranking system may already have sufficient information because they have already established income patterns by participating in the poultry grower ranking system. The criterion in proposed § 201.214(a) would mainly apply to new growers, those growers switching to different live poultry dealers, or to growers considering housing upgrades where this information is not already available to the poultry grower.
In the past, live poultry dealers commonly provided prospective growers with projection sheets that would provide a grower with estimates of the minimum and maximum compensation they could expect under a contract. GIPSA's experience conducting investigations and compliance reviews in the poultry industry has indicated that not all live poultry dealers currently provide projection sheets to poultry growers.
GIPSA expects that it would not be difficult for live poultry dealers to develop and provide projection sheets for each contract type to all current and prospective growers. GIPSA believes that providing projection sheets to growers that contained the minimum, average, and maximum compensation they can expect for the contract type they are considering or under which they are currently growing would be sufficient information to enable the poultry growers to make informed business decisions about their future compensation and whether the compensation is sufficient to warrant increasing capital investments, for example.
Based on GIPSA's experience regulating live poultry dealers and reviewing their records, it developed time estimates for the number of hours for company managers and information technology (IT) staff to develop new projection sheets or review and revise existing sheets for each type of poultry growing contract that contains a poultry grower ranking system on which to base grower compensation. GIPSA estimates that there are 10 individual contract types for each of the 133 live poultry dealers who report to GIPSA. GIPSA also developed time estimates for legal staff to review the projection sheets and for the company to deliver the projection sheets to all current and prospective growers. GIPSA estimates that each projection sheet for each of the 1,330 unique contract types would take eight hours of management and IT time to prepare, and two hours of attorney time to review and rewrite the contract. In addition, it will take 0.2 hours of administrative time to print, and mail the projection sheets and revised contracts for each of the 21,925 individual poultry production contracts of which GIPSA is aware. GIPSA multiplied the estimated hours to conduct these tasks by the average
The criterion in § 201.214(b) permits the Secretary to consider whether a live poultry dealer supplies inputs of comparable quality and quantity to all poultry growers in the ranking group and whether there is a pattern or practice of supplying inferior inputs to one or more poultry growers in the ranking group. Inputs include birds, feed, medication, and any other input supplied by the live poultry dealer.
The U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approves all medication that can be administered to broilers that are grown for human consumption.
GIPSA also believes that feed provided by live poultry dealers would be consistent across a group of growers and that this criterion would not be costly to the industry. Feed is produced by live poultry dealers at a feedmill and the same batch of feed is distributed to growers until more feed is produced and then that feed is distributed. The process of the production and distribution of feed ensures consistency across the group of growers that receive the same batch of feed. Once a batch of feed is produced, live poultry dealers truck it to growers according to established routes and schedules. All growers on the same route should receive feed of similar quality.
The chicks supplied by a live poultry dealer to a poultry grower have the potential to be inconsistent and GIPSA believes that live poultry dealers would have to take action to ensure a poultry grower is not consistently supplied with inferior chicks. The factors that affect chick quality include the age and breed of the breeder stock and the conditions at the hatchery. Hatchery conditions affecting chick quality include, hatching egg quality, time of collection, egg storage temperature and humidity, incubation temperature, incubator carbon dioxide concentration, and chick hatching time in relation to being removed from the incubator.
It is possible that the rotation of chicks being hatched and delivered could result in the same grower(s) receiving inferior chicks on a consistent basis. In order to avoid the possibility of consistent placement of inferior chicks with the same grower, even if unintentional, live poultry dealers would likely respond by designing and implementing a CMS to identify and evenly distribute inferior chicks.
GIPSA expects the same CMS to be used to demonstrate that a poultry grower ranking system is not used in an unfair, unjustly discriminatory, or deceptive manner, or in a way that gives an undue or unreasonable preference or advantage to any poultry grower or subjects any poultry grower to an undue or unreasonable prejudice or disadvantage. Proposed § 201.214(c) would allow the Secretary to consider whether a live poultry dealer provides poultry growers with dissimilar production variables in the ranking group in a manner that affects a poultry grower's compensation. Production variables include, but are not limited to, the density at which the live poultry dealer places birds, the target slaughter weights of the birds, and bird ages that vary by more than seven days. The live production and broiler management teams must work together to ensure that medication, bird densities, target bird sizes, and the timing of the harvesting of flocks does not consistently affect grower rankings. Each live poultry dealer, whether large or small, would need to design and implement one CMS to cover all of its breeding, hatching, feedmill, and broiler operations. This CMS would ensure that growers are not treated inconsistently and that there is not a pattern or practice of unfair, unjustly discriminatory, or deceptive treatment or undue or unreasonable preference, advantage, prejudice, or disadvantage.
GIPSA relied on its knowledge of the poultry industry to estimate the cost of designing and implementing a CMS that could be used by both large and small live poultry dealers. GIPSA estimates that it would take 640 hours of management and IT staff time to develop a CMS. GIPSA estimates it would take 8 hours per live poultry dealer for its legal team to review the CMS and 96 hours to train the breeding, hatching, and broiler staff how to use the CMS to ensure the uniform distribution of inferior chicks. GIPSA multiplied the estimated hours to conduct these tasks by the average hourly wages for managers and IT staff at $58/hour, attorneys at $83/hour, and administrative assistants at $34/hour as reported by the U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics in its Occupational Employment Statistics.
Each live poultry dealer that uses a poultry grower ranking system to calculate grower compensation would need to keep additional records to demonstrate that poultry grower ranking systems are used in a fair manner after applying the criteria in proposed § 201.214. Proposed § 201.214(d) allows the Secretary to consider whether a live poultry dealer has demonstrated a legitimate business justification for use of a poultry grower ranking system in a manner that may otherwise be unfair, unjustly discriminatory, or deceptive or gives an undue or unreasonable preference or advantage to any poultry grower or subjects any poultry grower to an undue or unreasonable prejudice or disadvantage.
Based on GIPSA's knowledge and review of records kept by live poultry dealers, GIPSA believes that the live poultry dealers already keep very detailed records regarding the performance of each grower. The records include all information needed to calculate feed conversion such as weights and quantities of inputs provided, and all other data used to determine grower performance and compensation. Based on GIPSA's experience reviewing these records and the business operations of live poultry dealers, GIPSA estimates that live poultry dealers will spend an additional 8 hours of time preparing records for
Given that proposed § 201.214 is a new regulation, live poultry dealers would need to review the contractual language in their existing contracts with respect to poultry grower ranking systems to ensure that they are used in a fair and non-preferential manner after applying the criteria in proposed § 201.214. GIPSA again relied on its experience and developed time estimates for the number of hours for attorneys and company managers to review and revise verbal and written production contracts and for staff to make changes, copy, and obtain signed copies of the contracts. For poultry growing contracts, GIPSA estimates that each of the 1,330 unique contract types would take 2 hours of attorney time and 2 hours of company management time to review and rewrite, and it would take 2 hours of administrative time to review each of the 21,925 individual poultry production contracts. GIPSA multiplied the estimated hours to conduct these administrative tasks by the average hourly wages for attorneys at $83/hour, managers at $58/hour, and administrative assistants at $34/hour as reported by the U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics in its Occupational Employment Statistics.
GIPSA recognizes that contract review costs would also be borne by poultry growers. GIPSA estimates the each grower would spend 1 hour of time reviewing a contract and would spend 1 hour of their attorney's time to review the contract. GIPSA multiplied 1 hour of grower time and 1 hour of attorney time to conduct the production contract review by the average hourly wages for attorneys at $83/hour and managers at $58/hour. GIPSA then applied this cost to the 21,925 poultry growing contracts that have been reported to GIPSA to arrive at the total contract review costs that would be incurred by poultry growers. GIPSA then added together the contract review costs by live poultry dealers and by poultry growers to arrive at estimated contract review costs of $4.96 million for the poultry industry.
GIPSA then added together all of the estimated types of administrative costs and the estimated first-year total administrative costs appear in the following table:
The first-year total administrative costs would be $17.37 million for the poultry industry. The two largest costs would be industry record keeping and the development of CMSs, followed by record keeping and the costs of developing projection sheets.
Interim final regulation 201.3(a) will already be in effect if and when § 201.214 becomes effective. GIPSA expects that § 201.3(a) will result in additional litigation as this rule states that certain conduct or action can violate sections 202(a) and/or 202(b) of the P&S Act without a harm or likely harm to competition in all cases. Section 201.3(a) formalizes GIPSA's longstanding position that, in some cases, violations of sections 202(a) and 202(b) can be proven without demonstrating harm or likely harm to competition. Section 201.214 provides clarity to the industry by establishing criteria the Secretary may consider in determining whether a live poultry dealer has used a poultry grower ranking system to compensate poultry growers in an unfair, unjustly discriminatory, or deceptive manner, or in a way that gives an undue or unreasonable preference or advantage to any poultry grower or subjects any poultry grower to an undue or unreasonable prejudice or disadvantage.
Regulation 201.3(a) is broad in nature. Section 201.214 simply provides clarity and GIPSA believes that § 201.214 will not lead to litigation above that already expected as a result of § 201.3(a). Thus, GIPSA considers the additional litigation under § 201.3(a) to be the baseline litigation costs for § 201.214 and that the litigation costs for § 201.3(a) already include the litigation costs of § 201.214. Since those litigation costs have already been counted under § 201.3(a), GIPSA does not allocate any additional litigation costs to § 201.214 and for the purposes of this RIA, the marginal litigation costs are zero.
The total first-year direct costs of proposed § 201.214 would consist of administrative and litigation costs (which are equal to zero) from above and they are summarized in the following table.
GIPSA estimates that the direct costs of proposed § 201.214 would be $17.37 million.
As discussed previously, GIPSA does not expect proposed § 201.214 to result in a decrease in the use of poultry grower ranking systems, lower capital formation, or decreases in efficiencies in the poultry industry. The regulation simply establishes the criteria under which the Secretary may determine whether live poultry dealers are using poultry grower ranking systems in an unfair, unjustly discriminatory, or deceptive manner, or in a way that gives an undue or unreasonable preference or advantage to any poultry grower or subjects any grower to an undue or unreasonable prejudice or disadvantage.
The only indirect costs that GIPSA anticipates are the effects of the increase in industry costs from the direct administrative costs on supply and demand, and the resulting quantity and price impacts on the retail market for chicken and the related input market for broilers.
GIPSA modeled the impact of the increase in total industry costs resulting from the direct costs of proposed § 201.214 in a Marketing Margins Model
GIPSA modeled the increases in industry costs resulting from higher direct costs as an inward (or upward) shift in the supply curve for chicken. This has the effect of increasing the equilibrium prices and reducing the equilibrium quantity traded. This also has the effect of reducing the derived demand for poultry growing services, which causes a reduction in the equilibrium prices and quantity traded. Established economic theory suggests that these shifts in the supply curve and derived demand curve and the resulting price and quantity impacts will result in a reduction in social welfare through a deadweight loss.
To estimate the output and input supply and demand curves for the MMM, GIPSA constructed linear supply and demand curves around equilibrium price and quantity points using price elasticities of supply and demand from the USDA's Economic Research Service.
GIPSA then shifted the supply curve for chicken up by the amount of the increase in total costs for the poultry industry from Table 5 above. GIPSA calculated the new equilibrium price and quantity traded of chicken. GIPSA also calculated the new equilibrium price and quantity in the poultry growing services market resulting from the decreases in derived demand for growing services. GIPSA calculated the resulting social welfare changes in the input and output markets.
The calculation of the price impact from the increase in poultry industry costs from proposed § 201.214 would have in a price increase of approximately two-hundredths of a cent in the retail price of chicken.
GIPSA added all direct costs to the indirect costs, which are equal to zero, to arrive at the estimated total first-year costs of proposed § 201.214. The total costs are summarized in the following table.
GIPSA estimates that the total costs of proposed § 201.214 to be $17.37 million for the poultry industry in the first full year of implementation
To arrive at the estimated 10-year costs of proposed § 201.214, GIPSA expects the costs to be constant for the first 5 years while courts are setting precedents for the interpretation of proposed § 201.214 if indeed it is finalized. GIPSA expects that case law with respect to proposed § 201.214 would be settled after 5 years, and by then, industry participants would likely know how GIPSA would enforce the proposed regulation and how courts would interpret the proposed regulation if finalized. The effect of courts establishing precedents is that administrative costs would likely decline after 5 years.
Once courts establish precedents in case law, GIPSA expects the direct administrative costs of reviewing and revising contracts and developing projection sheets would decrease rapidly as contracts would already contain any language modifications necessitated by implementation of the proposed rule, and projection sheets would already have been developed for most contracts. GIPSA also expects that the direct costs of record keeping and operating CMSs would decrease rapidly as courts set precedents on which records would be required and how detailed a CMS must be, and as companies become more efficient in ensuring that poultry grower ranking systems are used in a fair manner after applying the criteria in proposed § 201.214.
To arrive at the estimated 10-year costs of proposed § 201.214, GIPSA estimates that contracts would expire at a steady rate. Based on its expertise, GIPSA believes that 20 percent of contracts would expire on a yearly basis and thus, in the first five years, 20 percent of all contracts would expire and need to be renewed each year or new production contracts would be put in place. Thus in years 2 through year 5, contract review costs would be 20 percent of the costs of review in the first year because the costs of reviewing and revising contracts would only apply to the 20 percent of contracts that are expiring or are new contracts each year. Based on GIPSA's expertise, GIPSA also estimates that in years 2 through year 5, 20 percent of all projection sheets would require updating each year, the cost of operating and updating CMSs would be 20 percent of first-year development costs, and that record keeping costs would be 20 percent of the first-year cost as companies become more efficient in record keeping and learn which records are required. Based on its expertise, GIPSA estimates that in the second 5 years, the direct administrative costs of revising contracts, projection sheets, CMS operation, and record keeping would decrease by 50 percent per year as the courts establish precedents, contracts would contain standard language, and companies would become more efficient at ensuring poultry grower ranking systems are used in a fair manner after applying the criteria in proposed § 201.214. The total 10-year costs of proposed § 201.214 appear in the table below.
Based on the analysis, GIPSA expects the 10-year total costs of proposed § 201.214 would be $34.64 million.
The total costs of proposed § 201.214 in the table above show that the costs are highest in the first year, decline to a constant lower level over the next 4 years, and then gradually decrease again over the subsequent 5 years. Costs to be incurred in the future are less expensive than the same costs to be incurred today. This is because the money that is used to pay the costs in the future can be invested today and earn interest until the time period in which the cost is incurred. After the cost has been incurred, the interest earned would still be available.
To account for the time value of money, the costs of the regulations to be incurred in the future are discounted back to today's dollars using a discount rate. The sum of all costs discounted back to the present is called the net present value (NPV) of total costs. GIPSA relied on both a three percent and seven percent discount rate as discussed in Circular A-4.
GIPSA calculated the NPV of the ten-year total costs of the proposed regulation using both a three percent and seven percent discount rate and the NPVs appear in the following table.
GIPSA expects the NPV of the 10-year total costs of § 201.214 will be $32.16 million at a three percent discount rate and $29.36 million at a seven percent discount rate.
GIPSA then annualized the NPV of the 10-year total costs (referred to as annualized costs) of proposed § 201.214 using both a three percent and seven percent discount rate as required by Circular A-4 and the results appear in the following table.
GIPSA expects that the annualized costs of § 201.214 would be $3.77 million at a three percent discount rate and $4.18 million at a seven percent discount rate.
Concurrent with proposing § 201.214, GIPSA is issuing an interim final version of § 201.3(a). Section 201.3(a) states that conduct or action can be found to violate sections 202(a) and/or 202(b) of the P&S Act without a finding of harm or likely harm to competition in all cases. As a stand-alone regulation, § 201.3(a) formalizes GIPSA's longstanding position that, in some cases, violations of sections 202(a) and 202(b) can be proven without demonstrating harm or likely harm to competition.
In its Regulatory Impact Analysis, GIPSA estimated the annualized costs of § 201.3(a) would range from $6.87 million to $96.01 million at a three percent discount rate and from $7.12 million to $98.60 million at a seven percent discount rate. The range of potential costs is broad and GIPSA relied on its expertise to arrive at a point estimate of expected annualized costs. GIPSA expects the cattle, hog, and poultry industries to primarily take a “wait and see” approach to how courts will interpret § 201.3(a) and only slightly adjust its use of AMAs, and incentive or performance-based payment systems. GIPSA estimates that the annualized costs of § 201.3(a) at the point estimate will be $51.44 million at a three percent discount rate and $52.86 million at a seven percent discount rate based on an anticipated “wait and see” approach by the cattle, hog, and poultry industries.
GIPSA recognizes that courts, after the implementation of a finalized § 201.3(a), may opt to continue to apply earlier precedents of requiring the showing of harm or potential harm to competition in section 202(a) and 202(b) cases. This has the potential to affect the costs of § 201.214 and 201.211 should they become finalized. GIPSA expects that even if courts continue to require showing of harm or potential harm to competition in section 202(a) and 202(b) cases, that firms would likely still incur costs of complying with § 201.214. Even if regulated entities expect that courts would require showing of a harm to competition for § 201.214 violations, the regulated entities may still expect litigation as private parties test the courts application of § 201.3 as it relates to § 201.214 violations. To reduce this threat of litigation, regulated entities may still incur the administrative costs detailed above. Should § 201.214 become finalized and courts still require a showing of harm or potential harm to competition, regulated entities may still voluntarily undertake the adjustment costs detailed above.
GIPSA expects proposed § 201.214 to reduce the costs of implementing § 201.3 by providing more clarity in the appropriate application of sections 202(a) and (b) of the P&S Act as they apply to poultry grower ranking systems. Section 201.214 provides clarity to the industry by establishing criteria the Secretary may consider in determining whether a live poultry dealer has used a poultry grower ranking system to compensate poultry growers in an unfair, unjustly discriminatory, or deceptive manner, or in a way that gives an undue or unreasonable preference or advantage to any poultry grower or subjects any poultry grower to an undue or unreasonable prejudice or disadvantage.
GIPSA was unable to quantify all the benefits of proposed § 201.214. However, there are a number of important qualitative benefits of proposed § 201.214 that merit discussion. Proposed § 201.214 contains several provisions that GIPSA expects would improve efficiencies and reduce market failures. For regulations to improve efficiencies for market participants and generate benefits for consumers and producers, they must increase the amount of relevant information to market participants, reduce information asymmetries, protect private property rights, or foster competition.
Proposed § 201.214(a) would reduce information asymmetries and result in poultry growers making informed business decisions such as whether to enter the industry and in which capital improvements to invest. Growers having more complete information would result in more efficient levels of capital in the growing industry than with less information. Less information may lead to too much or too little capital. More complete information in the growing industry would allow live poultry dealers to send price signals to growers about levels of capital they desire. For example, if a live poultry dealer desires
Proposed § 201.214(b) would encourage live poultry dealers to supply inputs of more consistent quantity and quality to all growers. Thus, inferior chicks, which are more costly to grow, would likely be distributed more uniformly across growers. This would facilitate a level playing field and foster fair competition in poultry grower ranking systems. If proposed § 201.214 is finalized and becomes effective, growers would be compensated for their performance based more accurately on their skill and less so on the quality of inputs provided. The more efficient growers would receive more compensation in poultry grower ranking systems, which sends a signal to expand their offering of growing services. Less efficient growers would earn less, which sends a signal to reduce their offering of growing services or, at the extreme, to exit the industry. The result is lower costs to the industry as poultry grower ranking systems would incentivize the more efficient growers to expand and less efficient growers to contract or exit the industry.
Proposed § 201.214(c) would also provide a similar benefit to the industry. Under this section, the Secretary may consider whether a live poultry dealer includes poultry growers provided with dissimilar production variables in the ranking group in a manner that affects a poultry grower's compensation. The live poultry dealer would be expected to assure that growers are treated consistently as compared to other growers in the settlement group. This would allow growers to compete in poultry grower ranking systems on their skill level and not be disadvantaged by factors outside of their control. The result, again, is lower costs to the industry as the poultry grower ranking system would likely incentivize the more efficient growers to expand and the less efficient growers to reduce operations or exit the industry.
Proposed § 201.214(d) would benefit the industry by allowing the Secretary to consider whether a live poultry dealer has demonstrated a legitimate business justification for use of a poultry grower ranking system that would otherwise violate the P&S Act. This is a benefit for live poultry dealers as it provides a level of protection against potentially frivolous litigation.
Another important qualitative benefit of proposed § 201.214 is the increased ability for the enforcement of the P&S Act for use of poultry grower ranking systems in a manner that does not result in a harm or likelihood of harm to competition. This occurs through § 201.3(a), which states that conduct can be found to violate sections 202(a) and/or 202(b) of the P&S Act without a finding of harm or likely harm to competition and more specifically through § 201.210(b)(10) which clarifies that absent demonstration of a legitimate business justification, failing to use a poultry grower ranking system in a fair manner after applying the criteria in § 201.214 is unfair, unjustly discriminatory, or deceptive and a violation of section 202(a) of the P&S Act regardless of whether it harms or is likely to harm competition.
A simple example is a live poultry dealer consistently supplying inferior chicks to a particular grower. The grower is harmed by this conduct because the grower consistently under-performs in the poultry grower ranking system and receives lower compensation than if the grower had been provided higher quality chicks. This can be considered an unfair and deceptive practice under section 202(a) and/or as subjecting the grower to an unfair disadvantage under section 202(b). The impact of this harm to the grower is very small when compared to the entire industry and there is no harm to competition from this one instance. Because there is no harm or likely harm to competition, courts have been reluctant to find a violation of section 202(a) or (b) of the P&S Act in such a situation, despite the harm suffered by the individual poultry grower.
However, if similar, though unrelated, harm is experienced by a large number of growers, the cumulative effect does result in a harm to competition. The individual harm is inconsequential to the industry, but the sum total of all individual harm has the potential to be quite significant when compared to the industry and therefore, courts have found harm or likely harm to competition in such a situation. The regulations in this proposed rule, in conjunction with § 201.3(a), clarify that consistently supplying inferior chicks, absent demonstration of a legitimate business justification, would constitute unfair, unjustly discriminatory, or deceptive practices or devices under section 202(a) of the P&S Act or the giving of an undue or unreasonable preference, advantage, prejudice or disadvantage under section 202(b) of the P&S Act.
The sum of all individual harm is likely to increase total industry costs of producing poultry due to an inefficient allocation of resources. The cost of all unfair, unjustly discriminatory, or deceptive practices, or undue or unreasonable preferences or advantages to any poultry grower or undue or unreasonable prejudices or disadvantages are reflected in higher costs of producing poultry, with some portion of these costs passed along to consumers in the form of higher prices.
GIPSA expects proposed § 201.214 coupled with §§ 201.3(a) and 201.210(b)(10) to increase enforcement actions against live poultry dealers for use of poultry grower ranking systems in a manner that violates sections 202(a) and/or 202(b) when the use of the poultry grower ranking system does not harm or is not likely to harm to competition. Several appellate courts have disagreed with USDA's interpretation of the P&S Act that harm or likely harm to competition is not necessary in all instances to prove a violation of sections 202(a) or 202(b). In some cases in which the United States was not a party, these courts have concluded that plaintiffs could not prove their claims under section 202(a) and/or (b) without proving harm to competition or likely harm to competition. One reason the courts gave for declining to defer to USDA's interpretation of the statute is that USDA had not previously formalized its interpretation in a regulation.
Section 201.3 addresses that issue and §§ 201.214 and 201.210(b)(10) provide clarity regarding the circumstances under which use of a poultry grower ranking system, absent demonstration of a legitimate business justification, would constitute an unfair, unjustly discriminatory, or deceptive practice or device under section 202(a) of the P&S Act or the giving of an undue or unreasonable preference, advantage, prejudice or disadvantage under section 202(b) of the P&S Act. GIPSA expects the result would be additional enforcement actions successfully litigated, which will serve as a deterrent to using a poultry grower ranking system in a manner that violates sections 202(a) or (b) of the P&S Act. Successful deterrence would likely result in lower overall costs throughout the entire production and marketing complex of all poultry and chicken.
Benefits to the industry and the market also arise from establishing parity of negotiating power between live
GIPSA expects the annualized costs of § 201.214 will be $3.77 million at a three percent discount rate and $4.18 million at a seven percent discount rate. GIPSA was unable to quantify the benefits of the regulations, but explained numerous qualitative benefits derived from increased information and reduced information asymmetries. The regulation contains several provisions that GIPSA expects will: (1) Improve efficiencies in the formation of capital in the poultry growing industry; and (2) lower costs to the industry as grower ranking systems will incentivize the more efficient growers to expand and less efficient growers to reduce operations or exit the industry. Another benefit of proposed § 201.214 is the deterrent effect of increased enforcement of the P&S Act for violations of section 202(a) or (b). This, in turn, would reduce instances of unfair, unjustly discriminatory, or deceptive practices or devices and undue or unreasonable preferences, advantages, prejudices, or disadvantages and increased efficiencies in the marketplace. At the same time, allowing the Secretary to consider legitimate business justifications for use of a poultry grower ranking system in a manner that might otherwise be seen as a violation of section 202(a) or (b) of the P&S Act would provide a level of protection against potentially frivolous litigation. Thus, proposed § 201.214 would likely increase efficiency, lower costs, and reduce market failures in the poultry industry. These benefits would accrue to all segments of the poultry value chain, and ultimately consumers.
GIPSA considered a third regulatory alternative of phased implementation. Under this third alternative, proposed § 201.214 would only apply to poultry growing contracts when they expire, are altered, or new contracts are put in place. Consider for example, a poultry growing contract with 3 years remaining in the contract when the regulations become effective. Proposed § 201.214 would not be applicable to this contract, under phased implementation, until the contract expires after 3 years and is either modified or replaced.
GIPSA estimated the costs of phased implementation by multiplying the majority of the ten-year total costs of the preferred alternative (Table 7) for each year of the first 10 years the rule would be in effect by the percentage of contracts expiring or altered in the same year. The data on contract lengths for broiler production appear in the table below.
The data in the table above show that 65.2 percent of broiler production contracts have a duration of 12 months or less and 84.4 percent have a duration of 60 months or less. Only 15.64 percent of broiler production contracts are longer than 60 months in duration.
For the first year of the regulation, GIPSA multiplied the costs of § 201.214 by 65.20 percent. The one exception is the cost of the development of CMSs. GIPSA's experience reviewing poultry growing contracts suggests that most live poultry dealers have some contracts that are of a short-term duration. Therefore, GIPSA estimates that all live poultry dealers would have to develop a CMS in the first year after the implementation of the regulation. GIPSA allocates 100 percent of CMS development costs in the first year under the phased implementation alternative. All other direct administrative costs are multiplied by 65.20 percent in the first year.
For years 2 through 5, GIPSA followed the same procedure and adjusted total industry costs by 84.4 percent, the number of contracts that are 5 years or less in duration. For years 6 through 10, GIPSA applied 100 percent of the preferred alternative costs to reflect the full phase in of costs.
The following tables show the 10-year total costs of the phased implementation alternative. The 10-year total costs for each year of the preferred alternative (Table 7) are also shown for convenience.
GIPSA estimates that the first-year total costs of § 201.214 under the phased implementation alternative would be $13.23 million and the 10-year total costs would be $28.32 million. As the table shows, the costs in the first 5 years are lower under the phased implementation option than under the preferred alternative because regulated entities with contracts longer than 1 year are not covered until the contracts expire, are modified, or replaced.
GIPSA calculated the NPV of the 10-year total costs of proposed § 201.214 under phased implementation using both a three percent and seven percent discount rate as required by Circular A-4. The NPVs are shown in the following table.
GIPSA expects the NPV of the 10-year total costs of § 201.214 under the phased implementation option to be $26.18 million at a three percent discount rate and $23.77 million at a seven percent discount rate.
GIPSA then annualized the costs of § 201.214 using both a three percent and seven percent discount rate as required by Circular A-4 and the results appear in the following table.
GIPSA expects the annualized costs of § 201.214 under the phased implementation option to be $3.07 million at a three percent discount rate and $3.38 million at a seven percent discount rate.
The benefits of phased implementation are identical to the benefits of the preferred alternative with the exception of when the benefits will be received and the amount of the benefits. Like the costs, the benefits will be received only when contracts expire, are modified, or new contracts are put in place. Moreover, benefits to be received in the future are worth less than benefits received today. The benefits will be received in the same proportion of the total costs and are based on contract durations. The benefits of phased implementation are less than under the preferred alternative because the full benefits will not be received until all contracts have expired, been modified, or replaced by new contracts. The full benefits of phased implementation will be received beginning in year 6.
GIPSA expects the annualized costs of § 201.214 under the phased implementation option to be $3.07 million at a three percent discount rate and $3.38 million at a seven percent discount rate. The benefits will be received in the same proportion as total costs and are based on contract durations. The benefits of the phased implementation alternative are less than under the preferred alternative because the full benefits will not be received until all contracts have expired, been altered, or replaced by new contracts.
The status quo alternative has zero marginal costs and benefits as GIPSA does not expect any changes in the industry. GIPSA compared the annualized costs of the preferred alternative to the annualized costs of the phased implementation alternative by subtracting the annualized costs of phased implementation from the preferred alternative and the results appear in the following table.
The annualized costs of the phased implementation alternative is $0.70 million less expensive using a three percent discount rate and $0.80 million less expensive using a seven percent discount rate. As is the case with costs, the benefits of the preferred alternative will be highest for the preferred alternative because the full benefits will be received immediately and not when contracts have expired, been altered, or replaced by new contracts as is the case under the phased implementation alternative.
Though the phased implementation alternative would save between $0.70 million and $0.80 million on an annualized basis, this alternative would deny the protections offered by proposed § 201.214 to a substantial percentage of poultry growers for five or more years based on the length of their production contracts. As the data in Table 10 show, 15.6 percent of poultry growers have contracts with durations exceeding five years. Under the phased implementation alternative, these growers would continue to be exposed to the potential market failures discussed above until their contracts expire or are renewed. GIPSA considered all three regulatory alternatives and believes that the preferred alternative is the best alternative as the benefits of the regulation will be captured immediately by all growers, regardless of the length of their contracts.
The Small Business Administration (SBA) defines small businesses by their North American Industry Classification System Codes (NAICS).
GIPSA maintains data on live poultry dealers from the annual reports these firms file with GIPSA. Currently, there are 133 live poultry dealers that would be subject to the proposed regulations. According to U.S. Census data on County Business Patterns, there were 74 poultry slaughter firms that had more than 1,000 employees in 2013.
Another factor, however, that is important in determining the economic effect of the regulations is the number of contracts held by a firm. GIPSA records for 2014 indicated there were 21,925 poultry production contracts in effect, of which 13,370, or 61 percent, were held by the largest six live poultry dealers, and 90 percent (19,673) were held by the largest 25 live poultry dealers. These 25 live poultry dealers are all in the large business SBA category, whereas the 21,925 poultry growers holding the other end of the contracts are almost all small businesses by SBA's definitions.
To the extent the proposed rule imposes costs, these costs are expected to be borne by live poultry dealers. The costs likely include legal review of contracts, record-keeping, administrative costs, developing a CMS, and developing projection sheets.
Live poultry dealers classified as large businesses are responsible for about 89.7 percent of the poultry growing contracts. Assuming that live poultry dealers classified as small businesses will bear about 10.3 percent of the costs, expected costs in the first year for live poultry dealers classified as small businesses would be $1.8 million.
In considering the impact on small businesses, GIPSA considered the average costs and revenues of each small business impacted by § 201.214. The number of small businesses impacted by § 201.214, by NAICS code, as well as the per entity, first-year and annualized costs at both the three percent and seven percent discount rates appear in the following table.
The following table compares the average per entity first-year and annualized costs of § 201.214 to the average revenue per establishment for all firms in the same NAICS code. The annualized costs are slightly higher at the seven percent rate than at the three percent rate, so only the seven percent rate is shown as it is the higher annualized cost.
The revenue figure in the above table come from Census data for live poultry dealers, NAICS code 311615.
As the results in Table 16 demonstrate, the first-year and annualized costs of § 201.214 as a percent of revenue is small at less than one percent.
Based on the above analyses regarding § 201.214, GIPSA certifies that this rule is not expected to have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small business entities as defined in the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
This proposed rule has been reviewed under Executive Order 12988, Civil Justice Reform. These actions are not intended to have retroactive effect, although in some instances they merely reiterate GIPSA's previous interpretation of the P&S Act. This proposed rule would not pre-empt state or local laws, regulations, or policies, unless they present an irreconcilable conflict with this rule. There are no
This proposed rule has been reviewed in accordance with the requirements of Executive Order 13175, “Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments.” Executive Order 13175 requires Federal agencies to consult and coordinate with tribes on a government-to-government basis on policies that have tribal implications, including regulations, legislative comments or proposed legislation, and other policy statements or actions that have substantial direct effects on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes.
GIPSA has assessed the impact of this rule on Indian tribes and determined that this rule does not, to our knowledge, have tribal implications that require tribal consultation under EO 13175. If a tribe requests consultation, GIPSA will work with the Office of Tribal Relations to ensure meaningful consultation is provided where changes, additions, and modifications identified herein are not expressly mandated by Congress.
This proposed rule does not contain new or amended information collection requirements subject to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
GIPSA is committed to compliance with the E-Government Act, to promote the use of the Internet and other information technologies to provide increased opportunities for citizen access to Government information and services, and for other purposes.
Contracts, Poultry, Livestock, Trade Practices.
For the reasons set forth in the preamble, we propose to amend 9 CFR part 201 to read as follows:
7 U.S.C. 181-229c.
(b) * * *
(10) Failing to use a poultry grower ranking system in a fair manner after applying the criteria in § 201.214.
The Secretary may consider various criteria when determining whether a live poultry dealer has engaged in a pattern or practice to use a poultry grower ranking system to compensate poultry growers in an unfair, unjustly discriminatory, or deceptive manner, or in a way that gives an undue or unreasonable preference or advantage to any poultry grower or subjects any poultry grower to an undue or unreasonable prejudice or disadvantage. These criteria include, but are not limited to:
(a) Whether a live poultry dealer provides sufficient information to enable a poultry grower to make informed business decisions. Such information should include the anticipated number of flocks per year, the average gross income from each flock, and any other information necessary to enable a poultry grower to calculate the expected income from the poultry growing arrangement;
(b) Whether a live poultry dealer supplies inputs of comparable quality and quantity to all poultry growers in the ranking group; and whether there is a pattern or practice of supplying inferior inputs to one or more poultry growers in the ranking group. Inputs include birds, feed, medication, and any other input supplied by the live poultry dealer;
(c) Whether a live poultry dealer includes poultry growers provided with dissimilar production variables in the ranking group in a manner that affects a poultry grower's compensation. Production variables include, but are not limited to, the density at which the live poultry dealer places birds, the target slaughter weights of the birds, and bird ages that vary by more than seven days; and
(d) Whether a live poultry dealer has demonstrated a legitimate business justification for use of a poultry grower ranking system that may otherwise be unfair, unjustly discriminatory, or deceptive or gives an undue or unreasonable preference or advantage to any poultry grower or subjects any poultry grower to an undue or unreasonable prejudice or disadvantage.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
We propose to adopt a new airworthiness directive (AD) for The Boeing Company Model 777 airplanes. This proposed AD was prompted by reports of uncommanded altitude display changes in the mode control panel (MCP) altitude window. This proposed AD would require replacing the existing MCP with a new MCP having a different part number. We are proposing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.
We must receive comments on this proposed AD by February 3, 2017.
You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
For service information identified in this NPRM, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Data & Services Management, P.O. Box 3707, MC 2H-65, Seattle, WA 98124-2207; telephone: 206-544-5000, extension 1; fax: 206-766-5680; Internet:
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Frank Carreras, Aerospace Engineer, Systems and Equipment Branch, ANM-130S, FAA, Seattle Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; phone: 425-917-6442; fax: 425-917-6590; email:
We invite you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposal. Send your comments to an address listed under the
We will post all comments we receive, without change, to
We have received reports of uncommanded altitude display changes in the MCP altitude window. Most of the reports indicated that the altitude changes occurred in whole increments of 100 feet or 1,000 feet, with a general range of between 1,000 and 2,000 feet (the largest reported change was 12,000 feet). Boeing has also received reports of uncommanded changes in the MCP's speed/mach window. Uncommanded changes to the MCP selected altitude could result in incorrect spatial separation between airplanes, midair collision, or controlled flight into terrain.
We reviewed Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 777-22-0034, dated March 3, 2016. The service information describes procedures for replacing the existing MCP with a new MCP having a different part number, in the glareshield in the flight compartment. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We are proposing this AD because we evaluated all the relevant information and determined the unsafe condition described previously is likely to exist or develop in other products of the same type design.
This proposed AD would require accomplishing the actions specified in the service information described previously, except as discussed under “Differences Between this Proposed AD and the Service Information.” For information on the procedures and compliance times, see this service information at
Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 777-22-0034, dated March 3, 2016, specifies the compliance time as 1,875 days. For this proposed AD, we specified a compliance time of 60 months.
We estimate that this proposed AD affects 203 airplanes of U.S. registry. We estimate the following costs to comply with this proposed AD:
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: “General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify this proposed regulation:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979),
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
We must receive comments by February 3, 2017.
None.
This AD applies to The Boeing Company Model 777-200, -200LR, -300, -300ER, and 777F series airplanes, certificated in any category, identified in Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 777-22-0034, dated March 3, 2016.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 22, Auto flight.
This AD was prompted by reports of uncommanded altitude display changes in the mode control panel (MCP) altitude window. We are issuing this AD to prevent uncommanded changes to the MCP selected altitude; such uncommanded changes could result in incorrect spatial separation between airplanes, midair collision, or controlled flight into terrain.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
Within 60 months after the effective date of this AD: Replace the existing MCP with a new MCP having a different part number, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 777-22-0034, dated March 3, 2016.
(1) The Manager, Seattle Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or local Flight Standards District Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the ACO, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (i)(1) of this AD. Information may be emailed to:
(2) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office/certificate holding district office.
(3) An AMOC that provides an acceptable level of safety may be used for any repair, modification, or alteration required by this AD if it is approved by the Boeing Commercial Airplanes Organization Designation Authorization (ODA) that has been authorized by the Manager, Seattle ACO, to make those findings. To be approved, the repair method, modification deviation, or alteration deviation must meet the certification basis of the airplane, and the approval must specifically refer to this AD.
(4) For service information that contains steps that are labeled as Required for Compliance (RC), the provisions of paragraphs (h)(4)(i) and (h)(4)(ii) of this AD apply.
(i) The steps labeled as RC, including substeps under an RC step and any figures identified in an RC step, must be done to comply with the AD. If a step or substep is labeled “RC Exempt,” then the RC requirement is removed from that step or substep. An AMOC is required for any deviations to RC steps, including substeps and identified figures.
(ii) Steps not labeled as RC may be deviated from using accepted methods in accordance with the operator's maintenance or inspection program without obtaining approval of an AMOC, provided the RC steps, including substeps and identified figures, can still be done as specified, and the airplane can be put back in an airworthy condition.
(1) For more information about this AD, contact Frank Carreras, Aerospace Engineer, Systems and Equipment Branch, ANM-130S, FAA, Seattle ACO, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; phone: 425-917-6442; fax: 425-917-6590; email:
(2) For service information identified in this AD, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Data & Services Management, P.O. Box 3707, MC 2H-65, Seattle, WA 98124-2207; telephone: 206-544-5000, extension 1; fax: 206-766-5680; Internet:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
We propose to adopt a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain The Boeing Company Model 757-200 and -200PF series airplanes. This proposed AD was prompted by an evaluation by the design approval holder (DAH) indicating that certain areas of the frame webs are subject to widespread fatigue damage (WFD). This proposed AD would require high frequency eddy current (HFEC) inspections of the frame webs for any open coordinating holes, tooling holes, and insulation blanket attachment holes; repair if necessary; and modification of the frame webs at all open hole locations, which would terminate the repetitive inspections. We are proposing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.
We must receive comments on this proposed AD by February 3, 2017.
You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
For service information identified in this NPRM, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Data & Services Management, P.O. Box 3707, MC 2H-65, Seattle, WA 98124-2207; telephone: 206-544-5000, extension 1; fax: 206-766-5680; Internet:
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Muoi Vuong, Aerospace Engineer, Airframe Branch, ANM-120L, FAA, Los Angeles Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), 3960 Paramount Boulevard, Lakewood, CA 90712-4137; phone: 562-627-5205; fax: 562-627-5210; email:
We invite you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposal. Send your comments to an address listed under the
We will post all comments we receive, without change, to
Fatigue damage can occur locally, in small areas or structural design details, or globally, in widespread areas. Multiple-site damage is widespread damage that occurs in a large structural element such as a single rivet line of a lap splice joining two large skin panels. Widespread damage can also occur in multiple elements such as adjacent frames or stringers. Multiple-site damage and multiple-element damage cracks are typically too small initially to be reliably detected with normal inspection methods. Without intervention, these cracks will grow, and eventually compromise the structural integrity of the airplane. This condition is known as widespread fatigue damage. It is associated with general degradation of large areas of structure with similar structural details and stress levels. As an airplane ages, WFD will likely occur, and will certainly occur if the airplane is operated long enough without any intervention.
The FAA's WFD final rule (75 FR 69746, November 15, 2010) became effective on January 14, 2011. The WFD rule requires certain actions to prevent structural failure due to WFD throughout the operational life of certain existing transport category airplanes and all of these airplanes that will be certificated in the future. For existing and future airplanes subject to the WFD rule, the rule requires that DAHs establish a limit of validity (LOV) of the engineering data that support the structural maintenance program. Operators affected by the WFD rule may not fly an airplane beyond its LOV, unless an extended LOV is approved.
The WFD rule (75 FR 69746, November 15, 2010) does not require identifying and developing maintenance actions if the DAHs can show that such actions are not necessary to prevent WFD before the airplane reaches the LOV. Many LOVs, however, do depend on accomplishment of future maintenance actions. As stated in the WFD rule, any maintenance actions necessary to reach the LOV will be mandated by airworthiness directives through separate rulemaking actions.
In the context of WFD, this action is necessary to enable DAHs to propose LOVs that allow operators the longest operational lives for their airplanes, and still ensure that WFD will not occur. This approach allows for an implementation strategy that provides flexibility to DAHs in determining the timing of service information development (with FAA approval), while providing operators with certainty regarding the LOV applicable to their airplanes.
We have received a report indicating that certain Model 757 airplanes have open coordinating holes, tooling holes, and insulation blanket attachment holes in the frame webs that were not filled during production. There have been no reports of frame web cracking at open hole locations. Cracking was found on a fatigue test article where WFD analysis identified the need for the inspection. Open attachment holes, if not corrected, could result in fatigue cracking that could adversely affect the structural integrity of the airplane.
We reviewed Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 757-53A0103, dated June 22, 2016. The service information describes procedures for performing repetitive HFEC inspections of the frame webs for any open coordinating holes, tooling holes, insulation blanket attachment holes; and modifying the frame webs between stringers S-20 and S-25. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We are proposing this AD because we evaluated all the relevant information and determined the unsafe condition described previously is likely to exist or develop in other products of the same type design.
This proposed AD would require accomplishing the actions specified in the service information described previously, except as discussed under “Differences Between this Proposed AD and the Service Information.” For information on the procedures and compliance times, see this service information at
Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 757-53A0103, dated June 22, 2016, specifies to contact the manufacturer for certain instructions, but this proposed AD would require accomplishment of repair methods, modification deviations, and alteration deviations in one of the following ways:
• In accordance with a method that we approve; or
• Using data that meet the certification basis of the airplane, and that have been approved by the Boeing Commercial Airplanes Organization Designation Authorization (ODA) whom we have authorized to make those findings.
We estimate that this proposed AD affects 74 airplanes of U.S. registry. We estimate the following costs to comply with this proposed AD:
We have received no definitive data that would enable us to provide cost estimates for the on-condition actions specified in this proposed AD.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: “General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify this proposed regulation:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979),
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
We must receive comments by February 3, 2017.
None.
This AD applies to The Boeing Company Model 757-200 and -200PF series airplanes, certificated in any category, as identified in Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 757-53A0103, dated June 22, 2016.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 53, Fuselage.
This AD was prompted by an evaluation by the design approval holder (DAH) indicating that the frame webs between stringers S-20 and S-25 on the left side and right side, from station (STA) 440 to STA 820 and from STA 1300 to STA 1701, are subject to widespread fatigue damage (WFD). We are issuing this AD to prevent fatigue cracking that could adversely affect the reduced structural integrity of the airplane.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
At the applicable time specified in paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 757-53A0103, dated June 22, 2016, do an HFEC inspection of the frame webs for any crack in any open coordinating holes, tooling holes, and insulation blanket attachment holes in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 757-53A0103, dated June 22, 2016. If any cracking is found, repair before further flight using a method approved in accordance with the procedures specified in paragraph (i) of this AD. Repeat the inspection at the time specified in paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 757-53A0103, dated June 22, 2016.
Before the accumulation of 59,000 total flight cycles, modify the frame webs at all open hole locations, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 757-53A0103, dated June 22, 2016. Accomplishment of this modification terminates the repetitive inspection requirements of paragraph (g) of this AD at the modified locations only.
(1) The Manager, Los Angeles Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or local Flight Standards District Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the ACO, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (j)(1) of this AD. Information may be emailed to
(2) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager
(3) An AMOC that provides an acceptable level of safety may be used for any repair, modification, or alteration required by this AD if it is approved by the Boeing Commercial Airplanes Organization Designation Authorization (ODA) that has been authorized by the Manager, Los Angeles ACO, to make those findings. To be approved, the repair method, modification deviation, or alteration deviation must meet the certification basis of the airplane, and the approval must specifically refer to this AD.
(4) Except as required by paragraph (g) of this AD: For service information that contains steps that are labeled as Required for Compliance (RC), the provisions of paragraphs (i)(4)(i) and (i)(4)(ii) of this AD apply.
(i) The steps labeled as RC, including substeps under an RC step and any figures identified in an RC step, must be done to comply with the AD. If a step or substep is labeled “RC Exempt,” then the RC requirement is removed from that step or substep. An AMOC is required for any deviations to RC steps, including substeps and identified figures.
(ii) Steps not labeled as RC may be deviated from using accepted methods in accordance with the operator's maintenance or inspection program without obtaining approval of an AMOC, provided the RC steps, including substeps and identified figures, can still be done as specified, and the airplane can be put back in an airworthy condition.
(1) For more information about this AD, contact Muoi Vuong, Aerospace Engineer, Airframe Branch, ANM-120L, FAA, Los Angeles ACO, 3960 Paramount Boulevard, Lakewood, CA 90712-4137; phone: 562-627-5205; fax: 562-627-5210; email:
(2) For service information identified in this AD, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Data & Services Management, P. O. Box 3707, MC 2H-65, Seattle, WA 98124-2207; telephone: 206-544-5000, extension 1; fax: 206-766-5680; Internet:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
We propose to adopt a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain Learjet Inc. Model 60 airplanes. This proposed AD was prompted by an evaluation by the design approval holder (DAH) indicating that the upper fuselage skin under the aft oxygen line fairing is subject to multi-site damage (MSD). This proposed AD would require a one-time inspection of the fuselage skin for corrosion and related investigative and corrective actions if necessary. We are proposing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.
We must receive comments on this proposed AD by February 3, 2017.
You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
For service information identified in this NPRM, contact Learjet, Inc., One Learjet Way, Wichita, KS 67209-2942; telephone: 316-946-2000; fax: 316-946-2220; email:
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Paul Chapman, Aerospace Engineer, Airframe Branch, ACE-118W, FAA, Wichita Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), 1801 Airport Road, Room 100, Dwight D. Eisenhower Airport, Wichita, KS 67209; phone: 316-946-4152; fax: 316-946-4107; email:
We invite you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposal. Send your comments to an address listed under the
We will post all comments we receive, without change, to
We have received a report indicating that the upper fuselage skin under the aft oxygen line fairing is subject to MSD (corrosion at multiple sites under the fairing). This condition, if not corrected, could result in reduced structural integrity of the airplane.
We reviewed Learjet 60 Service Bulletin 60-53-19, Revision 3, dated August 29, 2016. The service information describes procedures for inspections of the fuselage crown skin for corrosion and related investigative and corrective actions, if necessary. This service information is reasonably
We are proposing this AD because we evaluated all the relevant information and determined the unsafe condition described previously is likely to exist or develop in other products of the same type design.
This proposed AD would require accomplishing the actions specified in the service information described previously, except as discussed under “Differences Between this Proposed AD and the Service Information.” This proposed AD also would require sending the inspection results to the FAA.
Related investigative actions include a high frequency eddy current inspection of the affected skin sections and an ultrasonic skin thickness check. Corrective actions include repairing corrosion.
Learjet 60 Service Bulletin 60-53-19, Revision 3, dated August 29, 2016, specifies to contact the manufacturer for instructions on how to repair certain conditions, but this proposed AD would require repairing those conditions in one of the following ways:
• In accordance with a method that we approve; or
• Using data that meet the certification basis of the airplane, and that have been approved by a Delegated Engineering Representative (DER) for Learjet Inc., or a Unit Member (UM) of the Learjet Organization Designation Authorization (ODA), whom we have authorized to make those findings.
We consider this proposed AD interim action. Because the cause of the corrosion is not known, the inspection reports will help determine the extent of the corrosion in the affected fleet. Based on the results of these reports, we might determine that further corrective action is warranted. Once further corrective action has been identified, we might consider further rulemaking.
We estimate that this proposed AD affects 284 airplanes of U.S. registry. We estimate the following costs to comply with this proposed AD:
We have received no definitive data that would enable us to provide cost estimates for the on-condition actions specified in this proposed AD.
According to the manufacturer, some of the costs of this proposed AD may be covered under warranty, thereby reducing the cost impact on affected individuals. We do not control warranty coverage for affected individuals. As a result, we have included all costs in our cost estimate.
A federal agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, nor shall a person be subject to penalty for failure to comply with a collection of information subject to the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act unless that collection of information displays a current valid OMB control number. The control number for the collection of information required by this AD is 2120-0056. The paperwork cost associated with this AD has been detailed in the Costs of Compliance section of this document and includes time for reviewing instructions, as well as completing and reviewing the collection of information. Therefore, all reporting associated with this AD is mandatory. Comments concerning the accuracy of this burden and suggestions for reducing the burden should be directed to the FAA at 800 Independence Ave. SW., Washington, DC 20591, ATTN: Information Collection Clearance Officer, AES-200.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: “General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify this proposed regulation:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979),
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
We must receive comments by February 3, 2017.
None.
This AD applies to Learjet Inc. Model 60 airplanes, certificated in any category, serial numbers 60-002 through 60-430 inclusive.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 53, Fuselage.
This AD was prompted by an evaluation by the design approval holder indicating that the upper fuselage skin under the aft oxygen line fairing is subject to multi-site damage. We are issuing this AD to detect and correct corrosion of the fuselage skin, which could result in reduced structural integrity of the airplane.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
At the applicable time specified in paragraph (g)(1), (g)(2), or (g)(3) of this AD: Do a fluorescent dye penetrant inspection of the fuselage skin between stringers (S)-2L and S-2R for corrosion; and do all applicable related investigative and corrective actions; in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Learjet 60 Service Bulletin 60-53-19, Revision 3, dated August 29, 2016, except as required by paragraph (h) of this AD. Do all applicable related investigative and corrective actions before further flight.
(1) For airplanes with more than 12 years since the date of issuance of the original airworthiness certificate or the date of issuance of the original export certificate of airworthiness as of the effective date of this AD: Within 12 months after the effective date of this AD.
(2) For airplanes with more than 6 years but equal to or less than 12 years since the date of issuance of the original airworthiness certificate or the date of issuance of the original export certificate of airworthiness as of the effective date of this AD: Within 24 months after the effective date of this AD.
(3) For airplanes with 6 years or less since the date of issuance of the original airworthiness certificate or the date of issuance of the original export certificate of airworthiness as of the effective date of this AD: Within 36 months after the effective date of this AD.
Where Learjet 60 Service Bulletin 60-53-19, Revision 3, dated August 29, 2016, specifies contacting Learjet Inc. for appropriate action: Before further flight, repair using a method approved in accordance with the procedures specified in paragraph (l) of this AD.
At the applicable time specified in paragraph (i)(1) or (i)(2) of this AD: Submit a report of the findings (both positive and negative) of the inspection required by paragraph (g) of this AD to
(1) If the inspection was done on or after the effective date of this AD: Submit the report within 30 days after the inspection.
(2) If the inspection was done before the effective date of this AD: Submit the report within 30 days after the effective date of this AD.
This paragraph provides credit for the actions specified in paragraph (g) of this AD, if those actions were performed before the effective date of this AD using Learjet 60 Service Bulletin 60-53-19, dated November 23, 2015; Learjet 60 Service Bulletin 60-53-19, Revision 1, dated April 4, 2016; or Learjet 60 Service Bulletin 60-53-19, Revision 2, dated April 18, 2016.
A federal agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, nor shall a person be subject to a penalty for failure to comply with a collection of information subject to the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act unless that collection of information displays a current valid OMB Control Number. The OMB Control Number for this information collection is 2120-0056. Public reporting for this collection of information is estimated to be approximately 5 minutes per response, including the time for reviewing instructions, completing and reviewing the collection of information. All responses to this collection of information are mandatory. Comments concerning the accuracy of this burden and suggestions for reducing the burden should be directed to the FAA at: 800 Independence Ave. SW., Washington, DC 20591, Attn: Information Collection Clearance Officer, AES-200.
(1) The Manager, Wichita ACO, FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or local Flight Standards District Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the ACO, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (m)(1) of this AD.
(2) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office/certificate holding district office.
(3) An AMOC that provides an acceptable level of safety may be used for any repair, modification, or alteration required by this AD if it is approved by a Learjet Inc. Designated Engineering Representative (DER), or a Unit Member (UM) of the Learjet Organization Designation Authorization (ODA), that has been authorized by the Manager, Wichita ACO, to make those findings. To be approved, the repair, modification deviation, or alteration deviation must meet the certification basis of the airplane, and the approval must specifically refer to this AD.
(1) For more information about this AD, contact Paul Chapman, Aerospace Engineer, Airframe Branch, ACE-118W, FAA, Wichita ACO, 1801 Airport Road, Room 100, Dwight D. Eisenhower Airport, Wichita, KS 67209; phone: 316-946-4152; fax: 316-946-4107; email:
(2) For service information identified in this AD, contact Learjet, Inc., One Learjet Way, Wichita, KS 67209-2942; telephone: 316-946-2000; fax: 316-946-2220; email:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
We propose to adopt a new airworthiness directive (AD) for all Dassault Aviation Model FAN JET FALCON, Model MYSTERE-FALCON 20-C5, 20-D5, 20-E5, and 20-F5 airplanes. This proposed AD was prompted by reports of defective fire extinguisher tubes. This proposed AD would require replacement of the affected fire extinguisher tubes with improved fire extinguisher tubes. We are proposing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.
We must receive comments on this proposed AD by February 3, 2017.
You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
For service information identified in this NPRM, contact Dassault Falcon Jet Corporation, Teterboro Airport, P.O. Box 2000, South Hackensack, NJ 07606; telephone: 201-440-6700; Internet:
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Tom Rodriguez, Aerospace Engineer, International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; telephone: 425-227-1137; fax: 425-227-1149.
We invite you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposed AD. Send your comments to an address listed under the
We will post all comments we receive, without change, to
The European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA), which is the Technical Agent for the Member States of the European Union, has issued EASA AD 2016-0154, dated July 28, 2016 (referred to after this as the Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information, or “the MCAI”), to correct an unsafe condition for all Dassault Aviation Model FAN JET FALCON, Model MYSTERE-FALCON 20-C5, 20-D5, 20-E5, and 20-F5 airplanes. The MCAI states:
You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket on the Internet at
We reviewed Dassault Service Bulletin F20-790, dated September 14, 2016. This service information describes procedures for the replacement of affected fire extinguisher tubes with improved fire extinguisher tubes. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
This product has been approved by the aviation authority of another country, and is approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to our bilateral agreement with the State of Design Authority, we have been notified of the unsafe condition described in the MCAI and service information referenced above. We are proposing this AD because we evaluated all pertinent information and determined an unsafe condition exists and is likely to exist or develop on other products of the same type design.
We estimate that this proposed AD affects 133 airplanes of U.S. registry.
We estimate the following costs to comply with this proposed AD:
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII,
We determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify this proposed regulation:
1. Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;
2. Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979);
3. Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska; and
4. Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
We must receive comments by February 3, 2017.
None.
This AD applies to all Dassault Aviation Model FAN JET FALCON, Model MYSTERE-FALCON 20-C5, 20-D5, 20-E5, and 20-F5 airplanes, certificated in any category.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 26, Fire protection.
This AD was prompted by reports of defective fire extinguisher tubes. We are issuing this AD to prevent fire extinguisher failure. Such a failure could result in the inability to extinguish a fire in the rear compartment, and possible damage to the airplane and injury to the occupants.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
Within 450 flight cycles after the effective date of this AD, replace each affected hose, part numbers (P/N) MY20791-121 and P/N MY20791-122, with a serviceable hose, P/N MY20791-121-1 or MY20791-122-1, as applicable, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Dassault Service Bulletin F20-790, dated September 14, 2016.
No person may install a fire extinguisher tube, P/N MY20791-121 or P/N MY20791-122, on any airplane, as of the applicable time specified in paragraph (h)(1) or (h)(2) of this AD.
(1) For an airplane equipped with an affected fire extinguisher tube as of the effective date of this AD: After modification of that airplane as required by paragraph (g) of this AD.
(2) For an airplane that is not equipped with an affected fire extinguisher tube as of the effective date of this AD: As of the effective date of this AD.
The following provisions also apply to this AD:
(1)
(2)
(1) Refer to Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information (MCAI) EASA AD 2016-0154, dated July 28, 2016, for related information. This MCAI may be found in the AD docket on the Internet at
(2) For service information identified in this AD, contact Dassault Falcon Jet Corporation, Teterboro Airport, P.O. Box 2000, South Hackensack, NJ 07606; telephone: 201-440-6700; Internet:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
We propose to supersede Airworthiness Directive (AD) 2015-22-06 for all Airbus Model A318, A319, A320, and A321 series airplanes. AD 2015-22-06 currently requires revising the After Start Normal Procedures section of the airplane flight manual (AFM) to provide procedures that address latent failures in the Spoiler and Elevator Computer (SEC). Since we issued AD 2015-22-06, there have been reports that some maintenance messages pointed out the loss of elevator servo
We must receive comments on this proposed AD by February 3, 2017.
You may send comments by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
For service information identified in this NPRM, contact Airbus, Airworthiness Office-EIAS, 1 Rond Point Maurice Bellonte, 31707 Blagnac Cedex, France; telephone +33 5 61 93 36 96; fax +33 5 61 93 44 51; email
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Sanjay Ralhan, Aerospace Engineer, International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; telephone 425-227-1405; fax 425-227-1149.
We invite you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposed AD. Send your comments to an address listed under the
We will post all comments we receive, without change, to
On October 22, 2015, we issued AD 2015-22-06, Amendment 39-18311 (80 FR 68429, November 5, 2015) (“AD 2015-22-06”). AD 2015-22-06 requires revision of the AFM intended to address an unsafe condition that can occur in the SEC for all Airbus Model A318, A319, A320, and A321 series airplanes.
Since we issued AD 2015-22-06, there have been reports that some maintenance messages were recorded within the Post Flight Report (PFR) that pointed out the loss of elevator servo control monitoring performed by SEC 1, SEC 2, or both, during the engine start.
The European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA), which is the Technical Agent for the Member States of the European Union, has issued EASA Airworthiness Directive, 2016-0056, dated March 18, 2016 (referred to after this as the Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information, or “the MCAI”), to correct an unsafe condition for all Airbus Model A318, A319, A320, and A321 series airplanes. The MCAI states:
Following the introduction of new Spoiler and Elevator Computer (SEC) hardware C Part Number (P/N) B372CAM0100 with software (SW) standards 122, 124 and 125 (identified by P/N B372CAM0101, P/N B372CAM0102 and P/N B372CAM0103, respectively, and hereafter referred to as an “affected SEC software standard” in this [EASA] AD), some airlines reported receiving maintenance messages,
This condition, if not corrected, could lead to an undetected loss of redundancy during flight if an affected SEC cannot control the related elevator servo control(s), possibly resulting in reduced control of the aeroplane.
To address this potential unsafe condition, EASA issued AD 2015-0191 [which corresponds to AD 2015-22-06] to require amendment of the applicable [Airbus] Airplane Flight Manual (AFM) to include the flight crew procedure necessary to recover full SEC redundancy.
Since that [EASA] AD was issued, to fix the software deficiency, SEC software standard 126 (identified by P/N B372CAM0104) was developed, which is embodied in production through Airbus modification (mod) 161208 (installation of SEC software standard 126), and introduced in service through Airbus Service Bulletin (SB) A320-27-1252.
For the reason described above, this [EASA] AD retains the AFM change requirements of EASA AD 2015-0191, which is superseded, and requires the removal and/or upgrade of [an affected] SEC.
You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket on the Internet at
Airbus has issued the following service information:
• Airbus Service Bulletin A320-27-1252, Revision 01, dated February 18, 2016.
• Airbus Service Bulletin A320-27-1257, dated December 18, 2015.
This service information provides information for identifying affected SECs and updating the software on affected SECs. These documents are distinct since they apply to different airplane configurations.
Airbus also issued A318/A319/A320/A321 Temporary Revision TR572, Issue 1.0, dated August 13, 2015, to the Airbus A318/A319/A320/A321 Airplane Flight Manual. This service information describes the reset of SEC 1 and SEC 2 that must be done after engines start.
This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
This product has been approved by the aviation authority of another country, and is approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to our bilateral agreement with the State of Design Authority, we have been notified of the unsafe condition described in the MCAI and service information referenced above. We are proposing this AD because we evaluated all pertinent information and determined an unsafe condition exists and is likely to exist or
Subtask 271257-832-006-001, Instructions “
We estimate that this proposed AD affects 959 airplanes of U.S. registry.
We estimate the following costs to comply with this proposed AD:
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify this proposed regulation:
1. Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;
2. Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979);
3. Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska; and
4. Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
We must receive comments by February 3, 2017.
This AD replaces AD 2015-22-06, Amendment 39-18311 (80 FR 68429, November 5, 2015) (“AD 2015-22-06”).
This AD applies to the Airbus airplanes, certificated in any category, identified in paragraphs (c)(1) through (c)(4) of this AD, all manufacturer serial numbers.
(1) Airbus Model A318-111, -112, -121, and -122 airplanes.
(2) Airbus Model A319-111, -112, -113, -114, -115, -131, -132, and -133 airplanes.
(3) Airbus Model A320-211, -212, -214, -231, -232, and -233 airplanes.
(4) Airbus Model A321-111, -112, -131, -211, -212, -213, -231, and -232 airplanes.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 27, Flight Controls.
This AD was prompted by reports that some maintenance messages were recorded within the Post Flight Report (PFR) that pointed out the loss of elevator servo control monitoring performed by Spoiler and Elevator Computer (SEC) 1, SEC 2, or both, during the engine start. We are issuing this AD to prevent an undetected loss of redundancy during flight if an affected SEC cannot control the related elevator servo control(s), possibly resulting in reduced control of the airplane.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
This paragraph restates the requirements of paragraph (g) of AD 2015-22-06, with revised compliance language. For airplanes equipped with SEC hardware C part number (P/N) B372CAM0100 with software standards 122 (P/N B372CAM0101), 124 (P/N B372CAM0102), or 125 (P/N B372CAM0103), on SEC position 1 or 2, or both: Within 30 days after November 20, 2015 (the effective date of AD 2015-22-06), revise the After Start Normal Procedures section of the airplane flight manual (AFM) to include the statement specified in figure 1 to paragraph (g) of this AD. This may be done by inserting a copy of this AD, or AD 2015-22-06, or Airbus A318/A319/A320/A321 Temporary Revision TR572, Issue 1.0, dated August 13, 2015, to the Airbus A318/A319/A320/A321 AFM, into the applicable AFM.
When a statement identical to that in figure 1 to paragraph (g) of this AD has been included in the After Start Normal Procedures section of the general revisions of the AFM, the general revisions may be inserted into the AFM, and this AD, or AD 2015-22-06, or Airbus A318/A319/A320/A321 Temporary Revision TR572, Issue 1.0, dated August 13, 2015, may be removed from the AFM.
Airbus Operations Engineering Bulletin OEB-50 provides additional information on the subject addressed by this AD.
This paragraph restates the requirements of paragraph (i) of AD 2015-22-06, with no change. For all airplanes: As of November 20, 2015 (the effective date of AD 2015-22-06), do not install SEC hardware C P/N B372CAM0100 with software standard 122 (P/N B372CAM0101), 124 (P/N B372CAM0102), or 125 (P/N B372CAM0103), on SEC position 1 or 2, or both, on any airplane, unless the AFM of the airplane is revised concurrently with that installation, as required by paragraph (g) of this AD.
Within 3 months after the effective date of this AD, comply with the actions in paragraphs (i)(1) or (i)(2) of this AD, as applicable.
(1) For an airplane that has received Airbus modification 39429 (installation of SEC hardware C P/N B372CAM0100) in production: Install SEC software standard 126, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Airbus Service Bulletin A320-27-1252, Revision 01, dated February 18, 2016.
(2) For an airplane that has not received Airbus modification 39429 in production: Inspect to determine whether an affected SEC software standard is installed. Do the inspection in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Airbus Service Bulletin A320-27-1257, dated December 18, 2015, except as required by paragraph (n) of this AD. A review of airplane maintenance records is acceptable in lieu of this inspection if the part number of the SEC C can be conclusively determined from that review. If an affected SEC software standard is found installed, replace the affected software standard using an installation method approved by the Manager, International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA; or the European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA); or Airbus's EASA Design Organization Approval (DOA).
An airplane on which Airbus modification 161208 has been embodied in production is compliant with the requirements of paragraph (i) of this AD, provided it is determined that no affected SEC software standard, as identified in paragraph (g) of this AD, is installed on that airplane.
After modification of an airplane as required by paragraph (i) of this AD, remove the information specified in Airbus A318/A319/A320/A321 TR572, Issue 1.0, dated August 13, 2015, to the Airbus A318/A319/A320/A321 AFM from the AFM of that airplane.
As of the effective date of this AD, no person may install on any airplane an affected SEC software standard, or a SEC hardware C hosting an affected SEC software standard.
Installation on an airplane of a SEC software standard, or of a SEC hardware standard, approved after the effective date of this AD, is acceptable for compliance with the requirements of paragraph (i) of this AD for that airplane, provided the conditions specified in paragraphs (m)(1) and (m)(2) of this AD are met.
(1) The software and hardware standard, as applicable, is approved by the Manager, International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA; or EASA; or Airbus's EASA DOA; and
(2) Replacement of the affected software standard is done using an installation method approved by the Manager, International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA; or EASA; or Airbus's EASA DOA.
Subtask 271257-832-006-001 of Airbus Service Bulletin A320-27-1257, dated December 18, 2015, includes incorrect instructions. This AD requires that those instructions be followed as specified in paragraphs (n)(1) and (n)(2) of this AD.
(1) For Subtask 271257-832-006-001 instruction “
(2) For Subtask 271257-832-006-001 instruction “
The following provisions also apply to this AD:
(1)
(2)
(3)
Special flight permits, as described in Section 21.197 and Section 21.199 of the Federal Aviation Regulations (14 CFR 21.197 and 21.199), are not allowed.
(1) Refer to Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information (MCAI) EASA Airworthiness Directive 2016-0056, dated March 18, 2016, for related information. This MCAI may be found in the AD docket on the Internet at
(2) For service information identified in this AD, contact Airbus, Airworthiness Office—EIAS, 1 Rond Point Maurice Bellonte, 31707 Blagnac Cedex, France; telephone +33 5 61 93 36 96; fax +33 5 61 93 44 51; email
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
We propose to adopt a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain The Boeing Company Model 737-600, -700, -700C, -800, -900, and -900ER series airplanes. This proposed AD was prompted by a report of an aborted takeoff because the rudder pedals were not operating correctly. Investigation revealed a protruding screw in the rudder pedal heel rest adjacent to the pedals. This proposed AD would require a torque check of the screws in the cover assembly of the heel rest for both the Captain and the First Officer's rudder pedals, and corrective action if necessary. We are proposing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.
We must receive comments on this proposed AD by February 3, 2017.
You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
For service information identified in this NPRM, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Data & Services Management, P.O. Box 3707, MC 2H-65, Seattle, WA 98124-2207; telephone 206-544-5000, extension 1; fax 206-766-5680; Internet
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Kelly McGuckin, Aerospace Engineer, Systems and Equipment Branch, ANM-130S, FAA, Seattle Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; phone: 425-917-6490; fax: 425-917-6590; email:
We invite you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposal. Send your comments to an address listed under the
We will post all comments we receive, without change, to
We have received a report of an aborted takeoff because the rudder pedals were not operating correctly. Investigation revealed a protruding screw in the rudder pedal heel rest adjacent to the pedals. It was determined that the screws in the cover assembly of the heel rest for both the Captain and the First Officer's rudder pedals may not have been properly torqued. A protruding screw from the cover assembly of the heel rest of a rudder pedal could restrict rudder pedal motion and reduce differential braking control during takeoff or landing, which could cause a high speed runway excursion.
We reviewed Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-25A1732, Revision 1, dated August 15, 2016. The service information describes procedures for a torque check of the screws in the cover assembly of the heel rest for both the Captain and the First Officer's rudder pedals, and corrective action. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We are proposing this AD because we evaluated all the relevant information and determined the unsafe condition described previously is likely to exist or develop in other products of the same type design.
This proposed AD would require accomplishing the actions specified in the service information described previously. For information on the procedures and compliance times, see this service information at
The phrase “corrective actions” is used in this proposed AD. Corrective actions correct or address any condition found. Corrective actions in an AD could include, for example, repairs.
We estimate that this proposed AD affects 1,187 airplanes of U.S. registry. We estimate the following costs to comply with this proposed AD:
We have received no definitive data that would enable us to provide cost estimates for the on-condition actions specified in this proposed AD.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: “General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify this proposed regulation:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979),
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
We must receive comments by February 3, 2017.
None.
This AD applies to The Boeing Company Model 737-600, -700, -700C, -800, -900, and -900ER series airplanes, certificated in any category, as identified in Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-25A1732, Revision 1, dated August 15, 2016.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 25, Equipment and Furnishings.
This proposed AD was prompted by a report of an aborted takeoff because the rudder pedals were not operating correctly. Investigation revealed a protruding screw in the rudder pedal heel rest adjacent to the pedals. It was determined that the screws in the cover assembly of the heel rest for both the Captain and the First Officer's rudder pedals may not have been properly torqued. We are issuing this AD to detect and correct a protruding screw in the cover assembly of the heel rest of a rudder pedal. A protruding screw could restrict rudder pedal motion and reduce differential braking control during takeoff or landing, which could cause a high speed runway excursion.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
Within 21 months after the effective date of this AD: Do a one-time torque check of the screws in the cover assembly of the heel rest for both the Captain and the First Officer's rudder pedals, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-25A1732, Revision 1, dated August 15, 2016.
If the results of the torque check required by paragraph (g) of this AD indicate that any screw does not hold torque to the required value, before further flight, replace the affected screw and associated nutplate, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-25A1732, Revision 1, dated August 15, 2016.
(1) The Manager, Seattle Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or local Flight Standards District Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the ACO, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (j)(1) of this AD. Information may be emailed to:
(2) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office/certificate holding district office.
(3) An AMOC that provides an acceptable level of safety may be used for any repair, modification, or alteration required by this AD if it is approved by the Boeing Commercial Airplanes Organization
(4) For service information that contains steps that are labeled as Required for Compliance (RC), the provisions of paragraphs (i)(4)(i) and (i)(4)(ii) of this AD apply.
(i) The steps labeled as RC, including substeps under an RC step and any figures identified in an RC step, must be done to comply with the AD. If a step or sub-step is labeled “RC Exempt,” then the RC requirement is removed from that step or sub-step. An AMOC is required for any deviations to RC steps, including substeps and identified figures.
(ii) Steps not labeled as RC may be deviated from using accepted methods in accordance with the operator's maintenance or inspection program without obtaining approval of an AMOC, provided the RC steps, including substeps and identified figures, can still be done as specified, and the airplane can be put back in an airworthy condition.
(1) For more information about this AD, contact Kelly McGuckin, Aerospace Engineer, Systems and Equipment Branch, ANM-130S, FAA, Seattle ACO, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; phone: 425-917-6490; fax: 425-917-6590; email:
(2) For service information identified in this AD, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Data & Services Management, P.O. Box 3707, MC 2H-65, Seattle, WA 98124-2207; telephone 206-544-5000, extension 1; fax 206-766-5680; Internet
Environmental Protection Agency.
Proposed rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is proposing action on a portion of a January 31, 2013 submission and a December 22, 2015 supplemental submission from the State of Utah that are intended to demonstrate that the State Implementation Plan (SIP) meets certain interstate transport requirements of the Clean Air Act (Act or CAA) for the 2008 ozone National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS). Specifically, the EPA is proposing to approve interstate transport prong 1 for the 2008 ozone NAAQS.
Comments must be received on or before January 10, 2017.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R08-OAR-2016-0588 at
Adam Clark, Air Program, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), Region 8, Mail Code 8P-AR, 1595 Wynkoop Street, Denver, Colorado 80202-1129. (303) 312-7104,
1.
2.
• Identify the rulemaking by docket number and other identifying information (subject heading,
• Follow directions and organize your comments;
• Explain why you agree or disagree;
• Suggest alternatives and substitute language for your requested changes;
• Describe any assumptions and provide any technical information and/or data that you used;
• If you estimate potential costs or burdens, explain how you arrived at your estimate in sufficient detail to allow for it to be reproduced;
• Provide specific examples to illustrate your concerns, and suggest alternatives;
• Explain your views as clearly as possible, avoiding the use of profanity or personal threats; and
• Make sure to submit your comments by the comment period deadline identified.
On March 12, 2008, the EPA revised the levels of the primary and secondary 8-hour ozone standards to 0.075 parts per million (ppm). 73 FR 16436 (March 27, 2008). Pursuant to section 110(a)(1) of the CAA, states are required to submit SIPs meeting the applicable requirements of section 110(a)(2) within three years after promulgation of a new or revised NAAQS or within such shorter period as the EPA may prescribe. Section 110(a)(2) requires states to address structural SIP elements such as requirements for monitoring, basic program requirements, and legal authority that are designed to provide for implementation, maintenance, and enforcement of the NAAQS. The SIP submission required by these provisions is referred to as the “infrastructure” SIP. Section 110(a) imposes the obligation upon states to make a SIP submission to the EPA for a new or revised NAAQS, but the contents of individual state
CAA Section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(I) requires SIPs to include provisions prohibiting any source or other type of emissions activity in one state from emitting any air pollutant in amounts that will contribute significantly to nonattainment, or interfere with maintenance, of the NAAQS in another state. The two provisions of this section are referred to as prong 1 (significant contribution to nonattainment) and prong 2 (interfere with maintenance). Section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(II) requires SIPs to contain adequate provisions to prohibit emissions that will interfere with measures required to be included in the applicable implementation plan for any other state under part C to prevent significant deterioration of air quality (prong 3) or to protect visibility (prong 4).
In this action, the EPA is only addressing prong 1 of CAA section 110(a)(2)(D)(i) with regard to the 2008 ozone NAAQS. The EPA proposed action on prongs 1, 2 and 4 for this NAAQS on May 10, 2016. 81 FR 28807. In that action, we proposed to disapprove prongs 1 and 2 of Utah's SIP for the 2008 ozone NAAQS based a number of deficiencies in the SIP submission and in light of on the results of EPA modeling which initially indicated that emissions from Utah sources contribute to two nonattainment receptors in the Denver, Colorado area.
The Utah Department of Environmental Quality (Department or UDEQ) submitted a certification of Utah's infrastructure SIP for the 2008 ozone NAAQS on January 31, 2013, and a supplement regarding CAA section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(I) with respect to the 2008 ozone NAAQS on December 22, 2015.
These infrastructure certifications addressed all of the infrastructure elements including section 110(a)(2)(D)(i), referred to as infrastructure element (D).
In its January 31, 2013, 2008 ozone infrastructure submittal, UDEQ addressed 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(I) prongs 1 and 2 by citing EPA Administrator Gina McCarthy's November 19, 2012 memo
Subsequent to the UDEQ submission, on April 29, 2014, the U.S. Supreme Court reversed and remanded the D.C. Circuit's
In its December 22, 2015 infrastructure submittal, UDEQ acknowledged the changed legal landscape, and asserted that emissions from the State did not significantly contribute to nonattainment or interfere with maintenance of the 2008 ozone NAAQS in any other state. The Department cited air quality modeling assessing interstate transport of ozone that was released by the EPA on August 4, 2015, (
In the December 22, 2015 supplement, UDEQ cited various SIP-approved area source rules which it asserts will result in additional reductions in ozone precursor emissions as further evidence that emissions from the State do not contribute significantly to nonattainment of the 2008 ozone NAAQS in any other state. The Department listed several VOC emissions limitations on various industries submitted as part of the State's greater PM
The EPA developed technical information and a related analysis to assist states with meeting section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(I) requirements for the 2008 ozone NAAQS and used this technical analysis to support the recently finalized Cross-State Air Pollution Rule Update for the 2008 Ozone NAAQS (“CSAPR Update”).
In the technical analysis supporting the CSAPR Update, the EPA used detailed air quality analyses to determine where projected nonattainment or maintenance areas would be and whether emissions from an eastern state contribute to downwind air quality problems at those projected nonattainment or maintenance receptors.
As discussed in the final CSAPR Update, the air quality modeling contained in the EPA's technical analysis (1) identified locations in the U.S. where the EPA anticipates nonattainment or maintenance issues in 2017 for the 2008 ozone NAAQS (these are identified as nonattainment and maintenance receptors), and (2) quantified the projected contributions from emissions from upwind states to downwind ozone concentrations at the receptors in 2017. 81 FR 74526. This modeling used the Comprehensive Air Quality Model with Extensions (CAMx version 6.11) to model the 2011 base year, and the 2017 future base case emissions scenarios to identify projected nonattainment and maintenance sites with respect to the 2008 8-hour ozone NAAQS in 2017. The EPA used nationwide state-level ozone source apportionment modeling (the CAMx Ozone Source Apportionment Technology/Anthropogenic Precursor Culpability Analysis technique) to quantify the contribution of 2017 base case NO
Consistent with the framework established in the original CSAPR rulemaking, the EPA's technical analysis in support of the CSAPR Update applied a threshold of one percent of the 2008 ozone NAAQS of 75 ppb (0.75 ppb) to identify linkages between upwind states and the downwind nonattainment and maintenance receptors.
As to western states, the EPA noted in the CSAPR Update that there may be geographically specific factors to consider in evaluating interstate transport, and given the near-term 2017 implementation timeframe, the EPA focused the final CSAPR Update on eastern states.
In spite of deficiencies with Utah's technical analysis described above, the EPA's technical analysis in support of the CSAPR Update indicates that Utah does not contribute above the one percent threshold to any nonattainment receptors.
The EPA is proposing to approve the section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(I) prong 1 portion of Utah's January 31, 2013 submittal and the December 22, 2015 submittal with respect to the 2008 ozone NAAQS. The EPA is soliciting public comments on this proposed action and will consider public comments received during the comment period.
Under the CAA, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Act and applicable federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, the EPA's role is to approve state actions, provided that they meet the criteria of the Clean Air Act. Accordingly, this proposed action merely proposes approval of state law as meeting federal requirements; this proposed action does not propose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this proposed action:
• Is not a “significant regulatory action” subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, Oct. 4, 1993);
• Does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• Is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• Does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• Does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• Is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• Is not subject to requirements of Section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the Clean Air Act; and
• Does not provide the EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
The SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where the EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have tribal implications and will not impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000).
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Volatile organic compounds.
42 U.S.C. 7401
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice of filing of petitions and request for comment.
This document announces EPA's receipt of several initial filings of pesticide petitions requesting the establishment or modification of regulations for residues of pesticide chemicals in or on various commodities.
Comments must be received on or before January 19, 2017.
Submit your comments, identified by the Docket Identification (ID) Number and the Pesticide Petition Number (PP) of interest as shown in the body of this document, by one of the following methods:
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Robert McNally, Biopesticides and Pollution Prevention Division (7511P), main telephone number: (703) 305-7090, email address:
You may be potentially affected by this action if you are an agricultural producer, food manufacturer, or pesticide manufacturer. The following list of North American Industrial Classification System (NAICS) codes is not intended to be exhaustive, but rather provides a guide to help readers determine whether this document applies to them. Potentially affected entities may include:
• Crop production (NAICS code 111).
• Animal production (NAICS code 112).
• Food manufacturing (NAICS code 311).
• Pesticide manufacturing (NAICS code 32532).
If you have any questions regarding the applicability of this action to a particular entity, consult the person listed under
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EPA is announcing its receipt of several pesticide petitions filed under section 408 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FFDCA), 21 U.S.C. 346a, requesting the establishment or modification of regulations in 40 CFR part 180 for residues of pesticide chemicals in or on various food commodities. EPA is taking public comment on the requests before responding to the petitioners. EPA is not proposing any particular action at this time. EPA has determined that the pesticide petitions described in this document contain the data or information prescribed in FFDCA section 408(d)(2), 21 U.S.C. 346a(d)(2); however, EPA has not fully evaluated the sufficiency of the submitted data at this time or whether the data support granting of the pesticide petitions. After considering the public comments, EPA intends to evaluate whether and what action may be warranted. Additional data may be needed before EPA can make a final determination on these pesticide petitions.
Pursuant to 40 CFR 180.7(f), a summary of each of the petitions that are the subject of this document, prepared by the petitioner, is included in a docket EPA has created for each rulemaking. The docket for each of the petitions is available at
As specified in FFDCA section 408(d)(3), 21 U.S.C. 346a(d)(3), EPA is publishing notice of the petitions so that the public has an opportunity to comment on these requests for the establishment or modification of regulations for residues of pesticides in or on food commodities. Further information on the petitions may be obtained through the petition summaries referenced in this unit.
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1. PP 4F8258. (EPA-HQ-OPP-2014-0357). DuPont Crop Protection, P.O. Box 30, Newark, DE 19714-0030, requests to amend the tolerance in 40 CFR 180.672 for residues of the insecticide cyantraniliprole in or on vegetable, cucurbit (group 9) at 0.70 ppm. Adequate analytical methodology, high-pressure liquid chromatography with tandem mass spectrometry (MS/MS) detection, is available for tolerance enforcement purposes. Contact: RD.
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21 U.S.C. 346a.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Proposed rule; correction.
NMFS published in the
Comments on the proposed rule published in the
You may submit comments, information, or data on this document, identified by the code NOAA-NMFS-2014-0157 by any of the following methods:
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Laura Engleby or Calusa Horn, NMFS, Southeast Regional Office (727) 824-5312 or Marta Nammack, NMFS, Office of Protected Resources (301) 427-8469.
The proposed rule that published in the
In the proposed rule (81 FR 88639) published on December 8, 2016, the
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Proposed rule; request for comments.
We are proposing regulations to implement Amendment 18 to the Northeast Multispecies Fishery Management Plan. Amendment 18 was developed by the New England Fishery Management Council to promote fleet diversity in the groundfish fishery and enhance sector management. This action proposes to limit the number of permits and annual groundfish allocation that an entity could hold. This action also removes several effort restrictions to increase operational flexibility for limited access handgear vessels.
Comments must be received on or before February 3, 2017.
You may submit comments on this document, identified by NOAA-NMFS-2015-0143, by any of the following methods:
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Written comments regarding the burden-hour estimates or other aspects of the collection-of-information requirements contained in this proposed rule may be submitted to the Greater Atlantic Regional Fisheries Office and by email to
Copies of Amendment 18, including its environmental impact statement, preliminary Regulatory Impact Review, and Initial Regulatory Flexibility Analysis (EIS/RIR/IRFA), are available from the New England Fishery Management Council, 50 Water Street, Newburyport, MA 01950. The EIS/RIR/IRFA is also accessible via the Internet at:
William Whitmore, Fishery Policy Analyst, 978-281-9182.
Since the approval of Amendment 16 to the Northeast Multispecies Fishery Management Plan (FMP) and the expanded use of catch shares in the groundfish fishery, many industry members and stakeholders have become increasingly concerned about excessive
Development of Amendment 18 began in 2011, with initial public scoping taking place between December 2011 and March 2012. Subsequently, the stock status for many groundfish stocks declined and the associated annual catch limits were significantly reduced. As a result, some groundfish fishermen were concerned that implementing an accumulation limit could be problematic if it reduced flexibility and prevented them from obtaining additional quota necessary to maintain viable fishing operations.
However, many industry members and stakeholders remained concerned that excessive consolidation is a risk to the fishery. Several groundfish stocks, particularly Georges Bank haddock, redfish, and pollock, continue to grow and remain consistently underharvested. As other stocks rebuild and quotas increase, there may be further consolidation and decreased diversity if vessels are able to earn above market rates of return and have an opportunity to acquire more permits.
Under the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act (Magnuson-Stevens Act), we are required to publish proposed rules for comment after preliminarily determining whether they are consistent with applicable law. The Magnuson-Stevens Act permits us to approve, partially approve, or disapprove measures proposed by the Council based only on whether the measures are consistent with the fishery management plan, plan amendment, the Magnuson-Stevens Act and its National Standards, and other applicable law. Otherwise, we must defer to the Council's policy choices. We are seeking comment on the Council's proposed measures in Amendment 18 and whether they are consistent with the Northeast Multispecies FMP, the Magnuson-Stevens Act and its National Standards, and other applicable law.
The primary purpose of this action is to limit the level of allocation that an entity may control to prevent excessive consolidation and retain fleet diversity.
The Council identified four goals for Amendment 18:
1. Promote a diverse groundfish fishery, including different gear types, vessel sizes, ownership patterns, geographic locations, and levels of participation through sectors and permit banks;
2. Enhance sector management to effectively engage industry to achieve management goals and improve data quality;
3. Promote resilience and stability of fishing businesses by encouraging diversification, quota utilization, and capital investment; and
4. Prevent any individual(s), corporation(s), or other entity(ies) from acquiring or controlling excessive shares of the fishery access privileges.
The goals and objectives of Amendment 18 are addressed through two mechanisms. First, this action proposes to establish accumulation limits on the number of groundfish permits and the amount of Potential Sector Contribution (PSC) that an entity may hold. PSC is the proportion of total landings of a particular stock associated with the landing history of a limited access permit. PSC also represents the share of allocation that an individual permit contributes to a sector. Second, this action proposes to remove several restrictions on limited access handgear vessels (Handgear A permitted vessels) to promote that small-boat fishery.
The New England Fishery Management Council contracted Compass Lexecon, an economic consulting firm, to provide independent advice regarding the establishment of northeast multispecies permit accumulation limits. The Council tasked Compass Lexecon to determine whether any entity already holds an excessive share of permits, and if not, what an excessive share would be in the groundfish fishery. Compass Lexecon defined an excessive share as a share of quota that would allow a permit owner or sector to influence the prices of the fishery's output or the prices paid for leased quota to its advantage, which is called market power. Compass Lexecon's analyses did not find that market power is currently being exercised through the withholding of quota in any part of the groundfish fishery, or in the sales of fish or transfers of permits.
Compass Lexecon recommended setting an excessive-share cap on the PSC conferred to a permit holder at 15.5 percent of the available PSC for any groundfish stock. Analyses suggested that this cap would prevent the accumulation of excessive shares, and that a lower limit was likely not necessary. The final report was completed in December 2013, and was peer reviewed in June 2014 by three reviewers from the Center for Independent Experts and one independent reviewer. A variation of Compass Lexecon's recommendation is proposed in this action.
Amendment 18 includes several general measures detailing how permit accumulation limits would be applied.
• Accumulation limits apply to individuals, permit banks, and other entities, including groundfish sectors, at the individual permit and PSC level.
• Accumulation limits do not apply to the amount of annual groundfish allocated to a sector, technically referred to as a sector's annual catch entitlement, or ACE.
• Accumulation limits may be modified in a future framework due to a Federal permit buyback or buyout.
• If an entity held permits or PSC on the control date (April 7, 2011) that exceeded the accumulation limits, it would be exempt from the accumulation limit, but would be restricted to holding no more permits or PSC than it held as of the control date. The grandfathered holdings may be fished or leased by the entity but are not transferrable. Current analyses suggest that no entity exceeds the control date accumulation limits.
• There is no calculation of partial ownership when considering accumulation limits. Any entity that is a partial owner is assumed to have full-ownership when calculating permit and PSC accumulation limits.
This action proposes to limit an entity to holding no more than 5 percent of all limited access groundfish permits. An entity would be prohibited from acquiring a permit that would result in it exceeding the 5-percent permit cap. There are approximately 1,373 limited access permits currently in the fishery; a 5-percent cap would limit an entity to approximately 69 permits. As of May 1, 2014, the most permits held by any entity is 55. Therefore, if approved, this alternative is unlikely to immediately restrict any entity.
Using this permit cap alone could still allow for accumulation of PSC sufficient to exert market power in limited and unlikely circumstances. For example, if only a 5-percent permit cap was adopted, an entity could potentially hold 85 PSC of the Georges Bank winter flounder stock. To address this potential, the Council proposed an additional PSC limit proposed in this action.
This action also proposes to limit the aggregated average of all allocated groundfish stocks PSC that may be held by an entity to no more than 15.5. With 15 groundfish stocks currently allocated to the fishery, the total PSC across all stocks used by an individual or an entity must be ≤232.5 (an average of 15.5 per stock multiplied by 15 stocks). This would allow an entity to hold PSC for a single stock in excess of 15.5, so long as the total holdings used do not exceed 232.5. If additional groundfish stocks are allocation (or unallocated) to sectors in the future, then this number would change by 15.5 per stock.
This PSC limit was developed based on Compass Lexecon's recommendation to establish a stock-specific PSC limit of 15.5 (as explained above). However, to allow fishermen additional operational flexibility in light of current groundfish stock conditions, the Council elected to use an aggregate average as defined above. Compared to other PSC limit alternatives that the Council considered, this option is the least restrictive because there is no stock-specific limit. Further, an entity would be permitted to purchase a vessel permit during a fishing year that would result in exceeding the aggregate 232.5 PSC limit. In this case, the entity would have to render at least one permit unusable (or “shelve” the permit) so that the entity is not operating above the PSC limit the following fishing year. A shelved permit would be unusable for an entire fishing year; a shelved permit could not be enrolled in a sector, fished, or leased, but could be sold. An entity would be prohibited from purchasing any additional permit once it exceeds the PSC limit. This is intended to allow a permit holder to acquire a new permit and improve their operational flexibility, while still restricting them to the overall accumulation limit. A shelved permit that is rendered unusable can be sold.
The aggregate limit provides flexibility for accumulating shares in single stocks. By itself, an aggregate PSC limit could result in an entity accumulating sufficient PSC in a single stock to exert market power, though exerting market power over multiple stocks appears highly unlikely. Recent analyses indicate that no one entity currently holds more than 140.4 PSC. Consequently, if approved, the 232.5 PSC limit is unlikely to immediately constrain any entity. Analyses within sections 7.6 and 9.11 of the Amendment suggest that purchasing vessel permits with enough PSC to exceed the PSC limit of 232.5 would require substantial capital and logistically would likely be complex and time consuming. As a result, the increased flexibility for accumulating PSC in individual stocks is curbed by the combination of the PSC limit and the permit caps.
The combination of PSC limits and the permit cap make it highly unlikely that market power could be exerted. Analyses show that the maximum allocation that an entity could acquire would be around 20 PSC for the majority of stocks, though PSC for certain stocks such as Georges Bank winter flounder could be acquired at higher levels than others. These analyses suggest that the proposed combination of an aggregate PSC limit of 232.5 and a 5-percent permit cap should be sufficient to prevent market power from being exerted. These analyses are discussed in more detail in sections 7.7.4.5 and 9.11 of the Amendment 18 EIS (see
We have some concern that Amendment 18 does not include any permit transfer restrictions on an individual entity that has exceeded the permit accumulation limit. As proposed, an individual who has exceeded the permit accumulation limit could maintain an interest in the PSC by transferring a permit to a spouse, family member, or business partner at little to no cost. We see this as a potential loophole to the PSC limit restriction. Including a requirement that any permit transfer from an entity that has exceeded the permit accumulation limit be an “arms-length” transaction would address this potential loophole. In this case, an arms-length transaction would be a permit transfer in the ordinary course of business between independent and unrelated entities, which would result in the owner who exceeded the limit maintaining no interest in the transferred permit and its PSC. We welcome comment on this topic.
Amendment 18 proposes to allow modifications to the accumulation limits through a future framework adjustment if a vessel/permit buyback or buyout were enacted in the groundfish fishery. However, any other changes to the accumulation limits would require an amendment to the FMP. Should certain factors change dramatically, such as a substantial reduction in the number of northeast multispecies limited access permits (due to permit holders relinquishing their permits), then NMFS would encourage the Council to revisit the accumulation limits proposed in this Amendment.
In order for an accumulation limit to be developed and applied it is necessary to first define an ownership interest. A unique definition of ownership interest as applied to the groundfish fishery is proposed for section 50 CFR 648.2 of the regulations. To better identify ownership interest and account for accumulation limits in the groundfish fishery, a permit holder would be required to identify all persons who hold an ownership interest with a particular permit when submitting a groundfish permit application or renewal form.
To reduce effort controls and increase flexibility for small boat fishermen, this action proposes to remove or modify several management measures affecting limited access permitted vessels fishing with handgear (Handgear A vessels).
First, this action would remove the March 1-20 spawning-block closure for all Handgear A vessels. Fishing effort by Handgear A vessels is restricted by a very small annual catch limit, and vessels are subject to other spawning closures. This measure would make the regulations for Handgear A vessels more consistent with vessels fishing in sectors, which are already exempted from the 20-day spawning block and is not anticipated to have any substantial biological consequences.
Handgear A vessels would also no longer be required to carry a standard fish tote on board. This measure was initially implemented to aid in the sorting and weighing of fish by both fishermen and enforcement personnel. However, enforcement no longer uses totes for at-sea weight and volume estimates, so the requirement for vessels to carry a tote is no longer necessary.
Lastly, this action would allow a sector to request an exemption from the requirement for Handgear A vessels to use a Vessel Monitoring System (VMS). Handgear A fishermen enrolled in a sector are currently required to utilize a VMS. Handgear A fishermen have commented that installing and utilizing a VMS system makes enrolling in a sector cost prohibitive. Any sector interested in utilizing this exemption would be required to submit an exemption request to us for approval. If a sector exemption is approved, a Handgear A vessel fishing within a sector utilizing the exemption would
This action proposes to allow two measures analyzed in Amendment 18 to be implemented through a future framework action. The Council explored establishing a separate allocation for the Handgear A fishery. Additionally, there was some interest in considering separate management measures for an inshore/offshore Gulf of Maine (GOM) boundary, including separate allocations for inshore and offshore GOM cod. However, because current catch limits for key groundfish stocks, including GOM cod, are so low, further sub-dividing allocations for the Handgear A, as well as inshore and offshore GOM cod, were controversial and would be difficult to develop and implement at this time. As a result, the Council elected to potentially consider these measures in a future framework.
In addition, several regulatory clarifications are proposed at § 648.90 to better delineate the responsibilities of the groundfish plan development team as well as which Council management measures could be modified in a future framework.
Public comments on the NOA for the FMP/amendment are being solicited through February 6, 2017 (81 FR 87862; December 6, 2016). Public comments on the proposed rule must be received by the end of the comment period on the Amendment, as published in the NOA, to be considered in the approval/disapproval decision on the Amendment. All comments received by the end of the comment period on the Amendment, whether specifically directed to the Amendment, or the proposed rule, will be considered in the approval/disapproval decision. Comments received after that date will not be considered in the approval/disapproval decision on Amendment 18. To be considered, comments must be received by close of business on the last day of the comment period; that does not mean postmarked or otherwise transmitted by that date.
Pursuant to section 303(c) of the Magnuson-Stevens Act, the Council has deemed the proposed regulations to be necessary and appropriate for the purpose of implementing Amendment 18.
Pursuant to section 304(b)(1)(A) of the Magnuson-Stevens Act, the NMFS Assistant Administrator has preliminarily determined that this proposed rule is consistent with Amendment 18, the FMP, other provisions of the Magnuson-Stevens Act, and other applicable law, subject to further consideration after public comment.
This proposed rule has been determined to be not significant for purposes of Executive Order 12866.
The Council prepared an environmental impact statement (EIS) for Amendment 18 that analyzes the impacts on the environment as a result of this action. A copy of the Amendment 18 EIS is available upon request from the Council and from our Web site (see
An initial regulatory flexibility analysis (IRFA) was prepared, as required by section 603 of the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA). The IRFA describes the economic impact that this proposed rule, if adopted, would have on small entities. A description of the action, why it is being considered, and the legal basis for this action are contained at the beginning of this section, in the preamble, and in the
The purpose of the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) analysis is to establish a principle of regulatory issuance that agencies shall endeavor, consistent with the objectives of the rule and of applicable statutes, to fit regulatory and informational requirements to the scale of businesses, organizations, and governmental jurisdictions subject to regulation. To achieve this principle, agencies are required to solicit and consider flexible regulatory proposals and to explain the rationale for their actions to assure such proposals are given serious consideration. The RFA does not contain any decision criteria. Instead, the purpose of the RFA is to inform the agency, as well as the public, of the expected economic impacts of various alternatives contained in the FMP or Amendment (including framework management measures and other regulatory actions) and to ensure the agency considers alternatives that minimize the expected impacts while meeting the goals and objectives of the FMP and applicable statutes.
With certain exceptions, the RFA requires agencies to conduct an Initial Regulatory IRFA for each proposed rule. The IRFA is designed to assess the impacts various regulatory alternatives would have on small entities, including small businesses, and to determine ways to minimize those impacts. An IRFA is primarily conducted to determine whether the proposed action would have a “significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.” In addition to analyses conducted for the RIR, the IRFA provides:
1. A description of the reasons why action by the agency is being considered;
2. A succinct statement of the objectives of, and legal basis for, the proposed rule;
3. A description and, where feasible, an estimate of the number of small entities to which the proposed rule will apply;
4. A description of the projected reporting, record-keeping, and other compliance requirements of the proposed rule, including an estimate of the classes of small entities which will be subject to the requirements of the report or record; and,
5. Identification, to the extent practicable, of all relevant federal rules, which may duplicate, overlap, or conflict with the proposed rule.
The purpose and need of Amendment 18 are set forth in Section 3.2 of the EIS (see page 30).
The goals and objectives of Amendment 18 are set forth in Section 3.3 of the EIS (see page 31-32). These were also summarized in the Background section of the preamble.
Small entities include “small businesses,” “small organizations,” and “small governmental jurisdictions.” The Small Business Administration (SBA) has established size standards for all major industry sectors in the U.S. including commercial finfish harvesters (NAICS code 114111), commercial shellfish harvesters (NAICS code 114112), other commercial marine harvesters (NAICS code 114119), for-hire businesses (NAICS code 487210),
On December 29, 2015, the National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS) issued a final rule establishing a small business size standard of $11 million in annual gross receipts for all businesses primarily engaged in the commercial fishing industry (NAICS 11411) for Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) compliance purposes only (80 FR 81194, December 29, 2015). The $11 million standard became effective on July 1, 2016, and is to be used in place of the U.S. Small Business Administration's (SBA) current standards of $20.5 million, $5.5 million, and $7.5 million for the finfish (NAICS 114111), shellfish (NAICS 114112), and other marine fishing (NAICS 114119) sectors of the U.S. commercial fishing industry in all NMFS rules subject to the RFA after July 1, 2016. Id. at 81194.
Pursuant to the RFA, and prior to July 1, 2016, an IRFA was developed for this regulatory action using SBA's former size standards. NMFS has reviewed the analyses prepared for this regulatory action in light of the new size standard. Under the SBA's size standards, all of the commercial finfish and other marine fishing businesses were considered small, while 12 of the 237 shellfish businesses were determined not to be small (Tables 1 and 2). The new standard could result in a few more commercial shellfish businesses being considered small. Analyses in Tables 2 and 3 below reveal that no groundfish-dependent entities exceeded $5.5 million in gross sales, with the mean gross sale per entity being less than $2 million. As a result, it is unlikely that any finfish, or more specifically, groundfish-dependent vessels, would be considered a large business under the new NMFS size standard.
Amendment 18 regulates commercial fish harvesting entities engaged in the Northeast multispecies limited access fishery. A description of the specific entities that are likely to be impacted is included below for informational purposes, followed by a discussion of those regulated entities likely to be impacted by the proposed regulations. For the purposes of the RFA analysis, the ownership entities, not the individual vessels, are considered the regulated entities.
Individually-permitted vessels may hold permits for several fisheries, harvesting species of fish that are regulated by several different FMPs, even beyond those impacted by Amendment 18. Furthermore, multiple permitted vessels and/or permits may be owned by entities affiliated by stock ownership, common management, identity of interest, contractual relationships, or economic dependency. For this analysis, ownership entities are defined by those entities with common ownership personnel as listed on permit application documentation. Only permits with identical ownership personnel are categorized as an ownership entity. For example, if five permits have the same seven personnel listed as co-owners on their application paperwork, those seven personnel form one ownership entity, covering those five permits. If one or several of the seven owners also own additional vessels, with sub-sets of the original seven personnel or with new co-owners, those ownership arrangements are deemed to be separate ownership entities for the purpose of this analysis.
Ownership entities are identified on June 1 of each year based on the list of all permit numbers for the most recent complete calendar year that have applied for any type of Northeast Federal fishing permit. The current ownership data set is based on calendar year 2014 permits and contains gross sales associated with those permits for calendar years 2012 through 2014. As of June 1, 2015, there were 661 commercial business entities potentially regulated by this action. Entities permitted to operate in the Northeast multispecies limited access fishery are described in Tables 1 and 2. As of June 1, 2015, there were 1,147 individual limited access permits. The 34 for-hire businesses included here are entities affiliated with limited access commercial groundfish permits, but derive greater than 50% of their gross sales from party/charter operations. All are small businesses (average gross revenues from 2012-14 are less than $7.5 million). The remaining 75 entities had no revenue and are classified as small.
These totals may mask some diversity among the entities. Many, if not most, of these ownership entities maintain diversified harvest portfolios, obtaining gross sales from many fisheries and are not dependent on any one. However, not all are equally diversified. Those that depend most heavily on sales from harvesting species impacted directly by Amendment 18 are most likely to be affected. By defining dependence as deriving greater than 50% of gross sales from sales of regulated species associated with a specific fishery, those ownership groups most likely to be impacted by the proposed regulations can be identified. Using this threshold, 61 entities are groundfish-dependent; all of which are small under both the SBA and NMFS size standards (Table 3).
This action contains a change to an information collection requirement, which has been approved by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under OMB Control Number 0648-0202. This revision would require any entity that has exceeded the potential sector contribution (PSC) allocation limit to render one or more permits “unusable” so that the entity would be operating within the allocation limit. If an entity exceeds the PSC limit, the entity would be required to complete a “Permit Shelving Form” and render one or more permits unusable. If two entities had to complete a “Permit Shelving Form”, the burden estimate would be 1 hr and cost $1.
Currently, no entity exceeds the PSC allocation limit; the most PSC any entity holds is approximately 140 PSC, and the proposed limit would be 232.5. As a result, it is unlikely that any entity would reach this threshold, and that the proposed action would not affect fishing operations.
Public comment is sought regarding whether this collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the function of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; the accuracy of the burden estimate; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarify of the information to be collected; and ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. Send comments on these or any other aspects of the collection of information to NMFS and to OMB (see
Notwithstanding any other provision of the law, no person is required to respond to, and no person shall be subject to penalty for failure to comply with, a collection of information subject to the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act, unless that collection of information displays a currently valid OMB control number.
No relevant Federal rules have been identified that would duplicate or overlap with Amendment 18.
This IRFA summary is intended to analyze how small entities would be impacted by the proposed management measures. These measures are expected to have minimal, if any, impact on small entities regulated by this action. The vast majority (649 out of 661) of potentially regulated entities are classified as small businesses by SBA and NMFS business size standards.
In general, the small entities regulated by this action would be unaffected. The majority of limited access groundfish permit holders possess permits and PSC in far smaller quantities than the proposed accumulation limits. However, as proposed, individuals who comprise a part of, or the entirety of, these small entities could be restricted in the number of permits or the amount of PSC shares they wish to accumulate in the future, which could impact revenue. Based on the Compass Lexecon report, scalability would not be affected by the reduced accumulation potential, although a definitive statement cannot be made at this time. Further, the PSC limit alternative would allow substantial flexibility so that vessel permit holders could continue to accumulate permits in a manner that allows them to maximize fishing opportunities within their portfolio.
There were several other PSC limit alternatives considered in the Amendment that were not selected because the Council determined the alternatives would have been too restrictive. For example, limiting an ownership entity to an accumulation limit equivalent to the PSC held as of the control date could have forced divestiture in the fishery and would have prevented ownership entities from growing. Similarly, establishing a specific accumulation limit for a specific groundfish stock would have reduced opportunities for entities to expand and restricted operational flexibility. Additional information on these alternatives is available in section 4.1 of the Amendment.
Handgear A permit holders would be largely unaffected by the limited access handgear measures. Minimal fishing activity by these vessels occurs during the winter and early spring, and the removal of the March 1-20 closure would not change this behavior. The removal of the standard fish tote requirement would be inconsequential, as this rule is not currently enforced and it is a minor operational change. The sector exemption for VMS requirement would likely also not affect Handgear A permit holders. Joining a sector would remain a challenge for these permit holders, given the small PSC associated with Handgear A permits. However, if they were to join a sector, this provision would reduce the cost burden for those vessels.
Several management measures and alternatives were considered but not selected by the Council. Other alternatives may be considered in a future framework, as explained in the preamble above. Additional information on these alternatives and justifications for the Council's decision are explained in section 4 of the Amendment.
The impacts of the proposed accumulation limits on groundfish-dependent small entities would be minimal. No entity would be immediately impacted by the proposed accumulation limits, and few would be potentially impacted in the long term. For those that are potentially impacted,
It is not clear how many Handgear A permit holders are groundfish-dependent, but the number is likely very small. There were 28 Handgear A permit holders that took at least one groundfish trip during fishing year 2013; any of these 28 would be minimally impacted by Amendment 18. There may be a few trips taken during the removed March 1-20 closure block. However, groundfish trips taken by Handgear A permit holders have generally been more profitable during the warmer months in recent years. The management measures proposed in this rule would provide greater operational flexibility to Handgear A vessels, therefore benefiting small businesses.
Fisheries, Fishing, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
For the reasons stated in the preamble, 50 CFR part 648 is proposed to be amended as follows:
16 U.S.C. 1801
(a) * * *
(1) * * *
(i) * * *
(N)
(
(
(
(c) * * *
(2)
(k) * * *
(2) * * *
(v) Fish for, possess, land fish, enroll in a sector, or lease a permit or confirmation of permit history (CPH) as a lessor or lessee, with a permit that has been rendered unusable as specified in § 648.4(a)(1)(i)(N).
(vi) Acquire a limited access NE multispecies permit that would result in a permit holder exceeding any of the ownership accumulation limits specified in § 648.4(a)(1)(i)(N), unless authorized under § 648.4(a)(1)(i)(N).
(9) * * *
(i) If operating under the provisions of a limited access NE multispecies Handgear A permit south of the GOM Regulated Mesh Area, as defined at § 648.80(a)(1), fail to declare the vessel operator's intent to fish in this area via VMS or fail to obtain or retain on board a letter of authorization from the
(ii) * * *
(N) Act as a lessor or lessee of NE multispecies DAS to or from a limited access permit that has been rendered unusable as specified in § 648.4(a)(1)(i)(N).
(b) * * *
(6)
(i) The vessel must not use or possess on board gear other than handgear while in possession of, fishing for, or landing NE multispecies;
(ii) Tub-trawls must be hand-hauled only, with a maximum of 250 hooks; and
(iii)
(g)
(c) * * *
(2) * * *
(i)
(a) * * *
(2)
(ii) Based on this review, the PDT shall recommend ACLs for the upcoming fishing year(s), as described in paragraph (a)(4) of this section, and develop options for consideration by the
(iii) In addition, the PDT may develop ranges of options for any of the management measures in the FMP and the following conditions that may be adjusted through a framework adjustment to achieve FMP goals and objectives including, but not limited to: Revisions to DAS measures, including DAS allocations (such as the distribution of DAS among the four categories of DAS), future uses for Category C DAS, and DAS baselines, adjustments for steaming time, etc.; accumulation limits due to a permit buyout or buyback; modifications to capacity measures, such as changes to the DAS transfer or DAS leasing measures; calculation of area-specific ACLs (including sub-ACLs for specific stocks and areas (
The Department of Agriculture will submit the following information collection requirement(s) to OMB for review and clearance under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13 on or after the date of publication of this notice. Comments are requested regarding (1) whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of burden including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology should be addressed to: Desk Officer for Agriculture, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget (OMB), New Executive Office Building, Washington, DC; New Executive Office Building, 725 17th Street NW., Washington, DC 20503. Commenters are encouraged to submit their comments to OMB via email to:
Comments regarding these information collections are best assured of having their full effect if received by January 11, 2017. Copies of the submission(s) may be obtained by calling (202) 720-8681.
An agency may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a currently valid OMB control number and the agency informs potential persons who are to respond to the collection of information that such persons are not required to respond to the collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
In this renewal submission, AMS has removed the record-keeping burden attributed to the implementation of two organic certification cost-share programs: The National Organic Certification Cost-Share Program and the Agricultural Management Assistance Organic Certification Cost-Share Program. Responsibility for the Organic Cost-Share Programs is being transferred to the Farm Services Agency (FSA).
The Department of Agriculture has submitted the following information collection requirement(s) to OMB for review and clearance under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13. Comments are requested regarding (1) whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of burden including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated,
Comments regarding this information collection received by January 11, 2017 will be considered. Written comments should be addressed to: Desk Officer for Agriculture, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget (OMB), New Executive Office Building, 725 17th Street NW., Washington, DC 20502. Commenters are encouraged to submit their comments to OMB via email to:
An agency may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a currently valid OMB control number and the agency informs potential persons who are to respond to the collection of information that such persons are not required to respond to the collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
Forest Service, USDA.
Notice of meeting.
The Black Hills National Forest Advisory Board (Board) will meet in Rapid City, South Dakota. Additional information concerning the Board, including the meeting summary/minutes, can be found by visiting the Board's Web site at:
The meeting will be held on Wednesday, January 4, 2017, at 1:00 p.m.
All meetings are subject to cancellation. For updated status of meeting prior to attendance, please contact the person listed under
The meeting will be held at the Mystic Ranger District, 8221 Mount Rushmore Road, Rapid City, South Dakota.
Written comments may be submitted as described under
Scott Jacobson, Board Coordinator, by phone at 605-440-1409 or by email at
Individuals who use telecommunication devices for the deaf (TDD) may call the Federal Information Relay Service (FIRS) at 1-800-877-8339 between 8:00 a.m. and 8:00 p.m., Eastern Standard Time, Monday through Friday.
The Board is established consistent with the Federal Advisory Committee Act of 1972 (5 U.S.C. App. II), the Forest and Rangeland Renewable Resources Planning Act of 1974 (16 U.S.C. 1600
The purpose of the meeting is to provide:
(1) Orientation Topic—Special Uses;
(2) 2016 Aerial Photo Results/Update;
(3) Black Hills Resilient Landscapes (BHRL) Project update;
(4) Pile Burning on the Forest;
(5) Over Snow Use; and
(6) Non-Motorized Trails Working Group update.
The meeting is open to the public. The agenda will include time for people to make oral statements of three minutes or less. Individuals wishing to make an oral statement should submit a request in writing by December 26, 2016, to be scheduled on the agenda. Anyone who would like to bring related matters to the attention of the Board may file written statements with the Board's staff before or after the meeting. Written comments and time requests for oral comments must be sent to Scott Jacobson, Black Hills National Forest Supervisor's Office, 1019 North Fifth Street, Custer, South Dakota 57730; by email to
Forest Service, USDA.
Notice of meeting.
The Siuslaw Resource Advisory Committee (RAC) will meet in Corvallis, Oregon. The committee is authorized under the Secure Rural Schools and Community Self-Determination Act (the Act) and operates in compliance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act. The purpose of the committee is to improve collaborative relationships and to provide advice and recommendations to the Forest Service concerning projects and funding consistent with Title II of the Act. RAC information can be found at the following Web site:
The meeting will be held on January 23, 2017, from 9:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m.
All RAC meetings are subject to cancellation. For status of meeting prior to attendance, please contact the person listed under
The meeting will be held at the Corvallis Forestry Sciences Lab and Siuslaw National Forest Supervisor's Office, 3200 Southwest Jefferson Way, Corvallis, Oregon.
Written comments may be submitted as described under
Lisa Romano, RAC Coordinator by phone at 541-750-7075, or via email at
Individuals who use telecommunication devices for the deaf (TDD) may call the Federal Information Relay Service (FIRS) at 1-800-877-8339 between 8:00 a.m. and 8:00 p.m., Eastern Standard Time, Monday through Friday.
The purpose of the meeting is:
1. To conduct RAC business,
2. Elect a RAC chairperson,
3. Share information,
4. Provide a public forum, and
5. Review Siuslaw National Forest's recreation fee proposal.
The meeting is open to the public. Individuals wishing to make an oral statement should request to do so in writing by January 3, 2017, to be scheduled on the agenda. Anyone who would like to bring related matters to the attention of the committee may file written statements with the committee staff before or after the meeting. Written comments and requests for time for oral comments must be sent to Lisa Romano, RAC Coordinator, 3200 Southwest Jefferson Way, Corvallis, Oregon 97331; or by email to
Forest Service, USDA.
Notice of meeting.
The North Mt. Baker-Snoqualmie Resource Advisory Committee (RAC) will meet in Sedro-Woolley, WA. The committee is authorized under the Secure Rural Schools and Community Self-Determination Act (the Act) and operates in compliance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act. The purpose of the committee is to improve collaborative relationships and to provide advice and recommendations to the Forest Service concerning projects and funding consistent with Title II of the Act. Additional RAC information, including the meeting agenda and the meeting summary/minutes can be found at the following Web site:
The meeting will be held January 19, 2017 from 8:00 a.m.-5:00 p.m.
All RAC meetings are subject to cancellation. For status of meeting prior to attendance, please contact the person listed under
The meeting will be held at 810 State Route 20, Sedro-Woolley, WA 98284.
Written comments may be submitted as described under
Erin Uloth, District Ranger by phone at 360-854-2601 or via email at
Individuals who use telecommunication devices for the deaf (TDD) may call the Federal Information Relay Service (FIRS) at 1-800-877-8339 between 8:00 a.m. and 8:00 p.m., Eastern Standard Time, Monday through Friday.
The purpose of the meeting is:
1. For the committee to review project proposals put forward by proponents for Secure Rural Schools Title II funding.
2. The committee will also put forward its recommendation to the Deciding Official for what projects to fund at what levels.
The meeting is open to the public. The agenda will include time for people to make oral statements of three minutes or less. Individuals wishing to make an oral statement should request in writing by January 6, 2017 to be scheduled on the agenda. Anyone who would like to bring related matters to the attention of the committee may file written statements with the committee staff before or after the meeting. Written comments and requests for time for oral comments must be sent to Erin Uloth, Mt. Baker District Ranger, 810 State Route 20, Sedro-Woolley, WA 98284; or by email to
Grain Inspection, Packers and Stockyards Administration (GIPSA), USDA.
Notice.
The designation of the official agency listed below will end on December 31, 2016. We are asking persons or governmental agencies interested in providing official services in the areas presently served by this agency to submit an application for designation. In addition, we are asking for comments on the quality of services provided by the following designated agency: Northeast Indiana Grain Inspection, Inc. (Northeast Indiana).
Applications and comments must be received by January 11, 2017.
Submit applications and comments concerning this Notice using any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
•
Sharon Lathrop, 816-891-0415 or
Section 79(f) of the United States Grain Standards Act (USGSA) authorizes the Secretary to designate a qualified applicant to provide official services in a specified area after determining that the applicant is better able than any other applicant to provide such official services (7 U.S.C. 79(f)). Under section 79(g) of the USGSA, designations of official agencies are effective for no longer than five years, unless terminated by the Secretary, and may be renewed according to the criteria and procedures prescribed in section 79(f) of the USGSA.
Pursuant to Section 79(f)(2) of the United States Grain Standards Act, the following geographic area, in the State of Indiana, is assigned to this official agency.
Bounded on the North by the northern Lagrange and Steuben County lines; Bounded on the East by the eastern Steuben, De Kalb, Allen, and Adams County lines; Bounded on the South by the southern Adams and Wells County lines; and Bounded on the West by the western Wells County line; the southern Huntington and Wabash County lines; the western Wabash County line north to State Route 114; State Route 114 northwest to State Route 19; State Route 19 north to Kosciusko County; the western and northern Kosciusko County lines; the western Noble and Lagrange County lines.
The following grain elevator is part of this geographic area's assignment. In Michigan Grain Inspection Services, Inc.'s area: Trupointe Elevator, Payne, Paulding County, Ohio.
Interested persons or governmental agencies may apply for designation to provide official services in the geographic areas specified above under the provisions of section 79(f) of the USGSA and 7 CFR 800.196. Designation in the specified geographic area in the State of Indiana is for the period beginning January 1, 2017, to December 31, 2021. To apply for designation or to request more information, contact Sharon Lathrop at the address listed above.
We are publishing this Notice to provide interested persons the opportunity to comment on the quality of services provided by the Northeast Indiana official agency. In the designation process, we are particularly interested in receiving comments citing reasons and pertinent data supporting or objecting to the designation of the applicant. Submit all comments to Sharon Lathrop at the above address or at
We consider applications, comments, and other available information when determining which applicants will be designated.
7 U.S.C. 71-87k.
Grain Inspection, Packers and Stockyards Administration (GIPSA), USDA.
Notice.
GIPSA is announcing the designations of Amarillo Grain Exchange, Inc. (Amarillo); Cairo Grain Inspection Agency, Inc. (Cairo); Louisiana Department of Agriculture and Forestry (Louisiana); North Carolina Department of Agriculture (North Carolina) and D.R. Schaal Agency, Inc. (Schaal) to provide official services under the United States Grain Standards Act (USGSA), as amended.
Sharon Lathrop, Compliance Officer, USDA, GIPSA, FGIS, QACD, 10383 North Ambassador Drive, Kansas City, MO 64153.
Sharon Lathrop, 816-891-0415,
In the August 24, 2016, and August 30, 2016,
GIPSA evaluated the designation criteria in section 79(f) of the USGSA (7 U.S.C. 79(f)) and determined that Amarillo, Cairo, Louisiana, North Carolina, and Schaal are qualified to provide official services in the geographic areas specified in the
Interested persons may obtain official services by contacting these agencies at the following telephone numbers:
Section 79(f) of the USGSA authorizes the Secretary to designate a qualified applicant to provide official services in a specified area after determining that the applicant is better able than any other applicant to provide such official services (7 U.S.C. 79(f)).
National Agricultural Statistics Service, USDA.
Notice of Revision of Confidentiality Pledge under the Title V of the E-Government Act, Confidential Information Protection and Statistical Efficiency Act of 2002 (CIPSEA) and Title 7, Chapter 55, Section 2276 (Confidentiality of Information).
Under 44 U.S.C. 3506(e), and 44 U.S.C. 3501, the National Agricultural Statistics Service (NASS) is announcing a revision to the confidentiality pledge it provides to its respondents under CIPSEA and Title 7, Chapter 55, Section 2276. The revision is required by the passage and implementation of provisions of the Federal Cybersecurity Enhancement Act of 2015 (H.R. 2029, Division N, Title II, Subtitle B, Sec. 223), which permit and require the Secretary of Homeland Security to provide Federal civilian agencies' information technology systems with cybersecurity protection for their Internet traffic. More details on this announcement are presented in the
This revision becomes effective upon publication of this notice in the
Questions about this notice may be submitted by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
R. Renee Picanso, Associate Administrator, National Agricultural Statistics Service, U.S. Department of Agriculture, (202) 720-4333, or email
Under CIPSEA; Title 7, Chapter 55, Section 2276; and similar statistical confidentiality protection statutes, many federal statistical agencies, including NASS, make statutory pledges that the information respondents provide will be seen only by statistical agency personnel or their sworn agents, and will be used only for statistical purposes. CIPSEA and Title 7, Chapter 55, Section 2276 protect such statistical information from administrative, law enforcement, taxation, regulatory, or any other non-statistical use and immunize the information submitted to statistical agencies from legal process. Moreover, many of these statutes carry criminal penalties of a Class E felony (fines up to $250,000, or up to five years in prison, or both) for conviction of a knowing and willful unauthorized disclosure of covered information.
As part of the Consolidated Appropriations Act for Fiscal Year 2016 signed on December 17, 2015, the Congress included the Federal Cybersecurity Enhancement Act of 2015 (H.R. 2029, Division N, Title II, Subtitle B, Sec. 223). This Act, among other provisions, permits and requires the Secretary of Homeland Security to provide federal civilian agencies' information technology systems with cybersecurity protection for their Internet traffic. The technology currently used to provide this protection against cyber malware is known as “Einstein 3A”. It electronically searches Internet traffic in and out of federal civilian agencies in real time for malware signatures.
When such a signature is found, the Internet packets that contain the malware signature are shunted aside for further inspection by Department of Homeland Security (DHS) personnel. Because it is possible that such packets entering or leaving a statistical agency's information technology system may contain confidential statistical data, statistical agencies can no longer promise their respondents that their responses will be seen only by statistical agency personnel or their sworn agents. However, they can promise, in accordance with provisions of the Federal Cybersecurity Enhancement Act of 2015, that such monitoring can be used only to protect information and information systems from cybersecurity risks, thereby, in effect, providing stronger protection to the integrity of the respondents' submissions.
Consequently, with the passage of the Federal Cybersecurity Enhancement Act of 2015, the federal statistical community has an opportunity to welcome the further protection of its confidential data offered by DHS' Einstein 3A cybersecurity protection program. The DHS cybersecurity
Accordingly, DHS and federal statistical agencies (including NASS), in cooperation with their parent departments, have developed a Memorandum of Agreement for the installation of Einstein 3A cybersecurity protection technology to monitor their Internet traffic and have incorporated an associated Addendum on Highly Sensitive Agency Information that provides additional protection and enhanced security handling of confidential statistical data. However, CIPSEA; Title 7, Chapter 55, Section 2276; and similar statistical confidentiality pledges promise that respondents' data will be seen only by statistical agency personnel or their sworn agents. Since it is possible that DHS personnel could see some portion of those confidential data in the course of examining the suspicious Internet packets identified by the Einstein 3A technology, statistical agencies need to revise their confidentiality pledges to reflect this process change.
Therefore, NASS is providing this notice to alert the public to this confidentiality pledge revision in an efficient and coordinated fashion. Below is the revised confidentiality pledge as it will appear on NASS survey questionnaires, as well as the revision to NASS's confidentiality Web page. A list of the NASS OMB numbers and information collection titles that will be affected by this revision is also included below.
The revised confidentiality pledge to appear on NASS questionnaires is below:
The information you provide will be used for statistical purposes only. Your responses will be kept confidential and any person who willfully discloses ANY identifiable information about you or your operation is subject to a jail term, a fine, or both.
This survey is conducted in accordance with the Confidential Information Protection provisions of Title V, Subtitle A, Public Law 107-347 and other applicable Federal laws. For more information on how we protect your information please visit:
For voluntary surveys the statement, “Response to this survey is voluntary.” Will follow this pledge. For mandatory surveys the statement, “Response to this survey is mandatory.” will follow.
The NASS confidentiality pledge Web page (
5. Data are protected from cybersecurity threats
Per the Cybersecurity Enhancement Act of 2015, your data are further protected by the Department of Homeland Security (DHS) through cybersecurity monitoring of the systems that transmit your data. DHS will be monitoring these systems to look for viruses, malware and other threats. In the event of a cybersecurity incident, and pursuant to any required legal process, information from these sources may be used to help identify and mitigate the incident.
Affected information collections:
National Institute of Food and Agriculture, USDA.
Notice of Stakeholder Listening Session and request for stakeholder input.
As part of the National Institute of Food and Agriculture's (NIFA) strategy to successfully expand the Food Safety Outreach Program, NIFA will host a virtual listening session. The focus of the listening session is to gather stakeholder input to develop the priorities for the Request for Applications (RFA) in Fiscal Year (FY) 2018. NIFA is particularly interested in reaching the intended audience, achieving the most impact, and identifying suggested priorities in the third year of the Food Safety Outreach Program.
The listening session will be held on Tuesday, January 31, 2017 from 1:00 p.m. to 3:00 p.m., Eastern Standard Time (EST). All written comments must be received by 5 p.m. EST on January 31, 2017 to be considered in the initial drafting of the FY 2018 Food Safety Outreach Program request for applications.
The listening session will be hosted using Adobe Connect. On January 31, 2017, please access the following Web site,
Please submit comments, identified as NIFA-2017-0002, by any of the following methods:
Dr. Dawanna James-Holly, (202) 401-1950 (phone), (202) 401-4888 (fax), or
Persons wishing to present during the web-based listening session on Tuesday, January 31, 2017, are requested to pre-register by contacting Dr. Dawanna James-Holly. Participants may reserve one 5-minute comment period. More time may be available, depending on the number of people wishing to make a presentation. Reservations will be confirmed on a first-come, first-served basis. All other participants may provide comments during the listening session if time permits, or by previous listed means.
On January 4, 2011, the Food Safety Modernization Act (FSMA) was signed into legislation. The Act amended the Food and Drug Cosmetic Act, 21 U.S.C. 391
In FY 2016, the Food Safety Outreach Program at NIFA built upon the national infrastructure, with a focus on delivery of customized training to very specific target audiences. Grant applications were solicited directly from those in local communities—to include those from community-based organizations, non-governmental organizations, food hubs, farm cooperatives, extension, and other local groups. Proposals were solicited for three project types: (1) Pilot Projects; (2) Community Outreach Projects; and (3) Multistate Education and Training Projects. Pilot Projects support the development of potentially high-risk and high-impact food safety education and outreach programs in local communities, addressing the needs of small, specialized audiences from among the various target groups. Pilot projects focus on building the capacity of local groups to identify very specific needs within their communities, and implementing appropriately-customized food safety education and outreach programs to meet those specific needs.
Community Outreach Projects support the growth and expansion of already existing food safety education and outreach programs currently offered in local communities. In addition, these projects enable existing programs to reach a broader target audience. These projects enable existing education and training curricula to be modified to ensure that they are consistent with new FSMA rules and to ensure that they meet the needs of expanded audiences.
Multistate Education and Training Projects support the development of multi-county, state-wide or multi-state programs. These projects support collaborations among states not necessarily located within the same regions, but having common food safety concerns, or addressing common commodities.
Since its inception in FY 2015, the program has awarded over $7 million to Community Based Organizations, Cooperative Extension at 1890 and 1862 land-grant institutions, and local food hubs and established 27 new Food Safety Education and Outreach Projects. Many of these projects will work at the local level to provide training and technical assistance to small, mid-sized and hard to reach producers and processors to address the new requirements associated with FSMA.
All comments and the official transcript of the listening session, once available, may be reviewed on the NIFA Web page,
U.S. Commission on Civil Rights.
Announcement of meeting.
Notice is hereby given, pursuant to the provisions of the rules and regulations of the U.S. Commission on Civil Rights (Commission) and the Federal Advisory Committee Act that the Ohio Advisory Committee (Committee) will hold a meeting on Tuesday, December 20, 2016, at 10:30 a.m. EST for the purpose of discussing a draft report regarding civil rights and human trafficking in the state.
The meeting will be held on Tuesday, December 20, 2016, at 10:30 a.m. EST
Public call information: Dial: 888-726-2413, Conference ID: 7752037
Melissa Wojnaroski, DFO, at
Members of the public can listen to the discussion. This meeting is available to the public through the following toll-free call-in number: 888-726-2413, conference ID: 7752037. Any interested member of the public may call this number and listen to the meeting. An open comment period will be provided to allow members of the public to make a statement as time allows. The conference call operator will ask callers to identify themselves, the organization they are affiliated with (if any), and an email address prior to placing callers into the conference room. Callers can expect to incur regular charges for calls they initiate over wireless lines, according to their wireless plan. The Commission will not refund any incurred charges. Callers will incur no charge for calls they initiate over land-line connections to the toll-free telephone number. Persons with hearing impairments may also follow the proceedings by first calling the Federal Relay Service at 1-800-977-8339 and providing the Service with the conference call number and conference ID number.
Members of the public are also entitled to submit written comments; the comments must be received in the regional office within 30 days following the meeting. Written comments may be mailed to the Midwestern Regional Office, U.S. Commission on Civil Rights, 55 W. Monroe St., Suite 410, Chicago, IL 60615. They may also be faxed to the Commission at (312) 353-8324, or emailed to Carolyn Allen at
Records generated from this meeting may be inspected and reproduced at the Midwestern Regional Office, as they become available, both before and after the meeting. Records of the meeting will be available via
On August 5, 2016, Miami-Dade County, grantee of FTZ 281, submitted a notification of proposed production activity to the FTZ Board on behalf of Carrier InterAmerica Corporation, within Site 3, in Miami, Florida.
The notification was processed in accordance with the regulations of the FTZ Board (15 CFR part 400), including notice in the
On September 29, 2016, the Executive Secretary of the Foreign-Trade Zones (FTZ) Board docketed an application submitted by the Puerto Rico Industrial Development Company, grantee of FTZ 7, requesting subzone status subject to the existing activation limit of FTZ 7 on behalf of Romark Global Pharma, LLC, in Manatí, Puerto Rico.
The application was processed in accordance with the FTZ Act and Regulations, including notice in the
Pursuant to the authority delegated to the FTZ Board's Executive Secretary (15 CFR 400.36(f)), the application to establish Subzone 7P is approved, subject to the FTZ Act and the Board's
International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce.
Notice of Federal Advisory Committee Meeting.
This notice sets forth the schedule and proposed agenda for a meeting of the Civil Nuclear Trade Advisory Committee (CINTAC).
The meeting is scheduled for Wednesday, December 21, 2016, from 10:30 a.m. to 11:30 a.m. Eastern Standard Time (EST). The deadline for members of the public to register, including requests to make comments during the meeting and for auxiliary aids, or to submit written comments for dissemination prior to the meeting, is 5:00 p.m. EST on December 16, 2016.
The meeting will be held via conference call. The call-in number and passcode will be provided by email to registrants. Requests to register (including to speak or for auxiliary aids) and any written comments should be submitted to: Mr. Jonathan Chesebro, Office of Energy & Environmental Industries, International Trade Administration, Room 20010, 1401 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20230. (Fax: 202-482-5665; email:
Mr. Jonathan Chesebro, Office of Energy & Environmental Industries, International Trade Administration, Room 20010, 1401 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20230. (Phone: 202-482-1297; Fax: 202-482-5665; email:
Public attendance is limited and available on a first-come, first-served basis. Members of the public wishing to attend the meeting must notify Mr. Jonathan Chesebro at the contact information above by 5:00 p.m. EST on Friday, December 16, 2016 in order to pre-register. Please specify any requests for reasonable accommodation at least five business days in advance of the meeting. Last minute requests will be accepted, but may not be possible to fill.
A limited amount of time will be available for pertinent brief oral comments from members of the public attending the meeting. To accommodate as many speakers as possible, the time for public comments will be limited to two (2) minutes per person, with a total public comment period of 30 minutes. Individuals wishing to reserve speaking time during the meeting must contact Mr. Chesebro and submit a brief statement of the general nature of the comments and the name and address of the proposed participant 5:00 p.m. EST on Friday, December 16, 2016. If the number of registrants requesting to make statements is greater than can be reasonably accommodated during the meeting, ITA may conduct a lottery to determine the speakers.
Any member of the public may submit pertinent written comments concerning the CINTAC's affairs at any time before and after the meeting. Comments may be submitted to the Civil Nuclear Trade Advisory Committee, Office of Energy & Environmental Industries, Room 20010, 1401 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20230. For consideration during the meeting, and to ensure transmission to the Committee prior to the meeting, comments must be received no later than 5:00 p.m. EST on Friday, December 16, 2016. Comments received after that date will be distributed to the members but may not be considered at the meeting.
Copies of CINTAC meeting minutes will be available within 90 days of the meeting.
Pursuant to Section 6(c) of the Educational, Scientific and Cultural Materials Importation Act of 1966 (Pub. L. 89-651, as amended by Pub. L. 106-36; 80 Stat. 897; 15 CFR part 301), we invite comments on the question of whether instruments of equivalent scientific value, for the purposes for which the instruments shown below are intended to be used, are being manufactured in the United States.
Comments must comply with 15 CFR 301.5(a)(3) and (4) of the regulations and be postmarked on or before January 3, 2017. Address written comments to Statutory Import Programs Staff, Room 3720, U.S. Department of Commerce, Washington, DC 20230. Applications may be examined between 8:30 a.m. and 5:00 p.m. at the U.S. Department of Commerce in Room 3720.
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The Department of Commerce (the Department) is conducting an administrative review of the antidumping duty order on seamless refined copper pipe and tube from Mexico. The review covers three producers/exporters of the subject merchandise, GD Affiliates S. de R.L. de C.V. (Golden Dragon), Nacional de Cobre, S.A. de C.V. (Nacobre), and IUSA, S.A. de C.V. (IUSA). The period of review (POR) is November 1, 2014, through October 31, 2015. We have preliminarily found that sales of subject merchandise have been made at prices below normal value. Interested parties are invited to comment on these preliminary results.
Effective December 12, 2016.
Dennis McClure or George Ayache, AD/CVD Operations, Office VIII, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-5973 or (202) 482-2623, respectively.
The merchandise subject to the
The Department is conducting this review in accordance with section 751(a)(2) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act). Constructed export price is calculated in accordance with section 772 of the Act. Normal value is calculated in accordance with section 773 of the Act.
For a full description of the methodology underlying our conclusions,
Among the companies under review, IUSA properly filed a statement reporting that it made no shipments of subject merchandise to the United States during the POR.
The Department preliminarily determines that the following weighted-average dumping margins exist:
The Department intends to
Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.310(c), interested parties who wish to request a hearing must submit a written request to the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance, filed electronically via ACCESS. An electronically-filed document must be received successfully in its entirety by ACCESS by 5 p.m. Eastern Standard Time within 30 days after the date of publication of this notice.
The Department intends to issue the final results of this administrative review, including the results of its analysis of the issues raised in any written briefs, no later than 120 days after the date of publication of this notice, pursuant to section 751(a)(3)(A) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.213(h), unless this deadline is extended.
Upon issuance of the final results, the Department shall determine, and CBP shall assess, antidumping duties on all appropriate entries covered by this review.
In accordance with the Department's “automatic assessment” practice, for entries of subject merchandise during the POR produced by Golden Dragon and Nacobre for which they did not know their merchandise was destined for the United States, we will instruct CBP to liquidate unreviewed entries at the all-others rate if there is no rate for the intermediary involved in the transaction.
We intend to issue instructions to CBP 41 days after the publication date of the final results of this review.
The following deposit requirements will be effective upon publication of the notice of final results of administrative review for all shipments of seamless refined copper pipe and tube from Mexico entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the date of publication as provided by section 751(a)(2) of the Act: (1) The cash deposit rates for Golden Dragon and Nacobre will be equal to the weighted-average dumping margins established in the final results of this administrative review; (2) for merchandise exported by manufacturers or exporters not covered in this review but covered in a prior segment of the proceeding, the cash deposit rate will continue to be the company-specific rate published for the most recently-completed segment; (3) if the exporter is not a firm covered in this review, a prior review, or the original investigation but the manufacturer is, the cash deposit rate will be the rate established for the most recently-completed segment for the manufacturer of the merchandise; (4) the cash deposit rate for all other manufacturers or exporters will continue to be 26.03 percent, the all-others rate established in the
This notice also serves as a preliminary reminder to importers of their responsibility under 19 CFR 351.402(f)(2) to file a certificate regarding the reimbursement of antidumping duties prior to liquidation of the relevant entries during this review period. Failure to comply with this requirement could result in the Secretary's presumption that reimbursement of antidumping duties
We are issuing and publishing these results in accordance with sections 751(a)(1) and 777(i)(1) of the Act, and 19 CFR 351.213(h) and 351.221(b)(4).
International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce.
Notice of an open meeting.
The Renewable Energy and Energy Efficiency Advisory Committee (REEEAC) will hold a conference call on Thursday, December 22, 2016 at 11:00 a.m. The conference call is open to the public with registration instructions provided below.
December 22, 2016, from approximately 11:00 a.m. to 12:00 p.m. Eastern Standard Time (EST). Members of the public wishing to participate must register in advance with Victoria Gunderson at the contact information below by 5:00 p.m. EST on Tuesday, December 20, 2016, including any requests to make comments during the meeting or for accommodations or auxiliary aids.
Victoria Gunderson, Designated Federal Officer, Office of Energy and Environmental Industries (OEEI), International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce at (202) 482-7890; email:
During the December 22 conference call of the REEEAC, committee members will recommend/approve the Sub-Committee structure, select their recommendations for Sub-Committee leadership, and potentially approve recommendations and/or a letter for input to the Secretary of Commerce.
The meeting will be open to the public and will be accessible to people with disabilities. All guests are required to register in advance by the deadline identified under the
A limited amount of time before the close of the meeting will be available for pertinent oral comments from members of the public attending the meeting. To accommodate as many speakers as possible, the time for public comments will be limited to two to five minutes per person (depending on the number of public participants). Individuals wishing to reserve speaking time during the meeting must contact Ms. Gunderson and submit a brief statement of the general nature of the comments, as well as the name and address of the proposed participant by 5:00 p.m. EST on Tuesday, December 20, 2016. If the number of registrants requesting to make statements is greater than can be reasonably accommodated during the meeting, the International Trade Administration may conduct a lottery to determine the speakers. Speakers are requested to submit a copy of their oral comments by email to Ms. Gunderson for distribution to the participants in advance of the meeting.
Any member of the public may submit pertinent written comments concerning the REEEAC's affairs at any time before or after the meeting. Comments may be submitted to the Renewable Energy and Energy Efficiency Advisory Committee, c/o: Victoria Gunderson, Designated Federal Officer, Office of Energy and Environmental Industries, U.S. Department of Commerce; 1401 Constitution Avenue NW.; Mail Stop: 4053; Washington, DC 20230. To be considered during the meeting, written comments must be received no later than 5:00 p.m. EST on Tuesday, December 20, 2016, to ensure transmission to the Committee prior to the meeting. Comments received after that date will be distributed to the members but may not be considered at the meeting.
Copies of REEEAC meeting minutes will be available within 30 days following the meeting.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice; issuance of an Incidental Harassment Authorization (IHA).
In accordance with the Marine Mammal Protection Act (MMPA), notification is hereby given that NMFS has issued an IHA to the Port of Kalama (POK) for an IHA to take small numbers of marine mammals, by Level B harassment, incidental to in-water construction activities associated with the Port of Kalama Expansion Project.
Effective September 1, 2017, through August 31, 2018.
An electronic copy of the final Authorization, POK's application and the environmental assessment (EA) may be obtained by writing to the address specified below, telephoning the contact listed below (see
Dale Youngkin, Office of Protected Resources, NOAA Fisheries, (301) 427-8401.
Sections 101(a)(5)(A) and (D) of the MMPA (16 U.S.C. 1361
An authorization for incidental takings shall be granted if NOAA Fisheries finds that the taking will have a negligible impact on the species or stock(s), will not have an unmitigable adverse impact on the availability of the species or stock(s) for subsistence uses (where relevant), and if the permissible methods of taking and requirements pertaining to the mitigation, monitoring and reporting of such takings are set forth. NOAA Fisheries has defined “negligible impact” in 50 CFR 216.103 as “an impact resulting from the specified activity that cannot be reasonably expected to, and is not reasonably likely to, adversely affect the species or stock through effects on annual rates of recruitment or survival.”
Except with respect to certain activities not pertinent here, the MMPA defines “harassment” as: Any act of pursuit, torment, or annoyance which (i) has the potential to injure a marine mammal or marine mammal stock in the wild [Level A harassment]; or (ii) has the potential to disturb a marine mammal or marine mammal stock in the wild by causing disruption of behavioral patterns, including, but not limited to, migration, breathing, nursing, breeding, feeding, or sheltering [Level B harassment].
On September 28, 2015, NOAA Fisheries received an application from the Port of Kalama (POK) for the taking of marine mammals incidental to the construction of a new pier. On December 10, 2015, a final revised version of the application was submitted and NOAA Fisheries determined that the application was adequate and complete. NMFS published a notice making preliminary determinations and proposing an IHA on March 21, 2016 (81 FR 15064). The notice initiated a 30-day comment period. At the end of the 30-day comment period, POK notified NMFS that work would be postponed until the 2017 season. NMFS reviewed the initial application and EA and has determined that there are no substantial changes to the specified activities that would require reinitiating the process.
The POK proposes to construct the Kalama Marine Manufacturing and Export Facility, including a new marine terminal and dredging of a berth extension, for the export of methanol. The proposed action also includes the installation of engineered log jams, restoration of riparian wetlands, and the removal of existing wood piles in a side channel as mitigation activities. The proposed activity is expected to occur during the 2017-2018 in-water work season for ESA listed fish species (September 1 through January 31). This IHA covers from September 1, 2017 to August 31, 2018, to allow for adjustments to the schedule in-water work based on logistics, weather, and contractor needs. It is possible that the work would require a second season, at which time the applicant will seek another IHA covering the second season. The following specific aspects of the proposed activities are likely to result in the take of marine mammals: Impact pile driving and vibratory pile driving. Take, by Level B Harassment only, of individuals of harbor seals (
A detailed description of the project construction activities is provided in the
A notice of preliminary determinations and proposed IHA for POK's in-water construction activities was published in the
Marine mammal species that have been observed within the region of activity consist of the harbor seal, California sea lion, and Steller sea lion. Pinnipeds follow prey species into freshwater up to, primarily, the Bonneville Dam (RM 146) in the Columbia River, but also to Willamette Falls in the Willamette River (RM 26). None of the species of marine mammal that occur in the project area are listed under the ESA or is considered depleted or strategic under the MMPA. See Table 1, below.
The sea lion species use this portion of the river primarily for transiting to and from Bonneville Dam, which concentrates adult salmonids and sturgeon returning to natal streams, providing for increased foraging efficiency. The U.S. Army Corps of Engineers (USACE) has conducted surface observations to evaluate the seasonal presence, abundance, and predation activities of pinnipeds in the Bonneville Dam tailrace each year since 2002. This monitoring program was initiated in response to concerns over the potential impact of pinniped predation on adult salmonids passing Bonneville Dam in the spring. An active sea lion hazing, trapping, and permanent removal program was in place below the dam from 2008 through 2013.
Pinnipeds remain in upstream locations for a couple of days or longer, feeding heavily on salmon, steelhead, and sturgeon, although the occurrence of harbor seals near Bonneville Dam is much lower than sea lions (Stansell
There are no pinniped haul-out sites in the area of potential effects from the proposed project. The nearest haul-out sites, shared by harbor seals and California sea lions, are near the Cowlitz River/Carroll Slough confluence with the Columbia River, approximately 3.5 miles downriver from the proposed project (Jeffries
A detailed description of the species likely to be affected by the project's in-water construction activities were provided in the
In-water construction activities associated with the POK project such as impact and vibratory pile driving components of the specified activity have the potential to result in impacts to marine mammals and their habitat in the project area. The
In order to issue an Incidental Take Authorization (ITA) under section 101(a)(5)(D) of the MMPA, NMFS must prescribe, where applicable, the permissible methods of taking pursuant to such activity, and other means of effecting the least practicable impact on such species or stock and its habitat, paying particular attention to rookeries, mating grounds, and areas of similar significance, and on the availability of such species or stock for taking for certain subsistence uses (where relevant).
On August 4, 2016, NMFS released its Technical Guidance for Assessing the Effects of Anthropogenic Sound on Marine Mammal Hearing (Guidance). This new guidance established new thresholds for predicting auditory injury, which equates to Level A harassment under the MMPA. In the
In this case, POK submitted an adequate and complete application in a timely manner and indicated that they would need to receive an IHA (if issued) by September 1, 2016. After the close of the public comment period for the Proposed IHA, POK informed NMFS that they would postpone construction activities until September, 2017. Therefore, although the action had substantially progressed through the decision-making pipeline, there was enough time to allow for re-evaluation under the new Guidance prior to when the IHA was needed. POK's original analysis considered the potential for Level A take (auditory injury (PTS)), but ultimately concluded that no Level A takes would occur due to mitigation monitoring and the implementation of shut down procedures if any marine mammals entered or approached the Level A harassment zone. POK utilized the alternative methodology provided by NMFS in the new Guidance to evaluate how it may affect the analysis. Based on the new Guidance, likely injury zones would increase in size for the two hearing groups that may be present in the project area. POK provided NMFS with an updated Monitoring Plan (available online at:
Initial monitoring zones were based on a practical spreading loss model and data found in Illingworth and Rodkin (2007). A minimum distance of 10 m was used for all shutdown zones, even if actual or initial calculated distances are less. A maximum distance of in-water line of sight is used for all disturbance zones for vibratory pile driving, even if actual or calculated values are greater. To provide the best estimate of transmission loss at a specific range, the data were estimated using a practical spreading loss model.
Among other changes, the new Guidance established a dual metric for analysis: A peak (PK) sound pressure level (SPL) for impulsive sounds (
The new guidance does not affect the thresholds for behavioral disturbance (Level B harassment), and would not affect the extent of Level B harassment requested by POK. Therefore, the analysis of Level B harassment in the original application and Proposed Rule remains valid and is not discussed further. In addition, the peak sound pressure thresholds (218 dB for phocids and 232 dB for otariids) would not be exceeded during any project activities. The greatest single strike peak sound pressure levels would be generated during impact installation of steel piles and these sound levels would not exceed 207 dB (CALTRANS 2012). As noted in POK's application and Proposed Rule, it is anticipated that all steel piles will be driven with a vibratory hammer, and that it will not be necessary to impact drive or impact proof any of the steel piles. However, impact driving of steel piles is analyzed as a precaution in the event that this is required. As peak sound pressure thresholds would not be exceeded for either phocids or otariids, there is no further discussion of peak sound pressure levels.
Distances for which the Level A (PTS) threshold for cumulative sound pressure exposure could be exceeded are provided in Table 4, below.
POK has updated the marine mammal monitoring plan to revise the Level A injury protection zone to fully cover the Level A isopleths for potential injury from cumulative sound pressure exposure, as established under the new Guidance. This modification to the monitoring plan would ensure that Level A takes of marine mammals would be avoided in a similar manner as presented in the Proposed Rule (
In order to accomplish appropriate monitoring for mitigation purposes, POK will have an observer stationed on each active impact pile driving location to closely monitor the shutdown zone as well as the surrounding area. In
As described, at least three observers will be on duty during pile vibratory driving activity for the first two days, and thereafter on every third day to allow for estimation of Level B takes. The first observer will be positioned on a work platform or barge where the entire 10 m shutdown zone is clearly visible, with the shore-based observers positioned to observe the disturbance zone from the bank of the river. Protocols will be implemented to ensure that coordinated communication of sightings occurs between observers in a timely manner.
In summary:
• POK will implement shutdown zones around all pile driving that encompasses the Level A harassment zones as defined in Table 4, above to avoid Level A take of marine mammals. These shutdown zones provides a buffer for the Level A harassment threshold but would also further avoid the risk of direct interaction between marine mammals and the equipment.
• POK will have a redundant monitoring system, in which one observer would be stationed at the area of active pile driving, while two observers would be shore-based, as required to provide complete observational coverage of the reduced disturbance zone for each pile driving site. The former will be capable of providing comprehensive monitoring of the proposed shutdown zones. This observer's first priority will be shutdown zone monitoring in prevention of injurious interaction, with a secondary priority of counting takes by Level B harassment in the disturbance zone. The additional shore-based observers will be able to monitor the same distances, but their primary responsibility will be counting of takes in the disturbance zone and communication with barge-based observers to alert them to pinniped presence in the action area.
• The shutdown and disturbance zones will be monitored throughout the time required to drive a pile. If a marine mammal is observed within the disturbance zone, a take will be recorded and behaviors documented. However, that pile segment will be completed without cessation, unless the animal approaches or enters the shutdown zone, at which point all pile driving activities will be halted.
• Soft start procedures shall be implemented at the start of each day's impact pile driving and at any time following cessation of impact pile driving for a period of thirty minutes or longer. Soft start procedures require that the contractor provides an initial set of three strikes at reduced energy, followed by a thirty-second waiting period, then two subsequent reduced energy strike sets.
• If steel piles require impact installation or proofing, a bubble curtain will be used for sound attenuation
The following measures will apply to visual monitoring:
• If the shutdown zone is obscured by fog or poor lighting conditions, pile driving will not be initiated until the entire shutdown zone is visible. Work that has been initiated appropriately in conditions of good visibility may continue during poor visibility.
• The shutdown zone will be monitored for the presence of pinnipeds before, during, and after any pile driving activity. The shutdown zone will be monitored for 30 minutes prior to initiating the start of pile driving, during the activity, and for 30 minutes after activities have ceased. If pinnipeds are present within the shutdown zone prior to pile driving, the start of pile driving will be delayed until the animals leave the shutdown zone of their own volition, or until 15 minutes elapse without re-sighting the animal(s).
• Monitoring will be conducted using binoculars. When possible, digital video or still cameras will also be used to document the behavior and response of pinnipeds to construction activities or other disturbances.
• Each observer will have a radio or cell phone for contact with other monitors or work crews. Observers will implement shut-down or delay procedures when applicable by calling for the shut-down to the hammer operator.
• A GPS unit or electric range finder will be used for determining the observation location and distance to pinnipeds, boats, and construction equipment.
Monitoring will be conducted by qualified observers. In order to be considered qualified, observers must meet the following criteria:
• Visual acuity in both eyes (correction is permissible) sufficient for discernment of moving targets at the water's surface with ability to estimate target size and distance; use of binoculars may be necessary to correctly identify the target. Advanced education in biological science, wildlife management, mammalogy, or related fields (bachelor's degree or higher is required).
• Experience and ability to conduct field observations and collect data according to assigned protocols (this may include academic experience).
• Experience or training in the field identification of pinnipeds, including the identification of behaviors.
• Sufficient training, orientation, or experience with the construction operation to provide for personal safety during observations.
• Writing skills sufficient to prepare a report of observations including but not limited to the number and species of pinnipeds observed; dates and times when in-water construction activities were conducted; dates and times when in-water construction activities were suspended to avoid potential incidental injury from construction sound of pinnipeds observed within a defined shutdown zone; and pinniped behavior.
• Ability to communicate orally, by radio or in person, with project personnel to provide real-time information on pinnipeds observed in the area as necessary.
In addition, NOAA Fisheries and POK, together with other relevant regulatory agencies, have developed a number of mitigation measures designed to protect fish through prevention or minimization of turbidity and disturbance and introduction of contaminants, among other things. These measures have been prescribed under the authority of statutes other than the MMPA, and are not a part of this proposed rulemaking. However, because these measures minimize impacts to pinniped prey species (either directly or indirectly, by minimizing impacts to prey species' habitat), they are summarized briefly here. Additional detail about these measures may be found in POK's application. Timing restrictions will be used to avoid in-water work when ESA-listed fish are most likely to be present.
POK will work to ensure minimum degradation of water quality in the
The contractor will also be required to prepare and implement a Temporary Erosion and Sediment Control (TESC) Plan and a Source Control Plan for project activities requiring clearing, vegetation removal, grading, ditching, filling, embankment compaction, or excavation. The BMPs in the plans would be used to control sediments from all vegetation removal or ground-disturbing activities.
NOAA Fisheries has carefully evaluated the applicant's proposed mitigation measures and considered a range of other measures in the context of ensuring that NOAA Fisheries prescribes the means of affecting the least practicable adverse impact on the affected marine mammal species and stocks and their habitat. Our evaluation of potential measures included consideration of the following factors in relation to one another:
• The manner in which, and the degree to which, the successful implementation of the measure is expected to minimize adverse impacts to marine mammals;
• The proven or likely efficacy of the specific measure to minimize adverse impacts as planned; and
• The practicability of the measure for applicant implementation.
While the Level A harassment zone for impact hammering of steel piers would be fairly large (252 m), we feel confident that all Level A zones would be able to be monitored to effectively implement shut down procedures to avoid Level A takes for the following reasons:
• The applicant has past experience with monitoring much larger areas from previous projects in other areas on the same river;
• The largest Level A harassment zone (252 m) is associated with impact hammering of steel piers; however, steel piers are anticipated to be driven with a vibratory hammer and impact hammering is only included as a precaution in the event that vibratory hammering is unable to be completed. Therefore, if impact hammering of steel piers were to be conducted, it would be for a very short duration and on a very few occasions. Additionally, if impact hammering of steel piers were to be conducted, bubble curtains would be utilized to attenuate sound and reduce the Level A harassment zone;
• Level A harassment zones associated with impact hammering of concrete piers and vibratory hammering of steel piers (40 m and 16.5 m, respectively) would be easily monitored for shut down procedures/avoidance of Level A takes;
• Even without the use of bubble curtains, the Level A harassment zone for impact hammering of steel piers would encompass approximately half of the width of the river in the action area, which allows for approximately half of the width of the river in the action area for marine mammals to avoid the Level A harassment zone, which we would expect them to do;
• Other mitigation measures (
Based on our evaluation, NOAA Fisheries has determined that the mitigation measures proposed from both NOAA Fisheries and POK provide the means of effecting the least practicable adverse impact on marine mammal species or stocks and their habitat, paying particular attention to rookeries, mating grounds, and areas of similar significance.
Discussion of reporting requirements were unintentionally omitted from the
In order to issue an incidental take authorization (ITA) for an activity, section 101(a)(5)(A) of the MMPA states that NOAA Fisheries must, where applicable, set forth “requirements pertaining to the monitoring and reporting of such taking”. The MMPA implementing regulations at 50 CFR 216.104(a)(13) indicate that requests for ITAs must include the suggested means of accomplishing the necessary monitoring and reporting that would result in increased knowledge of the species and of the level of taking or impacts on populations of marine mammals that are expected to be present in the proposed action area.
POK will submit a draft summary report of marine mammal observations and construction activities to the NMFS West Coast Regional Office and the Headquarters Office of Protected Resources 90 days after expiration of the current Authorization. A final report must be submitted to NMFS within 30 days after receiving comments from NMFS on the draft report. If no comments are received from NMFS within 30 days after submittal of the draft report, the draft report would be considered the final report. This report will summarize the information gathered pursuant to the monitoring requirements set forth in the IHA, including dates and times of operations and all marine mammal sightings (dates, times, locations, species, behavior observations [activity, and any changes in activity observed including causes if known], associated construction activities, and weather conditions.
While the IHA does not authorize injury (
In the unanticipated event that the specified activity clearly causes the take of a marine mammal in a manner prohibited in this IHA, such as an injury (Level A harassment), serious injury, or mortality, POK shall immediately cease the specified activity and immediately report the incident to the Chief of the Permits and Conservation Division, Office of Protected Resources, NMFS, at 301-427-8401 and/or by email to
Activities shall not resume until NMFS is able to review the circumstances of the prohibited take. NMFS shall work with POK to determine the action necessary to minimize the likelihood of further prohibited take and ensure MMPA compliance. POK may not resume its activities until notified by NMFS via letter, email, or telephone.
In the event that POK discovers an injured or dead marine mammal during its in-water construction activities in this IHA, and the cause of the injury or death is unknown and/or the death is relatively recent (
In the event that POK discovers an injured or dead marine mammal and it is determined that the injury or death is not associated with or related to the activities authorized in this IHA (
Except with respect to certain activities not pertinent here, the MMPA defines “harassment” as: Any act of pursuit, torment, or annoyance which (i) has the potential to injure a marine mammal or marine mammal stock in the wild [Level A harassment]; or (ii) has the potential to disturb a marine mammal or marine mammal stock in the wild by causing disruption of behavioral patterns, including, but not limited to, migration, breathing, nursing, breeding, feeding, or sheltering [Level B harassment]. Take by Level B harassment only is anticipated as a result of POK's proposed project. Take of marine mammals is anticipated to be associated with the installation of piles via impact and vibratory methods (including installation and removal of temporary piles). The following activities are not anticipated to result in takes of marine mammals: Dredging; Removal of 157 wood piles from a former trestle in the freshwater intertidal backwater area; and ELJ construction. No take by injury, serious injury, or death is anticipated, nor is any such take authorized.
The area of potential Level B harassment varies with the activity being conducted. For impact pile driving that will be used for the concrete piles, the area of potential harassment extends 117m from the pile driving activity. For vibratory pile driving associated with the installation of steel pipe piles, the zone of potential harassment extends in a line of sight from the pile driving activities to the nearest shoreline, covering an area of approximately 1800 acres of riverine habitat (Figure 1). Because there are no haul outs, feeding areas, or other important habitat areas for marine mammals in the action area, it is anticipated that take exposures will result primarily from animals transiting from downstream areas to upstream feeding areas.
Assumptions regarding numbers of pinnipeds and number of round trips per individual per year in the Region of Activity are based on information from ongoing pinniped research and management activities conducted in response to concern over California sea lion predation on fish populations concentrated below Bonneville Dam. An intensive monitoring program has been conducted in the Bonneville Dam tailrace since 2002, using surface observations to evaluate seasonal presence, abundance, and predation activities of pinnipeds. Minimum estimates of the number of pinnipeds present in the tailrace from 2002 through 2014 are presented in Table 4.
There is no documented breeding or pupping activity in the action area (Jeffries 1985), and only adult males and females are anticipated to be present in the action area. There is no current data estimating abundance of harbor seals either locally or for the Oregon-Washington coastal stock (Carretta
California sea lions are the most frequently observed pinnipeds upstream of the project site. California sea lions do not breed or bear their young near the Columbia River watershed, with the nearest breeding grounds off the coast of southern California (Caretta
Historically (prior to 2008), California sea lions were the most frequently observed pinniped species at Bonneville Dam (Stansell
Steller sea lions do not breed or bear their young near the Columbia River watershed, with the nearest breeding grounds on the marine coast of Oregon (Stansell
Prior to 2002, Steller sea lions were sighted infrequently at Bonneville Dam, with fewer than 10 individuals recorded in most years. However, since 2008, the number of Steller sea lions documented at the dam has increased steadily. In 2010, 75 individual Steller sea lions were identified, at an average rate of less than 12.6 individuals per day (between January 1 and May 31). In 2015 an average of 12 pinnipeds were observed at the dam per day in January (van der Leeuw, 2015). While no specific data exists regarding the number of trips up and down the river each individual sea lion makes, it is assumed that on average each individual makes one round trip during the spring migration. All pile driving will occur between September 1, 2016 and January 31, 2017, which will avoid the April and May peak of the run. Steller sea lion presence at the dam in January and February represents approximately one third of the total run in a given year (Stansell
Negligible impact is “an impact resulting from the specified activity that cannot be reasonably expected to, and is not reasonably likely to, adversely affect the species or stock through effects on annual rates of recruitment or survival” (50 CFR 216.103). A negligible impact finding is based on the lack of likely adverse effects on annual rates of recruitment or survival (
Incidental take, in the form of Level B harassment only, is likely to occur primarily as a result of pinniped exposure to elevated levels of sound caused by impact and vibratory installation and removal of pipe and sheet pile and steel casings. No take by injury, serious injury, or death is anticipated and is not authorized. By incorporating the proposed mitigation measures, including pinniped monitoring and shut-down procedures described previously, harassment to individual pinnipeds from the proposed activities is expected to be limited to temporary behavioral impacts. POK assumes that all individuals travelling past the project area would be exposed each time they pass the area and that all exposures would cause disturbance. NOAA Fisheries agrees that this represents a worst-case scenario and is therefore sufficiently precautionary. There are no pinniped haul-outs or rookeries located within or near the Region of Activity.
The shutdown zone monitoring proposed as mitigation, and the small size of the zones in which injury may occur, makes any potential injury of pinnipeds extremely unlikely, and therefore discountable. Because pinniped exposures would be limited to the period they are transiting the disturbance zone, with potential repeat exposures (on return to the mouth of the Columbia River) separated by days to weeks, the probability of experiencing TTS is also considered unlikely.
In addition, it is unlikely that pinnipeds exposed to elevated sound levels would temporarily avoid traveling through the affected area, as they are highly motivated to travel through the action area in pursuit of foraging opportunities upriver. Sea lions have shown increasing habituation in recent years to various hazing techniques used to deter the animals from foraging in the Bonneville tailrace area, including acoustic deterrent devices, boat chasing, and above-water pyrotechnics (Stansell
Although pinnipeds are unlikely to be deterred from passing through the area, even temporarily, they may respond to the underwater sound by passing through the area more quickly, or they may experience stress as they pass through the area. Sea lions already move quickly through the lower river on their way to foraging grounds below Bonneville Dam (transit speeds of 4.6 km/hr in the upstream direction and 8.8 km/hr in the downstream direction (Brown
Therefore, NOAA Fisheries finds it unlikely that the amount of anticipated disturbance would significantly change pinnipeds' use of the lower Columbia River or significantly change the amount of time they would otherwise spend in the foraging areas below Bonneville Dam. Pinniped usage of the Bonneville Dam foraging area, which results in transit of the action area, is a relatively recent learned behavior resulting from human modification (
Any adverse effects to prey species would occur on a temporary basis during project construction. Given the large numbers of fish in the Columbia River, the short-term nature of effects to fish populations, and extensive BMPs and minimization measures to protect fish during construction, as well as conservation and habitat mitigation measures that would continue into the future, the project is not expected to have significant effects on the distribution or abundance of potential prey species in the long term. Therefore, these temporary impacts are expected to have a negligible impact on habitat for pinniped prey species.
A detailed description of potential impacts to individual pinnipeds was provided previously in the
The Oregon/Washington coastal stock of harbor seals consisted of about 24,732 animals in 1999 (Carretta
The U.S. stock of California sea lions had a minimum estimated population of 153,337 in the 2013 Stock Assessment Report (Carretta
The total population of the eastern DPS of Steller sea lions had a minimum estimated population of 59,968 animals with an overall annual rate of increase of 4 percent throughout most of the range (Oregon to southeastern Alaska) since the 1970s (Allen and Angliss, 2015). In 2006, the NOAA Fisheries Steller sea lion recovery team proposed removal of the eastern stock from listing under the ESA based on its annual rate of increase, and the population was delisted in 2013 (though still considered depleted under the MMPA). The total estimated take of 372 individuals per year is small compared to a population of approximately 59,968 (0.6 percent) and is not expected to impact annual rates of recruitment or survival of the stock.
The anticipated behavioral harassment is not expected to impact recruitment or survival of the any affected pinniped species. The Level B harassment experienced is expected to be of short duration, with 1-2 exposures per individual separated by days to weeks, with each exposure resulting in minimal behavioral effects (increased transit speed or avoidance). For all species, because the type of incidental harassment is not expected to actually remove individuals from the population or decrease significantly their ability to feed or breed, this amount of incidental harassment is anticipated to have a negligible impact on the stock.
Based on the analysis contained herein of the likely effects of the specified activity on marine mammals and their habitat, and taking into consideration the implementation of the mitigation and monitoring measures, NOAA Fisheries finds that POK's proposed activities would have a negligible impact on the affected species or stocks.
Using the estimated take described previously, the species with the greatest proportion of affected population is harbor seals (Table 5), with an estimated 6.2% of the population potentially experiencing take from the proposed action. California sea lions population will experience 0.2% exposure, and Steller sea lions an approximate exposure rate of 0.6%. Based on the analysis contained herein of the likely effects of the specified activity on marine mammals and their habitat, and taking into consideration the implementation of the mitigation and monitoring measures, NOAA Fisheries finds that small numbers of marine mammals will be taken relative to the populations of the affected species or stocks.
There are no relevant subsistence uses of marine mammals implicated by this action. Therefore, NOAA Fisheries has determined that the total taking of affected species or stocks would not have an unmitigable adverse impact on the availability of such species or stocks for taking for subsistence purposes.
No species of marine mammal listed under the ESA are expected to be affected by these activities. Therefore, NOAA Fisheries has determined that a section 7 consultation under the ESA is not required.
NOAA Fisheries prepared an Environmental Assessment (EA) in accordance with the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) considered comments submitted in response to this notice as part of that process. NMFS prepared and signed a Finding of No Significant Impact (FONSI) determining that preparation of an Environmental Impact Statement was not required. The FONSI was signed on October 24, 2016, prior to the issuance of the IHA for POK's construction activities. The EA and Finding of No Significant Impact (FONSI) have been posted at the foregoing internet site.
NOAA Fisheries has issued an IHA to Port of Kalama for constructing the Kalama Marine Manufacturing and Export Facility on the Columbia River during the 2016-2017 in-water work season, provided the previously mentioned mitigation, monitoring, and reporting requirements are incorporated.
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice.
The Department of Commerce, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
Written comments must be submitted on or before February 10, 2017.
Direct all written comments to Jennifer Jessup, Departmental Paperwork Clearance Officer, Department of Commerce, Room 6616, 14th and Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230 (or via the Internet at
Requests for additional information or copies of the information collection instrument and instructions should be directed to Shannon Penna, National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), West Coast Region (WCR) Long Beach Office, 501 West Ocean Blvd., Suite 4200, Long Beach, CA 90802, (562) 980-4238 or
This request is for revision and extension of a current information collection. The title will change from
This collection applies to owners and operators of U.S. commercial fishing vessels that fish in the West Coast exclusive economic zone and the eastern Pacific Ocean waters of the Inter-American Tropical Tuna Commission (IATTC) Convention Area for highly migratory species (HMS) as defined by the Fishery Management Plan (FMP) for United States (U.S.) West Coast Fisheries for Highly Migratory Species, as well as a broader group of tuna and tuna-like species covered by the IATTC. These vessel owners and operators are required to submit information about their intended and actual fishing activities. These submissions would allow the National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS) and the Pacific Fisheries Management Council to monitor the fisheries. Submissions include pre-trip reporting requirements and vessel monitoring systems (VMS). Pre-trip reporting requirements are essential for effectively and efficiently assigning available observer coverage to selected HMS vessels. Data collected by observers are critical to evaluate that the objectives of the HMS FMP are being achieved and for evaluating the impacts of potential changes in fishery management. VMS units facilitate enforcement of management measures associated with HMS fisheries, provide timely information on associated fleet activities and enable confirmation of reported vessel fishing activity locations, which help validate logbook record accuracy.
VMS installation/activation and on/off reports are submitted electronically, VMS position reports are submitted via automated electronic transmission and pre-trip notifications are made by telephone.
Comments are requested on: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden (including hours and cost) of the proposed collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Comments submitted in response to this notice will be summarized and/or included in the request for OMB approval of this information collection; they also will become a matter of public record.
Commodity Futures Trading Commission.
Notice and order.
Pursuant to the authority under section 1a(12)(B)(vii) of the Commodity Exchange Act (“CEA” or “Act”), the Commodity Futures Trading Commission (“Commission”) is issuing an order (“Order”) excluding institutions in the Farm Credit System (“FCS”) from the definition of “commodity trading advisor” (“CTA”). The Commission finds that FCS institutions are primarily engaged in lending to U.S. farmers, ranchers, and agricultural cooperatives, and that any commodity trading advice provided by FCS institutions to their clientele is solely incidental to that lending conduct, as required by CEA section 1a(12)(C). Therefore, the Commission concludes that FCS institutions are not entities within the intent of the statutory CTA definition, and that the issuance of this Order excluding them from the definition is appropriate.
Effective date: December 12, 2016.
Amanda Olear, Associate Director, Division of Swap Dealer and Intermediary Oversight, (202) 418-5283,
On October 28, 2016, the Farm Credit Council (“Farm Credit” or “Council”) petitioned the Commission for an order excluding FCS institutions from the CTA definition in the CEA. The Council is the national trade association for the FCS, a federally-chartered network of borrower-owned lending institutions comprised of cooperatives and related service organizations.
FCS institutions are important lenders to U.S. farmers, ranchers and agricultural cooperatives. The FCS institutions include the FCS Banks (CoBank, AgriBank, AgFirst Farm Credit Bank, and Farm Credit Bank of Texas), as well as Agricultural Credit Associations, Federal Land Credit Associations, and Production Credit Associations (together, the “Associations”).
The Farm Credit Administration (“FCA”) is responsible for regulating and supervising the FCS institutions. The FCA is defined as an “appropriate federal banking agency” under the CEA
FCS institutions use derivatives to manage their own risks, and also to offer their eligible borrowers or their affiliated Associations' eligible borrowers the ability to hedge the risks, including interest rate risk, associated with their loans through the use of over-the-counter (“OTC”) swaps.
In connection with the lending-related swap transactions, FCS institutions sometimes provide eligible borrowers with information about the financial instrument to be used,
CEA section 1a(12)(A) defines “commodity trading advisor” as any person who for compensation or profit, engages in the business of advising others, either directly or through publications, writings, or electronic media, as to the value of or the advisability of trading in any commodity interest transactions;
CEA section 1a(12)(B) excludes certain types of persons and entities from the CTA definition, and permits the Commission to further exclude, such other persons not within the intent of the CTA definition as the Commission may specify by rule, regulation, or order.
The Commission agrees with the Petition that the provision of general information about interest rate swaps to eligible borrowers of FCS institutions is solely incidental to the FCS institutions' main business and mission,
Further, the primary business activity of FCS institutions is engaging in direct lending to farmers, ranchers, and other eligible borrowers under the regulation and supervision of the FCA. This lending activity is generally comparable to the lending activities of banking institutions, which are excluded from the CTA definition under section 1a(12)(B) of the CEA.
The Commission finds that under the circumstances set forth above it is appropriate to exercise the statutory authority afforded to it under CEA section 1a(12)(B)(vii) to exclude FCS institutions from the CTA definition. Accordingly, the Commission is issuing this Order excluding FCS institutions from the CTA definition in CEA section 1a(12)(A). This Order is based upon the representations made by the petitioner. The Commission reserves authority, in its discretion, to revisit the Order.
Office of Science, Department of Energy.
Notice of partially-closed meeting.
This notice sets forth the schedule and summary agenda for a partially-closed meeting of the President's Council of Advisors on Science and Technology (PCAST), and describes the functions of the Council. The Federal Advisory Committee Act requires that public notice of these meetings be announced in the
January 6, 2017, 9:00 a.m. to 12:00 p.m.
The meeting will be held at the National Academy of Sciences, 2101 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC in the Lecture Room.
Information regarding the meeting agenda, time, location, and how to register for the meeting is available on the PCAST Web site at:
The President's Council of Advisors on Science and Technology (PCAST) is an advisory group of the nation's leading scientists and engineers, appointed by the President to augment the science and technology advice available to him from inside the White House, cabinet departments, and other Federal agencies. See the Executive Order at
The public comment period for this meeting will take place on January 6, 2017 at a time specified in the meeting agenda posted on the PCAST Web site at
Please note that because PCAST operates under the provisions of FACA, all public comments and/or presentations will be treated as public documents and will be made available for public inspection, including being posted on the PCAST Web site.
Office of Electricity Delivery and Energy Reliability, U.S. Department of Energy.
Record of decision.
The Department of Energy (DOE) announces its decision to issue a Presidential permit to Champlain VT, LLC, d/b/a Transmission Developers, Inc.—New England (TDI-NE), to construct, operate, maintain, and connect an electric transmission line across the U.S./Canada international border in northern Vermont. The potential environmental impacts associated with the transmission line are analyzed in the
As proposed, the NECPL Transmission Line would extend south from the U.S./Canada international border approximately 154 miles to a new converter station in Ludlow, Vermont and the existing Coolidge Substation in the towns of Ludlow and Cavendish, Vermont.
The Final Environmental Impact Statement (EIS) and this Record of Decision (ROD) are available on the DOE National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) Web site at
Copies of the Final EIS and this ROD may be requested by contacting Mr. Brian Mills, Office of Electricity Delivery and Energy Reliability (OE-20), U.S. Department of Energy, 1000 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20585; phone 202-586-8267; email
For further information on the NECPL Project EIS, contact Mr. Brian Mills as indicated in the
Executive Order (EO) 10485 (September 9, 1953), as amended by EO 12038 (February 7, 1978), requires that a Presidential permit be issued by DOE before electricity transmission facilities may be constructed, operated, maintained, or connected at the U.S. border. DOE may issue or amend a permit if it determines that the permit is in the public interest and after obtaining favorable recommendations from the U.S. Departments of State and Defense. In determining whether issuance of a permit for a proposed action is in the public interest, DOE considers the potential environmental impacts of the proposed project, the project's impact on electricity reliability by ascertaining whether the proposed project would adversely affect the operation of the U.S. electric power supply system under normal and contingency conditions, and any other factors that DOE considers relevant to the public interest.
On June 23, 2014, TDI-NE applied to DOE for a Presidential permit to construct, operate, maintain, and connect a high-voltage direct current (HVDC) transmission line across the U.S./Canada international border. The proposed transmission line would be capable of transmitting up to 1,000 megawatts (MW) of electricity. The line would extend south from the U.S./Canada international border approximately 154 miles. The transmission line would be located underground in Alburgh, Vermont, for approximately 0.5 miles and would enter Lake Champlain. The cables would then be installed in Lake Champlain, primarily buried in sediments, for 97.6 miles in a southern direction. The cables would emerge from Lake Champlain in the town of Benson, Vermont, and would be buried primarily along town roads and state highway rights-of-way for approximately 55.7 miles in a south-
Pursuant to Section 7 of the Endangered Species Act, DOE has consulted with the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (USFWS) regarding the potential impacts on federally listed threatened or endangered species in the area of the proposed NECPL Project, and DOE has prepared a Biological Assessment (BA). The USFWS concurred on December 1, 2015, with DOE's determination that the project would not adversely impact the Indiana bat and the northern long eared bat.
DOE and the Vermont State Historic Preservation Officer (VTSHPO) consulted under Section 106 of the National Historic Preservation Act and signed a Programmatic Agreement (PA) regarding historic properties in October 2015. The PA requires TDI-NE to prepare a Cultural Resources Management Plan, which will meet the survey, data collection and mitigation measures necessary as identified by the VTSHPO.
Documents associated with both these consultations are available on the NECPL Project EIS Web site at
On August 26, 2014, DOE issued a Notice of Intent (79 FR 50901) to prepare an EIS for the NECPL Project and conduct public scoping.
On June 12, 2015, the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) published a Notice of Availability (NOA) of the Draft EIS (80 FR 33519), that began a 60-day public review period. DOE held two public hearings on the Draft EIS in Burlington and Rutland, Vermont, and received no oral comments on the Draft EIS. Throughout the EIS process, DOE worked with the cooperating agencies to ensure that impacts will be appropriately addressed. DOE considered all comments received on the Draft EIS in the preparation of the Final EIS. The comments received and DOE's responses are contained in Appendix M of the Final EIS. DOE issued the Final EIS in October 2015. On November 6, 2015, the U.S. EPA published a NOA of the Final EIS (80 FR 68868).
The U.S. EPA Region 1 (USEPA), the New England District of the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers (USACE), and the U.S. Coast Guard (USCG) participated as cooperating agencies in the preparation of the EIS.
In the EIS, DOE analyzed the No Action Alternative and the Proposed Action of granting the Presidential permit for the construction, operation, maintenance, and connection of the proposed NECPL Project facilities. Under the No Action Alternative, DOE would not issue a Presidential permit for the proposed NECPL Project and the transmission line would not be built. Under the Proposed Action of granting the Presidential permit (the DOE Preferred Alternative), the transmission line would be constructed from the U.S./Canada international border to the new converter station in Ludlow, Vermont and the existing Coolidge Substation in the towns of Ludlow and Cavendish, Vermont.
The EIS analyzes potential environmental impacts associated with the alternatives for each of the following resource areas: Land use, transportation and traffic, water resources and quality, aquatic and terrestrial habitats and species, aquatic and terrestrial protected and sensitive species, wetlands, geology and soils, cultural resources, infrastructure, recreation, public health and safety, hazardous materials and wastes, air quality, noise, socioeconomics, environmental justice, and cumulative impacts. This analysis assumes the implementation of all TDI-NE-proposed measures to avoid or minimize adverse impacts (Section 5 and Appendix G of the EIS). The potential impacts of the Proposed Action would be predominantly associated with construction activities and would generally have either no effect (
In the floodplain analysis contained in Sections 5.1.3 and 5.2.3 of the EIS, DOE concluded that the proposed NECPL Project would avoid floodplains to the maximum extent practicable, and that appropriate measures to minimize potential harm to or within the floodplains would be taken. The Vermont Secretary of Natural Resources issued a Flood Hazard Area & River Corridor Individual Permit to TDI-NE on November 24, 2015. This permit is available under Public Documents on the NECPL Project EIS Web site at
Implementation of the No Action Alternative would not result in changes to existing conditions in these resource areas and is, therefore, the environmentally preferable alternative.
EPA provided comments on the Final EIS to DOE on December 4, 2015. EPA noted that earlier comments on the Draft EIS focused on impacts during construction, operation and maintenance of the project to wetlands, water quality, drinking water, environmental justice, and air quality and that the Final EIS addressed many of their environmental concerns. The EPA provided additional comments on “areas where more could be done to characterize and address project impacts.” The comments, and DOE's responses, are discussed herein.
EPA referred to its comments on the Draft EIS regarding DOE's purpose and need and stated that “an analysis of a broader set of alternatives would have improved the environmental review process” for the NECPL Project. DOE reiterates that its role is limited to deciding whether the issuance of a Presidential permit is in the public interest, and that the purpose and need is to respond to the applicant's request for a Presidential permit.
EPA expressed support for the overland routing approach for the project adjacent to and within existing transportation corridor right-of-way, and added that proper mitigation to address impacts from project construction and operation would be an important part of the project design. In regard to the segment within Lake Champlain, EPA observed that the project “appears to be designed to avoid impacts to shallow water areas” and expressed support for the use of horizontal directional drilling to achieve that objective.
Regarding water supply and water resources, EPA recommended that any future maps of the project mark the location of the ten surface water systems, nine groundwater systems, and four private wells in the vicinity of the project. DOE notes that the locations of the public water supply system sources (lake intakes and groundwater wells) and associated Source Protection Areas are depicted on the Natural Resource and Public Water Supply Map Series (December 2, 2014) that is available at
EPA commented that the Final EIS does not describe how the proposed project would meet state regulations and any state guidance for protection of surface and groundwater drinking supplies and recommends that DOE provide this information before the close of the NEPA process. EPA encourages DOE to underscore the importance that TDI-NE consider all state and local land use restrictions designed to protect water supplies. DOE notes that oversight of public water systems is managed by “primacy” agencies, which are either state government agencies or EPA regional offices. The State of Vermont received primacy approval from EPA to supervise the public water systems in its jurisdiction. TDI-NE received a 401 Water Quality Certificate from the State of Vermont on November 24, 2015. The Vermont Agency for Natural Resources (VT ANR) considered the potential impact of the project on groundwater, in accordance with Section 1-04(A)(2) of the Vermont Water Quality Standards (CVR-12-030-025), and associated Anti-degradation Implementation Procedure. TDI-NE also prepared an Overall Oil and Hazardous Materials Spill Prevention and Contingency Plan for the NECPL Project.
EPA commented that TDI-NE should provide real-time turbidity data to water suppliers that draw water from Lake Champlain to inform water treatment decisions. EPA recommended that DOE include in the ROD a specific requirement that TDI-NE provide water suppliers this notification. DOE notes that TDI-NE will be required by its permit from the Vermont Public Service Board to notify public water systems, which would involve notifying all ten public water systems with lake intakes near the project in writing at least three weeks prior to construction. The notification would include detailed information regarding the Project schedule, methods, and predicted effects (if any) to sediment and turbidity. Also, the public water systems monitor turbidity in real time at their own intakes already, as required by permits issued by VT ANR.
EPA also recommended to DOE that TDI-NE provide construction management plans to water suppliers prior to construction. TDI-NE will be required by state permit to notify water suppliers in advance of construction and to provide details on the construction process and contact information. Regarding spill notification, TDI-NE would comply with all applicable state and federal laws and would request approval of the Oil and Hazardous Materials Spill Prevention and Contingency Plan from the VT ANR at least 90 days prior to construction.
Regarding sediments and water quality, EPA recommended that town and state culverts be replaced whenever necessary to avoid or minimize any negative environmental impacts. DOE notes that TDI-NE received a stream alternation permit from the VT ANR on November 24, 2015. Specific techniques for crossing all regulated streams were approved after consultation with VT ANR, local towns, and the Vermont Agency of Transportation (VTrans). In a limited number of circumstances, the replacement of a culvert may be necessary due to the size or condition of the culvert. For the majority of streams that are crossed, the culverts would either not be impacted by the project or the need for replacement would be assessed during construction. The specific design at each stream crossing would ensure that the cable is buried at a sufficient depth below each stream's stable longitudinal profile to allow the culverts to be replaced by appropriately-sized structures in the future without needing to disturb the cable. This additional burial depth would help avoid and minimize future negative environmental impacts that would occur when these structures are replaced.
EPA also recommended that TDI-NE commit to compliance with Vermont road and bridge standards during roadside ditch construction. TDI-NE made such commitments in their agreements with VTrans and the Towns of Alburgh, Benson and Ludlow. These commitments can be viewed on TDI-NE's project Web site at
EPA commented that DOE should require TDI-NE to consult with the Lake Champlain Basin Project (LCBP) on the issue of invasive species prior to project construction. TDI-NE would be subject to State of Vermont stipulations related to invasive species, which are documented in the Section 401 Water Quality Certificate, Lake Encroachment Permits, and Vermont Wetlands Permits issued by the VT ANR. For the Lake segment, TDI-NE would:
DOE notes that TDI-NE consulted with the LCBP staff during the development of the NECPL Project, as well as with parties staffing a similar program in New York. TDI-NE's Invasive Species Management Plan is based on a guidance document that was developed in cooperation with the LCBP and was reviewed and approved by the VT ANR.
Regarding the overland segment of the NECPL Project, TDI-NE is obligated to comply with a Vegetation Management Plan which details the plan for managing, monitoring and controlling non-native invasive species along the project corridor. Monitoring of invasive species per this plan would be required for three years after construction.
In regard to greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions and climate change, EPA commented that it was inappropriate for DOE to compare Project emissions to global levels in Section 5 of the Final EIS. DOE notes that the Final EIS concludes that GHG emissions from construction and operation of the project would be small in comparison to total annual emissions for the state. Moreover, the Final EIS explains that operation of the Project would be expected to offset the need for other sources of electricity, including those with higher levels of GHG emissions. As such, the proposed project could contribute positively to Vermont achieving its GHG reduction goals. EPA stated that DOE should recommend that TDI-NE ensure that specific detailed mitigation measures are implemented during construction to help reduce and minimize air quality impacts from the construction phase of the project. The Presidential permit will include conditions requiring TDI-NE to implement mitigation measures in the Final EIS including those related to local air emissions during construction of the project.
EPA also commented that DOE could have improved the Final EIS by discussing the emissions profile of the electricity to be imported with that of the “electricity it would likely displace from the New England Power grid.” EPA recommends that DOE use tools on the Council of Environmental Quality's
EPA also commented that the Final EIS could have been “improved with a discussion of the environmental effects that would be avoided through potential reductions in the need to operate power plants with significant cooling water needs.” DOE notes that such a discussion might be beneficial but would be premised on substantial uncertainty.
In regard to environmental justice, EPA acknowledged that analysis in the Final EIS identifies low-income populations and minority populations at the census tract level but commented that it “does not differentiate between the overland and lake segments.” EPA further commented that, “This is significant in that populations likely to be affected by the project will be in the overland section, and the proximity of the project to those populations would be useful to examine.” DOE notes that its analysis did include potential impacts to low-income populations and minority populations in communities throughout the potentially affected area.
EPA also recommended that DOE and TDI-NE conduct public outreach during the construction phase of the project to keep environmental justice populations informed about the project's progress and potential impacts, even those anticipated to be minor in nature. DOE notes that in addition to the four public meetings held during DOE's NEPA process, TDI-NE conducted comprehensive outreach throughout the development of the project using town offices, Front Porch Forums, and targeted letters to landowners in the vicinity of the project route to communicate project information. TDI-NE conducted six local open house meetings in several communities along the project route. TDI-NE plans to continue to use these forums to communicate with local citizens along the project route.
The construction phase of the NECPL project including stipulations, mitigation measures, and public outreach efforts, would be under the jurisdiction of the USACE, VT-ANR, VTrans, the VT Public Service Board, and the Towns of Alburgh, Benson and Ludlow.
DOE has decided to issue Presidential Permit PP-400 to authorize TDI-NE to construct, operate, maintain, and connect a 1,000-MW HVDC transmission line across the U.S./Canada international border. The permit will include a condition requiring TDI-NE to implement the Applicant-proposed avoidance and minimization measures identified in the EIS.
DOE's decision to grant this Presidential permit is based on consideration of environmental impacts, impacts on the reliability of the U.S. electric power supply system under normal and contingency conditions, and the favorable recommendations of the U.S. Departments of State and Defense (which were provided, respectively, in July and August of 2015).
DOE determined that the proposed international electric transmission line would not have an adverse impact on the reliability of the U.S. electric power supply system. In reaching this determination, DOE reviewed the System Impact Study produced by the Independent System Operator New England Inc. (ISO-NE) in October 2016 and a November 1, 2016, letter from ISO-NE. Based on the information available, DOE staff has determined that the 1000 MW of incremental north-to-south transfer, which represents south-bound transmission service requests from Quebec to the United States, will not have a negative impact on the reliability of the United States electric grid if operated consistent with both ISO-New England and North American Electric Reliability Corporation policies and standards, terms and conditions of the Presidential Permit and other regulatory and statutory requirements. Neither DOE nor ISO-NE has studied a south-to-north transfer, so the permit does not authorize such a transfer.
All practicable means to avoid or minimize environmental harm from the alternative selected have been, or will be, adopted. TDI-NE's proposed measures to avoid and minimize adverse impacts are described in the EIS, the BA, and the PA. TDI-NE will be responsible for implementing these avoidance and minimization measures. Additional measures will be required as a result of ongoing consultations (
Take notice that the following settlement agreement has been filed with the Commission and is available for public inspection.
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The Commission strongly encourages electronic filing. Please file comments using the Commission's eFiling system at
The Commission's Rules of Practice require all intervenors filing documents with the Commission to serve a copy of that document on each person on the official service list for the project. Further, if an intervenor files comments
k. Eugene Water and Electric Board (EWEB) filed the settlement agreement on behalf of itself and the National Marine Fisheries Service, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, Forest Service, Oregon Department of Environmental Quality, Oregon Department of Fish and Wildlife, Oregon Parks and Recreation Department, Confederated Tribes of the Grand Ronde Community of Oregon, Confederated Tribes of Siletz Indians of Oregon, Confederated Tribes of the Warm Springs Reservation of Oregon, McKenzie Flyfishers, Rocky Mountain Elk Foundation, Inc., and Trout Unlimited. The purpose of the settlement agreement is to resolve among the signatories all issues associated with issuance of a new license for the project regarding water quality, instream flows, fish passage and habitat, wildlife, recreation, aesthetics, and cultural resources. EWEB requests that the Commission accept and incorporate into any new license for the project the protection, mitigation, and enhancement measures stated in the amended settlement agreement.
l. A copy of the settlement agreement is available for review at the Commission in the Public Reference Room or may be viewed on the Commission's Web site at
You may also register online at
Take notice that on November 29, 2016, Northern California Power Agency filed a notice of potential change in material facts and a request for continued waiver of the Standards of Conduct.
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest this filing must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211, 385.214). Protests will be considered by the Commission in determining the appropriate action to be taken, but will not serve to make protestants parties to the proceeding. Any person wishing to become a party must file a notice of intervention or motion to intervene, as appropriate. Such notices, motions, or protests must be filed on or before the comment date. On or before the comment date, it is not necessary to serve motions to intervene or protests on persons other than the Applicant.
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper using the “eFiling” link at
This filing is accessible on-line at
On November 18, 2016, the above mentioned transferor and TC Hydro Inc. (transferee) filed an application for transfer of licenses for the following projects.
The transferor and transferee seek Commission approval to transfer the licenses for the above mentioned projects from the transferor to the transferee.
Deadline for filing comments and motions to intervene: 30 days from the issuance date of this notice, by the Commission. The Commission strongly encourages electronic filing. Please file motions to intervene and comments using the Commission's eFiling system at
The Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (Commission) hereby gives notice that members of the Commission's staff may attend the following meetings related to the transmission planning activities of the New York Independent System Operator, Inc. (NYISO):
The above-referenced meeting will be via web conference and teleconference.
The above-referenced meeting is open to stakeholders.
Further information may be found at:
The above-referenced meeting will be via web conference and teleconference.
The above-referenced meeting is open to stakeholders.
Further information may be found at:
The above-referenced meeting will be via web conference and teleconference.
The above-referenced meeting is open to stakeholders.
Further information may be found at:
The above-referenced meeting will be via web conference and teleconference.
The above-referenced meeting is open to stakeholders.
Further information may be found at:
The discussions at the meetings described above may address matters at issue in the following proceedings:
For more information, contact James Eason, Office of Energy Market Regulation, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission at (202) 502-8622 or
Take notice that on December 5, 2016, Western Area Power Administration submitted a tariff filing per: DSW_NTS/AS_WAPA175A-20161201 to be effective 10/1/2016.
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest this filing must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211, 385.214). Protests will be considered by the Commission in determining the appropriate action to be taken, but will not serve to make protestants parties to the proceeding. Any person wishing to become a party must file a notice of intervention or motion to intervene, as appropriate. Such notices, motions, or protests must be filed on or before the comment date. On or before the comment date, it is not necessary to serve motions to intervene or protests on persons other than the Applicant.
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper using the “eFiling” link at
This filing is accessible on-line at
On September 15, 2016, Texas Eastern Transmission, LP (Texas Eastern) filed an application in Docket No. CP16-501-000 requesting a Certificate of Public Convenience and Necessity pursuant to Section 7(c) of the Natural Gas Act to construct and operate certain natural gas pipeline facilities. The proposed project is known as Marshall County Mine Panel 17W Project (Project) located in Marshall County, West Virginia.
On September 29, 2016, the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (Commission or FERC) issued its Notice
If a schedule change becomes necessary, additional notice will be provided so that the relevant agencies are kept informed of the Project's progress.
Texas Eastern proposes to excavate and elevate sections of its Lines 10 (30-inch-diameter), 15 (30-inch-diameter), 25 (36-inch-diameter) and 30 (36-inch-diameter) to minimize and monitor potential strains on the pipelines due to anticipated longwall mining activities of Marshall Coal. Concurrent with pipeline elevation, portions of two of the lines, Lines 10 and 15, will be replaced with new pipe to accommodate a minimum US Department of Transportation Class 2 design. The sections of Lines 25 and 30 will be removed and Texas Eastern will perform maintenance activities on them. The four mainline sections will be returned to natural gas service while remaining elevated using sandbags and skids during the longwall mining activities and potential ground subsidence. Once the mining-induced subsidence and the 2017-2018 heating season have both ended, the two sections of Lines 10 and 15 located within wetlands will be removed and the four elevated pipeline sections will be re-installed belowground, hydrostatically tested, and placed back into service.
On September 30, 2016, the Commission issued a
In order to receive notification of the issuance of the EA and to keep track of all formal issuances and submittals in specific dockets, the Commission offers a free service called eSubscription. This can reduce the amount of time you spend researching proceedings by automatically providing you with notification of these filings, document summaries, and direct links to the documents. Go to
Additional information about the Project is available from the Commission's Office of External Affairs at (866) 208-FERC or on the FERC Web site (
1. By letter filed November 23, 2016, Contoocook Hydro, LLC informed the Commission that the exemption from licensing for the River Street Project No. 4253, originally issued May 4, 1982
2. Contoocook Hydro, LLC is now the exemptee of the River Street Project No. 4253. All correspondence should be forwarded to: Ms. Lori Barg, President, Contoocook Hydro, LLC, 581 Quaker Street, Henniker, NH 03242, Phone: 802-454-8458, Email:
Take notice that on December 5, 2016, Western Area Power Administration submitted a tariff filing per: RMR_WACM_LAP_CRSP_174Refile-20161205 to be effective 10/1/2016.
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest this filing must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211, 385.214). Protests will be considered by the Commission in determining the appropriate action to be taken, but will not serve to make protestants parties to the proceeding. Any person wishing to become a party must file a notice of intervention or motion to intervene, as appropriate. Such notices, motions, or protests must be filed on or before the comment date. On or before the comment date, it is not necessary to serve motions to intervene or protests on persons other than the Applicant.
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper using the “eFiling” link at
This filing is accessible on-line at
Take notice that, effective January 3, 2017, the Chief Administrative Law Judge requires that all settlements in Parts 35, 154, 284 and 341
For more information, contact H. Keith Pierce, Office of Energy Market Regulation at (202) 502-8525 or send an email to
Take notice that the following hydroelectric applications have been filed with the Commission and are available for public inspection.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
g.
h.
i.
j.
The Commission strongly encourages electronic filing. Please file motions to intervene and protests using the Commission's eFiling system at
The Commission's Rules of Practice require all intervenors filing documents with the Commission to serve a copy of that document on each person on the official service list for the project. Further, if an intervenor files comments or documents with the Commission relating to the merits of an issue that may affect the responsibilities of a particular resource agency, they must also serve a copy of the document on that resource agency.
k. These applications have been accepted for filing, but are not ready for environmental analysis at this time.
l.
The existing Holyoke Number 2 project consists of: (1) An intake at the wall of the first level canal fed by the Holyoke Canal System (licensed under FERC Project No. 2004) with three trash rack screens (one 16-foot-2-inch tall by 26-foot-2-inch-wide and two 14-foot-9-inch tall by 21-foot-10-inch long) with 3-inch clear spacing; (2) two 9-foot diameter, 240-foot-long penstocks; (3) a 17-foot-high by 10-foot-diameter surge tank; (4) a 60-foot-long by 40-foot-wide by 50-foot high powerhouse with one 800-kilowatt vertical turbine generator unit; (4) two parallel 9-foot-wide, 10-
The existing Holyoke Number 3 project consists of: (1) A 52-foot-3-inch long by 14-foot-high intake trash rack covering an opening in the second level canal fed by the Holyoke Canal System (licensed under FERC Project No. 2004); (2) two 11-foot-high by 11-foot-wide headgates; (3) two 85-foot-long, 93-square-foot in cross section low pressure brick penstocks; (4) a 42-foot-long by 34-foot-wide by 28-foot-high reinforced concrete powerhouse with one 450-kilowatt turbine generator unit; (5) a 29.7-foot-wide, 10-foot-deep, 118-foot-long open tailrace discharging into the third level canal; and, (6) 4.8-kilovolt generator leads that connect directly to the 4.8-kilovolt area distribution system; and (7) appurtenant facilities. The project is estimated to generate 2,119,000 kilowatt-hours annually.
m. A copy of the applications are available for review at the Commission in the Public Reference Room or may be viewed on the Commission's Web site at
You may also register online at
n. Anyone may submit comments, a protest, or a motion to intervene in accordance with the requirements of Rules of Practice and Procedure, 18 CFR 385.210, 385.211, and 385.214. In determining the appropriate action to take, the Commission will consider all protests or other comments filed, but only those who file a motion to intervene in accordance with the Commission's Rules may become a party to the proceeding. Any protests or motions to intervene must be received on or before the specified deadline for the particular application.
All filings must (1) bear in all capital letters the title “PROTEST” or “MOTION TO INTERVENE;” (2) set forth in the heading the name of the applicant and the project number of the application to which the filing responds; (3) furnish the name, address, and telephone number of the person protesting or intervening; and (4) otherwise comply with the requirements of 18 CFR 385.2001 through 385.2005. Agencies may obtain copies of the application directly from the applicant. A copy of any protest or motion to intervene must be served upon each representative of the applicant specified in the particular application.
U.S. Environmental Protection Agency.
Notice.
Notice is hereby given of the membership of the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency Performance Review Board for 2016.
Karen D. Higginbotham, Director, Executive Resources Division, 3606A, Office of Human Resources, Office of Administration and Resources Management, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20460, (202) 564-7287.
Section 4314(c)(1) through (5) of Title 5, U.S.C., requires each agency to establish in accordance with regulations prescribed by the Office of Personnel Management, one or more SES performance review boards. This board shall review and evaluate the initial appraisal of a senior executive's performance by the supervisor, along with any recommendations to the appointment authority relative to the performance of the senior executive.
Members of the 2016 EPA Performance Review Board are:
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice; request for public comment.
In accordance with Section 122(i) of the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980, as amended (“CERCLA”), 42 U.S.C. 9622(i), notice is hereby given by the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (“EPA”), Region II, of a proposed cost recovery settlement agreement pursuant to Section 122(h) of CERCLA, 42 U.S.C. 9622(h), with the City of New York (the “Settling Party”) for the Columbia Smelting and Refining Works Site (“Site”) in Brooklyn, Kings County, New York. The Site is a “facility” as defined by Section 101(9) of CERCLA, 42 U.S.C. 9601(9).
The Site is composed of (1) Red Hook Recreation Area Ball Field Numbers 5, 6, 7, and 8 (“Ball Fields 5-8”); (2) areas surrounding Ball Fields 5-8 where grass is planted (referred to as “Planting Strips”); (3) Red Hook Recreation Area Ball Field Number 9 (“Ball Field 9”); (4) the Ball Field 9 Planting Strips; (5) the sidewalks bordering the Ball Fields 5-8 Planting Strips and the Ball Field 9 Planting Strips; and (6) any other areas that have been impacted by the historic operations of the former Columbia Smelting and Refining Works facility. Ball Fields 5-8 and the Ball Fields 5-8 Planting Strips, collectively, comprise approximately 4.17 acres and are located on Block 581, Lot 1 of the Tax Map of Kings County, New York, bordered on the north by Lorraine Street, on the east by Henry Street, on the south by Bay Street, and on the west by Hicks Street. Ball Field 9 and the Ball Field 9 Planting Strips, collectively, comprise approximately 3.4 acres and are bordered on the north by Bay Street, on the east by Soccer Field #2, on the south by Halleck Street, and on the west by a track surrounding Soccer Field #3, located generally in the vicinity of Block 614, Lot 300 and Block 602, Lot 1 of the Tax Map of Kings County, New York. Settling Party is the current owner of the Site.
The Settling Party agrees to pay EPA $395,105.40 in reimbursement of past response costs related to the performance of work performed by EPA at the Site.
The settlement includes a covenant by EPA not to sue or to take administrative action against the Settling Party pursuant to Section 107(a) of CERCLA, 42 U.S.C. 9607(a), with regard to the response costs related to work performed at the Site. For thirty (30) days following the date of publication of this notice, EPA will receive written comments relating to the settlement. EPA will consider all comments received and may modify or withdraw its consent to the settlement if comments received disclose facts or considerations that indicate that the proposed settlement is inappropriate, improper, or inadequate. EPA's response to any comments received will be available for public inspection at EPA Region II, 290 Broadway, New York, New York 10007-1866.
Comments must be submitted on or before January 11, 2017.
The proposed settlement is available for public inspection at EPA Region II offices at 290 Broadway, New York, New York 10007-1866. Comments should reference the Columbia Smelting and Refining Works Site, Index No. CERCLA-02-2016-2018. To request a copy of the proposed settlement agreement, please contact the EPA employee identified below.
Andrew Praschak, Assistant Regional Counsel, New York/Caribbean Superfund Branch, Office of Regional Counsel, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, 290 Broadway—17th Floor, New York, New York 10007-1866. Email:
The Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC), as Receiver for 10256 Home National Bank, Blackwell, OK (Receiver) has been authorized to take all actions necessary to terminate the receivership estate of Home National Bank (Receivership Estate); the Receiver has made all dividend distributions required by law.
The Receiver has further irrevocably authorized and appointed FDIC-Corporate as its attorney-in-fact to execute and file any and all documents that may be required to be executed by the Receiver which FDIC-Corporate, in its sole discretion, deems necessary; including but not limited to releases, discharges, satisfactions, endorsements, assignments and deeds.
Effective December 1, 2016, the Receivership Estate has been terminated, the Receiver discharged, and the Receivership Estate has ceased to exist as a legal entity.
The Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC), as Receiver for 10123 Southern Colorado National Bank, Pueblo, Colorado (Receiver) has been authorized to take all actions necessary to terminate the receivership estate of Southern Colorado National Bank (Receivership Estate); the Receiver has made all dividend distributions required by law.
The Receiver has further irrevocably authorized and appointed FDIC-Corporate as its attorney-in-fact to execute and file any and all documents that may be required to be executed by the Receiver which FDIC-Corporate, in its sole discretion, deems necessary; including but not limited to releases, discharges, satisfactions, endorsements, assignments and deeds.
Effective December 1, 2016, the Receivership Estate has been terminated, the Receiver discharged, and the Receivership Estate has ceased to exist as a legal entity.
The Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC), as Receiver for 10045 Colorado National Bank, Colorado Springs, Colorado (Receiver) has been authorized to take all actions necessary to terminate the receivership estate of Colorado National Bank (Receivership Estate); the Receiver has made all dividend distributions required by law.
The Receiver has further irrevocably authorized and appointed FDIC-Corporate as its attorney-in-fact to execute and file any and all documents that may be required to be executed by the Receiver which FDIC-Corporate, in its sole discretion, deems necessary; including but not limited to releases, discharges, satisfactions, endorsements, assignments and deeds.
Effective December 1, 2016, the Receivership Estate has been terminated, the Receiver discharged, and the Receivership Estate has ceased to exist as a legal entity.
Based upon the foregoing, the Receiver has determined that the continued existence of the receivership will serve no useful purpose. Consequently, notice is given that the receivership shall be terminated, to be effective no sooner than thirty days after the date of this Notice. If any person wishes to comment concerning the termination of the receivership, such comment must be made in writing and sent within thirty days of the date of this Notice to: Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, Division of Resolutions and Receiverships, Attention: Receivership Oversight Department 34.6, 1601 Bryan Street, Dallas, TX 75201.
No comments concerning the termination of this receivership will be considered which are not sent within this time frame.
The Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (“FDIC”), as Receiver for 10474, First Federal Bank, Lexington, Kentucky (“Receiver”), has been authorized to take all actions necessary to terminate the receivership estate of First Federal Bank (“Receivership Estate”); the Receiver has made all dividend distributions required by law. The Receiver has further irrevocably authorized and appointed FDIC-Corporate as its attorney-in-fact to execute and file any and all documents that may be required to be executed by the Receiver which FDIC-Corporate, in its sole discretion, deems necessary; including but not limited to releases, discharges, satisfactions, endorsements, assignments and deeds. Effective December 1, 2016, the Receivership Estate has been terminated, the Receiver discharged, and the Receivership Estate has ceased to exist as a legal entity.
Based upon the foregoing, the Receiver has determined that the continued existence of the receivership will serve no useful purpose. Consequently, notice is given that the receivership shall be terminated, to be effective no sooner than thirty days after the date of this Notice. If any person wishes to comment concerning the termination of the receivership, such comment must be made in writing and sent within thirty days of the date of this Notice to: Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, Division of Resolutions and Receiverships, Attention: Receivership Oversight Department 34.6, 1601 Bryan Street, Dallas, TX 75201.
No comments concerning the termination of this receivership will be considered which are not sent within this time frame.
The Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC), as Receiver for 10010 First Priority Bank, Bradenton, Florida (Receiver) has been authorized to take all actions necessary to terminate the receivership estate of First Priority Bank (Receivership Estate); the Receiver has made all dividend distributions required by law.
The Receiver has further irrevocably authorized and appointed FDIC-Corporate as its attorney-in-fact to execute and file any and all documents that may be required to be executed by the Receiver which FDIC-Corporate, in its sole discretion, deems necessary; including but not limited to releases, discharges, satisfactions, endorsements, assignments and deeds.
Effective December 1, 2016, the Receivership Estate has been terminated, the Receiver discharged, and the Receivership Estate has ceased to exist as a legal entity.
The Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (“FDIC”), as Receiver for 10010, First Priority Bank, Bradenton, Florida (“Receiver”), has been authorized to take all actions necessary to terminate the receivership estate of First Priority Bank (“Receivership Estate”); the Receiver has made all dividend distributions required by law. The Receiver has further irrevocably authorized and appointed FDIC-Corporate as its attorney-in-fact to execute and file any and all documents that may be required to be executed by the Receiver which FDIC-Corporate, in its sole discretion, deems necessary; including but not limited to releases, discharges, satisfactions, endorsements, assignments and deeds. Effective December 1, 2016, the Receivership Estate has been terminated, the Receiver discharged, and the Receivership Estate has ceased to exist as a legal entity.
The Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC), as Receiver for 10487 Sunrise Bank of Arizona, Phoenix, Arizona (Receiver) has been authorized to take all actions necessary to terminate the receivership estate of Sunrise Bank of Arizona (Receivership Estate); the Receiver has made all dividend distributions required by law.
The Receiver has further irrevocably authorized and appointed FDIC-Corporate as its attorney-in-fact to execute and file any and all documents that may be required to be executed by the Receiver which FDIC-Corporate, in its sole discretion, deems necessary; including but not limited to releases, discharges, satisfactions, endorsements, assignments and deeds.
Effective December 1, 2016, the Receivership Estate has been terminated, the Receiver discharged, and the Receivership Estate has ceased to exist as a legal entity.
The Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC), as Receiver for 10500 Slavie Federal Savings Bank, Bel Air, Maryland (Receiver) has been authorized to take all actions necessary to terminate the receivership estate of Slavie Federal Savings Bank (Receivership Estate); the Receiver has made all dividend distributions required by law.
The Receiver has further irrevocably authorized and appointed FDIC-Corporate as its attorney-in-fact to execute and file any and all documents that may be required to be executed by the Receiver which FDIC-Corporate, in its sole discretion, deems necessary; including but not limited to releases, discharges, satisfactions, endorsements, assignments and deeds.
Effective December 1, 2016, the Receivership Estate has been terminated, the Receiver discharged, and the Receivership Estate has ceased to exist as a legal entity.
The Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (“FDIC”), as Receiver for 10487, Sunrise Bank of Arizona, Phoenix, Arizona (“Receiver”), has been authorized to take all actions necessary to terminate the receivership estate of Sunrise Bank of Arizona (“Receivership Estate”); the Receiver has made all dividend distributions required by law. The Receiver has further irrevocably authorized and appointed FDIC-Corporate as its attorney-in-fact to execute and file any and all documents that may be required to be executed by the Receiver which FDIC-Corporate, in its sole discretion, deems necessary; including but not limited to releases, discharges, satisfactions, endorsements, assignments and deeds. Effective December 1, 2016, the Receivership Estate has been terminated, the Receiver discharged, and the Receivership Estate has ceased to exist as a legal entity.
Based upon the foregoing, the Receiver has determined that the continued existence of the receivership will serve no useful purpose. Consequently, notice is given that the receivership shall be terminated, to be effective no sooner than thirty days after the date of this Notice. If any person wishes to comment concerning the termination of the receivership, such comment must be made in writing and sent within thirty days of the date of this Notice to:
Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, Division of Resolutions and Receiverships, Attention: Receivership Oversight Department 34.6, 1601 Bryan Street, Dallas, TX 75201.
No comments concerning the termination of this receivership will be considered which are not sent within this time frame.
The Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (“FDIC”), as Receiver for 10271, Bayside Savings Bank, Port Saint Joe, Florida (“Receiver”) has been authorized to take all actions necessary to terminate the receivership estate of Bayside Savings Bank (“Receivership Estate”); the Receiver has made all dividend distributions required by law. The Receiver has further irrevocably authorized and appointed FDIC-Corporate as its attorney-in-fact to execute and file any and all documents that may be required to be executed by the Receiver which FDIC-Corporate, in its sole discretion, deems necessary; including but not limited to releases, discharges, satisfactions, endorsements, assignments and deeds. Effective December 1, 2016, the Receivership Estate has been terminated, the Receiver discharged, and the Receivership Estate has ceased to exist as a legal entity.
The Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (“FDIC”), as Receiver for 10500, Slavie Federal Savings Bank, Bel Air, Maryland (“Receiver”) has been authorized to take all actions necessary to terminate the receivership estate of Slavie Federal Savings Bank (“Receivership Estate”); the Receiver has made all dividend distributions required by law. The Receiver has further irrevocably authorized and appointed FDIC-Corporate as its attorney-in-fact to execute and file any and all documents that may be required to be executed by the Receiver which FDIC-Corporate, in its sole discretion, deems necessary; including but not limited to releases, discharges, satisfactions, endorsements, assignments and deeds. Effective December 1, 2016, the Receivership Estate has been terminated, the Receiver discharged, and the Receivership Estate has ceased to exist as a legal entity.
The Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC), as Receiver for 10316 Gulf State Community Bank, Carrabelle, Florida (Receiver) has been authorized to take all actions necessary to terminate the receivership estate of Gulf State Community Bank (Receivership Estate); the Receiver has made all dividend distributions required by law.
The Receiver has further irrevocably authorized and appointed FDIC-Corporate as its attorney-in-fact to execute and file any and all documents that may be required to be executed by the Receiver which FDIC-Corporate, in its sole discretion, deems necessary; including but not limited to releases, discharges, satisfactions, endorsements, assignments and deeds.
Effective December 1, 2016, the Receivership Estate has been terminated, the Receiver discharged, and the Receivership Estate has ceased to exist as a legal entity.
The Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (“FDIC”), as Receiver for 10316, Gulf State Community Bank, Carrabelle, Florida (“Receiver”), has been authorized to take all actions necessary to terminate the receivership estate of Gulf State Community Bank (“Receivership Estate”); the Receiver has made all dividend distributions required by law. The Receiver has further irrevocably authorized and appointed FDIC-Corporate as its attorney-in-fact to execute and file any and all documents that may be required to be executed by the Receiver which FDIC-Corporate, in its sole discretion, deems necessary; including but not limited to releases, discharges, satisfactions, endorsements, assignments and deeds. Effective December 1, 2016, the Receivership Estate has been terminated, the Receiver discharged, and the Receivership Estate has ceased to exist as a legal entity.
Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System.
The Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (Board or Federal Reserve) is adopting a proposal to revise, with revision, the Joint Standards for Assessing Diversity Policies and Practices (Policy Statement).
On June 15, 1984, the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) delegated to the Board authority under the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) to approve of and assign OMB control numbers to collection of information requests and requirements conducted or sponsored by the Board. In exercising this delegated authority, the Board is directed to take every reasonable step to solicit comment. In determining whether to approve a collection of information, the Board will consider all comments received from the public and other agencies.
The Standard regarding transparency, and a portion of the self-assessment Standard, call for regulated entities to provide information to the public, so confidentiality is not an issue with respect to those aspects of the Policy. A regulated entity may provide self-assessment material to the Board that contains confidential commercial information protectable under exemption 4 of the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(4), and may request that the information be kept confidential on a case-by-case basis. The Federal Reserve will determine whether the information is entitled to confidential treatment on an ad hoc basis in connection with such a request. As noted in the Policy Statement, an entity's primary federal regulator may share information obtained from regulated entities with other Agencies, but will publish information disclosed to them only in a form that does not identify a particular entity or individual or disclose confidential business information.
On September 27, 2016, the Federal Reserve published a notice in the
The companies listed in this notice have applied to the Board for approval, pursuant to the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1841
The applications listed below, as well as other related filings required by the Board, are available for immediate inspection at the Federal Reserve Bank indicated. The applications will also be available for inspection at the offices of the Board of Governors. Interested persons may express their views in writing on the standards enumerated in the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1842(c)). If the proposal also involves the acquisition of a nonbanking company, the review also includes whether the acquisition of the nonbanking company complies with the standards in section 4 of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1843). Unless otherwise noted, nonbanking activities will be conducted throughout the United States.
Unless otherwise noted, comments regarding each of these applications must be received at the Reserve Bank indicated or the offices of the Board of Governors not later than January 9, 2017.
1.
2.
The companies listed in this notice have applied to the Board for approval, pursuant to the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1841
The applications listed below, as well as other related filings required by the Board, are available for immediate inspection at the Federal Reserve Bank indicated. The applications will also be available for inspection at the offices of the Board of Governors. Interested persons may express their views in writing on the standards enumerated in the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1842(c)). If the proposal also involves the acquisition of a nonbanking company, the review also includes whether the acquisition of the nonbanking company complies with the standards in section 4 of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1843). Unless otherwise noted, nonbanking activities will be conducted throughout the United States.
Unless otherwise noted, comments regarding each of these applications must be received at the Reserve Bank indicated or the offices of the Board of Governors not later than January 6, 2017.
1.
The companies listed in this notice have applied to the Board for approval, pursuant to the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1841
The applications listed below, as well as other related filings required by the Board, are available for immediate inspection at the Federal Reserve Bank indicated. The applications will also be available for inspection at the offices of the Board of Governors. Interested persons may express their views in writing on the standards enumerated in the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1842(c)). If the proposal also involves the acquisition of a nonbanking company, the review also includes whether the acquisition of the nonbanking company complies with the standards in section 4 of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1843). Unless otherwise noted, nonbanking activities will be conducted throughout the United States.
Unless otherwise noted, comments regarding each of these applications must be received at the Reserve Bank indicated or the offices of the Board of Governors not later than January 6, 2017.
1.
Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System.
11:00 a.m. on Thursday, December 15, 2016.
Marriner S. Eccles Federal Reserve Board Building, 20th Street entrance between Constitution Avenue and C Streets NW., Washington, DC 20551.
Open.
On the day of the meeting, you will be able to view the meeting via webcast from a link available on the Board's public Web site.
1. The staff memo to the Board will be made available to attendees on the day of the meeting in paper and the background material will be made available on a compact disc (CD). If you require a paper copy of the entire document, please call Penelope Beattie on 202-452-3982. The documentation will not be available until about 20 minutes before the start of the meeting.
2. This meeting will be recorded for the benefit of those unable to attend. The webcast recording and a transcript of the meeting will be available after the meeting on the Board's public Web site
Michelle Smith, Director, or Dave Skidmore, Assistant to the Board, Office of Board Members at 202-452-2955.
You may access the Board's public Web site at
The companies listed in this notice have given notice under section 4 of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843) (BHC Act) and Regulation Y, (12 CFR part 225) to engage
Each notice is available for inspection at the Federal Reserve Bank indicated. The notice also will be available for inspection at the offices of the Board of Governors. Interested persons may express their views in writing on the question whether the proposal complies with the standards of section 4 of the BHC Act.
Unless otherwise noted, comments regarding the applications must be received at the Reserve Bank indicated or the offices of the Board of Governors not later than January 9, 2017.
1.
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) has submitted the
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address any of the following: (a) Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (b) Evaluate the accuracy of the agencies estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (c) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; (d) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
To request additional information on the proposed project or to obtain a copy of the information collection plan and instruments, call (404) 639-7570 or send an email to
Generic Clearance for the Collection of Qualitative Feedback on Agency Service Delivery (OMB No. 0920-1009, exp. 3/31/2017)—Revision—National Center for Injury Prevention and Control (NCIPC), Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
The information collection activity provides a means to garner qualitative customer and stakeholder feedback in an efficient, timely manner, in accordance with the Federal government's commitment to improving service delivery. By qualitative feedback we mean information that provides useful insights on perceptions and opinions, but are not statistical surveys that yield quantitative results that can be generalized to the population of study. This feedback will provide insights into customer or stakeholder perceptions, experiences and expectations, provide an early warning of issues with service, or focus attention on areas where communication, training or changes in operations might improve delivery of products or services. These collections will allow for ongoing, collaborative and actionable communications between the Agency and its customers and stakeholders. It will also allow feedback to contribute directly to the improvement of program management. The solicitation of feedback will target areas such as: Timeliness, appropriateness, accuracy of information, courtesy, efficiency of service delivery, and resolution of issues with service delivery. Responses will be assessed to plan and inform efforts to improve or maintain the quality of service offered to the public.
If this information is not collected, vital feedback from customers and stakeholders on the Agency's services will be unavailable. CDC/ATSDR will only submit a collection for approval under this generic clearance if it meets the following conditions:
• The collections are voluntary;
• The collections are low-burden for respondents (based on considerations of total burden hours, total number of respondents, or burden-hours per respondent) and are low-cost for both the respondents and the Federal Government;
• The collections are noncontroversial and do not raise issues of concern to other Federal agencies;
• Any collection is targeted to the solicitation of opinions from respondents who have experience with the program or may have experience with the program in the near future;
• Personally identifiable information (PII) is collected only to the extent necessary and is not retained;
• Information gathered is intended to be used only internally for general service improvement and program management purposes and is not intended for release outside of the agency (if released, the agency must indicate the qualitative nature of the information);
• Information gathered will not be used for the purpose of substantially informing influential policy decisions; and
• Information gathered will yield qualitative information; the collections will not be designed or expected to yield statistically reliable results or used as though the results are generalizable to the population of study.
This type of generic clearance for qualitative information will not be used for quantitative information collections that are designed to yield reliably actionable results, such as monitoring trends over time or documenting program performance. Such data uses require more rigorous designs that address: The target population to which generalizations will be made, the sampling frame, the sample design (including stratification and clustering), the precision requirements or power calculations that justify the proposed sample size, the expected response rate, methods for assessing potential nonresponse bias, the protocols for data collection, and any testing procedures that were or will be undertaken prior to fielding the study. Depending on the degree of influence the results are likely to have, such collections may still be eligible for submission for other generic mechanisms that are designed to yield quantitative results.
As a general matter, information collections will not result in any new system of records containing privacy information and will not ask questions of a sensitive nature, such as sexual behavior and attitudes, religious beliefs, and other matters that are commonly considered private.
OMB approval is requested for three years. There are no costs to respondents other than their time. The estimated annualized burden hours are 20,350.
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) has submitted the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The notice for the proposed information collection is published to obtain comments from the public and affected agencies.
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address any of the following: (a) Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (b) Evaluate the accuracy of the agencies estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (c) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; (d) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
To request additional information on the proposed project or to obtain a copy of the information collection plan and instruments, call (404) 639-7570 or send an email to
Behavioral Risk Factor Surveillance System (BRFSS) Asthma Call-back Survey (ACBS)—Existing Collection in Use without an OMB Control Number—National Center for Environmental Health NCEH), Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) is requesting a three-year Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) clearance to conduct information collection under “The Behavioral Risk Factor Surveillance System (BRFSS) Asthma Call-back Survey (ACBS)” for three years beginning with the 2017 data collection cycle. The ACBS is an existing collection in use without an OMB Control Number. BRFSS (OMB Control No. 0920-1061, expiration date 3/31/2018) is a nationwide system of customized, cross-sectional telephone health surveys sponsored by CDC's National Center for Chronic Disease Prevention and Health Promotion (NCCDPHP) Division of Population Health. The BRFSS information collection is conducted in a continuous, three-part telephone interview process: Screening, participation in a common BRFSS core survey, and participation in optional question modules that states use to customize survey content.
The ACBS is not an optional state module, but rather, is a follow-up survey to the regular BRFSS efforts. It is funded by the National Asthma Control Program (NACP) in the Air Pollution and Respiratory Health Branch (APRHB) of the National Center for Environmental Health (NCEH). The ACBS is administered by NCCDPHP on behalf of NCEH using its existing BRFSS sampling frame. BRFSS coordinators in the health departments in U.S. states, territories, and the District of Columbia (collectively referred to as states) are responsible for survey administration. Currently CDC provides its 40 participating states with technical and methodological assistance.
The purpose of ACBS is to gather state-level asthma data and to make them available to track the burden of the disease, to monitor adherence to asthma guidelines, and to direct and evaluate interventions undertaken by asthma control programs located in state health departments. Beyond asthma prevalence estimates, for most states, the ACBS provides the only sources of adult and child asthma data on the state and local level.
As a follow-up, the ACBS is conducted within two weeks after the BRFSS survey. Data collection for ACBS involves (1) screening, (2) obtaining permission, (3) consenting and telephone interviewing on a subset of the BRFSS respondents from participating states. The ACBS eligible respondents are BRFSS adults, 18 years and older, who report ever being diagnosed with asthma. In addition, some states include children, below 18 years of age, who are randomly selected subjects in the BRFSS household. Parents or guardians serve as ACBS proxy respondents for their children ever diagnosed with asthma. If both the BRFSS adult respondent and the selected child in the household have asthma, then only one or the other is eligible for the ACBS.
The ACBS adds considerable state-level depth to the existing body of asthma data. It addresses critical questions surrounding the health and experiences of persons with asthma. Health data include symptoms, environmental factors, and medication use among persons with asthma. Data on their experiences include activity limitation, health system use, and self-management education. These asthma data are needed to direct and evaluate interventions undertaken by asthma control programs located in state health departments. Federal agencies and other entities also rely on this critical information for planning and evaluating efforts and to reduce the burden from this disease.
The CDC makes annual ACBS datasets available for public use and provides
The total estimated annualized burden hours for all respondents are 6,029 hours.
In order to describe the activities and accomplishments of The Hotline and LIR and develop potential new or revised performance measures, the ACF/HHS Office of Planning, Research and Evaluation (OPRE) and FYSB are proposing a data collection activity as part of the Accomplishments of the Domestic Violence Hotline, Online Connections and Text (ADVHOCaT) Study.
As part of ongoing program activities and monitoring for The Hotline and LIR, ACF proposes to collect information via voluntary phone, chat, and web-based surveys of individuals who contact The Hotline and LIR. Participants will complete a baseline survey at the end of their contact with The Hotline and LIR, and a follow-up survey approximately two weeks later. The survey will include questions about reasons for contacting The Hotline/LIR, whether needs were met, satisfaction with services received, and helpfulness of information provided. This data collection builds on a previous data collection that was focused on understanding the preferred mode of contact by those who contact The Hotline and LIR. This new information will inform future efforts to monitor and improve the performance of domestic violence hotlines and provide hotline services.
In compliance with the requirements of Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, the Administration for Children and Families is soliciting public comment on the specific aspects of the information collection described above. Copies of the proposed collection of information can be obtained and comments may be forwarded by writing to the Administration for Children and Families, Office of Planning, Research and Evaluation, 330 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20201, Attn: OPRE Reports Clearance Officer. Email address:
The Department specifically requests comments on (a) whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information; (c) the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d)
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice of availability.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or Agency) is announcing the availability of the guidance entitled “Immediately in Effect Guidance Document: Conditions for Sale for Air-Conduction Hearing Aids.” FDA is issuing this guidance to communicate to consumers, hearing aid dispensers, hearing aid manufacturers, and hearing health professionals that FDA does not intend to enforce certain conditions for sale of hearing aid devices that are required per FDA regulation. Specifically, FDA does not intend to enforce the medical evaluation or recordkeeping requirements prior to the dispensing of certain hearing aid devices to individuals 18 years of age and older.
Submit either electronic or written comments on this guidance at any time. General comments on Agency guidance documents are welcome at any time.
You may submit comments as follows:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Division of Dockets Management, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
An electronic copy of the guidance document is available for download from the Internet. See the
Srinivas Nandkumar, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 66, Rm. 2436, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 301-796-6480.
FDA is issuing this guidance to communicate to consumers, hearing aid dispensers, hearing aid manufacturers, and hearing health professionals that FDA does not intend to enforce certain conditions for sale of hearing aid devices that are required per FDA regulation. Specifically, FDA does not intend to enforce the medical evaluation (§ 801.421(a) (21 CFR 801.421(a)) or recordkeeping (§ 801.421(d))
This guidance applies to the subset of hearing aids that are regulated as class I air-conduction hearing aids under § 874.3300(b)(1) (21 CFR 874.3300(b)(1)) and class II wireless air-conduction hearing aids under § 874.3305, where hearing aid means “any wearable instrument or device designed for, offered for the purpose of, or represented as aiding persons with or compensating for, impaired hearing,” as defined in § 801.420(a)(1). This guidance does not apply to class II bone-conduction hearing aids as identified in § 874.3300(b)(2). Also, hearing aids labeled for prescription use only,
This guidance is being implemented without prior public comment because the Agency has determined that prior public participation is not feasible or appropriate (see section 701(h)(1)(C)(i) of the FD&C Act (21 U.S.C. 371(h)(1)(C)(i)) and § 10.115.(g)(2) (21 CFR 10.115(g)(2))). FDA believes that immediate implementation of the guidance is needed to assist in addressing a significant public health issue. Further, FDA has determined that this guidance document presents a less burdensome policy that is consistent with public health. Although this guidance is immediately in effect, FDA will consider all comments received and revise the guidance document as appropriate.
This guidance is being issued consistent with FDA's good guidance practices regulation (§ 10.115). The guidance represents the current thinking of FDA on conditions for sale for air-conduction hearing aids. It does not establish any rights for any person and is not binding on FDA or the public. You can use an alternative approach if it satisfies the requirements of the applicable statutes and regulations.
Persons interested in obtaining a copy of the guidance may do so by downloading an electronic copy from the Internet. A search capability for all Center for Devices and Radiological Health guidance documents is available at
This guidance refers to previously approved collections of information found in FDA regulations. These collections of information are subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520). The collections of information in 21 CFR part 807, subpart E have been approved under OMB control number 0910-0120; and the collections of information in 21 CFR part 801 have been approved under OMB control number 0910-0485.
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or Agency) has determined that SODIUM CHLORIDE 23.4% IN PLASTIC CONTAINER (sodium chloride), injectable, 234 milligrams (mg)/milliliter (mL), was not withdrawn from sale for reasons of safety or effectiveness. This determination will allow FDA to approve abbreviated new drug applications (ANDAs) for sodium chloride, injectable, 234 mg/mL, if all other legal and regulatory requirements are met.
David Faranda, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 51, Rm. 6213, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 301-796-8767.
In 1984, Congress enacted the Drug Price Competition and Patent Term Restoration Act of 1984 (Pub. L. 98-417) (the 1984 amendments), which authorized the approval of duplicate versions of drug products under an ANDA procedure. ANDA applicants must, with certain exceptions, show that the drug for which they are seeking approval contains the same active ingredient in the same strength and dosage form as the “listed drug,” which is a version of the drug that was previously approved. ANDA applicants do not have to repeat the extensive clinical testing otherwise necessary to gain approval of a new drug application (NDA).
The 1984 amendments include what is now section 505(j)(7) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 355(j)(7)), which requires FDA to publish a list of all approved drugs. FDA publishes this list as part of the “Approved Drug Products With Therapeutic Equivalence Evaluations,” which is known generally as the “Orange Book.” Under FDA regulations, drugs are removed from the list if the Agency withdraws or suspends approval of the drug's NDA or ANDA for reasons of safety or effectiveness or if FDA determines that the listed drug was withdrawn from sale for reasons of safety or effectiveness (21 CFR 314.162).
A person may petition the Agency to determine, or the Agency may determine on its own initiative, whether a listed drug was withdrawn from sale for reasons of safety or effectiveness. This determination may be made at any time after the drug has been withdrawn from sale, but must be made prior to approving an ANDA that refers to the listed drug (§ 314.161 (21 CFR 314.161)). FDA may not approve an ANDA that does not refer to a listed drug.
SODIUM CHLORIDE 23.4% IN PLASTIC CONTAINER (sodium chloride), injectable, 234 mg/mL, is the subject of NDA 019329, held by Abraxis Pharmaceutical Products, and initially approved on April 22, 1987. SODIUM CHLORIDE 23.4% IN PLASTIC CONTAINER is indicated for use in patients who have special problems of sodium electrolyte intake or excretion, and for the treatment of sodium chloride and water deficiencies, which commonly occur in many diseases.
In a letter dated January 18, 1996, the original NDA holder, Fujisawa USA, Inc., notified FDA that SODIUM CHLORIDE 23.4% IN PLASTIC CONTAINER (sodium chloride), injectable, 234 mg/mL, was being discontinued, and FDA moved the drug product to the “Discontinued Drug
Gordon Johnston Regulatory Consultants, LLC, submitted a citizen petition dated May 25, 2016 (Docket No. FDA-2016-P-1363), under 21 CFR 10.30, requesting that the Agency determine whether SODIUM CHLORIDE 23.4% IN PLASTIC CONTAINER (sodium chloride), injectable, 234 mg/mL, was withdrawn from sale for reasons of safety or effectiveness.
After considering the citizen petition and reviewing Agency records and based on the information we have at this time, FDA has determined under § 314.161 that SODIUM CHLORIDE 23.4% IN PLASTIC CONTAINER (sodium chloride), injectable, 234 mg/mL, was not withdrawn for reasons of safety or effectiveness. The petitioner has identified no data or other information suggesting that SODIUM CHLORIDE 23.4% IN PLASTIC CONTAINER (sodium chloride), injectable, 234 mg/mL, was withdrawn for reasons of safety or effectiveness. We have carefully reviewed our files for records concerning the withdrawal of SODIUM CHLORIDE 23.4% IN PLASTIC CONTAINER (sodium chloride), injectable, 234 mg/mL, from sale. We have also independently evaluated relevant literature and data for possible postmarketing adverse events. We have reviewed the available evidence and determined that this drug product was not withdrawn from sale for reasons of safety or effectiveness.
Accordingly, the Agency will continue to list SODIUM CHLORIDE 23.4% IN PLASTIC CONTAINER (sodium chloride), injectable, 234 mg/mL, in the “Discontinued Drug Product List” section of the Orange Book. The “Discontinued Drug Product List” delineates, among other items, drug products that have been discontinued from marketing for reasons other than safety or effectiveness. ANDAs that refer to this drug product may be approved by the Agency as long as they meet all other legal and regulatory requirements for the approval of ANDAs. If FDA determines that labeling for this drug product should be revised to meet current standards, the Agency will advise ANDA applicants to submit such labeling.
Notice of Amendment to the December 3, 2014, Declaration under the Public Readiness and Emergency Preparedness Act for Ebola Virus Disease Vaccines.
The Secretary is amending the Declaration issued pursuant to section 319F-3 of the Public Health Service Act on December 3, 2014 (79 FR 73314) and amended on December 1, 2015 (80 FR 76541) to extend the effective time period for an additional 24 months and to clarify the description of Covered Countermeasures consistent with the terms of the Declaration and republishing the Declaration in its entirety as amended.
The Amended Declaration is effective as of December 3, 2016.
Nicole Lurie, MD, MSPH, Assistant Secretary for Preparedness and Response, Office of the Secretary, Department of Health and Human Services, 200 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20201, Telephone 202-205-2882.
The Public Readiness and Emergency Preparedness Act (PREP Act) authorizes the Secretary of Health and Human Services to issue a Declaration to provide liability immunity to certain individuals and entities (Covered Persons) against any claim of loss caused by, arising out of, relating to, or resulting from the administration or use of medical countermeasures (Covered Countermeasures), except for claims that meet the PREP Act's definition of willful misconduct. The Secretary may, through publication in the
The PREP Act was enacted on December 30, 2005, as Public Law 109-148, Division C, Section 2. It amended the Public Health Service (PHS) Act, adding section 319F-3, which addresses liability immunity, and section 319F-4, which creates a compensation program. These sections are codified in the U.S. Code as 42 U.S.C. 247d-6d and 42 U.S.C. 247d-6e, respectively.
The Pandemic and All-Hazards Preparedness Reauthorization Act (PAHPRA), Public Law 113-5, was enacted on March 13, 2013. Among other things, PAHPRA added sections 564A and 564B to the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic (FD&C) Act to provide new authorities for the emergency use of approved products in emergencies and products held for emergency use. PAHPRA accordingly amended the definitions of “Covered Countermeasures” and “qualified pandemic and epidemic products” in section 319F-3 of the Public Health Service Act (PREP Act provisions), so that products made available under these new FD&C Act authorities could be covered under PREP Act Declarations. PAHPRA also extended the definition of qualified pandemic and epidemic products that may be covered under a PREP Act Declaration to include products or technologies intended to enhance the use or effect of a drug, biological product, or device used against the pandemic or epidemic or against adverse events from these products.
The Ebola virus causes an acute, serious illness that is often fatal. From 2014 to 2015, West Africa experienced the largest and most complex Ebola outbreak since the virus was discovered in 1976, affecting populations in West African countries and travelers who left West Africa. In 2014, the World Health Organization (WHO) declared the Ebola Virus Disease Outbreak as a Public Health Emergency of International Concern under the framework of the International Health Regulations (2005). In March 2016, WHO determined that the Ebola outbreak no longer constituted a Public Health Emergency of International Concern, but emphasized the crucial need for continued support to prevent, detect and respond rapidly to any new Ebola outbreak in West Africa. Thus, there is a continuing need for development of vaccines against Ebola Virus Disease.
Unless otherwise noted, all statutory citations below are to the U.S. Code.
Before issuing a Declaration under the PREP Act, the Secretary is required to determine that a disease or other health condition or threat to health constitutes a public health emergency or that there is a credible risk that the disease, condition, or threat may constitute such
In deciding whether and under what circumstances to issue a Declaration with respect to a Covered Countermeasure, the Secretary must consider the desirability of encouraging the design, development, clinical testing or investigation, manufacture, labeling, distribution, formulation, packaging, marketing, promotion, sale, purchase, donation, dispensing, prescribing, administration, licensing, and use of the countermeasure. In Section II, the Secretary states that she has considered these factors.
The Secretary must recommend the activities for which the PREP Act's liability immunity is in effect. These activities may include, under conditions as the Secretary may specify, the manufacture, testing, development, distribution, administration, or use of one or more Covered Countermeasures (Recommended Activities). In Section III, the Secretary recommends activities for which the immunity is in effect.
The Secretary must also state that liability protections available under the PREP Act are in effect with respect to the Recommended Activities. These liability protections provide that, “[s]ubject to other provisions of [the PREP Act], a covered person shall be immune from suit and liability under federal and state law with respect to all claims for loss caused by, arising out of, relating to, or resulting from the administration to or use by an individual of a covered countermeasure if a Declaration . . . has been issued with respect to such countermeasure.” In Section IV, the Secretary states that liability protections are in effect with respect to the Recommended Activities.
The PREP Act's liability immunity applies to “Covered Persons” with respect to administration or use of a Covered Countermeasure. The term “Covered Persons” has a specific meaning and is defined in the PREP Act to include manufacturers, distributors, program planners, and qualified persons, and their officials, agents, and employees, and the United States. The PREP Act further defines the terms “manufacturer,” “distributor,” “program planner,” and “qualified person” as described below.
A manufacturer includes a contractor or subcontractor of a manufacturer; a supplier or licenser of any product, intellectual property, service, research tool or component or other article used in the design, development, clinical testing, investigation or manufacturing of a Covered Countermeasure; and any or all of the parents, subsidiaries, affiliates, successors, and assigns of a manufacturer.
A distributor means a person or entity engaged in the distribution of drug, biologics, or devices, including but not limited to: Manufacturers; repackers; common carriers; contract carriers; air carriers; own-label distributors; private-label distributors; jobbers; brokers; warehouses and wholesale drug warehouses; independent wholesale drug traders; and retail pharmacies.
A program planner means a state or local government, including an Indian tribe; a person employed by the state or local government; or other person who supervises or administers a program with respect to the administration, dispensing, distribution, provision, or use of a Covered Countermeasure, including a person who establishes requirements, provides policy guidance, or supplies technical or scientific advice or assistance or provides a facility to administer or use a Covered Countermeasure in accordance with the Secretary's Declaration. Under this definition, a private sector employer or community group or other “person” can be a program planner when it carries out the described activities.
A qualified person means a licensed health professional or other individual authorized to prescribe, administer, or dispense Covered Countermeasures under the law of the state in which the countermeasure was prescribed, administered, or dispensed; or a person within a category of persons identified as qualified in the Secretary's Declaration. Under this definition, the Secretary can describe in the Declaration other qualified persons, such as volunteers, who are Covered Persons. Section V describes other qualified persons covered by this Declaration.
The PREP Act also defines the word “person” as used in the Act: A person includes an individual, partnership, corporation, association, entity, or public or private corporation, including a federal, state, or local government agency or department.
Section V describes Covered Persons under the Declaration, including Qualified Persons.
As noted above, section III describes the Secretary's Recommended Activities for which liability immunity is in effect. This section identifies the countermeasures for which the Secretary has recommended such activities. The PREP Act states that a “Covered Countermeasure” must be: A “qualified pandemic or epidemic product,” or a “security countermeasure,” as described immediately below; or a drug, biological product or device authorized for emergency use in accordance with sections 564, 564A, or 564B of the FD&C Act.
A qualified pandemic or epidemic product means a drug or device, as defined in the FD&C Act or a biological product, as defined in the PHS Act that is: (i) Manufactured, used, designed, developed, modified, licensed or procured to diagnose, mitigate, prevent, treat, or cure a pandemic or epidemic or limit the harm such a pandemic or epidemic might otherwise cause; (ii) manufactured, used, designed, developed, modified, licensed, or procured to diagnose, mitigate, prevent, treat, or cure a serious or life-threatening disease or condition caused by such a drug, biological product, or device; (iii) or a product or technology intended to enhance the use or effect of such a drug, biological product, or device.
A security countermeasure is a drug or device, as defined in the FD&C Act or a biological product, as defined in the PHS Act that: (i)(a) The Secretary determines to be a priority to diagnose, mitigate, prevent, or treat harm from any biological, chemical, radiological, or nuclear agent identified as a material threat by the Secretary of Homeland Security, or (b) to diagnose, mitigate, prevent, or treat harm from a condition that may result in adverse health consequences or death and may be caused by administering a drug, biological product, or device against such an agent; and (ii) is determined by the Secretary of Health and Human Services to be a necessary countermeasure to protect public health.
To be a Covered Countermeasure, qualified pandemic or epidemic
A qualified pandemic or epidemic product also may be a Covered Countermeasure when it is subject to an exemption (that is, it is permitted to be used under an Investigational Drug Application or an Investigational Device Exemption) under the FD&C Act and is the object of research for possible use for diagnosis, mitigation, prevention, treatment, or cure, or to limit harm of a pandemic or epidemic or serious or life-threatening condition caused by such a drug or device. A security countermeasure also may be a Covered Countermeasure if it may reasonably be determined to qualify for approval or licensing within 10 years after the Department's determination that procurement of the countermeasure is appropriate.
Section VI lists the Ebola Virus Disease Vaccines that are Covered Countermeasures. The Secretary is amending the description of Covered Countermeasures to clarify that coverage for vaccines includes coverage of all components and constituent materials of the vaccines, and all devices and their constituent components used in the administration of these vaccines. The change is intended to clarify existing coverage; is consistent with PREP Act declarations for vaccines against other potential public health threats, and it is not intended to be a substantive legal change.
Section VI also refers to the statutory definitions of Covered Countermeasures to make clear that these statutory definitions limit the scope of Covered Countermeasures. Specifically, the Declaration notes that Covered Countermeasures must be “qualified pandemic or epidemic products,” or “security countermeasures,” or drugs, biological products, or devices authorized for investigational or emergency use, as those terms are defined in the PREP Act, the FD&C Act, and the Public Health Service Act.
The Secretary may specify that liability immunity is in effect only to Covered Countermeasures obtained through a particular means of distribution. The Declaration states that liability immunity is afforded to Covered Persons for Recommended Activities related to: (a) Present or future federal contracts, cooperative agreements, grants, other transactions, interagency agreements, or memoranda of understanding or other federal agreements; or (b) Activities authorized in accordance with the public health and medical response of the Authority Having Jurisdiction to prescribe, administer, deliver, distribute, or dispense the Covered Countermeasures following a Declaration of an emergency.
Section VII defines the terms “Authority Having Jurisdiction” and “Declaration of an emergency.” We have specified in the definition that Authorities having jurisdiction include federal, state, local, and tribal authorities and institutions or organizations acting on behalf of those governmental entities.
For governmental program planners only, liability immunity is afforded only to the extent they obtain Covered Countermeasures through voluntary means, such as (1) donation; (2) commercial sale; (3) deployment of Covered Countermeasures from federal stockpiles; or (4) deployment of donated, purchased, or otherwise voluntarily obtained Covered Countermeasures from state, local, or private stockpiles. This last limitation on distribution is intended to deter program planners that are government entities from seizing privately held stockpiles of Covered Countermeasures. It does not apply to any other Covered Persons, including other program planners who are not government entities.
The Secretary must identify, for each Covered Countermeasure, the categories of diseases, health conditions, or threats to health for which the Secretary recommends the administration or use of the countermeasure. In Section VIII, the Secretary states that the disease threat for which she recommends administration or use of the Covered Countermeasures is Ebola virus disease.
The PREP Act does not explicitly define the term “administration” but does assign the Secretary the responsibility to provide relevant conditions in the Declaration. In Section IX, the Secretary defines “Administration of a Covered Countermeasure:”
Administration of a Covered Countermeasure means physical provision of the countermeasures to recipients, or activities and decisions directly relating to public and private delivery, distribution, and dispensing of the countermeasures to recipients; management and operation of countermeasure programs; or management and operation of locations for purpose of distributing and dispensing countermeasures.
The definition of “administration” extends only to physical provision of a countermeasure to a recipient, such as vaccination or handing drugs to patients, and to activities related to management and operation of programs and locations for providing countermeasures to recipients, such as decisions and actions involving security and queuing, but only insofar as those activities directly relate to the countermeasure activities. Claims for which Covered Persons are provided immunity under the Act are losses caused by, arising out of, relating to, or resulting from the administration to or use by an individual of a Covered Countermeasure consistent with the terms of a Declaration issued under the Act. Under the Secretary's definition, these liability claims are precluded if they allege an injury caused by physical provision of a countermeasure to a recipient, or if the claims are directly due to conditions of delivery, distribution, dispensing, or management and operation of countermeasure programs at distribution and dispensing sites.
Thus, it is the Secretary's interpretation that, when a Declaration is in effect, the Act precludes, for example, liability claims alleging negligence by a manufacturer in creating a vaccine, or negligence by a health care provider in prescribing the wrong dose, absent willful misconduct. Likewise, the Act precludes a liability claim relating to the management and operation of a countermeasure distribution program or site, such as a slip-and-fall injury or vehicle collision by a recipient receiving a countermeasure at a retail store serving as an administration or dispensing location that alleges, for example, lax security or chaotic crowd control. However, a liability claim alleging an injury occurring at the site that was not directly related to the countermeasure activities is not covered, such as a slip and fall with no direct connection to the countermeasure's administration or use. In each case, whether immunity is applicable will depend on the particular facts and circumstances.
The Secretary must identify, for each Covered Countermeasure specified in a Declaration, the population or populations of individuals for which liability immunity is in effect with respect to administration or use of the
In addition, the PREP Act specifies that liability immunity is afforded: (1) To manufacturers and distributors without regard to whether the countermeasure is used by or administered to this population; and (2) to program planners and qualified persons when the countermeasure is either used by or administered to this population or the program planner or qualified person reasonably could have believed the recipient was in this population. Section X includes these statutory conditions in the Declaration for clarity.
The Secretary must identify, for each Covered Countermeasure specified in the Declaration, the geographic area or areas for which liability immunity is in effect with respect to administration or use of the countermeasure, including, as appropriate, whether the Declaration applies only to individuals physically present in the area or, in addition, applies to individuals who have a described connection to the area. Section XI provides that liability immunity is afforded for the administration or use of a Covered Countermeasure without geographic limitation. This could include claims related to administration or use in West Africa or other locations outside the U.S. It is possible that claims may arise in regard to administration or use of the Covered Countermeasures outside the U.S. that may be resolved under U.S. law.
In addition, the PREP Act specifies that liability immunity is afforded: (1) To manufacturers and distributors without regard to whether the countermeasure is used by or administered to individuals in the geographic areas; and (2) to program planners and qualified persons when the countermeasure is either used or administered in the geographic areas or the program planner or qualified person reasonably could have believed the countermeasure was used or administered in the areas. Section XI includes these statutory conditions in the Declaration for clarity.
The Secretary must identify, for each Covered Countermeasure, the period or periods during which liability immunity is in effect, designated by dates, milestones, or other description of events, including factors specified in the PREP Act. Section XII is amended to extend the effective time period for different means of distribution of Covered Countermeasures up to an additional 24 months.
The Secretary must specify a date after the ending date of the effective period of the Declaration that is reasonable for manufacturers to arrange for disposition of the Covered Countermeasure, including return of the product to the manufacturer, and for other Covered Persons to take appropriate actions to limit administration or use of the Covered Countermeasure. In addition, the PREP Act specifies that for Covered Countermeasures that are subject to a Declaration at the time they are obtained for the Strategic National Stockpile (SNS) under 42 U.S.C. 247d-6b(a), the effective period of the Declaration extends through the time the countermeasure is used or administered pursuant to a distribution or release from the Stockpile. Liability immunity under the provisions of the PREP Act and the conditions of the Declaration continues during these additional time periods. Thus, liability immunity is afforded during the “Effective Time Period,” described under XII of the Declaration, plus the “Additional Time Period” described under section XIII of the Declaration.
Section XIII provides for 12 months as the additional time period of coverage after expiration of the Declaration. Section XIII also explains the extended coverage that applies to any products obtained for the Strategic National Stockpile during the effective period of the Declaration.
Section 319F-4 of the PREP Act authorizes the Countermeasures Injury Compensation Program (CICP) to provide benefits to eligible individuals who sustain a serious physical injury or die as a direct result of the administration or use of a Covered Countermeasure. Compensation under the CICP for an injury directly caused by a Covered Countermeasure is based on the requirements set forth in this Declaration, the administrative rules for the Program, and the statute. To show direct causation between a Covered Countermeasure and a serious physical injury, the statute requires “compelling, reliable, valid, medical and scientific evidence.” The administrative rules for the Program further explain the necessary requirements for eligibility under the CICP. Please note that, by statute, requirements for compensation under the CICP may not align with the requirements for liability immunity provided under the PREP Act. Section XIV, “Countermeasures Injury Compensation Program” explains the types of injury and standard of evidence needed to be considered for compensation under the CICP.
Further, the administrative rules for the CICP specify if countermeasures are administered or used outside the United States, only otherwise eligible individuals at American embassies, military installations abroad (such as military bases, ships, and camps) or at North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) installations (subject to the NATO Status of Forces Agreement) where American servicemen and servicewomen are stationed may be considered for CICP benefits. Other individuals outside the United States may not be eligible for CICP benefits.
This is the second amendment to the Declaration issued December 3, 2014 (79 FR 73314). The first amendment was issued December 1, 2015 (80 FR 76541). The Secretary may amend any portion of this Declaration through publication in the
This Declaration amends and republishes the December 3, 2014, Declaration, as amended on December 1, 2015, for coverage under the Public Readiness and Emergency Preparedness (“PREP”) Act for Ebola Virus Disease Vaccines. To the extent any term of the December 3, 2014, Declaration, as amended on December 1, 2015, is inconsistent with any provision of this Republished Declaration, the terms of this Republished Declaration are controlling.
I have determined that there is a credible risk that the spread of Ebola
I have considered the desirability of encouraging the design, development, clinical testing, or investigation, manufacture, labeling, distribution, formulation, packaging, marketing, promotion, sale, purchase, donation, dispensing, prescribing, administration, licensing, and use of the Covered Countermeasures.
I recommend, under the conditions stated in this Declaration, the manufacture, testing, development, distribution, administration, and use of the Covered Countermeasures.
Liability immunity as prescribed in the PREP Act and conditions stated in this Declaration is in effect for the Recommended Activities described in section III.
Covered Persons who are afforded liability immunity under this Declaration are “manufacturers,” “distributors,” “program planners,” “qualified persons,” and their officials, agents, and employees, as those terms are defined in the PREP Act, and the United States.
In addition, I have determined that the following additional persons are qualified persons: (a) Any person authorized in accordance with the public health and medical emergency response of the Authority Having Jurisdiction, as described in section VII below, to prescribe, administer, deliver, distribute or dispense the Covered Countermeasures, and their officials, agents, employees, contractors and volunteers, following a Declaration of an emergency; (b) any person authorized to prescribe, administer, or dispense the Covered Countermeasures or who is otherwise authorized to perform an activity under an Emergency Use Authorization in accordance with section 564 of the FD&C Act; (c) any person authorized to prescribe, administer, or dispense Covered Countermeasures in accordance with Section 564A of the FD&C Act.
Covered Countermeasures are the following Ebola Virus Disease vaccines, all components and constituent materials of these vaccines, and all devices and their constituent components used in the administration of these vaccines:
(1) Recombinant Replication Deficient Chimpanzee Adenovirus Type 3-Vectored Ebola Zaire Vaccine (ChAd3-EBO-Z);
(2) Recombinant Vesicular Stomatitis Virus-vectored vaccine expressing EBOV-Zaire glycoprotein (rVSV-ZEBOV-GP), and;
(3) Ad26.ZEBOV/MVA-BN-Filo (MVA-mBN226B).
Covered Countermeasures must be “qualified pandemic or epidemic products,” or “security countermeasures,” or drugs, biological products, or devices authorized for investigational or emergency use, as those terms are defined in the PREP Act, the FD&C Act, and the Public Health Service Act.
I have determined that liability immunity is afforded to Covered Persons only for Recommended Activities involving Covered Countermeasures that are related to:
(a) Present or future federal contracts, cooperative agreements, grants, other transactions, interagency agreements, memoranda of understanding, or other federal agreements; or,
(b) Activities authorized in accordance with the public health and medical response of the Authority Having Jurisdiction to prescribe, administer, deliver, distribute or dispense the Covered Countermeasures following a Declaration of an emergency.
i. The Authority Having Jurisdiction means the public agency or its delegate that has legal responsibility and authority for responding to an incident, based on political or geographical (
ii. A Declaration of emergency means any Declaration by any authorized local, regional, state, or federal official of an emergency specific to events that indicate an immediate need to administer and use the Covered Countermeasures, with the exception of a federal Declaration in support of an Emergency Use Authorization under section 564 of the FD&C Act unless such Declaration specifies otherwise;
I have also determined that for governmental program planners only, liability immunity is afforded only to the extent such program planners obtain Covered Countermeasures through voluntary means, such as (1) donation; (2) commercial sale; (3) deployment of Covered Countermeasures from federal stockpiles; or (4) deployment of donated, purchased, or otherwise voluntarily obtained Covered Countermeasures from state, local, or private stockpiles.
The category of disease, health condition, or threat for which I recommend the administration or use of the Covered Countermeasures is Ebola virus disease.
Administration of the Covered Countermeasure means physical provision of the countermeasures to recipients, or activities and decisions directly relating to public and private delivery, distribution and dispensing of the countermeasures to recipients, management and operation of countermeasure programs, or management and operation of locations for purpose of distributing and dispensing countermeasures.
The populations of individuals include any individual who uses or is administered the Covered Countermeasures in accordance with this Declaration.
Liability immunity is afforded to manufacturers and distributors without regard to whether the countermeasure is used by or administered to this population; liability immunity is afforded to program planners and qualified persons when the countermeasure is used by or administered to this population, or the program planner or qualified person reasonably could have believed the recipient was in this population.
Liability immunity is afforded for the administration or use of a Covered
Liability immunity is afforded to manufacturers and distributors without regard to whether the countermeasure is used by or administered in any designated geographic area; liability immunity is afforded to program planners and qualified persons when the countermeasure is used by or administered in any designated geographic area, or the program planner or qualified person reasonably could have believed the recipient was in that geographic area.
Liability immunity for Covered Countermeasures through means of distribution, as identified in Section VII(a) of this Declaration, other than in accordance with the public health and medical response of the Authority Having Jurisdiction began on December 3, 2014, and extends through December 2, 2018.
Liability immunity for Covered Countermeasures administered and used in accordance with the public health and medical response of the Authority Having Jurisdiction begins with a Declaration and lasts through (1) the final day the emergency Declaration is in effect or (2) through December 2, 2018, whichever occurs first.
I have determined that an additional 12 months of liability protection is reasonable to allow for the manufacturer(s) to arrange for disposition of the Covered Countermeasure, including return of the Covered Countermeasures to the manufacturer, and for Covered Persons to take such other actions as are appropriate to limit the administration or use of the Covered Countermeasures.
Covered Countermeasures obtained for the SNS during the effective period of this Declaration are covered through the date of administration or use pursuant to a distribution or release from the SNS.
The PREP Act authorizes the Countermeasures Injury Compensation Program (CICP) to provide benefits to certain individuals or estates of individuals who sustain a covered serious physical injury as the direct result of the administration or use of the Covered Countermeasures, and benefits to certain survivors of individuals who die as a direct result of the administration or use of the Covered Countermeasures. The causal connection between the countermeasure and the serious physical injury must be supported by compelling, reliable, valid, medical and scientific evidence in order for the individual to be considered for compensation. The CICP is administered by the Health Resources and Services Administration, within the Department of Health and Human Services. Information about the CICP is available at the toll-free number 1-855-266-2427 or
Amendments to this Declaration will be published in the
42 U.S.C. 247d-6d.
Notice of Amendment to the February 27, 2015, Declaration under the Public Readiness and Emergency Preparedness Act for Ebola Virus Disease Therapeutics.
The Secretary is amending the February 27, 2015, Declaration issued pursuant to the Public Health Service Act and amended December 9, 2015 (80 FR 76536) to extend the effective time period for an additional 24 months consistent with the terms of the Declaration and republishing the Declaration in its entirety as amended.
The Amended Declaration is effective as of February 27, 2017.
Nicole Lurie, MD, MSPH, Assistant Secretary for Preparedness and Response, Office of the Secretary, Department of Health and Human Services, 200 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20201; Telephone 202-205-2882.
The Public Readiness and Emergency Preparedness Act (PREP Act) authorizes the Secretary of Health and Human Services to issue a Declaration to provide liability immunity to certain individuals and entities (Covered Persons) against any claim of loss caused by, arising out of, relating to, or resulting from the administration or use of medical countermeasures (Covered Countermeasures), except for claims that meet the PREP Act's definition of willful misconduct. The Secretary may, through publication in the
The PREP Act was enacted on December 30, 2005, as Public Law 109-148, Division C, Section 2. It amended the Public Health Service (PHS) Act, adding section 319F-3, which addresses liability immunity, and section 319F-4, which creates a compensation program. These sections are codified in the U.S. Code as 42 U.S.C. 247d-6d and 42 U.S.C. 247d-6e, respectively.
The Pandemic and All-Hazards Preparedness Reauthorization Act (PAHPRA), Public Law 113-5, was enacted on March 13, 2013. Among other things, PAHPRA added sections 564A and 564B to the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic (FD&C) Act to provide authorities for the emergency use of approved products in emergencies and products held for emergency use.
PAHPRA accordingly amended the definitions of “Covered Countermeasures” and “qualified pandemic and epidemic products” in section 319F-3 of the Public Health Service Act (PREP Act provisions), so that products made available under these new FD&C Act authorities could be covered under PREP Act Declarations. PAHPRA also extended the definition of qualified pandemic and epidemic products that may be covered under a PREP Act Declaration to include products or technologies intended to enhance the use or effect of a drug, biological product, or device used against the pandemic or epidemic or against adverse events from these products.
The Ebola virus causes an acute, serious illness that is often fatal. From 2014 to 2015, West Africa experienced the largest and most complex Ebola outbreak since the virus was first discovered in 1976, affecting populations in multiple West African
Unless otherwise noted, all statutory citations below are to the U.S. Code.
Before issuing a Declaration under the PREP Act, the Secretary is required to determine that a disease or other health condition or threat to health constitutes a public health emergency or that there is a credible risk that the disease, condition, or threat may in the future constitute such an emergency. This determination is separate and apart from a Declaration issued by the Secretary under section 319 of the PHS Act that a disease or disorder presents a public health emergency or that a public health emergency, including significant outbreaks of infectious diseases or bioterrorist attacks, otherwise exists, or other Declarations or determinations made under other authorities of the Secretary. Accordingly, in Section I, the Secretary determines that there is a credible risk that the spread of Ebola virus and the resulting disease may constitute a public health emergency.
In deciding whether and under what circumstances to issue a Declaration with respect to a Covered Countermeasure, the Secretary must consider the desirability of encouraging the design, development, clinical testing or investigation, manufacture, labeling, distribution, formulation, packaging, marketing, promotion, sale, purchase, donation, dispensing, prescribing, administration, licensing, and use of the countermeasure. In Section II, the Secretary states that she has considered these factors.
The Secretary must recommend the activities for which the PREP Act's liability immunity is in effect. These activities may include, under conditions as the Secretary may specify, the manufacture, testing, development, distribution, administration, or use of one or more Covered Countermeasures (“Recommended Activities”). In Section III, the Secretary recommends activities for which the immunity is in effect under the conditions stated in the Declaration, including the condition that the activities relate to clinical trials permitted to proceed after review by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) that administer or use the Covered Countermeasure under an investigational new drug application (IND) and that are directly supported by the U.S. The Secretary specifies that the term “directly supported” in this Declaration means that the United States has provided some form of tangible support such as supplies, funds, products, technical assistance, or staffing. This condition is intended to afford liability immunity only to activities related to clinical trials using the Covered Countermeasure being conducted in the U.S. and West Africa that are directly supported by the U.S.
The Secretary must also state that liability protections available under the PREP Act are in effect with respect to the Recommended Activities. These liability protections provide that, “[s]ubject to other provisions of [the PREP Act], a covered person shall be immune from suit and liability under federal and state law with respect to all claims for loss caused by, arising out of, relating to, or resulting from the administration to or use by an individual of a covered countermeasure if a Declaration . . . has been issued with respect to such countermeasure.” In Section IV, the Secretary states that liability protections are in effect with respect to the Recommended Activities.
The PREP Act's liability immunity applies to Covered Persons with respect to administration or use of a Covered Countermeasure. The term “Covered Persons” has a specific meaning and is defined in the PREP Act to include manufacturers, distributors, program planners, and qualified persons, and their officials, agents, and employees, and the U.S. The PREP Act further defines the terms “manufacturer,” “distributor,” “program planner,” and “qualified person” as described below.
A manufacturer includes a contractor or subcontractor of a manufacturer; a supplier or licenser of any product, intellectual property, service, research tool or component or other article used in the design, development, clinical testing, investigation or manufacturing of a Covered Countermeasure; and any or all of the parents, subsidiaries, affiliates, successors, and assigns of a manufacturer.
A distributor means a person or entity engaged in the distribution of drug, biologics, or devices, including but not limited to: Manufacturers; repackers; common carriers; contract carriers; air carriers; own-label distributors; private-label distributors; jobbers; brokers; warehouses and wholesale drug warehouses; independent wholesale drug traders; and retail pharmacies.
A program planner means a state or local government, including an Indian tribe; a person employed by the state or local government; or other person who supervises or administers a program with respect to the administration, dispensing, distribution, provision, or use of a Covered Countermeasure, including a person who establishes requirements, provides policy guidance, or supplies technical or scientific advice or assistance or provides a facility to administer or use a Covered Countermeasure in accordance with the Secretary's Declaration. Under this definition, a private-sector employer or community group or other “person” can be a program planner when it carries out the described activities.
A qualified person means a licensed health professional or other individual authorized to prescribe, administer, or dispense Covered Countermeasures under the law of the state in which the countermeasure was prescribed, administered, or dispensed; or a person within a category of persons identified as qualified in the Secretary's Declaration. Under this definition, the Secretary can describe in the Declaration other qualified persons, such as volunteers, who are Covered Persons. Section V describes other qualified persons covered by this Declaration.
The PREP Act also defines the word “person” as used in the Act: A person includes an individual, partnership, corporation, association, entity, or public or private corporation, including a federal, state, or local government agency or department. Section V describes Covered Persons under the Declaration, including Qualified Persons.
As noted above, section III describes the Secretary's Recommended Activities for which liability immunity is in effect. Section VI identifies the countermeasures for which the Secretary has recommended such activities. The PREP Act states that a
A qualified pandemic or epidemic product means a drug or device, as defined in the FD&C Act or a biological product, as defined in the PHS Act that is: (i) Manufactured, used, designed, developed, modified, licensed or procured to diagnose, mitigate, prevent, treat, or cure a pandemic or epidemic or limit the harm such a pandemic or epidemic might otherwise cause; (ii) manufactured, used, designed, developed, modified, licensed, or procured to diagnose, mitigate, prevent, treat, or cure a serious or life-threatening disease or condition caused by such a drug, biological product, or device; (iii) or a product or technology intended to enhance the use or effect of such a drug, biological product, or device.
A security countermeasure is a drug or device, as defined in the FD&C Act or a biological product, as defined in the PHS Act that: (i)(a) The Secretary determines to be a priority to diagnose, mitigate, prevent, or treat harm from any biological, chemical, radiological, or nuclear agent identified as a material threat by the Secretary of Homeland Security, or (b) to diagnose, mitigate, prevent, or treat harm from a condition that may result in adverse health consequences or death and may be caused by administering a drug, biological product, or device against such an agent; and (ii) is determined by the Secretary of Health and Human Services to be a necessary countermeasure to protect public health.
To be a Covered Countermeasure, qualified pandemic or epidemic products or security countermeasures also must be approved or cleared under the FD&C Act; licensed under the PHS Act; or authorized for emergency use under sections 564, 564A, or 564B of the FD&C Act.
A qualified pandemic or epidemic product also may be a Covered Countermeasure when it is subject to an exemption (that is, it is permitted to be used under an Investigational Drug Application or an Investigational Device Exemption) under the FD&C Act and is the object of research for possible use for diagnosis, mitigation, prevention, treatment, or cure, or to limit harm of a pandemic or epidemic or serious or life-threatening condition caused by such a drug or device. A security countermeasure also may be a Covered Countermeasure if it may reasonably be determined to qualify for approval or licensing within 10 years after the Department's determination that procurement of the countermeasure is appropriate.
Section VI lists the Ebola Virus Disease Therapeutics that are Covered Countermeasures. Section VI also refers to the statutory definitions of Covered Countermeasures to make clear that these statutory definitions limit the scope of Covered Countermeasures. Specifically, the Declaration notes that Covered Countermeasures must be “qualified pandemic or epidemic products, or security countermeasures, or drugs, biological products, or devices authorized for investigational or emergency use, as those terms are defined in the PREP Act, the FD&C Act, and the Public Health Service Act.”
The Secretary may specify that liability immunity is in effect only to Covered Countermeasures obtained through a particular means of distribution. The Declaration states that liability immunity is afforded to Covered Persons for Recommended Activities related to clinical trials permitted to proceed after FDA review, that administer or use the Covered Countermeasure under an IND, and directly supported by the U.S., as described in Section III of this Declaration, through present or future federal contracts, cooperative agreements, grants, other transactions, interagency agreements, or memoranda of understanding or other federal agreements or arrangements.
This limitation is intended to afford liability immunity to activities that are related to clinical trials permitted to proceed after FDA review that administer or use the Covered Countermeasure under an IND and that are directly supported by the U.S. As stated in Section III of the Declaration, the term “directly support” means that the U.S. has provided some form of tangible support such as supplies, funds, products, technical assistance, or staffing. As of the date of this Declaration, activities primarily are those with a direct connection to the conduct of clinical trials in the U.S. and West Africa, but this Declaration also would apply to use in qualifying clinical trials outside those areas.
For governmental program planners only, liability immunity is afforded only to the extent they obtain Covered Countermeasures through voluntary means, such as (1) donation; (2) commercial sale; (3) deployment of Covered Countermeasures from federal stockpiles; or (4) deployment of donated, purchased, or otherwise voluntarily obtained Covered Countermeasures from state, local, or private stockpiles.
This last limitation on distribution is intended to deter program planners that are government entities from seizing privately held stockpiles of Covered Countermeasures. It does not apply to any other Covered Persons, including other program planners who are not government entities.
The Secretary must identify, for each Covered Countermeasure, the categories of diseases, health conditions, or threats to health for which the Secretary recommends the administration or use of the countermeasure. In Section VIII, the Secretary states that the disease threat for which she recommends administration or use of the Covered Countermeasures is Ebola Virus Disease.
The PREP Act does not explicitly define the term “administration” but does assign the Secretary the responsibility to provide relevant conditions in the Declaration. In Section IX, the Secretary defines “Administration of a Covered Countermeasure”:
Administration of a Covered Countermeasure means physical provision of the countermeasures to recipients, or activities and decisions directly relating to public and private delivery, distribution, and dispensing of the countermeasures to recipients; management and operation of countermeasure programs; or management and operation of locations for purpose of distributing and dispensing countermeasures.
The definition of “administration” extends only to physical provision of a countermeasure to a recipient, such as vaccination or handing drugs to patients, and to activities related to management and operation of programs and locations for providing countermeasures to recipients, such as decisions and actions involving security and queuing, but only insofar as those activities directly relate to the countermeasure activities. Claims for which Covered Persons are provided immunity under the Act are losses caused by, arising out of, relating to, or resulting from the administration to or use by an individual of a Covered Countermeasure consistent with the terms of a Declaration issued under the
Thus, it is the Secretary's interpretation that, when a Declaration is in effect, the Act precludes, for example, liability claims alleging negligence by a manufacturer in creating a therapeutic, or negligence by a health care provider in prescribing the wrong dose, absent willful misconduct. Likewise, the Act precludes a liability claim relating to the management and operation of a countermeasure distribution program or site, such as a slip-and-fall injury or vehicle collision by a recipient receiving a countermeasure at a retail store serving as an administration or dispensing location that alleges, for example, lax security or chaotic crowd control. However, a liability claim alleging an injury occurring at the site that was not directly related to the countermeasure activities is not covered, such as a slip-and-fall with no direct connection to the countermeasure's administration or use. In each case, whether immunity is applicable will depend on the particular facts and circumstances.
The Secretary must identify, for each Covered Countermeasure specified in a Declaration, the population or populations of individuals for which liability immunity is in effect with respect to administration or use of the countermeasure. This section explains which individuals should use the countermeasure or to whom the countermeasure should be administered—in short, those who should be vaccinated or take a drug or other countermeasure. Section X provides that the population includes “any individual who uses or who is administered a Covered Countermeasure in accordance with the Declaration.”
In addition, the PREP Act specifies that liability immunity is afforded to manufacturers and distributors without regard to whether the countermeasure is used by or administered to this population and to program planners and qualified persons when the countermeasure is either used by or administered to this population or the program planner or qualified person reasonably could have believed the recipient was in this population. Section X includes these statutory conditions in the Declaration for clarity.
The Secretary must identify, for each Covered Countermeasure specified in the Declaration, the geographic area or areas for which liability immunity is in effect with respect to administration or use of the countermeasure, including, as appropriate, whether the Declaration applies only to individuals physically present in the area or, in addition, applies to individuals who have a described connection to the area. Section XI provides that liability immunity is afforded for the administration or use of a Covered Countermeasure without geographic limitation. This could include claims related to administration or use in West Africa or other locations outside the U.S. It is possible that claims may arise in regard to administration or use of the Covered Countermeasures outside the U.S. that may be resolved under U.S. law.
In addition, the PREP Act specifies that liability immunity is afforded to manufacturers and distributors without regard to whether the countermeasure is used by or administered to individuals in the geographic areas and to program planners and qualified persons when the countermeasure is either used or administered in the geographic areas or the program planner or qualified person reasonably could have believed the countermeasure was used or administered in the areas. Section XI includes these statutory conditions in the Declaration for clarity.
The Secretary must identify for each Covered Countermeasure the period or periods during which liability immunity is in effect, designated by dates, milestones, or other description of events, including factors specified in the PREP Act. Section XII identifies the effective time period. The effective time period commences at the start of clinical trials permitted to proceed after FDA review that administer or use the Covered Countermeasure under an IND and that are directly supported by the U.S., as described in Section III of the Declaration. Liability immunity is afforded to claims arising from such administration or use of the Covered Countermeasures after that date that have a causal relationship with any of the Recommended Activities stated in this Declaration. Section XII is amended to extend the effective time period an additional 24 months.
The Secretary must specify a date after the ending date of the effective period of the Declaration that is reasonable for manufacturers to arrange for disposition of the Covered Countermeasure, including return of the product to the manufacturer, and for other Covered Persons to take appropriate actions to limit administration or use of the Covered Countermeasure. In addition, the PREP Act specifies that for Covered Countermeasures that are subject to a Declaration at the time they are obtained for the Strategic National Stockpile (SNS) under 42 U.S.C. 247d-6b(a), the effective period of the Declaration extends through the time the countermeasure is used or administered pursuant to a distribution or release from the SNS. Liability immunity under the provisions of the PREP Act and the conditions of the Declaration continues during these additional time periods. Thus, liability immunity is afforded during the “Effective Time Period,” described under XII of the Declaration, plus the “Additional Time Period” described under section XIII of the Declaration.
Section XIII provides for 12 months as the additional time period of coverage after expiration of the Declaration. Section XIII also explains the extended coverage that applies to products obtained for the SNS during the effective period of the Declaration.
Section 319F-4 of the PREP Act authorizes the Countermeasures Injury Compensation Program (CICP) to provide benefits to eligible individuals who sustain a serious physical injury or die as a direct result of the administration or use of a Covered Countermeasure. Compensation under the CICP for an injury directly caused by a Covered Countermeasure is based on the requirements set forth in this Declaration, the administrative rules for the Program, and the statute. To show direct causation between a Covered Countermeasure and a serious physical injury, the statute requires “compelling, reliable, valid, medical and scientific evidence.” The administrative rules for the Program further explain the necessary requirements for eligibility under the CICP. Please note that, by statute, requirements for compensation under the CICP may not always align with the requirements for liability immunity provided under the PREP Act. Section XIV, Countermeasures Injury
Further, the administrative rules for the CICP specify if countermeasures are administered or used outside the U.S., only otherwise eligible individuals at American embassies, military installations abroad (such as military bases, ships, and camps) or at North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) installations (subject to the NATO Status of Forces Agreement) where American servicemen and servicewomen are stationed may be considered for CICP benefits. Other individuals outside the U.S. may not be eligible for CICP benefits.
This is the second amendment to the February 27, 2015, Declaration (80 FR 73314). The first amendment was issued December 9, 2015 (80 FR 76536). The Secretary may amend any portion of a Declaration through publication in the
This Declaration amends and republishes the February 27, 2015 for coverage under the Public Readiness and Emergency Preparedness (PREP) Act for Ebola Virus Disease Therapeutics. To the extent any term of the February 27, 2015, Declaration is inconsistent with any provision of this Republished Declaration, the terms of this Republished Declaration are controlling.
I have determined that there is a credible risk that the spread of Ebola virus and the resulting disease or conditions may in the future constitute a public health emergency.
I have considered the desirability of encouraging the design, development, clinical testing, or investigation, manufacture, labeling, distribution, formulation, packaging, marketing, promotion, sale, purchase, donation, dispensing, prescribing, administration, licensing, and use of the Covered Countermeasures.
I recommend the manufacture, testing, development, distribution, administration, and use of the Covered Countermeasures under the conditions stated in this Declaration, including the condition that the activities relate to clinical trials permitted to proceed after review by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) that administer or use the Covered Countermeasure under an IND application and that are directly supported by the U.S. The term “directly supported” in this Declaration means that the U.S. has provided some form of tangible support such as supplies, funds, products, technical assistance, or staffing.
Liability immunity as prescribed in the PREP Act and conditions stated in this Declaration is in effect for the Recommended Activities described in section III.
Covered Persons who are afforded liability immunity under this Declaration are manufacturers, distributors, program planners, qualified persons, and their officials, agents, and employees, as those terms are defined in the PREP Act, and the U.S. In addition, I have determined that the following additional persons are qualified persons: Any person authorized to prescribe, administer, or dispense the Covered Countermeasures or who is otherwise authorized to perform an activity to carry out clinical trials permitted to proceed after FDA review that administer or use the Covered Countermeasure under an IND and that are directly supported by the United States, as described in Section III of this Declaration.
Covered Countermeasures are the following Ebola Virus Disease Therapeutics: ZMapp monoclonal antibody therapeutic.
Covered Countermeasures must be “qualified pandemic or epidemic products,” or “security countermeasures,” or drugs, biological products, or devices authorized for investigational or emergency use, as those terms are defined in the PREP Act, the FD&C Act, and the Public Health Service Act.
I have determined that liability immunity is afforded to Covered Persons only for Recommended Activities involving Covered Countermeasures that are related to clinical trials permitted to proceed after FDA review that administer or use the Covered Countermeasure under an IND and that are directly supported by the United States, as described in Section III of this Declaration, through present or future federal contracts, cooperative agreements, grants, other transactions, interagency agreements, memoranda of understanding, or other federal agreements or arrangements.
I have also determined that for governmental program planners only, liability immunity is afforded only to the extent such program planners obtain Covered Countermeasures through voluntary means, such as (1) donation; (2) commercial sale; (3) deployment of Covered Countermeasures from federal stockpiles; or (4) deployment of donated, purchased, or otherwise voluntarily obtained Covered Countermeasures from state, local, or private stockpiles.
The category of disease, health condition, or threat for which I recommend the administration or use of the Covered Countermeasures is Ebola virus disease.
Administration of the Covered Countermeasure means physical provision of the countermeasures to recipients, or activities and decisions directly relating to public and private delivery, distribution and dispensing of the countermeasures to recipients, management and operation of countermeasure programs, or management and operation of locations for purpose of distributing and dispensing countermeasures.
The populations of individuals include any individual who uses or is administered the Covered Countermeasures in accordance with this Declaration.
Liability immunity is afforded to manufacturers and distributors without regard to whether the countermeasure is used by or administered to this population; liability immunity is afforded to program planners and qualified persons when the countermeasure is used by or administered to this population, or the program planner or qualified person reasonably could have believed the recipient was in this population.
Liability immunity is afforded for the administration or use of a Covered Countermeasure without geographic limitation.
Liability immunity is afforded to manufacturers and distributors without regard to whether the countermeasure is used by or administered in any designated geographic area; liability immunity is afforded to program planners and qualified persons when the countermeasure is used by or administered in any designated geographic area, or the program planner or qualified person reasonably could have believed the recipient was in that geographic area.
Liability immunity for Covered Countermeasures began on February 27, 2015, and extends through February 26, 2019.
I have determined that an additional 12 months of liability protection is reasonable to allow for the manufacturer(s) to arrange for disposition of the Covered Countermeasure, including return of the Covered Countermeasures to the manufacturer, and for Covered Persons to take such other actions as are appropriate to limit the administration or use of the Covered Countermeasures.
Covered Countermeasures obtained for the SNS during the effective period of this Declaration are covered through the date of administration or use pursuant to a distribution or release from the SNS.
The PREP Act authorizes the Countermeasures Injury Compensation Program (CICP) to provide benefits to certain individuals or estates of individuals who sustain a covered serious physical injury as the direct result of the administration or use of the Covered Countermeasures, and benefits to certain survivors of individuals who die as a direct result of the administration or use of the Covered Countermeasures. The causal connection between the countermeasure and the serious physical injury must be supported by compelling, reliable, valid, medical and scientific evidence in order for the individual to be considered for compensation. The CICP is administered by the Health Resources and Services Administration, within the Department of Health and Human Services. Information about the CICP is available by telephone at 855-266-2427 (toll-free) or
Any amendments to this Declaration will be published in the
42 U.S.C. 247d-6d.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
This notice is being published less than 15 days prior to the meeting due to the timing limitations imposed by the review and funding cycle.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of a meeting of the National Advisory Eye Council.
The meeting will be open to the public as indicated below, with attendance limited to space available. Individuals who plan to attend and need special assistance, such as sign language interpretation or other reasonable accommodations, should notify the Contact Person listed below in advance of the meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Information is also available on the Institute's/Center's home page:
National Institutes of Health, HHS.
Notice.
The invention listed below is owned by an agency of the U.S. Government and is available for licensing to achieve expeditious commercialization of results of federally-funded research and development. Foreign patent applications are filed on selected inventions to extend market coverage for companies and may also be available for licensing.
Licensing information and copies of the U.S. patent application listed below may be obtained by communicating with the indicated licensing contact at the Technology Transfer and Intellectual Property Office, National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases, 5601 Fishers Lane, Rockville, MD 20852; tel. 301-496-2644. A signed Confidential Disclosure Agreement will be required to receive copies of unpublished patent applications.
Technology description follows.
Zika virus (ZIKV) is a flavivirus transmitted by mosquitos that is strongly linked to neurological complications including Guillain-Barré syndrome, meningoencephalitis, and microcephaly. The association between active ZIKV infection during pregnancy and microcephaly and intrauterine growth retardation in the fetus has been confirmed in murine models of ZIKV infection.
Scientists at NIAID have developed nucleic acid-based vaccine candidates to prevent ZIKV infection in humans. The current lead candidate vaccine is a plasmid DNA vaccine demonstrated to accord protection in preclinical models and is undergoing clinical trial evaluation. Nucleic acid-based vaccines have been developed previously for West Nile virus, another flavivirus similar to Zika (J.E. Ledgerwood, et al. J. Infect. Dis. (2011) 203 (10): 1396-1404). Immunization with the nucleic acid ZIKV vaccine candidate results in production of noninfectious virus like particles (VLPs) made of ZIKV proteins. These ZIKV VLPs elicit an immune response which includes neutralizing antibodies to ZIKV.
Other preclinical ZIKV vaccine candidates include mRNA, protein, and noninfectious VLPs.
NIAID is continuing development of these vaccine candidates. The DNA-based ZIKV vaccine candidate is currently in clinical trials. Consequently, for some fields of use, NIAID will evaluate a license applicant's capabilities and experience in advancing similar technologies through the regulatory process.
This technology is available for licensing for commercial development in accordance with 35 U.S.C. 209 and 37 CFR part 404, as well as for further development and evaluation under a research collaboration. This technology is not eligible for NIH's start up license.
U.S. Customs and Border Protection, Department of Homeland Security.
General notice.
This document announces U.S. Customs and Border Protection's (CBP's) plan to modify and clarify the National Customs Automation Program (NCAP) test pertaining to the processing of post-summary correction (PSC) claims to entry summaries that are filed in the Automated Commercial Environment (ACE), as well as the periodic monthly statement (PMS) test. The modifications made by this notice eliminate some requirements and liberalize certain requirements needed for the filing of a PSC making it easier for importers to file a PSC for additional entry types, and allowing for additional time to make a deposit for duties, fees and taxes owed. With regard to the PMS
The changes made by this notice are effective January 14, 2017.
Comments concerning these test programs may be submitted via email to Monica Crockett at
For policy-related questions, contact John Everett via email at
The National Customs Automation Program (NCAP) was established by Subtitle B of Title VI—Customs Modernization in the North American Free Trade Agreement (NAFTA) Implementation Act (Customs Modernization Act) (Pub. L. 103-182, 107 Stat. 2057, 2170, December 8, 1993) (19 U.S.C. 1411). Through NCAP, the thrust of customs modernization was on trade compliance and the development of the Automated Commercial Environment (ACE), the planned successor to the Automated Commercial System (ACS) as the CBP-authorized electronic data interchange (EDI) system. ACE is an automated and electronic system for commercial trade processing which is intended to streamline business processes, facilitate growth in trade, ensure cargo security, and foster participation in global commerce, while ensuring compliance with U.S. laws and regulations and reducing costs for CBP and all of its communities of interest. The ability to meet these objectives depends on successfully modernizing CBP's business functions and the information technology that supports those functions. CBP's modernization efforts are accomplished through phased releases of ACE component functionality designed to replace specific legacy ACS functions and add new functionality. Section 101.9(b) of title 19 of the Code of Federal Regulations (19 CFR 101.9(b)) provides for the testing of NCAP components.
On June 24, 2011, CBP published a notice in the
On February 4, 2004, CBP published a notice in the
This document announces numerous modifications and clarifications to the PSC and PMS tests. Each modification and clarification is discussed separately below. Except to the extent expressly announced or modified by this document, all aspects, rules, terms, requirements, obligations and conditions announced in previous notices regarding the PSC and PMS tests remain in effect.
This document announces that CBP is expanding the type of entries that may be corrected by filing a PSC, in addition to the current entry types 01 (Consumption—Free and Dutiable) and 03 (Consumption—Antidumping/Countervailing Duty). The additional entry types are as follows:
When filing a PSC for an entry of merchandise subject to quota, the date and time of submission will be considered the date and time of presentation of the merchandise to CBP. If a PSC is filed on an entry with merchandise subject to quota, and the quota is full or nearly full at threshold, the PSC filer must do two things. The filer must follow the Entry Summary Business Rules and Process Document on
This document announces that if a PSC is filed that increases the importer's liability for duties, fees or taxes, the importer must deposit those additional duties, fees and taxes within three business days of submitting the PSC. No additional PSCs can be filed until those duties, fees and taxes are deposited.
Previously, a filer under the PSC test could not change a type 03 entry to a type 01 entry.
This notice announces a change in CBP policy which will allow an importer to deposit new or additional antidumping and/or countervailing duties within three business days of submitting the PSC. However, no additional PSCs can be filed until the duties are deposited. Previously, when a PSC declared that an entry was corrected to indicate it was subject to antidumping and/or countervailing duties, or a greater amount of antidumping and/or countervailing duties was owed, and those duties were not deposited at the time of submitting the PSC, CBP would reject the PSC.
On June 24, 2011, CBP announced in the
On November 19, 2013, CBP published a notice in the
This notice announces that CBP will consider a PMS as paid, in the event the importer uses the Automated Clearing House (ACH) debit process, when CBP receives confirmation from the Treasury Department that funds are available and transferred to CBP from the financial institution designated by the importer for payment of the ACH debit authorization. Prior to this modification, CBP considered a PMS as paid when CBP transmitted the debit authorization to the designated financial institution.
A chronological listing of
• ACE Portal Accounts and Subsequent Revision Notices: 67 FR 21800 (May 1, 2002); 69 FR 5360 and 69 FR 5362 (February 4, 2004); 69 FR 54302 (September 8, 2004); 70 FR 5199 (February 1, 2005).
• ACE System of Records Notice: 71 FR 3109 (January 19, 2006).
• Terms/Conditions for Access to the ACE Portal and Subsequent Revisions: 72 FR 27632 (May 16, 2007); 73 FR 38464 (July 7, 2008).
• ACE Non-Portal Accounts and Related Notice: 70 FR 61466 (October 24, 2005); 71 FR 15756 (March 29, 2006).
• ACE Entry Summary, Accounts and Revenue (ESAR I) Capabilities: 72 FR 59105 (October 18, 2007).
• ACE Entry Summary, Accounts and Revenue (ESAR II) Capabilities: 73 FR 50337 (August 26, 2008); 74 FR 9826 (March 6, 2009).
• ACE Entry Summary, Accounts and Revenue (ESAR III) Capabilities: 74 FR 69129 (December 30, 2009).
• ACE Entry Summary, Accounts and Revenue (ESAR IV) Capabilities: 76 FR 37136 (June 24, 2011).
• Post-Entry Amendment (PEA) Processing Test: 76 FR 37136 (June 24, 2011).
• ACE Announcement of a New Start Date for the National Customs Automation Program Test of Automated Manifest Capabilities for Ocean and Rail Carriers: 76 FR 42721 (July 19, 2011).
• ACE Simplified Entry: 76 FR 69755 (November 9, 2011).
• National Customs Automation Program (NCAP) Tests Concerning Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) Document Image System (DIS): 77 FR 20835 (April 6, 2012).
• National Customs Automation Program (NCAP) Tests Concerning Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) Simplified Entry: Modification of Participant Selection Criteria and Application Process: 77 FR 48527 (August 14, 2012).
• Modification of National Customs Automation Program (NCAP) Test Regarding Reconciliation for Filing Certain Post-Importation Preferential Tariff Treatment Claims under Certain FTAs: 78 FR 27984 (May 13, 2013).
• Modification of Two National Customs Automation Program (NCAP) Tests Concerning Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) Document Image System (DIS) and Simplified Entry (SE): 78 FR 44142 (July 23, 2013).
• Modification of Two National Customs Automation Program (NCAP) Tests Concerning Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) Document Image System (DIS) and Simplified Entry (SE); Correction: 78 FR 53466 (August 29, 2013).
• Modification of National Customs Automation Program Test Concerning Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) Cargo Release (formerly known as Simplified Entry): 78 FR 66039 (November 4, 2013).
• Post-Summary Corrections to Entry Summaries Filed in ACE Pursuant to the ESAR IV Test: Modifications and Clarifications: 78 FR 69434 (November 19, 2013).
• National Customs Automation Program (NCAP) Test Concerning the Submission of Certain Data Required by the Environmental Protection Agency and the Food Safety and Inspection Service Using the Partner Government Agency Message Set Through the Automated Commercial Environment (ACE): 78 FR 75931 (December 13, 2013).
• Modification of National Customs Automation Program (NCAP) Test Concerning Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) Cargo Release for Ocean and Rail Carriers: 79 FR 6210 (February 3, 2014).
• Modification of National Customs Automation Program (NCAP) Test Concerning Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) Cargo Release to Allow Importers and Brokers to Certify From ACE Entry Summary: 79 FR 24744 (May 1, 2014).
• Modification of National Customs Automation Program (NCAP) Test Concerning Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) Cargo Release for Truck Carriers: 79 FR 25142 (May 2, 2014).
• Modification of National Customs Automation Program (NCAP) Test Concerning Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) Document Image System: 79 FR 36083 (June 25, 2014).
• Announcement of eBond Test: 79 FR 70881 (November 28, 2014).
• eBond Test Modifications and Clarifications: Continuous Bond Executed Prior to or Outside the eBond Test May Be Converted to an eBond by the Surety and Principal, Termination of an eBond by Filing Identification Number, and Email Address Correction: 80 FR 899 (January 7, 2015).
• Modification of National Customs Automation Program (NCAP) Test Concerning Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) Document Image System Relating to Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service (APHIS) Document Submissions: 80 FR 5126 (January 30, 2015).
• Modification of National Customs Automation Program (NCAP) Test Concerning the use of Partner Government Agency Message Set through the Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) for the Submission of Certain Data Required by the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA): 80 FR 6098 (February 4, 2015).
• Announcement of Modification of ACE Cargo Release Test to Permit the Combined Filing of Cargo Release and Importer Security Filing (ISF) Data: 80 FR 7487 (February 10, 2015).
• Modification of NCAP Test Concerning ACE Cargo Release for Type 03 Entries and Advanced Capabilities for Truck Carriers: 80 FR 16414 (March 27, 2015).
• Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) Export Manifest for Air Cargo Test: 80 FR 39790 (July 10, 2015).
• National Customs Automation Program (NCAP) Concerning Remote Location Filing Entry Procedures in the Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) and the Use of the Document Image System for the Submission of Invoices and the Use of eBonds for the Transmission of Single Transaction Bonds: 80 FR 40079 (July 13, 2015).
• Modification of National Customs Automation Program (NCAP) Test Concerning the Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) Partner Government Agency (PGA) Message Set Regarding Types of Transportation Modes and Certain Data Required by the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA): 80 FR 47938 (August 10, 2015).
• Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) Export Manifest for Vessel Cargo Test: 80 FR 50644 (August 20, 2015).
• Modification of National Customs Automation Program (NCAP) Test Concerning the Submission of Certain Data Required by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) Using the Partner Government Agency Message Set through the Automated Commercial Environment (ACE): 80 FR 52051 (August 27, 2015).
• Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) Export Manifest for Rail Cargo Test: 80 FR 54305 (September 9, 2015).
• Modification of the National Customs Automation Program (NCAP) Test Concerning the Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) Document Image System (DIS) Regarding Future Updates and New Method of Submission of Accepted Documents: 80 FR 62082 (October 15, 2015).
• Modification of the National Customs Automation Program (NCAP) Test Concerning the Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) Cargo Release for Entry Type 52 and Certain Other Modes of Transportation: 80 FR 63576 (October 20, 2015).
• Modification of the National Customs Automation Program (NCAP) Test Concerning the Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) Entry Summary, Accounts and Revenue (ESAR) Test of Automated Entry Summary Types 51 and 52 and Certain Modes of Transportation: 80 FR 63815 (October 21, 2015).
• Modification of the National Customs Automation Program Test Concerning the Automated Commercial Environment Portal Account to Establish the Exporter Portal Account: 80 FR 63817 (October 21, 2015).
• Modification of National Customs Automation Program Test Concerning the Automated Commercial Environment Partner Government Agency Message Set Regarding the Toxic Substances Control Act Certification Required by the Environmental Protection Agency: 81 FR 7133 (February 10, 2016).
• Notice Announcing the Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) as the Sole CBP-Authorized Electronic Data Interchange (EDI) System for Processing Certain Electronic Entry and Entry Summary Filings: 81 FR 10264 (February 29, 2016).
• Modification of the National Customs Automation Program (NCAP); Test Concerning the Partner Government Agency Message Set for Certain Data Required by the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA): 81 FR 13399 (March 14, 2016).
• Cessation of National Customs Automation Program (NCAP) Test Concerning the Submission of Certain Data Required by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) Using the Partner Government Agency (PGA) Message Set Through the Automated Commercial Environment (ACE): 81 FR 18634 (March 31, 2016).
• Automated Commercial Environment (ACE); Announcement of National Customs Automation Program Test of the In-Transit Manifest Pilot Program: 81 FR 24837 (April 27, 2016).
• Announcement of National Customs Automation Program (NCAP) Test Concerning the Submission through the Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) of Certain Import Data and Documents Required by the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service: 81 FR 27149 (May 5, 2016).
• Notice Announcing the Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) as the Sole CBP-Authorized Electronic Data Interchange (EDI) System for Processing Certain Electronic Entry and Entry Summary Filings Accompanied by Food and Drug Administration (FDA) Data: 81 FR 30320 (May 16, 2016).
• Notice Announcing the Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) as the Sole CBP-Authorized Electronic Data Interchange (EDI) System for Processing Electronic Entry and Entry Summary Filings: 81 FR 32339 (May 23, 2016).
• Notice Announcing the Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) Protest Module as the Sole CBP-Authorized Method for Filing Electronic Protests: 81 FR 49685 (July 28, 2016).
• Modification of the National Customs Automation Program (NCAP) Test Concerning the Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) Portal Accounts to Establish the Protest Filer Account and Clarification that the Terms and Conditions for Account Access Apply to all ACE Portal Accounts: 81 FR 52453 (August 8, 2016).
• National Customs Automation Program (NCAP) Test Concerning Electronic Filing of Protests in the Automated Commercial Environment (ACE): 81 FR 53497 (August 12, 2016).
U.S. Customs and Border Protection, Department of Homeland Security.
General notice.
On August 30, 2016, U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) published a notice in the
Questions related to this notice may be emailed to
On August 30, 2016, U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) published a notice in the
This notice announces that the new effective date for the transition will be January 14, 2017. At that time, ACE will become the sole CBP-authorized EDI system for electronic drawback and duty deferral entry and entry summary filings, and ACS will no longer be a CBP-authorized EDI system for purposes of processing these electronic filings.
U.S. Customs and Border Protection, Department of Homeland Security.
General notice.
This document announces U.S. Customs and Border Protection's (CBP's) plan to modify the National Customs Automation Program (NCAP) test regarding reconciliation, and the transition of the test from the Automated Commercial System (ACS) to the Automated Commercial Environment (ACE). The modifications made by this notice eliminate several requirements for participation in the test, impose new data requirements, and establish the requirement that reconciliation entries be filed in ACE beginning January 14, 2017, regardless of whether the underlying entry was filed in ACS or ACE. Except to the extent expressly announced or modified by this document, all aspects, rules, terms and conditions announced in previous notices regarding the reconciliation test remain in effect.
The changes made by this notice are effective January 14, 2017.
Comments concerning this test program may be submitted any time during the test via email, with a subject line identifier reading, “Comment on Reconciliation test”, to
Acenitha Kennedy, Entry Summary and Revenue Branch, Trade Policy and Programs, Office of Trade at (202) 863-6064 or
The National Customs Automation Program (NCAP) was established by Subtitle B of Title VI—Customs Modernization in the North American Free Trade Agreement (NAFTA) Implementation Act (Customs Modernization Act) (Pub. L. 103-182, 107 Stat. 2057, 2170, December 8, 1993) (19 U.S.C. 1411). Through NCAP, the thrust of customs modernization was on trade compliance and the development of the Automated Commercial Environment (ACE), the planned successor to the Automated Commercial System (ACS) as the CBP-authorized electronic data interchange (EDI) system. ACE is an automated and electronic system for commercial trade processing which is intended to streamline business processes, facilitate growth in trade, ensure cargo security, and foster participation in global commerce, while ensuring compliance with U.S. laws and regulations and reducing costs for U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) and all of its communities of interest. The ability to meet these objectives depends on successfully modernizing CBP's business functions and the information technology that supports those functions. CBP's modernization efforts are accomplished through phased releases of ACE component functionality designed to replace specific legacy ACS functions and add new functionality. Section 637 of the Customs Modernization Act amended Section 484 of the Tariff Act of 1930 to establish a new section (b), entitled “Reconciliation”, a planned component of the NCAP. (19 U.S.C. 1484(b)).
Reconciliation is the process that allows an importer, at the time an entry
Section 101.9(b) of title 19 of the Code of Federal Regulations (19 CFR 101.9(b)) provides for the testing of NCAP components.
The previously published
The flagged entry summary (the underlying entry summary) is liquidated by CBP for all aspects of the entry except those issues that were flagged. Upon liquidation of an underlying entry summary, any decision by CBP entering into that liquidation,
CBP reminds test participants that the filing of a reconciliation entry, like the filing of a regular consumption entry, is governed by 19 U.S.C. 1484 and can be done only by an importer of record who is required to exercise reasonable care in filing the underlying entry summary, flagging issues for later reconciliation, and filing the reconciliation entry. Importers must also be aware of the distinction between prior disclosure and reconciliation. A prior disclosure exists when a person discloses the circumstances of a violation of 19 U.S.C. 1592 pursuant to CBP regulations. The person disclosing this information must do so before, or without knowledge of, the commencement of a formal investigation of that violation. Under reconciliation, the importer is not disclosing a violation, but rather identifying information which is indeterminable and will be provided at a later time when the reconciliation entry is filed.
Over the last several years, CBP has tested ACE and provided significant public outreach to ensure that the trade community is fully aware of the transition from ACS to ACE. On October 13, 2015, CBP published an Interim Final Rule in the
CBP has developed a staggered transition strategy for decommissioning ACS. The first phase of the transition was announced in a
This document announces numerous modifications to the reconciliation test and the transition of the test from ACS to the Automated Commercial Environment (ACE). Each modification and the transition from ACS to ACE are discussed separately below. Except to the extent expressly announced or modified by this document, all aspects, rules, terms, requirements, obligations and conditions announced in previous notices regarding the reconciliation test
This document announces that beginning January 14, 2017, all reconciliation entries must be filed in ACE regardless of whether the underlying entry was filed in ACS or ACE and regardless of whether it is a replacement, substitution or follow-up to a reconciliation entry originally filed in ACS. As of January 14, 2017, ACS is decommissioned for the filing of reconciliation entries.
This document announces that CBP is eliminating the requirement that reconciliation entries be filed at specified reconciliation processing ports. Beginning on January 14, 2017, reconciliation entries may be filed in ACE at any CBP port. CBP reminds importers and customs brokers that the filing of a reconciliation entry is considered customs business under 19 U.S.C. 1641, which requires that a broker wishing to file a reconciliation entry have a district or national permit authorizing the broker to file the reconciliation entry at the port where the reconciliation entry is filed.
This document announces that, except for suspended parties wishing to be reinstated into the test, CBP is removing the requirement that interested importers apply to participate in this test. Beginning January 14, 2017, CBP is opening this test to all non-suspended importers without any need for interested importers to apply and be accepted into the test. The only importers who may not participate in this test,
Importers wishing to participate in the test are still required, as a precondition to participation, to have a continuous bond on file with CBP with the required reconciliation bond rider. An importer without the required reconciliation bond rider will be unable to flag underlying entries.
This document announces that CBP is streamlining the process for blanket flagging underlying entries for reconciliation. Prior to the changes announced herein, importers provided CBP a request asking that CBP input and apply a blanket flag to all underlying entries filed by the importer for a specific time period. Importers also identified the specific issue(s) for which they requested that CBP input and apply the requested blanket flag. This document announces that effective January 14, 2017, importers no longer will submit requests asking that CBP apply a blanket flag on their behalf. Instead, importers may input and apply a blanket flag themselves. Importers who use blanket flagging must continue to identify the issue(s) they are flagging.
This document announces that beginning January 14, 2017, all test participants may request that CBP retroactively flag underlying entries on their behalf. A request may be made by sending an email to
This document announces that reconciliation entries filed in ACE will be fully automated and all required data and information must be transmitted electronically on the reconciliation entry. Reconciliation entries must continue to be filed using the Automated Broker Interface (ABI). This document also announces that paper and compact disc spreadsheets will no longer be accepted as part of the filing of reconciliation entries. The data formerly contained in the associated files and spreadsheets, reduced as explained in section G below, will be transmitted electronically as part of the reconciliation entry.
This document announces that reconciliation entries with no changes to flagged entries must only report the flagged underlying entry numbers (no line item data) and must be filed as an aggregate reconciliation entry,
This document announces that reconciliation entry filers must check a checkbox indicating if a prior disclosure has been made on any of the flagged underlying entries. If no prior disclosure was made, the checkbox should not be
This document also announces that the Masterfile Extract and Liquidation Extract Reports that CBP provided upon request, for a fee, will be discontinued in both paper and diskette form as soon as that information is available in an ACE report CBP will be discontinuing the issuance of the Masterfile and Liquidation Extract reports because the information usually contained in these reports will be available free of charge in ACE reports for those parties having an ACE Portal Account. For information on ACE Portal Accounts please see CBP's general notice published in the
A chronological listing of
• ACE Portal Accounts and Subsequent Revision Notices: 67 FR 21800 (May 1, 2002); 69
• ACE System of Records Notice: 71 FR 3109 (January 19, 2006).
• Terms/Conditions for Access to the ACE Portal and Subsequent Revisions: 72 FR 27632 (May 16, 2007); 73 FR 38464 (July 7, 2008).
• ACE Non-Portal Accounts and Related Notice: 70 FR 61466 (October 24, 2005); 71 FR 15756 (March 29, 2006).
• ACE Entry Summary, Accounts and Revenue (ESAR I) Capabilities: 72 FR 59105 (October 18, 2007).
• ACE Entry Summary, Accounts and Revenue (ESAR II) Capabilities: 73 FR 50337 (August 26, 2008); 74 FR 9826 (March 6, 2009).
• ACE Entry Summary, Accounts and Revenue (ESAR III) Capabilities: 74 FR 69129 (December 30, 2009).
• ACE Entry Summary, Accounts and Revenue (ESAR IV) Capabilities: 76 FR 37136 (June 24, 2011).
• Post-Entry Amendment (PEA) Processing Test: 76 FR 37136 (June 24, 2011).
• ACE Announcement of a New Start Date for the National Customs Automation Program Test of Automated Manifest Capabilities for Ocean and Rail Carriers: 76 FR 42721 (July 19, 2011).
• ACE Simplified Entry: 76 FR 69755 (November 9, 2011).
• National Customs Automation Program (NCAP) Tests Concerning Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) Document Image System (DIS): 77 FR 20835 (April 6, 2012).
• National Customs Automation Program (NCAP) Tests Concerning Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) Simplified Entry: Modification of Participant Selection Criteria and Application Process: 77 FR 48527 (August 14, 2012).
• Modification of National Customs Automation Program (NCAP) Test Regarding Reconciliation for Filing Certain Post-Importation Preferential Tariff Treatment Claims under Certain FTAs: 78 FR 27984 (May 13, 2013).
• Modification of Two National Customs Automation Program (NCAP) Tests Concerning Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) Document Image System (DIS) and Simplified Entry (SE): 78 FR 44142 (July 23, 2013).
• Modification of Two National Customs Automation Program (NCAP) Tests Concerning Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) Document Image System (DIS) and Simplified Entry (SE); Correction: 78 FR 53466 (August 29, 2013).
• Modification of National Customs Automation Program Test Concerning Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) Cargo Release (formerly known as Simplified Entry): 78 FR 66039 (November 4, 2013).
• Post-Summary Corrections to Entry Summaries Filed in ACE Pursuant to the ESAR IV Test: Modifications and Clarifications: 78 FR 69434 (November 19, 2013).
• National Customs Automation Program (NCAP) Test Concerning the Submission of Certain Data Required by the Environmental Protection Agency and the Food Safety and Inspection Service Using the Partner Government Agency Message Set Through the Automated Commercial Environment (ACE): 78 FR 75931 (December 13, 2013).
• Modification of National Customs Automation Program (NCAP) Test Concerning Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) Cargo Release for Ocean and Rail Carriers: 79 FR 6210 (February 3, 2014).
• Modification of National Customs Automation Program (NCAP) Test Concerning Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) Cargo Release to Allow Importers and Brokers to Certify From ACE Entry Summary: 79 FR 24744 (May 1, 2014).
• Modification of National Customs Automation Program (NCAP) Test Concerning Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) Cargo Release for Truck Carriers: 79 FR 25142 (May 2, 2014).
• Modification of National Customs Automation Program (NCAP) Test Concerning Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) Document Image System: 79 FR 36083 (June 25, 2014).
• Announcement of eBond Test: 79 FR 70881 (November 28, 2014).
• eBond Test Modifications and Clarifications: Continuous Bond Executed Prior to or Outside the eBond Test May Be Converted to an eBond by the Surety and Principal, Termination of an eBond by Filing Identification Number, and Email Address Correction: 80 FR 899 (January 7, 2015).
• Modification of National Customs Automation Program (NCAP) Test Concerning Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) Document Image System Relating to Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service (APHIS) Document Submissions: 80 FR 5126 (January 30, 2015).
• Modification of National Customs Automation Program (NCAP) Test Concerning the use of Partner Government Agency Message Set through the Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) for the Submission of Certain Data Required by the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA): 80 FR 6098 (February 4, 2015).
• Announcement of Modification of ACE Cargo Release Test to Permit the Combined Filing of Cargo Release and Importer Security Filing (ISF) Data: 80 FR 7487 (February 10, 2015).
• Modification of NCAP Test Concerning ACE Cargo Release for Type 03 Entries and Advanced Capabilities for Truck Carriers: 80 FR 16414 (March 27, 2015).
• Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) Export Manifest for Air Cargo Test: 80 FR 39790 (July 10, 2015).
• National Customs Automation Program (NCAP) Concerning Remote Location Filing Entry Procedures in the Automated Commercial Environment
• Modification of National Customs Automation Program (NCAP) Test Concerning the Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) Partner Government Agency (PGA) Message Set Regarding Types of Transportation Modes and Certain Data Required by the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA): 80 FR 47938 (August 10, 2015).
• Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) Export Manifest for Vessel Cargo Test: 80 FR 50644 (August 20, 2015).
• Modification of National Customs Automation Program (NCAP) Test Concerning the Submission of Certain Data Required by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) Using the Partner Government Agency Message Set through the Automated Commercial Environment (ACE): 80 FR 52051 (August 27, 2015).
• Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) Export Manifest for Rail Cargo Test: 80 FR 54305 (September 9, 2015).
• Modification of the National Customs Automation Program (NCAP) Test Concerning the Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) Document Image System (DIS) Regarding Future Updates and New Method of Submission of Accepted Documents: 80 FR 62082 (October 15, 2015).
• Modification of the National Customs Automation Program (NCAP) Test Concerning the Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) Cargo Release for Entry Type 52 and Certain Other Modes of Transportation: 80 FR 63576 (October 20, 2015).
• Modification of the National Customs Automation Program (NCAP) Test Concerning the Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) Entry Summary, Accounts and Revenue (ESAR) Test of Automated Entry Summary Types 51 and 52 and Certain Modes of Transportation: 80 FR 63815 (October 21, 2015).
• Modification of the National Customs Automation Program Test Concerning the Automated Commercial Environment Portal Account to Establish the Exporter Portal Account: 80 FR 63817 (October 21, 2015).
• Modification of National Customs Automation Program Test Concerning the Automated Commercial Environment Partner Government Agency Message Set Regarding the Toxic Substances Control Act Certification Required by the Environmental Protection Agency: 81 FR 7133 (February 10, 2016).
• Notice Announcing the Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) as the Sole CBP-Authorized Electronic Data Interchange (EDI) System for Processing Certain Electronic Entry and Entry Summary Filings: 81 FR 10264 (February 29, 2016).
• Modification of the National Customs Automation Program (NCAP); Test Concerning the Partner Government Agency Message Set for Certain Data Required by the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA): 81 FR 13399 (March 14, 2016).
• Cessation of National Customs Automation Program (NCAP) Test Concerning the Submission of Certain Data Required by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) Using the Partner Government Agency (PGA) Message Set Through the Automated Commercial Environment (ACE): 81 FR 18634 (March 31, 2016).
• Automated Commercial Environment (ACE); Announcement of National Customs Automation Program Test of the In-Transit Manifest Pilot Program: 81 FR 24837 (April 27, 2016).
• Announcement of National Customs Automation Program (NCAP) Test Concerning the Submission through the Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) of Certain Import Data and Documents Required by the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service: 81 FR 27149 (May 5, 2016).
• Notice Announcing the Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) as the Sole CBP-Authorized Electronic Data Interchange (EDI) System for Processing Certain Electronic Entry and Entry Summary Filings Accompanied by Food and Drug Administration (FDA) Data: 81 FR 30320 (May 16, 2016).
• Notice Announcing the Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) as the Sole CBP-Authorized Electronic Data Interchange (EDI) System for Processing Electronic Entry and Entry Summary Filings: 81 FR 32339 (May 23, 2016).
• Notice Announcing the Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) Protest Module as the Sole CBP-Authorized Method for Filing Electronic Protests: 81 FR 49685 (July 28, 2016).
• Modification of the National Customs Automation Program (NCAP) Test Concerning the Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) Portal Accounts to Establish the Protest Filer Account and Clarification that the Terms and Conditions for Account Access Apply to all ACE Portal Accounts: 81 FR 52453 (August 8, 2016).
• National Customs Automation Program (NCAP) Test Concerning Electronic Filing of Protests in the Automated Commercial Environment (ACE): 81 FR 53497 (August 12, 2016).
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Notice.
The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) will submit the information collection abstracted below to the Office of Management and Budget for review and clearance in accordance with the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The submission will describe the nature of the information collection, the categories of respondents, the estimated burden (
Comments must be submitted on or before January 11, 2017.
Submit written comments on the proposed information collection to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget. Comments should be addressed to the Desk Officer for the Department of Homeland Security, Federal Emergency Management Agency, and sent via electronic mail to
Requests for additional information or copies of the information collection should be made to Director, Records Management Division, 500 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472-3100, or email address
This information collection previously published in the
The HSGP is a primary funding mechanism for building and sustaining national preparedness capabilities. The HSGP is comprised of three separate grant programs: The SHSP, the UASI, and OPSG. Together, these grants fund a range of preparedness activities, including planning, organization, equipment purchase, training, exercises, and management and administration costs. The OPSG will begin to utilize the Office of Management and Budget's web-based portal MAX.GOV, at
Office of the Assistant Secretary for Public and Indian Housing, HUD.
Notice.
This notice advises the public that HUD has established an expedited process for the review of requests for relief from HUD regulatory and/or administrative requirements (“HUD requirements”) for public housing agencies (PHAs) that are located in a parish of Louisiana that has been declared a federal disaster area due to severe storms and flooding. Specifically, these PHAs may request waivers of HUD requirements and receive expedited review of such requests.
Denise M. Cotten, Office of Field Operations, Office of Public and Indian Housing, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 Seventh Street SW., Room 4112, Washington, DC 20410-5000, telephone number (202) 402-4313. Persons with hearing or speech impairments may access this number via TTY by calling the Federal Information Relay Service at (800) 877-8339.
From March 8 through April 8, 2016, more than 3 dozen parishes in Louisiana experienced severe storms and flooding. A Major Disaster Declaration covering these parishes
In order to provide relief from certain HUD requirements governing programs administered by the Office of Public and Indian Housing (PIH) to PHAs that are located in areas covered by MDD(s) 4263 and/or 4277 (MDD PHAs), HUD is publishing this notice. The notice describes a number of flexibilities that are available to such PHAs, lists HUD requirements that HUD is willing to waive upon request from a PHA, and provides for the expedited review of waiver requests. HUD is publishing this notice to assist MDD PHAs in responding to these major disaster declarations and in contributing to long-term recovery.
The notice is organized as follows:
• Section II opens with a description of flexibilities that are available to MDD PHAs, where such flexibilities are built into statute and/or regulation. MDD PHAs may avail themselves of these flexibilities, following the process described in Section IV of the notice.
• Section III describes certain HUD requirements that, if waived, may facilitate an MDD PHA's ability to participate in relief and recovery efforts. An MDD PHA may request a waiver of a HUD requirement not listed in Section III and receive expedited review of the request if the MDD PHA demonstrates that the waiver is needed in order to assist in its relief and recovery efforts.
• Section IV describes the process HUD has established for MDD PHAs to provide notice to and/or request approval from HUD regarding statutory or regulatory flexibilities and/or to request waivers of HUD requirements. Waiver requests will be handled on an expedited, case-by-case basis. Consistent with section 7(q) of the Department of Housing and Urban Development Act (42 U.S.C. 3535(q)), a regulated party that seeks a waiver of HUD regulations must request a waiver from HUD in writing. The waiver request must specify the need for the waiver. Typically, the request is submitted to the HUD field office, which reviews the request and submits its recommendation to HUD headquarters. HUD headquarters then responds to the regulated party in writing. Since the damage to property and the displacement of families and individuals in the disaster areas is massive, and the need for relief from HUD requirements may be necessary, HUD will expedite the processing of waiver requests from MDD PHAs, providing for concurrent review by the HUD field office and HUD headquarters.
Waiver requests approved by HUD pursuant to this notice will be published in the
HUD is exercising discretionary authority to provide relief from the requirements described in this section. Upon notification to HUD or upon HUD approval, as noted below, relief is granted to MDD PHAs. Relief from the requirements must benefit families affected by the disasters, for example by enabling MDD PHA staff to focus on relief and recovery efforts. Section IV of this notice describes the process an MDD PHA must follow to provide notification to and/or to request approval from HUD. Such notification and/or request must be made by January 26, 2017.
For an MDD PHA, HUD will review requests for waivers of HUD requirements on an expedited basis. This section lists requirements for which HUD anticipates receiving such requests. An MDD PHA may also request a waiver of a HUD requirement not listed in this section and receive expedited review of the request if the MDD PHA documents that the waiver is needed for relief and recovery purposes.
HUD expects that any waiver granted pursuant to this notice will benefit families affected by the disasters, for example by enabling MDD PHA staff to focus on relief and recovery efforts.
An MDD PHA seeking a waiver of a HUD requirement listed below or of any other HUD requirement needed to assist the MDD PHA in its relief and recover efforts must submit a waiver request pursuant to the process outlined in Section IV of this notice. HUD will not approve an MDD PHA's or other recipient's request to waive a fair housing, civil rights, labor standards, or environmental requirement. The request must be submitted to HUD not later than January 26, 2017.
HUD has developed a checklist (Attachment A to this notice) that an MDD PHA must complete and submit in order to take advantage of the provisions identified in this notice and the expedited review of waiver requests. Each provision on the checklist indicates the documentation that must accompany the MDD PHA's submission. Each request for a waiver (Section 3 of the checklist) must include a good-cause justification stating why the particular waiver is needed for the PHA's relief and recovery efforts.
To complete the checklist, take the following steps:
1. Download the checklist to your computer, saving the document with the following filename: FR-5987-N-01.Your Agency's HA Code (
2. Complete the section titled Information about Requesting Agency. This section must be complete. An official of the MDD PHA must sign where indicated. If the information about the requesting agency is incomplete or the checklist has not been signed, then the checklist will be returned without review.
3. Complete Sections 1, 2, and/or 3 of the checklist, as applicable, noting the documentation (if any) that accompanies each provision.
4. Address an email to both
5. Attach the completed checklist to your email.
6. Click “Send.”
Checklists and any supporting documentation or information must be submitted not later than January 26, 2017. Requests submitted after January 26, 2017 will not be considered, nor will HUD consider any waiver requests submitted to this email address that are unrelated to relief and recovery efforts.
A Finding of No Significant Impact (FONSI) with respect to the environment has been made in accordance with HUD regulations at 24 CFR part 50, which implement section 102(2)(C) of the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4332(2)(C)). The FONSI is available for public inspection between 8 a.m. and 5 p.m. weekdays in the Regulations Division, Office of General Counsel, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street SW., Room 10276, Washington, DC 20410-0500. Due to security measures at the HUD Headquarters building, an advance appointment to review the docket file must be scheduled by Calling the Regulations Division at 202-708-3055 (this is not a toll-free number). Hearing-or speech-impaired individuals may access this number through TTY by calling the Federal Relay Service at 800-877-8339 (this is a toll-free number).
My agency requests that HUD extend the deadline for the obligation and expenditure of Capital Funds for an additional 12 months. We will maintain documentation substantiating the need for this extension.
My agency submits the certification required by 24 CFR 984.103 and will operate an FSS program that is smaller than the required program size for up to 24 months from December 12, 2016
My agency requests HUD approval to treat certain public housing units in our inventory as approved vacancies. I have attached a project-by-project listing of the units for which this approval is requested. I understand that any units that remain vacant shall be considered approved vacancies only for a period not to exceed 12 months from the date of HUD approval.
An MDD PHA may request a waiver of a HUD requirement listed below or of any other HUD requirement and receive expedited review of the request, as long as the MDD PHA demonstrates that the waiver is needed for relief and recovery purposes. Each request must include a good-cause justification for the particular waiver, documenting why the waiver is needed for such purposes. No requested waiver may be implemented unless and until written approval from HUD has been obtained.
My agency requests a waiver of 24 CFR 5.512(d) to extend the timeframe for secondary verification requests to Immigration and Customs Enforcement from 30 to 90 days. I understand that, if approved, this waiver will be in effect for a period not to exceed 12 months from the date of HUD approval.
My agency requests a waiver of 24 CFR 5.801(c) to extend the deadline for reporting of financial information by 180 days and of 24 CFR 5.801(d)(1) to extend the reporting deadlines for unaudited financial statements by 180 days and audited financial statements by 4 months. My PHA has a fiscal year end of 9/30/16, 12/31/16, or 3/31/17.
My agency requests a waiver of the inspection and scoring of public housing projects, as required under 24 CFR 902. My agency has a fiscal year end of 6/30/16, 9/30/16, 12/13/16, or 3/31/17.
My agency requests a waiver of 24 CFR 905.322(b) to extend the deadline for submission of the Actual Development Cost Certificate and the Actual Modernization Cost Certificate by 12 months.
My agency requests a waiver of 24 CFR 905.314(b)-(c), which establish the calculation of maximum project cost and total development cost limits for the Capital Fund program. I understand that this waiver is in effect only until such time as 2017 TDC limits have been published.
My agency requests a waiver of 24 CFR 904.314(j) to allow for the use of force account labor for modernization activities even if this activity has not been included in our agency's 5-Year Action Plan. I understand that this waiver will be in effect for a period not to exceed 12 months from the date of HUD approval.
My agency requests a waiver of 24 CFR 905.400(i)(5) to allow for the use of Capital Fund Replacement Housing Factor grants with undisbursed balances for public housing modernization. I understand that this waiver will be in effect only for funds obligated within 12 months from the date of HUD approval.
My agency requests a waiver of 24 CFR 960.202(c) and/or 24 CFR 982.54(a) so that our public housing tenant selection policies and section 8 administrative plan may be revised on a temporary basis, without formal approval, to address circumstances unique to relief and recovery efforts. I have attached documentation that our Board of Commissioners or an authorized PHA official supports the waiver request. I have also attached documentation identifying the temporary revisions. The adoption of these revisions does not constitute a significant amendment to our PHA plan, nor does state law prevent us from adopting the revisions without formal approval. I understand that these revisions will be in effect for a period not to exceed 12 months from the date of HUD's approval.
My agency requests a waiver of 24 CFR 965.302 to provide us with an additional 12 months after December 31, 2016, to complete our audits.
My agency requests a waiver of 24 CFR 982.206(a)(2) so that we can provide public notice of the opening of our waiting list via our Web site, at any of our offices, and/or in
My agency requests to establish an exception payment standard amount that is higher than 110 percent of the published fair market rent (FMR). I have attached our proposed emergency exception payment standard schedule, which shows both the dollar amounts requested and those amounts as a percentage of the FMRs in effect at the time of the request. I understand that any approved exception payment standard will remain in effect until such time as HUD revises the FMRs for the area. I also understand that increased per-family costs resulting from the use of such exception payment standard may result in a reduction in the number of families assisted or may require my agency to adopt other cost-saving measures.
My agency requests a waiver of 24 CFR 982.401(d) so that we may allow families to occupy units that are smaller than our occupancy standards would otherwise dictate. I understand that this waiver is in effect only for HAPs entered into during the 12-month period following the date of HUD approval, and then only with the written consent of the family.
My agency requests a waiver of 24 CFR 982.633(a) so that we may continue HAP for homeownership for families displaced from their homes if needed to comply with mortgage terms or make necessary repairs. We have determined that the family is not receiving assistance from another source. I understand that such payments must cease if the family remains absent from their home for more than 180 consecutive calendar days.
My agency requests a waiver of 24 CFR 984.303(d) so that a family's contract of participation may be extended for up to 3 years. I understand that such extensions may be made only during the 12-month period following the date of HUD approval.
My agency requests a waiver of 24 CFR 985.101(a) so that our SEMAP score from the previous year may be carried over. My agency has a fiscal year end of 9/30/16, 12/31/16, or 3/31/17.
My agency requests a waiver of section 8(c) of Notice PIH 2012-10 to allow for the submission of Form HUD-50058 90 calendars days from receipt of an applicant's or participant's SSN documentation. I understand that this waiver will be in effect for a period not to exceed 12 months from the date of HUD approval.
My agency seeks waivers of the HUD requirements listed below. I have included documentation justifying the need for the waivers.
Office of the Secretary, HUD.
Notice of Delegation of Authority.
Under the Residential Lead- Based Paint Hazard Reduction Act of 1992, the Office of Lead Hazard Control and Healthy Homes (OLHCHH) is authorized to develop, demonstrate, and promote measures to correct lead-based paint-related health and safety hazards in the home environment that affect children, particularly of low-income families. In this notice, the Secretary delegates to the Director of OLHCHH, all authority pursuant to the Lead-Based Paint Poisoning Prevention Act, the Residential Lead-Based Paint Hazard Reduction Act of 1992, sections 501 and 502 of the Housing and Urban Development Act of 1970, and authorizing legislation pertaining to lead hazard control and healthy homes contained within annual appropriations acts, for matters pertaining to lead hazard control and healthy homes. This includes oversight and enforcement of the Lead Disclosure Rule as well as oversight of the Lead Safe Housing Rule for all HUD programs and enforcement of the Lead Safe Housing Rule for Multifamily Housing programs, the Single Family Asset Management program, and Public and Indian Housing (PIH) programs. PIH enforcement actions include coordination with the appropriate PIH field office.
Karen Griego, Program Environmental Clearance Officer, OLHCHH, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 500 Gold Avenue SW., Suite 7301, P.O. Box 906, Albuquerque, NM 87103-0906, telephone number (505) 346-6462 (this is not a toll-free number). Persons with hearing- or speech-impairments may access this number through TTY by calling the toll-free Federal Relay Service at 1-800-877-8339.
OLHCHH was created by the Departments of Veterans Affairs and Housing and Urban Development, and Independent Agencies Appropriations Act of 1992 (Pub. L. 102-139, October 28, 1991). Under the Residential Lead-Based Paint Hazard Reduction Act of 1992, OLHCHH is authorized to develop, demonstrate, and promote measures to correct lead-based paint related health and safety hazards in the home environment that affect children, particularly of low-income families.
The Secretary hereby delegates to the Director of OLHCHH, all authority of the Secretary pursuant to the Lead-Based Paint Poisoning Prevention Act (42 U.S.C. 4821
The authority delegated in this document does not include the authority to sue or be sued or to issue or waive regulations.
The Secretary authorizes the Director of OLHCHH to redelegate the authority described in Section A.
This delegation supersedes all previous delegations of authority to OLHCHH. The Secretary may revoke the authority authorized herein, in whole or part, at any time.
Section 7(d) of the Department of Housing and Urban Development Act (42 U.S.C. 3535(d)).
Fish and Wildlife Service, Interior.
Notice of availability.
We, the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (Service), announce the availability of a final comprehensive conservation plan (CCP), environmental assessment (EA), and finding of no significant impact (FONSI) for the Glacial Ridge National Wildlife Refuge (refuge, NWR). In this final CCP we describe how we propose to manage the refuge for the next 15 years.
You will find the final CCP, a summary of the final CCP, and the EA/FONSI on the planning Web site at
•
•
Gregg Knutsen, 218-687-2229 x16.
With this notice, we complete the CCP process for Glacial Ridge National Wildlife Refuge, which we began by publishing a notice of intent in the
The National Wildlife Refuge System Administration Act of 1966, as amended by the National Wildlife Refuge System Improvement Act of 1997 (16 U.S.C. 668dd-668ee) (Administration Act), requires us to develop a CCP for each national wildlife refuge. The purpose in developing a CCP is to provide refuge managers with a 15-year strategy for achieving refuge purposes and contributing toward the mission of the National Wildlife Refuge System (NWRS), consistent with sound principles of fish and wildlife management, conservation, legal mandates, and Service policies. In addition to outlining broad management direction on conserving wildlife and their habitats, CCPs identify wildlife-dependent recreational opportunities available to the public, including opportunities for hunting, fishing, wildlife observation and photography, and environmental education and interpretation. We will review and update the CCP at least every 15 years in accordance with the Administration Act.
Each unit of the NWRS was established for specific purposes. We use these purposes as the foundation for developing and prioritizing the management goals and objectives for each refuge within the NWRS mission, and to determine how the public can use each refuge. The planning process is a way for us and the public to evaluate management goals and objectives that will ensure the best possible approach to wildlife, plant, and habitat conservation, while providing for wildlife-dependent recreation opportunities that are compatible with each refuge's establishing purposes and the mission of the NWRS.
The final CCP/EA may be found at
The selected alternative for Glacial Ridge NWR includes refuge management actions that approximate ecological processes that maintained native habitats prior to European
Fish and Wildlife Service, Interior.
Notice of availability.
This notice advises the public that the Florida Department of Military Affairs, via the Florida Armory Board (applicant), has applied for an enhancement of survival permit associated with a candidate conservation agreement with assurances (CCAA) pursuant to the Endangered Species Act of 1973, as amended. The permit application includes a proposed CCAA between the applicant, the Service, and the Florida Fish and Wildlife Conservation Commission for 22 species, including 2 Federal candidate species—the striped newt and the gopher tortoise—and 20 other at-risk species, including Florida State-listed species. The CCAA will cover 46,494 acres of the Camp Blanding Joint Training Center, which is located in Clay County, Florida. The duration of the CCAA is 15 years. We invite public comments on the application.
We must receive written comments at our Regional Office (see
Mr. Michael Harris, At-Risk Species Coordinator, at the Atlanta Regional Office (see
This notice advises the public that the Florida Department of Military Affairs via the Florida Armory Board (applicant) has applied for an enhancement of survival permit (permit) associated with a candidate conservation agreement with assurances (CCAA) pursuant to the Endangered Species Act of 1973, as amended (16 U.S.C. 1531
CCAAs encourage private and other non-Federal property owners to implement conservation efforts for candidate and at-risk species while providing regulatory assurances to the property owners that they will not be subjected to increased property use restrictions should the species become listed as threatened or endangered under the Act. Application requirements and issuance criteria for enhancement of survival permits through CCAAs are found in 50 CFR 17.22(d) and 17.32(d).
Under the CCAA, the applicant agrees to voluntarily undertake conservation practices on the enrolled lands to protect, enhance, restore, and/or maintain habitat benefiting the covered species. In turn, the applicant will receive regulatory assurances and incidental take authorization should a covered species be federally listed in the future. The conservation practices vary according to the six habitat types that support the covered species on the enrolled lands. These practices include use of prescribed fire and thinning to maintain forest habitats, protection of wetlands and streams through the maintenance of riparian zones and prohibition of impoundments and channelization, and other actions such as monitoring and control of invasive exotic species.
We specifically request information, views, and opinions from the public via this notice on our proposed Federal action, including our determination that the applicant's proposal, including the proposed mitigation and minimization measures, would have minor or negligible effects on the species covered in their CCAA. Therefore, our proposed issuance of the requested permit qualifies as a categorical exclusion under the National Environmental Policy Act, as provided by Department of the Interior implementing regulations in part 46 of title 43 of the Code of Federal Regulations (43 CFR 46.205, 46.210, and 46.215). A low-effect CCAA is one involving (1) Minor or negligible effects on federally listed or candidate species and their habitats, and (2) minor or negligible effects on other environmental values or resources. We also solicit information regarding the adequacy of the CCAA per 50 CFR parts 13 and 17.
Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can request in your comment that we withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
If you wish to comment, you may submit comments by one of the following methods. You may mail comments to the Fish and Wildlife Service's Atlanta Regional Office (see
We will evaluate the applicant's enhancement of survival permit application, including the CCAA and any comments we receive, to determine whether the permit issuance requirements of section 10(a)(1)(A) of the Act are met. We will also evaluate via an intra-Service consultation on whether issuance of the section 10(a)(1)(A) permit would comply with section 7 of the Act. If we determine that the requirements are met, we will issue the requested permit to the applicant in accordance with the applicable regulatory requirements. We will not make a final decision on whether to issue the permit until after the close of the 30-day comment period.
We provide this notice under section 10 of the Act (16 U.S.C. 1531
Bureau of Indian Affairs, Interior.
Notice of final agency determination.
The Assistant Secretary—Indian Affairs made a final agency determination to acquire 165.81 acres, more or less, of land in trust for the Pokagon Band of Potawatomi Indians, Michigan and Indiana, for gaming and other purposes on November 17, 2016.
Ms. Paula L. Hart, Director, Office of Indian Gaming, Bureau of Indian Affairs, MS-3657 MIB, 1849 C Street NW., Washington, DC 20240; telephone (202) 219-4066.
This notice is published in the exercise of authority delegated by the Secretary of the Interior to the Assistant Secretary—Indian Affairs by 209 Departmental Manual 8.1, and is published to comply with the requirements of 25 CFR 151.12(c)(2)(ii) that notice of the decision to acquire land in trust be promptly provided in the
On November 17, 2016, the Assistant Secretary—Indian Affairs issued a decision to accept approximately 165.81 acres, more or less, of land in trust for the Pokagon Band of Potawatomi Indians, Michigan and Indiana (Band), under the authority of the Pokagon Restoration Act, Public Law No. 103-323 (Sept. 21, 1994), 108 Stat. 2152. The Department previously determined that land acquired for the Band pursuant to the Pokagon Restoration Act was eligible for gaming pursuant to the Indian Gaming Regulatory Act's “restored lands” exception, 25 U.S.C. 2719 (b)(1)(B)(iii), to the general prohibition contained in 25 U.S.C. 2719(a) on gaming on lands acquired in trust after October 17, 1988.
The Assistant Secretary—Indian Affairs, on behalf of the Secretary of the Interior, will immediately acquire title in the name of the United States of America in trust for the Pokagon Band of Potawatomi Indians upon fulfillment of Departmental requirements.
The 165.81 acres, more or less, are located in the County of St. Joseph, State of Indiana, and are described as follows:
Lot 2A, as shown on the Plat of Locust Meadows First Replat recorded May 19, 2006 in the Office of the Recorder of St. Joseph County, Indiana, as Instrument No. 0620937, together with the west half of vacated Maple Road as adopted by South Bend City Ordinance 10093-11 which lies east of the portion of Lot 2A lying west of the vacated Maple Road and also together with the east half of the vacated Maple Road lying within said lot 2A and west of and adjacent to the west line of said lot 2A.
All that part of the West Half of the Northwest Quarter of Section 27, Township 37 North, Range 2 East that lies north and east of the U.S. 31/U.S. 20 Bypass.
Lot Numbered One (1) as shown on the plat of CATALDO'S LOCUST ROAD MINOR SUBDIVISION recorded June 23, 2008 in the Office of the Recorder of St. Joseph County, Indiana as Instrument No. 0820866.
Lot 2 as shown on the plat of Cataldo's Locust Road Minor Subdivision recorded June 23, 2008 in the Office of the Recorder of St. Joseph County, Indiana as Instrument No. 0820866. Also, the easterly fifty (50) feet of the southerly two hundred (200) feet of Lot 1 as shown on the plat of Hollingsworth Prairie Avenue Minor Subdivision recorded December 26, 2006 in the Office of the Recorder of St. Joseph County, Indiana as Instrument No. 0654912.
That part of the East Half of the Northeast Quarter of the Southeast Quarter and that part of the Southeast Quarter of the Southeast Quarter of Section 21, Township 37 North, Range 2 East, City of South Bend, Portage Township, St. Joseph County, Indiana, described as follows:
Commencing at the East Quarter corner of said Section 21; thence South 00°19′53″ East (deeded south) on the east line of said Section 21 a distance of 630.19 feet (deeded 628.7 feet); thence North 89°38′11″ West (deeded west) 30.00 feet to a
Together with the west half of the vacated Maple Road as adopted by South Bend City Ordinance 10093-11 lying east and adjacent to the above described parcel.
Subject to legal highways.
The South forty feet of the following real estate in St. Joseph County, Indiana:
All that part of the West Half of the Northwest Quarter of Section 22, Township 37 North, Range 2 East, which lies South of Sumption Prairie Road,
Lot Numbered One A (1A) as shown on the plat of LOCUST MEADOWS FIRST REPLAT recorded May 19, 2006 in the Office of the Recorder of St. Joseph County, Indiana as Instrument No. 0620937.
That part of the Southwest Quarter of Section 22 and the Northwest Quarter of Section 27, Township 37 North, Range 2 East, City of South Bend, Centre Township, St. Joseph County, Indiana, described as: Beginning at a mag nail with washer #20800148 marking the Quarter corner common to said Sections 22 and 27; thence South 00°57′09″ East on the east line of the Northwest Quarter of said Section 27 a distance of 275.91 feet to a mag nail with washer #20800148; thence South 89°11′23″ West 10.49 feet (deeded North 89°43′26″ West 10.24 feet) to a found mag nail; thence South 20°45′32″ West 62.41 feet (deeded South 23°49′29″ West 61.92 feet) to a found concrete right of way monument; thence South 89°43′47″ West (deeded North 89°11′02″ West) 993.31 feet to a
Subject to legal highways.
That part of the Northwest Quarter of Section 27, Township 37 North, Range 2 East, City of South Bend, Centre Township, St. Joseph County, Indiana, described as: Commencing at a mag nail with washer #20800148 marking the north quarter corner of said Section 27; thence South 00°57′09″ East (deed South and South 00°14′58″ West) on the east line of the Northwest Quarter of said Section 27 a distance of 334.27 feet (deeded 333 feet); thence South 89°43′47″ West 33.58 feet (deeded North 89°11′02″ West 35 feet) to a found concrete right of way monument marking the west right of way line of Locust Road and the POINT OF BEGINNING of the land herein described; thence South 00°39′05″ East (deed South 00°14′58″ West) on said west right of way line 62.84 feet (deeded 68.24 feet) to a
Subject to legal highways.
Part of the Southwest
Beginning at a point Four Hundred Ninety-four and Five Tenths (494.5) feet East of the West
Commencing at the West Quarter corner of Section 22, said point being a found Harrison Monument and referenced as a St. Joseph County Remonumentation corner, Station Number 425; thence North 89°20′04″ East (Deeded East) on the South line of the Northwest Quarter of said Section 22 a distance of 580.11 feet (Deeded 579.4 feet in Warranty Deed recorded in Instrument No. 8313990) to a
Subject to legal highways.
A part of the Southwest Quarter of the Northwest Quarter of Section No. 22, in Township 37 North, Range 2 East, described as follows:
Beginning at a point 664.3 feet East of the West Quarter corner of Section 22, Township 37 North, Range 2 East; thence North 846.63 feet to the center line of Prairie Avenue; thence Northeasterly 100 feet along said center line of Prairie Avenue; thence South 898.01 feet to the East and West center line of said Section 22; thence West 84.9 feet to the place of beginning,
Beginning at a point 579.4 feet East of the West quarter corner of Section 22, Township 37 North, Range 2 East; thence North 795.25 feet to the center line of Prairie Avenue; thence Northeasterly 100 feet along said center line of Prairie Avenue; thence South 846.63 feet to the East and West center line of said Section 22, Township 37 North, Range 2 East; thence West 84.9 feet to the place of beginning.
Commencing at the Southwest corner of said Quarter Quarter section; thence North 89°07′35″ East (assumed bearing) 579.4 feet along the south line of said Southwest Quarter of the Northwest Quarter to the southwest corner of land belonging to Herman C. Mutchler as described in Book 767, Page 169, in the Office of the Recorder, St. Joseph County, Indiana; thence North 00°09′02″ West 730.74 feet along the west line of said Mutchler land to the Point of
Subject to legal highways.
That part of the Southeast Quarter of Section 21, Township 37 North, Range 2 East, City of South Bend, Portage Township, St. Joseph County, Indiana, described as: Commencing at the East Quarter Corner of said Section 21, said point being a found Harrison Monument and referenced as a St. Joseph County Remonumentation Corner, Station Number 425; thence North 89°35′39″ West on the North line of said Southeast Quarter (line being between a found Harrison Marker at the center of Section and said East Quarter Corner) 660.03 feet to the East line of the West half of the Northeast Quarter of the Southeast Quarter of said Section 21; thence South 00°20′11″ East on said East line 100.85 feet to a
That part of the Southwest Quarter of Section 22, Township 37 North, Range 2 East, City of South Bend, Portage Township, St. Joseph County, Indiana, described as: Commencing at an aluminum cap with dimple marking the center of said Section 22; thence South 00°15′29″ West on the east line of the Southwest Quarter of said Section 22 a distance of 514.49 feet (deeded south 515.625 feet); thence South 89°07′21″ West (deeded west) 30.01 feet to a capped rebar on the west right of way line of Locust Road and the point of beginning of the land herein described; thence South 00°15′29″ West on said west right of way line and parallel with said east line 96.00 feet to a capped rebar; thence South 89°07′21″ West (deeded west) 300.00 feet to a 1” pinch pipe; thence North 00°15′29″ East (deeded north) parallel with said east line 96.00 feet to a
Subject to legal highways.
Address: V/L Locust Road, South Bend, IN 46614
That part of the Northwest Quarter of Section 22, Township 37 North, Range 2 East, City of South Bend, Portage Township, St. Joseph County, Indiana, described as: Commencing at the West Quarter corner of said Section 22, said point being a found Harrison monument and referenced as a St. Joseph County remonumentation corner, station number 425; thence North 89°20′04″ East (deeded East) on the south line of the Northwest Quarter of said Section 22 a distance of 749.91 feet (deeded 749.2 feet) to an iron pipe; thence North 00°03′03″ West (deeded north) 40.00 feet to a
Subject to legal highways.
That part of the Northwest Quarter of Section 22, Township 37 North, Range 2 East, City of South Bend, Portage Township, St. Joseph County, Indiana, described as: Commencing at the west quarter corner of said Section 22, said point being a found Harrison monument and referenced as a St. Joseph County remonumentation corner, station number 425; thence north 89°20′04″ East (deeded east) on the south line of the Northwest Quarter of said Section 22 a distance of 70.00 feet to a
Subject to legal highways.
That part of the East Half of the Northeast Quarter of the Southeast Quarter of Section 21, Township 37 North, Range 2 East, City of South Bend, Portage Township, St. Joseph County, Indiana, described as follows: Commencing at the East Quarter corner of said Section 21; thence South 00 degrees 19 minutes 53 seconds East (deeded south) on the east line of said Section 21 a distance of 530.19 feet (deeded 528.7); thence North 89 degrees 38 minutes 11 seconds West (deeded west) 30.00 feet to a rebar with cap #22436 on the west right of way line of South Maple Road and the
Together with the west half of vacated Maple Road as adopted by South Bend City Ordinance 10093-11 lying east and adjacent to above described parcel. Maple Road was vacated by the passage of Ordinance 10093-11 (recorded as Instrument 1334492) on June 13, 2011 by the Common Council of the City of South Bend.
Subject to legal highways.
Address: 3125 S Maple, South Bend, IN 46625.
That part of the Northwest Quarter of Section 22, Township 37 North, Range 2 East, City of South Bend, Portage Township, St. Joseph County, Indiana, described as:
Beginning at the West Quarter corner of said Section 22, said point being a found Harrison monument and referenced as a St. Joseph County remonumentation corner, station number 425; thence North 00 degree 05 minutes 32 seconds West on the west line of the Northwest Quarter of said Section 22 a distance of 397.25 feet to a
Together with the east half of vacated Maple Road as adopted by South Bend City Ordinance Number 10093-11, lying in the Northeast Quarter of Section 21, Township 37 North, Range 2 East, City of South Bend Portage Township, St. Joseph County, Indiana and lying west and adjacent to the above described real estate. Maple Road was vacated by the passage of Ordinance 10093-11 (recorded as Instrument 1334492) on June 13, 2011 by the Common Council of the City of South Bend.
Subject to legal highways.
A part of the Southwest Quarter of the Northwest Quarter of Section 22 Township 37 North, Range 2 East, described as follows: Beginning at a point 282 feet in a Northeasterly direction from the intersection of the West line of said Section with the center line of Prairie Avenue referred to as point “A”; thence 300 feet in a Northeasterly direction along the said center line of Prairie Avenue to a point referred to a point “B”; from a line drawn between points “A” and “B” comprising the north line of the property, the property lines extend from points “A” and “B” Southward to the north property line of Donmoyer Avenue, which property line comprises the south line of the property herein sold, said in previous deeds to comprise 3.44 acres, more or less.
Commencing at the southwest corner of said Southwest Quarter of the Northwest Quarter; thence North 89°07′35′ East (assumed bearing) 239.8 feet along the South line of said Southwest Quarter; thence North 00°22′40″ West 523.80 feet along the west line of land formerly belonging to Herman C. Mutchler as described in Book 369, Page 599, in the Office of the Recorder, St. Joseph County, Indiana, to the Point of Beginning; thence continuing North 00°22′40″ West 64.50 feet along said West line to the centerline of State Road 23, also being the Northern line of said Mutchler land; thence North 58°07′20″ East 302.17 feet along said centerline to the east line of said Mutchler land; thence South 00°09′02″ East 64.66 feet along said east line; thence South 58°07′20″ West 301.87 feet to the point of beginning.
Commencing at the West Quarter corner of said Section 22, said point being a found Harrison Monument and referenced as a St. Joseph County Remonumentation corner, Station Number 425; thence North 89°20′04″ East on the South line of the Northwest Quarter of said Section 22 a distance of 240.67 feet to a 3/4” iron pipe; thence North 00°05′32″ West parallel with the West line of said Section 22 a distance of 40.00 feet to a
Subject to legal highways.
That part of the Southwest Quarter of Section 22, Township 37 North, Range 2 East, City of South Bend, Portage Township, St. Joseph County, Indiana, described as: Commencing at an aluminum cap with dimple marking the center of said Section 22; thence South 00°15′29″ West (deeded south) on the east line of the Southwest Quarter of said Section 22 a distance of 610.49 feet;
Subject to legal highways.
Bureau of Indian Affairs, Interior.
Notice.
The Nottawaseppi Huron Band of the Potawatomi and State of Michigan negotiated a Second Amendment to the Gaming Compact governing Class III gaming; this notice announces approval of the Second Amendment.
Effective December 12, 2016.
Ms. Paula L. Hart, Director, Office of Indian Gaming, Office of the Assistant Secretary—Indian Affairs, Washington, DC 20240, (202) 219-4066.
Section 11 of the Indian Gaming Regulatory Act (IGRA) requires the Secretary of the Interior to publish in the
Bureau of Land Management, Interior.
Notice.
In compliance with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969, as amended (NEPA), and the Federal Land Policy and Management Act of 1976, as amended, the Bureau of Land Management (BLM) Missoula Field Office intends to prepare a Resource Management Plan (RMP) with an associated Environmental Impact Statement (EIS) for BLM public lands and resources managed by the Missoula Field Office in western Montana (Flathead, Granite, Lake, Lincoln, Mineral, Missoula, Powell, Ravalli, and Sanders counties) and by this notice is announcing the beginning of the scoping process to solicit public comments and identify issues.
This notice initiates the public scoping process for the RMP with the associated EIS. Comments on issues may be submitted in writing until February 10, 2017. The date(s) and location(s) of any scoping meetings will be announced at least 15 days in advance through local news media, newspapers and the BLM Web site at:
You may submit comments on issues and planning criteria related to the Resource Management Plan and Associated EIS for the Missoula Field Office at the Missoula Field Office, 3255 Fort Missoula Road, Missoula, MT 59804, during regular business hours from 8:00 a.m. to 4:30 p.m., Monday through Friday, except holidays, or online at
Maggie Ward, RMP Project Manager, Missoula Field Office, at (406) 329-3914 or by email:
This document provides notice that the BLM Field Office, Missoula, Montana intends to prepare a revised RMP with associated EIS, for the Missoula Field Office, announces the beginning of the scoping process, and seeks public input on issues and planning criteria. The area to be covered under the Missoula RMP/EIS is located in the western part of Montana in Flathead, Granite, Lake, Lincoln, Mineral, Missoula, Powell,
Preliminary management concerns and planning criteria have been identified by BLM personnel and other agencies. The information in this NOI represents the BLM's knowledge to date regarding the existing issues and concerns with current land management to replace the existing Garnet Resource Area RMP, dated May 1986, as amended. The preliminary issues and themes that will be addressed in this planning effort include:
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You may submit comments on issues and planning criteria in writing to the BLM at any public scoping meeting, or by using one of the methods listed in the
1. Issues to be resolved in the revised plan;
2. Issues to be resolved through policy or administrative action; or
3. Issues beyond the scope of this revised plan.
The BLM will provide an explanation in the Draft RMP/Draft EIS as to why an issue was placed in category two or three. The public is also encouraged to help identify any management questions and concerns that should be addressed in the plan. The BLM will work collaboratively with interested parties to identify the management decisions that are best suited to local, regional, and national needs and concerns.
The BLM will utilize and coordinate the NEPA scoping process to help fulfill the public involvement process under the National Historic Preservation Act (54 U.S.C. 306108) as provided in 36 CFR 800.2(d)(3). The information about historic and cultural resources within the area potentially affected by the proposed action will assist the BLM in identifying and evaluating impacts to such resources.
The BLM will consult with Indian tribes on a government-to-government basis in accordance with Executive Order 13175 and other policies. Tribal concerns, including impacts on Indian trust assets and potential impacts to cultural resources, will be given due consideration. Federal, State, and local agencies, along with tribes and other stakeholders that may be interested in or affected by the proposed action that the BLM is evaluating, are invited to participate in the scoping process and, if eligible, may request or be requested by the BLM to participate in the development of the environmental analysis as a cooperating agency.
The BLM will use an interdisciplinary approach to address a variety of land management issues, such as rangeland management, minerals and geology, forestry, outdoor recreation, archaeology, paleontology, wildlife and fisheries, lands and realty, hydrology, soils, sociology, and economics.
40 CFR 1501.7 and 43 CFR 1610.2
Bureau of Land Management, Interior.
Public Land Order.
This order extends the duration of the withdrawal created by Public Land Order No. 7233 for an additional 20-year period, which would otherwise expire on January 1, 2017. Public Land Order No. 7233 withdrew 2,090 acres of National Forest System lands within the Rogue River-Siskiyou National Forest from location and entry under the United States mining laws, but not from leasing under the mineral leasing laws. This extension is necessary to continue to protect the Rabbit Ears-Falcon Wildlife Area, Rogue River Wild and Scenic Corridor, Union Creek Historic District, Abbot Creek and Mill Creek Recreation Sites, and the Prospect Ranger Station Administrative Site.
This Public Land Order is effective on January 2, 2017.
Jacob Childers, Bureau of Land Management, Oregon/Washington State Office, 503-808-6225. Persons who use a telecommunications device for the deaf (TDD) may call the Federal Relay Service at 1-800-877-8339 to reach the above individual. The Service is available 24 hours a day, 7 days a week, to leave a message or question with the above individual. You will receive a reply during normal business hours.
The purpose for which the withdrawal was first made requires this extension to continue to protect a wildlife area, wild and scenic river corridor, historic district, two recreational sites, and a ranger station administrative site. The lands will remain open to such forms of disposition as may be authorized on National Forest System lands and to mineral leasing.
By virtue of the authority vested in the Secretary of the Interior by Section 204 of the Federal Land Policy and Management Act of 1976, 43 U.S.C. 1714, it is ordered as follows:
Public Land Order No. 7233 (62 FR 104 (1997)), which withdrew 2,090 acres of National Forest System Lands within the Rogue River-Siskiyou National Forest in Oregon from location and entry under the United States mining laws, but not from leasing under the mineral leasing laws, is hereby extended for an additional 20-year period. The withdrawal extended by this order will expire on January 1, 2037, unless, as a result of a review conducted prior to the expiration date pursuant to Section 204(f) of the Federal Land Policy and Management Act of 1976, 43 U.S.C. 1714, the Secretary determines that the withdrawal shall be further extended.
National Park Service, Interior.
Notice.
The National Park Service is soliciting comments on the significance of properties nominated before November 12, 2016, for listing or related actions in the National Register of Historic Places.
Comments should be submitted by December 27, 2016.
Comments may be sent via U.S. Postal Service to the National Register of Historic Places, National Park Service, 1849 C St. NW., MS 2280, Washington, DC 20240; by all other carriers, National Register of Historic Places, National Park Service, 1201 Eye St. NW., 8th Floor, Washington, DC 20005; or by fax, 202-371-6447.
The properties listed in this notice are being considered for listing or related actions in the National Register of Historic Places. Nominations for their consideration were received by the National Park Service before November 12, 2016. Pursuant to section 60.13 of 36 CFR part 60, written comments are being accepted concerning the significance of the nominated properties under the National Register criteria for evaluation.
Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
60.13 of 36 CFR part 60.
National Park Service, Interior.
Notice.
The National Park Service is soliciting comments on the significance of properties nominated before November 5, 2016, for listing or related actions in the National Register of Historic Places.
Comments should be submitted by December 27, 2016.
Comments may be sent via U.S. Postal Service to the National Register of Historic Places, National Park Service, 1849 C St. NW., MS 2280, Washington, DC 20240; by all other carriers, National Register of Historic Places, National Park Service, 1201 Eye St. NW., 8th floor, Washington, DC 20005; or by fax, 202-371-6447.
The properties listed in this notice are being considered for listing or related actions in the National Register of Historic Places. Nominations for their consideration were received by the National Park Service before November 5, 2016. Pursuant to section 60.13 of 36 CFR part 60, written comments are being accepted concerning the significance of the nominated properties under the National Register criteria for evaluation.
Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
60.13 of 36 CFR part 60.
U.S. International Trade Commission.
Notice.
Notice is hereby given that the U.S. International Trade Commission has received a complaint entitled
Lisa R. Barton, Secretary to the Commission, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW., Washington, DC 20436, telephone (202) 205-2000. The public version of the complaint can be accessed on the Commission's Electronic Document Information System (EDIS) at
General information concerning the Commission may also be obtained by accessing its Internet server at United States International Trade Commission (USITC) at
The Commission has received a complaint and a submission pursuant to § 210.8(b) of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure filed on behalf of Memory Technologies, LLC on December 6, 2016. The complaint alleges violations of section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930 (19 U.S.C. 1337) in the importation into the United States, the sale for importation, and the sale within the United States after importation of certain flash memory devices and components thereof. The complaint names as respondents SanDisk Corporation of Milpitas, CA; SanDisk LLC of Milpitas, CA; Western Digital Corporation of Irvine, CA; Western Digital Technologies, Inc. of Milpitas, CA; SanDisk Limited of Japan; SanDisk Storage Malaysia Sdn. Bhd of Malaysia; and SanDisk SemiConductor (Shanghai) Co., Ltd. of China. The complainant requests that the Commission issue a limited exclusion order, cease and desist orders and impose a bond upon respondents' alleged infringing articles during the 60-day Presidential review period pursuant to 19 U.S.C. 1337(j).
Proposed respondents, other interested parties, and members of the public are invited to file comments, not to exceed five (5) pages in length, inclusive of attachments, on any public interest issues raised by the complaint or § 210.8(b) filing. Comments should address whether issuance of the relief specifically requested by the complainant in this investigation would affect the public health and welfare in the United States, competitive conditions in the United States economy, the production of like or directly competitive articles in the United States, or United States consumers.
In particular, the Commission is interested in comments that:
(i) Explain how the articles potentially subject to the requested remedial orders are used in the United States;
(ii) Identify any public health, safety, or welfare concerns in the United States relating to the requested remedial orders;
(iii) Identify like or directly competitive articles that complainant, its licensees, or third parties make in the United States which could replace the subject articles if they were to be excluded;
(iv) Indicate whether complainant, complainant's licensees, and/or third party suppliers have the capacity to replace the volume of articles potentially subject to the requested exclusion order and/or a cease and desist order within a commercially reasonable time; and
(v) Explain how the requested remedial orders would impact United States consumers.
Written submissions must be filed no later than by close of business, eight calendar days after the date of publication of this notice in the
Persons filing written submissions must file the original document electronically on or before the deadlines stated above and submit 8 true paper copies to the Office of the Secretary by noon the next day pursuant to § 210.4(f) of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (19 CFR 210.4(f)). Submissions should refer to the docket number (“Docket No. 3186”) in a prominent place on the cover page and/
Any person desiring to submit a document to the Commission in confidence must request confidential treatment. All such requests should be directed to the Secretary to the Commission and must include a full statement of the reasons why the Commission should grant such treatment.
This action is taken under the authority of section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (19 U.S.C. 1337), and of §§ 201.10 and 210.8(c) of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (19 CFR 201.10, 210.8(c)).
By order of the Commission.
Department of Justice.
Notice of Federal Advisory Committee Meeting. Request for Public Comment.
The National Commission on Forensic Science will hold meeting twelve at the time and location listed below.
(1) Public Hearing. The meeting will be held on January 9, 2017 from 9:00 a.m. to 5:15 p.m. and January 10, 2017 from 8:30 a.m. to 4:30 p.m.
(2) Written Public Comment. Written public comment regarding National Commission on Forensic Science meeting materials can be submitted through
Jonathan McGrath, Ph.D., Senior Policy Analyst at the National Institute of Justice and NCFS Designated Federal Officer, 810 7th Street NW., Washington, DC 20531, by email at
National Credit Union Administration (NCUA).
Notice.
The National Credit Union Administration (NCUA) will be submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and clearance in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13, on or after the date of publication of this notice.
Comments should be received on or before January 11, 2017 to be assured of consideration.
Send comments regarding the burden estimate, or any other aspect of the information collection, including suggestions for reducing the burden, to (1) Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget, Attention: Desk Officer for NCUA, New Executive Office Building, Room 10235, Washington, DC 20503, or email at
Copies of the submission may be obtained by emailing
The regulation contains a number of reporting requirements where a credit union seeks to exercise flexibility under the regulations. These requirements enable NCUA to monitor the FCU's financial condition for safety and soundness purposes and helps to assure that FCUs are properly and adequately protected against potential losses due to insider abuse such as fraud and embezzlement.
By Gerard Poliquin, Secretary of the Board, the National Credit Union Administration, on November 29, 2016.
10:00 a.m., Thursday, December 15, 2016.
Board Room, 7th Floor, Room 7047, 1775 Duke Street (All visitors must use Diagonal Road Entrance), Alexandria, VA 22314-3428.
Open.
1. Corporate Stabilization Fund Quarterly Report.
2. NCUA's Rules and Regulations, Federal Credit Union Occupancy, Planning, and Disposal of Acquired and Abandoned Premises.
3. NCUA's Rules and Regulations, Freedom of Information Act.
4. Revised Texas Member Business Loan Rule.
5. Board Briefing, NGN Legacy Asset Disposition Strategy.
11:30 a.m.
11:45 a.m., Thursday, December 15, 2016.
Board Room, 7th Floor, Room 7047, 1775 Duke Street, Alexandria, VA 22314-3428.
Closed.
1. Creditor Claim Appeal. Closed pursuant to Exemption (6).
2. Request for Approval under Section 205(d). Closed pursuant to Exemption (6).
Gerard Poliquin, Secretary of the Board, Telephone: 703-518-6304.
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Regulatory guide; withdrawal.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) is withdrawing regulatory guide (RG) 1.25, “Assumptions used for Evaluating the Potential Radiological Consequences of a Fuel Handling Accident in the Fuel Handling and Storage Facility for Boiling and Pressurized Water Reactors.” This document is being withdrawn because the guidance contained in RG 1.25 has been superseded and is now incorporated into RG 1.183, “Alternative Radiological Source Terms for Evaluating Design Basis Accidents at Nuclear Power Reactors,” and RG 1.195, “Methods and Assumptions for Evaluating Radiological Consequences of Design Basis Accidents at Light-Water Nuclear Power Reactors.”
The effective date of the withdrawal of RG 1.25, “Assumptions used for Evaluating the Potential Radiological Consequences of a Fuel Handling Accident in the Fuel Handling and Storage Facility for Boiling and Pressurized Water Reactors” is December 12, 2016.
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2016-0252 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information regarding this document. You may obtain publicly-available information related to this document using any of the following methods:
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John Parillo, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, telephone 301-415-1344; email
Regulatory guides may be withdrawn by the NRC when their guidance no longer provides useful information, or is superseded by technological innovations, congressional actions, or other events. The withdrawal of an RG should be thought of as the final revision of the guide.
The NRC issued RG 1.25, “Assumptions used for Evaluating the Potential Radiological Consequences of a Fuel Handling Accident in the Fuel Handling and Storage Facility for Boiling and Pressurized Water Reactors,” in March 1972 to provide guidance for the evaluation of the design basis fuel handling accident to demonstrate compliance with the NRC's regulations in part 100 of Title 10 of the
The withdrawal of RG 1.25 does not alter any prior or existing NRC licensing approval or the acceptability of licensee commitments to RG 1.25. Although RG 1.25 is withdrawn, current licensees may continue to use it, and withdrawal does not affect any existing licenses or agreements. However, RG 1.25 should not be used in future requests or applications for NRC licensing actions.
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Exemption; issuance.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) is issuing a partial exemption from three record keeping requirements in its regulations in response to a September 14, 2016, request from Duke Energy Florida, (DEF, or the licensee). Specifically, the licensee requested that the Crystal River Unit 3 Nuclear Generating Plant (CR-3), be granted a partial exemption from regulations that require retention of records for certain systems, structures, and components.
The exemption was issued on November 30, 2016.
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2016-0253 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information regarding this document. You may obtain publicly-available information related to this document using any of the following methods:
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John Hickman, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards; U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; telephone: 301-415-3017; email:
The CR-3 facility is a decommissioning power reactor located in Citrus County, Florida. The licensee, DEF, is the holder of CR-3 Facility Operating License No. DPR-72. The CR-3 has been shutdown since September 26, 2009. Subsequently, the licensee determined that issues with containment integrity could not be satisfactorily resolved and decided not to attempt to restart the facility. On May 28, 2011, DEF completed the removal of fuel from the reactor vessel at CR-3. By letter dated February 20, 2013 (ADAMS Accession No. ML13056A005), DEF submitted to the NRC a certification in accordance with section 50.82(a)(1)(i) of title 10 of the
By letter dated September 14, 2016 (ADAMS Accession No. ML16258A058), DEF filed a request for NRC approval of an exemption from the record retention requirements of: (1) 10 CFR part 50, appendix B, Criterion XVII, which requires certain records be retained consistent with other regulatory requirements; (2) § 50.59(d)(3), which requires certain records be maintained until termination of a license issued
The licensee is requesting an exemption from the requirement to retain these records when the following conditions are satisfied: (1) The CR-3 licensing basis requirements previously applicable to the nuclear power unit and associated systems, structures and components (SSCs) are no longer effective (
Records associated with residual radiological activity and with programmatic controls necessary to support decommissioning, such as security and quality assurance, are not affected by the exemption request, and would be retained as decommissioning records until the termination of the CR-3 license. In addition, the licensee did not request an exemption from 10 CFR part 50, appendix A, Criterion 1, which requires certain records to be maintained “throughout the life of the unit,” because CR-3 is not a general design criteria facility. Nor did DEF request an exemption associated with any record keeping requirements for storage of spent fuel at the CR-3 ISFSI under 10 CFR part 50, the general license requirements of 10 CFR part 72, or for the other requirements of 10 CFR part 50 or Facility Operating License No. DPR-72 applicable to the decommissioning and dismantlement of the CR-3 plant.
Pursuant to § 50.12, the Commission may, upon application by any interested person or upon its own initiative, grant exemptions from the requirements of 10 CFR part 50 when the exemptions are authorized by law, will not present an undue risk to public health or safety, and are consistent with the common defense and security. However, the Commission will not consider granting an exemption unless special circumstances are present. Special circumstances are described in § 50.12(a)(2).
According to the Final Safety Analysis Report, revision 38, submitted May 25, 2016 (ADAMS Accession No. ML16172A182), the majority of plant components at CR-3 no longer meet the definition of safety related in § 50.2.
The September 14, 2016 (ADAMS Accession No. ML16258A058) exemption application states that the CR-3 nuclear steam supply system and balance of plant SSCs will be abandoned in place pending dismantlement. These SSCs are no longer operable or maintained except as required to support safe storage of spent fuel in the SFP or those that are needed to meet other regulatory requirements or are needed to support other site facilities (
While DEF stated that it would retain the records required as the project transitions from current plant conditions to a plant with spent fuel only in dry storage, the transition will remove the safety and business need for the maintenance of most records. As the SSCs are removed from the licensing basis and the need for the associated records is eliminated, the licensee proposes that they be exempted from the records retention requirements for SSCs and historical activities associated with (1) the CR-3 licensing basis requirements previously applicable to the nuclear power unit and associated systems, structures and components (SSCs) that are no longer effective (
The exemption request states that all records necessary for spent fuel and spent fuel storage SSCs and activities have been, and will continue to be, retained for the SFP throughout its functional life. Similar to other plant records, once the SFP is emptied of fuel, drained and ready for demolition, there will be no safety-significant function or other regulatory need for retaining certain SFP-related records.
The DEF stated that some records related to the nuclear steam supply system, balance of plant, and SFP will continue to be maintained under NRC regulations due to residual radioactivity. The radiological and other necessary programmatic controls (such as security and quality assurance) for the facility and decommissioning activities are and will continue to be appropriately addressed through the license and current plant documents such as the updated Final Safety Analysis Report and Technical Specifications. These programmatic elements and their associated records would be unaffected by the requested exemption.
The NRC has determined that granting the licensee's proposed exemption will not result in a violation of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, other laws, or other Commission regulations. Therefore, the exemption from the record keeping requirements of 10 CFR 50.71(c); 10 CFR part 50, appendix B, Criterion XVII; and 10 CFR 50.59(d)(3) is authorized by law.
Removal of the underlying SSCs associated with the records for which DEF has requested an exemption from record keeping requirements will not have adverse public health and safety impact because the subject SSCs would no longer have a safety function at the permanently shutdown facility, would be removed from the licensing basis by the license, and will be disposed of by the licensee when active decommissioning begins. Elimination of records associated with the removed SSCs therefore would not have an impact on public health and safety.
The requested partial exemption from the record keeping requirements of 10 CFR 50.71(c); 10 CFR part 50, appendix B, Criterion XVII; and 10 CFR 50.59(d)(3) for records associated with (1) the CR-3 licensing basis requirements previously applicable to the nuclear power unit and associated systems, structures and components (SSCs) that are no longer effective (
The elimination of the record keeping requirements does not involve information or activities that could potentially impact the common defense and security of the United States. Upon dismantlement of the affected SSCs, the records have no functional purpose relative to maintaining the safe operation of the SSCs, maintaining conditions that would affect the ongoing health and safety of workers or the public, or informing decisions related to nuclear security.
Rather, the exemption requested is administrative in nature and would only advance the current schedule for disposition of the specified records, which would otherwise be retained until license termination. This allows the licensee to not expend resources maintaining records that have no benefit or safety purpose. Therefore, the partial exemption from the record keeping requirements of 10 CFR 50.71(c); 10 CFR part 50, appendix B, Criterion XVII; and 10 CFR 50.59(d)(3) for the types records associated with (1) the CR-3 licensing basis requirements previously applicable to the nuclear power unit and associated systems, structures and components (SSCs) that are no longer effective (
Section 50.12(a)(2) states, in part: “The Commission will not consider granting an exemption unless special circumstances are present. Special circumstances are present whenever: . . . (ii) Application of the regulation in the particular circumstances would not serve the underlying purpose of the rule or is not necessary to achieve the underlying purpose of the rule; (iii) Compliance would result in undue hardship or other costs that are significantly in excess of those contemplated when the regulation was adopted . . . .”
Criterion XVII of 10 CFR part 50, appendix B, states in part: “Sufficient records shall be maintained to furnish evidence of activities affecting quality.”
Section 50.59(d)(3) states in part: “The records of changes in the facility must be maintained until the termination of an operating license issued under this part. . . .”
Section 50.71(c), states in part: “Records that are required by the regulations in this part or part 52 of this chapter, by license condition, or by technical specifications must be retained for the period specified by the appropriate regulation, license condition, or technical specification. If a retention period is not otherwise specified, these records must be retained until the Commission terminates the facility license . . . .”
In the Statements of Consideration (SOC) for the final rulemaking, “Retention Periods for Records” (53 FR 19240; May 27, 1988), in response to public comments received during the rulemaking process, the NRC stated that records must be retained “for NRC to ensure compliance with the safety and health aspects of the nuclear environment and for the NRC to accomplish its mission to protect the public health and safety.” In the SOC the Commission also explained that requiring licensees to maintain adequate records assists the NRC “in judging compliance and noncompliance, to act on possible noncompliance, and to examine facts as necessary following any incident.”
These regulations apply to licensees in decommissioning despite the fact that, during the decommissioning process, safety-related SSCs are retired or disabled and subsequently removed from NRC licensing basis documents by appropriate change mechanisms. Appropriate removal of an SSC from the licensing basis requires either a determination by the licensee or an approval from the NRC that the SSC no longer has the potential to cause an accident, event, or other problem which would adversely impact public health and safety.
The records subject to removal under the requested exemption are those associated with SSCs that had been important to safety during power operation or operation of the SFP, but are no longer capable of causing an event, incident, or condition that would adversely impact public health and safety, given their appropriate removal from the licensing basis documents. If the SSCs no longer have the potential to cause these scenarios, then certain records associated with these SSCs would not be necessary to assist the NRC in determining compliance and noncompliance, taking action on possible noncompliance, and examining facts following an incident. Therefore, their retention would not serve the underlying purpose of the rule.
Retention of certain records associated with SSCs that are or will no longer be part of the facility serves no safety or regulatory purpose, nor does it serve the underlying purpose of the rule of maintaining compliance with the safety and health aspects of the nuclear environment in order to accomplish the NRC's mission. Accordingly, special circumstances are present which the NRC may consider, pursuant to § 50.12(a)(2)(ii), to grant the requested exemption permitting the disposal of records associated with (1) the CR-3 licensing basis requirements previously applicable to the nuclear power unit and associated systems, structures and components (SSCs) that are no longer effective (
Records that continue to serve the underlying purpose of the rule, that is, to maintain compliance and to protect public health and safety in support of the NRC's mission, will continue to be retained pursuant to the regulations in 10 CFR part 50 and 10 CFR part 72. The retained records not subject to the exemption include those associated with programmatic controls, such as those pertaining to residual radioactivity, which continue to be required for eventual decommissioning; security, emergency planning and quality assurance, programs which remain in effect; as well as records associated with the Independent Spent Fuel Storage Installation and spent fuel assemblies.
The retention of records required by 10 CFR 50.71(c); 10 CFR part 50, appendix B, Criterion XVII; and 10 CFR 50.59(d)(3) provides assurance that records associated with SSCs will be captured, indexed, and stored in an environmentally suitable and retrievable condition. Given the volume of records associated with the SSCs, compliance with the records retention rule results in a considerable cost to the licensee. Retention of the volume of records associated with the SSCs during the operational phase is appropriate to serve the underlying purpose of determining compliance and noncompliance, taking action on possible noncompliance, and
However, the cost of retaining operational phase records beyond the operations phase until the termination of the license may not have been fully considered when the records retention rule was put in place. As such, compliance with the rule would result in an undue cost in excess of that contemplated when the rule was adopted. Accordingly, special circumstances are present which the NRC may consider, pursuant to § 50.12(a)(2)(iii), to grant the requested exemption.
Pursuant to § 51.22(b) and (c)(25), the granting of an exemption from the requirements of any regulation in Chapter I of 10 CFR is a categorical exclusion provided that (i) there is no significant hazards consideration; (ii) there is no significant change in the types or significant increase in the amounts of any effluents that may be released offsite; (iii) there is no significant increase in individual or cumulative public or occupational radiation exposure; (iv) there is no significant construction impact; (v) there is no significant increase in the potential for or consequences from radiological accidents; and (vi) the requirements from which an exemption is sought are among those identified in 10 CFR 51.22(c)(25)(vi).
The NRC has determined that approval of the exemption request involves no significant hazards consideration because allowing the licensee exemption from the record keeping requirements of 10 CFR 50.71(c); 10 CFR part 50, appendix B, Criterion XVII; and 10 CFR 50.59(d)(3) at the decommissioning CR-3 does not (1) involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated; (2) create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated; or (3) involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety (§ 50.92(c)). Likewise, there is no significant change in the types or significant increase in the amounts of any effluents that may be released offsite, and no significant increase in individual or cumulative public or occupational radiation exposure.
The exempted regulations are not associated with construction, so there is no significant construction impact. The exempted regulations do not concern the source term (
Therefore, pursuant to § 51.22(b) and (c)(25), no environmental impact statement or environmental assessment need be prepared in connection with the approval of this exemption request.
The NRC has determined that the requested partial exemption from the record keeping requirements of 10 CFR 50.71(c); 10 CFR part 50, appendix B, Criterion XVII; and 10 CFR 50.59(d)(3) will not present an undue risk to the public health and safety. The destruction of the identified records will not impact remaining decommissioning activities; plant operations, configuration, and/or radiological effluents; operational and/or installed SSCs that are quality-related or important to safety; or nuclear security. The NRC has determined that the destruction of the identified records does not involve information or activities that could potentially impact the common defense and security of the United States.
The purpose for the record keeping regulations is to assist the NRC in carrying out its mission to protect the public health and safety by ensuring that the licensing and design basis of the facility is understood, documented, preserved and retrievable in such a way that will aid the NRC in determining compliance and noncompliance, taking action on possible noncompliance, and examining facts following an incident. Since the CR-3 SSCs that were safety-related or important to safety during operations have been or will be removed from the licensing basis and removed from the plant, the staff finds that the records associated with (1) the CR-3 licensing basis requirements previously applicable to the nuclear power unit and associated systems, structures and components (SSCs) that are no longer effective (
Accordingly, the Commission has determined that, pursuant to § 50.12, the exemption is authorized by law, will not present an undue risk to the public health and safety, and is consistent with the common defense and security, and that special circumstances are present. Therefore, the Commission hereby grants Duke Energy Florida a one-time partial exemption from the record keeping requirements of 10 CFR 50.71(c); 10 CFR part 50, appendix B, Criterion XVII; and 10 CFR 50.59(d)(3) for the Crystal River Unit 3 Nuclear Generating Plant to allow removal of records associated with (1) the CR-3 licensing basis requirements previously applicable to the nuclear power unit and associated systems, structures and components (SSCs) that are no longer effective (
Records associated with residual radiological activity and with programmatic controls necessary to support decommissioning, such as security, emergency planning, spent fuel management and quality assurance are not affected by the exemption request and are required to be retained consistent with regulatory existing requirement as decommissioning records until the termination of the CR-3 license.
This exemption is effective upon issuance.
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Indirect transfer of licenses; order.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) is issuing an order approving an application filed by Susquehanna Nuclear, LLC (Susquehanna Nuclear), on behalf of itself and Riverstone Holdings, LLC (Riverstone), on June 29, 2016, as supplemented by letter dated November 14, 2016. The application sought NRC approval of the indirect transfer of Susquehanna Nuclear's interests in Renewed Facility Operating License Nos. NPF-14 and NPF-22 for the Susquehanna Steam Electric Station, Units 1 and 2 (SSES), respectively, as well as the general license for the SSES Independent Spent Fuel Storage Installation (ISFSI), from the ultimate parent, Talen Energy Corporation (Talen), to Riverstone. The NRC's approval of the indirect license transfer is subject to certain conditions, which are described in the order. The order is effective upon issuance.
The order was issued on November 30, 2016, and is effective for one year.
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2016-0187 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information regarding this document. You may obtain publicly-available information related to this document using any of the following methods:
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Tanya E. Hood, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; telephone: 301-415-1387; email:
The text of the order is attached.
Documents related to this action, including the indirect license transfer application and other supporting documentation, are available to interested persons as indicated.
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
In the Matter of Susquehanna Nuclear, LLC; Susquehanna Steam Electric Station, Units 1 and 2; Order Approving Indirect Transfer of Facility Operating Licenses [Docket Nos. 50-387, 50-388, and 72-28; NRC-2016-0187] (Effective Upon Issuance).
Susquehanna Nuclear, LLC (Susquehanna Nuclear, or the applicant) and Allegheny Electric Cooperative, Inc. (Allegheny), are the holders of Renewed Facility Operating License Nos. NPF-14 and NPF-22, and the general license for the Independent Spent Fuel Storage Installation (ISFSI), which authorize the possession, use, and operation of the Susquehanna Steam Electric Station (SSES or the facility), Units 1 and 2, including the SSES ISFSI. The facility and its ISFSI are located in Luzerne County, Pennsylvania.
By letter dated June 29, 2016, as supplemented by letter dated November 14, 2016, Susquehanna Nuclear, on behalf of itself and Riverstone Holdings, LLC (Riverstone), submitted an application to the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC or the Commission), pursuant to Title 10 of the
The indirect transfer of control results from the ultimate parent of Susquehanna Nuclear's interests in the licenses, Talen Energy Corporation (Talen), becoming wholly owned by the portfolio companies of Riverstone, which currently holds 35 percent in the aggregate of the outstanding common stock of Talen. As a result, all of the common stock of Talen will become privately held by affiliates of Riverstone, and Susquehanna Nuclear will become indirectly controlled by the portfolio companies of Riverstone.
The proposed indirect transfer of control will result in no change to the role of Susquehanna Nuclear as the licensed operator of the units, no change to its technical qualifications, and no change to its ownership interest or that of Allegheny. No changes will be made to the units or their licensing bases as a result of the transfer, and the transfer will not involve any changes to the principal officers, managers, or staff of Susquehanna Nuclear or to the day-to-day management and operations of the units.
Approval of the indirect transfer of the renewed facility operating licenses was requested by the applicant. A notice of the request for approval, the opportunity to comment, and the opportunity to request a hearing was published in the
Pursuant to 10 CFR 50.80, no license, or any right thereunder, shall be transferred, directly or indirectly, through transfer of control of the license, unless the Commission shall give its consent in writing. Upon review of the information in the licensee's application, and other information before the Commission, and relying upon the representations and agreements contained in the application, the NRC staff has determined that the portfolio companies of Riverstone are qualified to hold the ownership interests in the facility previously held by Talen. The NRC staff has also determined that Susquehanna Nuclear remains qualified to hold the operating authority under the licenses, and that the indirect transfer of ownership interests in the facility to Riverstone, as described in the application, is otherwise consistent with the applicable provisions of law, regulations, and orders issued by the Commission, pursuant thereto. The findings set forth above are supported by the NRC Safety Evaluation dated November 30, 2016.
Accordingly, pursuant to Sections 161b, 161i, and 184 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (the Act); 42 U.S.C. 2201(b), 2201(i), and 2234; and 10 CFR 50.80,
1. Susquehanna Nuclear, LLC shall not take any action that would cause Riverstone or any other direct or indirect parent of Susquehanna Nuclear, LLC or other entity, to void, cancel, or diminish the commitment to fund an extended plant shutdown, as represented in the application for approval of the indirect transfer of the licenses for SSES, Units 1 and 2, as applicable.
2. The transaction will not alter the Support Agreement and the Support Agreement will remain in effect in accordance with license conditions in Appendix C of the SSES licenses.
This Order is effective upon issuance.
For further details with respect to this Order, see the application dated June 29, 2016 (Agencywide Documents Access and Management System (ADAMS) Package Accession No. ML16181A414), as supplemented by letter dated November 14, 2016 (ADAMS Accession No. ML16320A436), and the non-proprietary Safety Evaluation dated November 30, 2016, (ADAMS Accession No. ML16320A080), which are available for public inspection at the Commission's Public Document Room (PDR), located at One White Flint North, Public File Area O1-F21, 11555 Rockville Pike (first floor), Rockville, Maryland. Publicly available documents created or received at the NRC are accessible electronically through ADAMS in the NRC Library at
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
License amendment application; opportunity to comment, request a hearing, and petition for leave to intervene.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) is considering issuance of an amendment and exemption to Combined Licenses (NPF-91 and NPF-92), issued to Southern Nuclear Operating Company, Inc. (SNC), and Georgia Power Company, Oglethorpe Power Corporation, MEAG Power SPVM, LLC, MEAG Power SPVJ, LLC, MEAG Power SPVP, LLC, Authority of Georgia, and the City of Dalton, Georgia (together “the licensees”), for construction and operation of the Vogtle Electric Generating Plant (VEGP), Units 3 and 4, located in Burke County, Georgia.
Submit comments by January 11, 2017. Requests for a hearing or petition for leave to intervene must be filed by February 10, 2017.
You may submit comments by any of the following methods:
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For additional direction on obtaining information and submitting comments, see “Obtaining Information and Submitting Comments” in the
Ruth C. Reyes, Office of New Reactors, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-000; telephone: 301-415-3249; email:
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2008-0252 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information for this action. You may obtain publicly-available information related to this action by any of the following methods:
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Please include Docket ID NRC-2008-0252 in your comment submission.
The NRC cautions you not to include identifying or contact information that you do not want to be publicly disclosed in your comment submission. The NRC posts all comment submissions at
If you are requesting or aggregating comments from other persons for submission to the NRC, then you should inform those persons not to include identifying or contact information that they do not want to be publicly disclosed in their comment submission. Your request should state that the NRC does not routinely edit comment submissions to remove such information before making the comment submissions available to the public or entering the comment submissions into ADAMS.
The NRC is considering issuance of an amendment to Facility Operating License Nos. NPF-91 and NPF-92, issued to SNC and Georgia Power Company for operation of the VEGP Units 3 and 4, located in Burke County, Georgia. An individual
The proposed changes would revise the Combined Licenses to reflect an increase in the efficiency of the return of condensate utilized by the passive core cooling system (PXS) to the in-containment refueling water storage tank (IRWST) to support the capability for long-term cooling. Because, this proposed change requires a departure from Tier 1 information in the Westinghouse AP1000 Design Control Document (DCD), the licensee also requested an exemption from the requirements of the Generic DCD Tier 1 in accordance with section 52.63(b)(1) of title 10 of the
Before any issuance of the proposed license amendment, the NRC will need to make the findings required by the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (the Act), and NRC's regulations.
The NRC has made a proposed determination that the license amendment request involves no significant hazards consideration. Under the NRC's regulations in 10 CFR 50.92, this means that operation of the facility in accordance with the proposed amendment would not (1) involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated; or (2) create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated; or (3) involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety. As required by 10 CFR 50.91(a), the licensee has provided its analysis of the issue of no significant hazards consideration, which is presented below:
1. Does the proposed change involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated?
The proposed containment condensate flow path changes provide sufficient condensate return flow to maintain In-containment Refueling Water Storage Tank (IRWST) level above the top of the Passive Residual Heat Removal Heat Exchanger (PRHR HX) tubes long enough to prevent PRHR HX performance degradation from that considered in the UFSAR Chapter 15 safety analyses.
The added components are seismically qualified and constructed of only those materials appropriately suited for exposure to the reactor coolant environment as described in UFSAR Section 6.1. No aluminum is permitted to be used in the construction of these components so that they do not contribute to hydrogen production in containment.
The proposed changes clarify the design basis for the PRHR HX, which removes decay heat from the Reactor Coolant System (RCS) during a non-loss of coolant accident (non-LOCA). With operator action to avoid unnecessary Automatic Depressurization System (ADS) actuation based on RCS conditions, PRHR HX operation can be extended longer than is maintained automatically by the protection and safety monitoring system. Though analysis shows significantly greater capacity, the extent of capability of the PRHR HX in the licensing basis is changed from operating indefinitely to operating for at least 72 hours. If PRHR HX capability was exhausted after 72 hours, the ADS is actuated, which could result in significant containment floodup. However, the probabilistic analysis shows that the probability of design basis containment floodup after PRHR HX operation during a non-LOCA event is significantly lower than the probability of a small break LOCA, for which comparable containment floodup is anticipated. Therefore, the probability of significant containment floodup is not increased.
The proposed changes do not affect components whose failure could initiate an event, thus the probabilities of the accidents previously evaluated are not affected. The affected equipment does not adversely affect or interact with safety-related equipment or another radioactive material barrier. The proposed changes clarify the post-accident performance requirements for the PRHR HX. However, the proposed changes do not prevent the engineered safety features from performing their safety-related accident mitigating functions. The radioactive material source terms and release paths used in the safety analyses are unchanged, thus the radiological releases in the UFSAR accident analyses are not affected.
Therefore, the proposed amendment does not involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated.
2. Does the proposed change create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated?
The long-term safe shutdown analysis results show that the PRHR HX continues to meet its acceptance criterion,
The proposed change quantifies the duration that the PRHR HX is capable of maintaining adequate core cooling, and specifies that if the PRHR HX cooling capability is exhausted, the ADS is actuated. This involves the possibility of opening the ADS valves after the IRWST water level has decreased below the spargers, which promote steam condensation in the IRWST. During this condition, the loads on the IRWST, spargers, and any internal structures or components in the IRWST are still less than their limiting loads, and these SSCs are not adversely affected or cause a different mode of operation. Therefore, no new type of accident could be created by this condition.
Therefore, the proposed amendment does not create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated.
3. Does the proposed change involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety?
The proposed changes do not reduce the redundancy or diversity of any safety-related function. The added components are classified as safety-related, seismically qualified, and are designed to comply with applicable design codes. The proposed containment condensate flow path changes provide sufficient condensate return flow to maintain adequate IRWST water level for those events using the PRHR HX cooling function. The long-term Shutdown Temperature Evaluation results in UFSAR Appendix 19E show the PRHR HX continues to meet its acceptance criterion. The UFSAR Chapters 6 and 15 analyses results are not affected, thus margins to their regulatory acceptance criteria are unchanged. The former design basis, which stated the PRHR HX could bring the plant to 420 °F within 36 hours is changed to state the heat exchanger can establish safe, stable conditions in the reactor coolant system after a design basis event. Such safe, stable conditions may not coincide with a core average temperature of 420 °F. However, the PRHR HX is able to bring the RCS to a sufficiently low temperature such that RCS conditions are comparable to those achieved at 420 °F—peak cladding temperatures and departure from nucleate boiling are maintained within acceptable limits of the evaluation criteria with adequate margin. No safety analysis or design basis acceptance limit/criterion is challenged or exceeded by the proposed changes, thus no margin of safety is reduced.
Therefore, the proposed amendment does not involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety.
The NRC staff has reviewed the licensee's analysis and, based on this review, it appears that the three standards of 10 CFR 50.92(c) are satisfied. Therefore, the NRC staff proposes to determine that the license amendment request involves no significant hazards consideration.
The NRC is seeking public comments on this proposed determination that the license amendment request involves no significant hazards consideration. Any comments received within 30 days after the date of publication of this notice will be considered in making any final determination.
Normally, the Commission will not issue the amendment until the expiration of 60 days after the date of publication of this notice. The Commission may issue the license amendment before expiration of the 60-day notice period if the Commission concludes the amendment involves no significant hazards consideration. In addition, the Commission may issue the amendment prior to the expiration of the 30-day comment period should circumstances change during the 30-day comment period such that failure to act in a timely way would result, for example, in derating or shutdown of the facility. Should the Commission take action prior to the expiration of either the comment period or the notice period, the Commission will publish a notice of issuance in the
Within 60 days after the date of publication of this notice, any persons (petitioner) whose interest may be affected by this action may file a request for a hearing and a petition to intervene (petition) with respect to the action. Petitions shall be filed in accordance with the Commission's “Agency Rules of Practice and Procedure” in 10 CFR part 2. Interested persons should consult a current copy of 10 CFR 2.309, which is available at the NRC's PDR, located at One White Flint North, Room O1-F21, 11555 Rockville Pike (first floor), Rockville, Maryland 20852. The NRC's regulations are accessible electronically from the NRC Library on the NRC's Web site at
As required by 10 CFR 2.309, a petition shall set forth with particularity the interest of the petitioner in the proceeding, and how that interest may be affected by the results of the proceeding. The petition should specifically explain the reasons why intervention should be permitted with particular reference to the following general requirements: (1) The name, address, and telephone number of the petitioner; (2) the nature of the petitioner's right under the Act to be made a party to the proceeding; (3) the nature and extent of the petitioner's property, financial, or other interest in the proceeding; and (4) the possible effect of any decision or order which may be entered in the proceeding on the petitioner's interest. The petition must also set forth the specific contentions which the petitioner seeks to have litigated at the proceeding.
Each contention must consist of a specific statement of the issue of law or fact to be raised or controverted. In addition, the petitioner shall provide a brief explanation of the bases for the contention and a concise statement of the alleged facts or expert opinion which support the contention and on which the petitioner intends to rely in proving the contention at the hearing. The petitioner must also provide references to those specific sources and documents of which the petitioner is aware and on which the petitioner intends to rely to establish those facts or expert opinion to support its position on the issue. The petition must include sufficient information to show that a genuine dispute exists with the applicant on a material issue of law or fact. Contentions shall be limited to matters within the scope of the proceeding. The contention must be one which, if proven, would entitle the petitioner to relief. A petitioner who fails to satisfy these requirements with respect to at least one contention will not be permitted to participate as a party.
Those permitted to intervene become parties to the proceeding, subject to any limitations in the order granting leave to intervene, and have the opportunity to participate fully in the conduct of the hearing with respect to resolution of that person's admitted contentions consistent with the NRC's regulations, policies, and procedures.
Petitions for leave to intervene must be filed no later than 60 days from the date of publication of this notice. Requests for hearing, petitions for leave to intervene, and motions for leave to file new or amended contentions that are filed after the 60-day deadline will not be entertained absent a determination by the presiding officer that the filing demonstrates good cause by satisfying the three factors in 10 CFR 2.309(c)(1)(i) through (iii).
If a hearing is requested, and the Commission has not made a final determination on the issue of no significant hazards consideration, the Commission will make a final determination on the issue of no significant hazards consideration. The final determination will serve to decide when the hearing is held. If the final determination is that the amendment request involves no significant hazards consideration, the Commission may issue the amendment and make it immediately effective, notwithstanding the request for a hearing. Any hearing held would take place after issuance of the amendment. If the final determination is that the amendment request involves a significant hazards consideration, then any hearing held would take place before the issuance of any amendment unless the Commission finds an imminent danger to the health or safety of the public, in which case it will issue an appropriate order or rule under 10 CFR part 2.
A State, local governmental body, Federally-recognized Indian Tribe, or agency thereof, may submit a petition to the Commission to participate as a party under 10 CFR 2.309(h)(1).
The petition should state the nature and extent of the petitioner's interest in the proceeding. The petition should be submitted to the Commission by February 10, 2017. The petition must be filed in accordance with the filing instructions in the “Electronic Submissions (E-Filing)” section of this document, and should meet the requirements for petitions set forth in this section, except that under 10 CFR 2.309(h)(2) a State, local governmental body, or Federally-recognized Indian Tribe, or agency thereof does not need to address the standing requirements in 10 CFR 2.309(d) if the facility is located within its boundaries. A State, local governmental body, Federally-recognized Indian Tribe, or agency thereof may also have the opportunity to participate under 10 CFR 2.315(c).
If a hearing is granted, any person who does not wish, or is not qualified, to become a party to the proceeding may, in the discretion of the presiding officer, be permitted to make a limited appearance pursuant to the provisions of 10 CFR 2.315(a). A person making a limited appearance may make an oral or written statement of position on the issues, but may not otherwise participate in the proceeding. A limited appearance may be made at any session of the hearing or at any prehearing conference, subject to the limits and conditions as may be imposed by the presiding officer. Details regarding the opportunity to make a limited appearance will be provided by the presiding officer if such sessions are scheduled.
All documents filed in NRC adjudicatory proceedings, including a request for hearing, a petition for leave to intervene, any motion or other document filed in the proceeding prior to the submission of a request for hearing or petition to intervene (hereinafter “petition”), and documents filed by interested governmental entities participating under 10 CFR 2.315(c), must be filed in accordance with the NRC's E-Filing rule (72 FR 49139; August 28, 2007, as amended at 77 FR 46562, August 3, 2012). The E-Filing process requires participants to submit and serve all adjudicatory documents over the internet, or in some cases to mail copies on electronic storage media. Participants may not submit paper copies of their filings unless they seek an exemption in accordance with the procedures described below.
To comply with the procedural requirements of E-Filing, at least 10 days prior to the filing deadline, the participant should contact the Office of the Secretary by email at
Information about applying for a digital ID certificate is available on the NRC's public Web site at
Once a participant has obtained a digital ID certificate and a docket has been created, the participant can then submit a petition. Submissions should be in Portable Document Format (PDF). Additional guidance on PDF submissions is available on the NRC's public Web site at
A person filing electronically using the NRC's adjudicatory E-Filing system may seek assistance by contacting the NRC Electronic Filing Help Desk through the “Contact Us” link located on the NRC's public Web site at
Participants who believe that they have a good cause for not submitting documents electronically must file an exemption request, in accordance with 10 CFR 2.302(g), with their initial paper filing stating why there is good cause for not filing electronically and requesting authorization to continue to submit documents in paper format. Such filings must be submitted by: (1) First class
Documents submitted in adjudicatory proceedings will appear in the NRC's electronic hearing docket which is available to the public at
For further details with respect to this action, see the application for license amendment dated November 4, 2016.
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
The RRB invites comments on the proposed collections of information to determine (1) the practical utility of the collections; (2) the accuracy of the estimated burden of the collections; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information that is the subject of collection; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of collections on respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. Comments to the RRB or OIRA must contain the OMB control number of the ICR. For proper consideration of your comments, it is best if the RRB and OIRA receive them within 30 days of the publication date.
Under the Social Security Amendments of 1983 (Pub. L. 98-21), which amends Section 202(t) of the Social Security Act, effective January 1, 1985, the Tier I or the overall minimum (O/M) portion of an annuity, and Medicare benefits payable under the Railroad Retirement Act to certain beneficiaries living outside the U.S., may be withheld. The benefit withholding provision of Public Law 98-21 applies to divorced spouses, spouses, minor or disabled children, students, and survivors of railroad employees who (1) initially became eligible for Tier I amounts, O/M shares, and Medicare benefits after December 31, 1984; (2) are not U.S. citizens or U.S. nationals; and (3) have resided outside the U.S. for more than six consecutive months starting with the annuity beginning date. The benefit withholding provision does not apply, however to a beneficiary who is exempt under either a treaty obligation of the U.S., in effect on August 1, 1956, or a totalization agreement between the U.S. and the country in which the beneficiary resides, or to an individual who is exempt under other criteria specified in Public Law 98-21.
RRB Form G-45,
The burden estimate for the ICR is as follows:
Comments regarding the information collection should be addressed to Brian Foster, Railroad Retirement Board, 844 North Rush Street, Chicago, Illinois 60611-1275 or
Notice is hereby given that the Railroad Retirement Board will hold a closed meeting on December 22, 2016 beginning at 9:00 a.m. at the Board's meeting room on the 8th floor of its headquarters building, 844 North Rush Street, Chicago, Illinois 60611. The agenda for this meeting follows:
The person to contact for more information is Martha P. Rico, Secretary to the Board, Phone No. 312-751-4920.
Notice is hereby given that the Railroad Retirement Board will hold a closed meeting on December 21, 2016 beginning at 9:00 a.m. at the Board's meeting room on the 8th floor of its headquarters building, 844 North Rush Street, Chicago, Illinois 60611. The agenda for this meeting follows:
The person to contact for more information is Martha P. Rico, Secretary to the Board, Phone No. 312-751-4920.
Section 12(i) of the Railroad Unemployment Insurance Act (RUIA), authorizes the RRB to establish, maintain, and operate free employment offices to provide claimants for unemployment benefits with job placement opportunities. Section 704(d) of the Regional Railroad Reorganization Act of 1973, as amended, and as extended by the Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1985, required the RRB to maintain and distribute a list of railroad job vacancies, by class and craft, based on information furnished by rail carriers to the RRB. Although the requirement under the law expired effective August 13, 1987, the RRB has continued to obtain this information in keeping with its employment service responsibilities under Section 12(k) of the RUIA. Application procedures for the job placement program are prescribed in 20 CFR 325. The procedures pertaining to the RRB's obtaining and distributing job vacancy reports furnished by rail carriers are described in 20 CFR 346.1.
The RRB currently utilizes four forms to obtain information needed to carry out its job placement responsibilities. Form ES-2,
Completion of these forms is required to obtain or maintain a benefit. In addition, the RRB also collects Railroad Job Vacancies information received voluntarily from railroad employers. No changes are proposed to any of the data collection instruments associated with the information collection.
Under Section 4 of the Railroad Unemployment Insurance Act (RUIA), an employee who leaves work voluntarily is disqualified for unemployment benefits unless the employee left work for good cause and is not qualified for unemployment benefits under any other law. RRB Form UI-45,
Completion of Form UI-45 is required to obtain or retain benefits. One response is received from each respondent. The RRB proposes no changes to Form UI-45.
Section 2 of the Railroad Retirement Act (RRA) provides for payment of annuities to qualified employees and their spouses. In order to receive an age and service annuity, Section 2(e)(3) states that an applicant must stop all railroad work and give up any rights to return to such work. However, applicants are not required to stop nonrailroad work or self-employment.
The RRB considers some work claimed as “self-employment” to actually be employment for an employer. Whether the RRB classifies a particular activity as self-employment or as work for an employer depends upon the circumstances of each case. These circumstances are prescribed in 20 CFR 216.
Under the 1988 amendments to the RRA, an applicant is no longer required to stop work for a “Last Pre-Retirement Nonrailroad Employer” (LPE). However, Section 2(f)(6) of the RRA requires that a portion of the employee's Tier II benefit and supplemental annuity be deducted for earnings from the “LPE.”
The “LPE” is defined as the last person, company, or institution with whom the employee or spouse applicant was employed concurrently with, or after, the applicant's last railroad employment and before their annuity beginning date. If a spouse never worked for a railroad, the LPE is the last person for whom he or she worked.
The RRB utilizes Form AA-4,
Coordination between railroad employers and the RRB is essential to properly administer the payment of benefits under the Railroad Retirement Act (RRA) and the Railroad Unemployment Insurance Act (RUIA). In order to enhance timely coordination activity, the RRB utilizes Form G-117a,
Completion is voluntary. One response is requested from each respondent. The RRB proposes no changes to Form G-117a.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1)
The Exchange proposes this rule change to provide that the Exchange would not be required to report to the securities information processor an Official Closing Price, as defined under Rule 123C(1)(e)(i), as an “M” sale condition. The proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of those statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.
The Exchange is proposing to provide that the Exchange would not be required to report to the securities information processor (“SIP”) an Official Closing Price, as defined under Rule 123C(1)(e)(i), as an “M” sale condition.
As set forth in the SIP Specifications, a price reported to the SIP by an exchange under the “M” sale condition, which is called the “Market Center Official Close,” is not used for purposes of determining a consolidated last sale price or the high or low price of a security and does not include any volume information. Each exchange determines what price could be reported to the SIP as its “Market Center Official Close.” To date, the Exchange has not reported to the SIP a price with an “M” sale condition.
By contrast, a trade reported to the SIP as a Market Center Closing Trade with a “6” sale condition includes volume information, is included in the consolidated last sale, and is included in the high or low price of a security. The Exchange reports to the SIP closing auction trades of a round lot or more with a “6” sale condition.
Recently, the Exchange amended Rule 123C(1)(e) to specify back-up procedures for determining an Official Closing Price for Exchange-listed securities if it is unable to conduct a closing transaction in one or more securities due to a systems or technical issue.
With this proposed rule change, the Exchange is modifying this statement to permit, but not require, the Exchange to report a price with an “M” sale condition to the SIP when the Official Closing Price is determined under Rule 123C(1)(e)(i). Specifically, the Exchange does not believe that it should publish an Official Closing Price to the SIP as an “M” value if there has not been a last-sale eligible trade in a security on a trading day. For example, based on feedback from industry participants, the Exchange understands that certain market participants, such as index providers and mutual funds, follow a different method of determining a security's closing price when there have not been any last-sale eligible trades on a trading day. Under these circumstances, the Exchange understands that an Official Closing Price reported to the SIP as an “M” sale condition that differs from how an industry market participant may determine such value for its own purposes could lead to confusion if a market participant's systems read the “M” value published by the SIP that differs from their calculation.
Accordingly, this proposed rule change is intended to provide that the Exchange would not be required to publish an Official Closing Price, as defined in Rule 123C(1)(e)(i), as an “M” sale condition to the SIP. And, as noted above, this proposed rule change would not alter how the Official Closing Price
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change would remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system because it would provide transparency that the Exchange's is not required to report a price to the SIP as an “M” sale condition. The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act because the “M” sale condition does not contribute to the consolidated last sale price for a security, the high or low price of a security, or reported volume for a security, and therefore is an informational value. The Exchange further believes that this proposed rule change is consistent with the protection of investors and the public interest because it would reduce confusion by eliminating publication to the SIP of a price that may conflict with how an index provider or mutual fund determines that value for a security if there are no last-sale eligible trades on a trading day. Finally, the Exchange believes that the proposed rule change would remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system because it would apply only when the Exchange is fully operational. If the Exchange is unable to conduct a closing transaction due to a systems or technical issue, current Rule 123C(1)(ii)—(iv) would govern, with no change.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The proposed rule change is not designed to address any competitive issues, but rather to specify that the Exchange would not be required to report an Official Closing Price to the SIP as an “M” sale condition if there has not been a last-sale eligible trade on a trading day.
No written comments were solicited or received with respect to the proposed rule change.
The Exchange has filed the proposed rule change pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(iii) of the Act
A proposed rule change filed under Rule 19b-4(f)(6)
At any time within 60 days of the filing of such proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings under Section 19(b)(2)(B)
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Brent J. Fields, Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
On October 4, 2016, NYSE Arca, Inc. (“NYSE Arca”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”), pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”)
Section 19(b)(2) of the Act
The Commission finds that it is appropriate to designate a longer period within which to take action on the proposed rule change so that it has sufficient time to consider the proposed rule change. Accordingly, the Commission, pursuant to Section 19(b)(2) of the Act,
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”),
The Exchange is filing with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”) a proposed rule change to amend the Fee Schedule on the BOX Market LLC (“BOX”) options facility. While changes to the fee schedule pursuant to this proposal will be effective upon filing, the changes will become operative on December 1, 2016. The text of the proposed rule change is available from the principal office of the Exchange, at the Commission's Public Reference Room and also on the Exchange's Internet Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The
The Exchange proposes to amend the Fee Schedule for trading on BOX to amend Section IV. of the BOX Fee Schedule, Eligible Orders Routed to an Away Exchange.
Currently, BOX uses third-party broker-dealers to route orders to other exchanges and incurs charges for each order routed to and executed at an away market, in addition to the transaction fees charged by other exchanges. To offset the fees charged to the Exchange for orders routed to other exchanges, the Exchange charges a $0.60 per contract fee for customer accounts. However, the Exchange charges no fee for non-Professional, Public Customer Directed Orders when: (i) Less than 45% of a Participants' monthly executions for such orders are routed to and executed at an Away Exchange; and (ii) 33% or more of a Participants' monthly executions for such orders occur through the PIP.
The Exchange is now proposing to amend Section IV of the BOX Fee Schedule. Specifically, the Exchange proposes to delete the exception to Section IV which does not charge non-Professional, Public Customer Directed orders as discussed above.
The Exchange believes that the proposal is consistent with the requirements of Section 6(b) of the Act, in general, and Section 6(b)(4) and 6(b)(5)of the Act,
BOX believes that proposed changes to Section IV of the BOX Fee Schedule are reasonable, equitable and not unfairly discriminatory. Presently, the Exchange charges customer accounts $0.60 per contract executed on away exchanges and exempts non-Professional, Public Customer accounts from the routing fee for orders received by BOX via Directed Order when certain execution thresholds are met. The Exchange notes that it is not proposing to change the fee amount. The Exchange believes that the current fee amount is reasonable and appropriate as it is in line with what is currently charged by the industry.
The Exchange notes that it operates in a highly competitive market in which market participants can readily direct order flow to competing venues or providers of routing services if they deem fee levels to be excessive. Finally, the Exchange notes that it constantly evaluates its routing fees, including profit and loss attributable to routing and would consider future adjustments to the routing fee to the extent it was recouping a significant profit or loss from routing to away options exchanges.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act.
No written comments were either solicited or received.
The foregoing rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(ii) of the Exchange Act
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend the rule change if it appears to the Commission that the action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or would otherwise further the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1)
The Exchange proposes to amend Rule 67—Equities to modify the Web site data publication requirements relating to the Regulation NMS Plan to Implement a Tick Size Pilot Program (“Plan”). The proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of those statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.
On August 25, 2014, NYSE Group, Inc., on behalf of the Exchange, New York Stock Exchange LLC, NYSE Arca, Inc., the Bats BZX Exchange, Inc. f/k/a BATS Exchange, Inc. (“BZX”), BATS BYX Exchange, Inc. f/k/a BATS Y-Exchange, Inc. (“BYX”), Bats EDGA Exchange, Inc., Bats EDGX Exchange, Inc., Chicago Stock Exchange, Inc., Financial Industry Regulatory Authority, Inc. (“FINRA”), NASDAQ OMX BX, Inc., NASDAQ OMX PHLX LLC, and the Nasdaq Stock Market LLC (collectively “Participants”) filed with the Commission, pursuant to Section 11A of the Act
The Plan is designed to allow the Commission, market participants, and the public to study and assess the impact of increment conventions on the liquidity and trading of the common stock of small-capitalization companies. Each Participant is required to comply, and to enforce compliance by its member organizations, as applicable, with the provisions of the Plan.
The Exchange adopted rule amendments to implement the requirements of the Plan, including relating to the Plan's data collection requirements and requirements relating to Web site data publication.
The Exchange is proposing amendments to Rule 67(b)(2)—Equities (regarding Appendix B.I and B.II data) and Rule 67(b)(3)(C)—Equities (regarding Appendix B.IV data), to provide that data required to be made available on the Exchange's Web site be published within 120 calendar days following month end. In addition, the proposed amendments to Supplementary Material .70 to Rule 67—Equities would provide that, notwithstanding the provisions of paragraphs (b)(2), (b)(3)(C) and (b)(5), the Exchange shall make data for the Pre-Pilot period publicly available on the Exchange's or DEA's Web site pursuant to Appendix B and C to the Plan by February 28, 2017.
The purpose of delaying the publication of the Web site data is to address confidentiality concerns by providing for the passage of additional time between the market information reflected in the data and the public availability of such information.
Finally, the Exchange is proposing an amendment to Rule 67(b)(5)—Equities (regarding data described in Item III of Appendix B) to add a provision identical to Rule 67(b)(2)—Equities (as amended above pursuant to the proposed changes described above to such Rule), which shall require the Exchange to make the data described in Item III of Appendix B publicly available on the Exchange Web site within 120 calendar days following month end at no charge and shall not identify the member organization that generated the data. The Exchange is proposing such an amendment in order to add a provision in its rules to comply with such requirement and provision in the Plan.
As noted in Item 2 of this filing, the Exchange has filed the proposed rule change for immediate effectiveness and has requested that the Commission waive the 30-day operative delay. If the Commission waives the 30-day operative delay, the operative date of the proposed rule change will be the date of filing.
The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
The Exchange believes that this proposal is consistent with the Act because it is designed to assist the Participants in meeting their regulatory obligations pursuant to the Plan and is in furtherance of the objectives of the Plan, as identified by the SEC. The Exchange believes that the instant proposal is consistent with the Act in that it is designed to address confidentiality concerns by permitting the Exchange to delay Web site publication to provide for passage of additional time between the market information reflected in the data and the public availability of such information.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will result in any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The Exchange notes that the proposed rule change implements the provisions of the Plan, and is designed to assist the Participants in meeting their regulatory obligations pursuant to the Plan.
The proposal is intended to address confidentiality concerns that may adversely impact competition, especially for Pilot Securities that may have a relatively small number of designated Market Makers, by permitting the Exchange to delay Web site publication to provide for passage of additional time between the market information reflected in the data and the public availability of such information. The Exchange notes that the proposal does not alter the information required to be submitted to the SEC.
No written comments were solicited or received with respect to the proposed rule change.
Because the foregoing proposed rule change does not: (i) Significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, it has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)
A proposed rule change filed under Rule 19b-4(f)(6)
The Exchange notes that the proposed rule change implements the provisions of the Plan, and is designed to assist the Participants in meeting their regulatory obligations pursuant to the Plan. The proposal is intended to address confidentiality concerns by permitting the Exchange to delay Web site publication to provide for passage of additional time between the market information reflected in the data and the public availability of such information. The proposal also does not alter the information required to be submitted to the SEC.
The Commission believes that waiving the 30-day operative delay is consistent with the protection of investors and the public interest because it will allow the Exchange to implement proposed changes that are intended to address confidentiality concerns. The Commission notes that some Pilot data was scheduled to be published on November 30, 2016. Therefore, the Commission hereby
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1)
The Exchange proposes to amend Rule 7.46 to modify the Web site data publication requirements relating to the Regulation NMS Plan to Implement a Tick Size Pilot Program (“Plan”). The proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of those statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.
On August 25, 2014, NYSE Group, Inc., on behalf of the Exchange, New York Stock Exchange LLC, NYSE MKT LLC, the Bats BZX Exchange, Inc. f/k/a BATS Exchange, Inc. (“BZX”), BATS BYX Exchange, Inc. f/k/a BATS Y-Exchange, Inc. (“BYX”), Bats EDGA Exchange, Inc., Bats EDGX Exchange, Inc., Chicago Stock Exchange, Inc., Financial Industry Regulatory Authority, Inc. (“FINRA”), NASDAQ OMX BX, Inc., NASDAQ OMX PHLX LLC, and the Nasdaq Stock Market LLC (collectively “Participants”) filed with the Commission, pursuant to Section 11A of the Act
The Plan is designed to allow the Commission, market participants, and the public to study and assess the impact of increment conventions on the liquidity and trading of the common stock of small-capitalization companies. Each Participant is required to comply, and to enforce compliance by its member organizations, as applicable, with the provisions of the Plan.
The Exchange adopted rule amendments to implement the requirements of the Plan, including relating to the Plan's data collection requirements and requirements relating to Web site data publication.
The Exchange is proposing amendments to Rule 7.46(b)(2) (regarding Appendix B.I and B.II data) and Rule 7.46(b)(3)(C) (regarding Appendix B.IV data), to provide that data required to be made available on the Exchange's Web site be published within 120 calendar days following month end. In addition, the proposed amendments to Supplementary Material .70 to Rule 7.46 would provide that, notwithstanding the provisions of paragraphs (b)(2), (b)(3)(C) and (b)(5), the Exchange shall make data for the Pre-Pilot period publicly available on the Exchange's or DEA's Web site pursuant to Appendix B and C to the Plan by February 28, 2017.
The purpose of delaying the publication of the Web site data is to address confidentiality concerns by providing for the passage of additional time between the market information reflected in the data and the public availability of such information.
The proposed rule change also will provide that, with respect to Appendix C data, The Corporation, as DEA, shall collect the data required by Item I of Appendix C to the Plan for those ETP Holders that are Market Makers for which the Corporation is DEA, and on a monthly basis transmit such data, categorized by the Control Group and each Test Group, to the SEC in a pipe delimited format. The Corporation, as DEA, shall also make the data collected pursuant to subparagraph (4) of Rule 7.46(b) available to FINRA for aggregation and publication, categorized by the Control Group and each Test Group, on the FINRA Web site pursuant to FINRA Rules.
Finally, the Corporation is proposing an amendment to Rule 7.46(b)(5) (regarding data described in Item III of Appendix B) to add a provision identical to Rule 7.46(b)(2) (as amended above pursuant to the proposed changes described above to such Rule), which shall require the Corporation to make the data described in Item III of Appendix B publicly available on the Corporation Web site within 120 calendar days following month end at no charge and shall not identify the ETP Holder that generated the data. The Corporation is proposing such an amendment in order to add a provision in its rules to comply with such requirement and provision in the Plan.
As noted in Item 2 of this filing, the Exchange has filed the proposed rule change for immediate effectiveness and has requested that the Commission waive the 30-day operative delay. If the Commission waives the 30-day operative delay, the operative date of the proposed rule change will be the date of filing.
The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
The Exchange believes that this proposal is consistent with the Act because it is designed to assist the Participants in meeting their regulatory obligations pursuant to the Plan and is in furtherance of the objectives of the Plan, as identified by the SEC. The Exchange believes that the instant proposal is consistent with the Act in that it is designed to address confidentiality concerns by permitting the Exchange to delay Web site publication to provide for passage of additional time between the market information reflected in the data and the public availability of such information.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will result in any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The Exchange notes that the proposed rule change implements the provisions of the Plan, and is designed to assist the Participants in meeting their regulatory obligations pursuant to the Plan.
The proposal is intended to address confidentiality concerns that may adversely impact competition, especially for Pilot Securities that may have a relatively small number of designated Market Makers, by permitting the Exchange to delay Web site publication to provide for passage of additional time between the market information reflected in the data and the public availability of such information. The Exchange notes that the proposal does not alter the information required to be submitted to the SEC.
No written comments were solicited or received with respect to the proposed rule change.
Because the foregoing proposed rule change does not: (i) Significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, it has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)
A proposed rule change filed under Rule 19b-4(f)(6)
The Exchange notes that the proposed rule change implements the provisions of the Plan, and is designed to assist the Participants in meeting their regulatory obligations pursuant to the Plan. The proposal is intended to address confidentiality concerns by permitting the Exchange to delay Web site publication to provide for passage of additional time between the market information reflected in the data and the public availability of such information. The proposal also does not alter the information required to be submitted to the SEC.
The Commission believes that waiving the 30-day operative delay is consistent with the protection of investors and the public interest because it will allow the Exchange to implement proposed changes that are intended to address confidentiality concerns. The Commission notes that some Pilot data was scheduled to be published on November 30, 2016. Therefore, the Commission hereby waives the 30-day operative delay and designates the proposed rule change to be operative as of November 30, 2016.
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
The Exchange proposes to rename the title of rules that assess fees for connectivity to systems operated by the Exchange or FINRA under Equities Rule 7015 and Options Chapter XV, Section 3, and to make related changes to other rules that reference the renamed rules.
The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The purpose of the proposed rule change is to rename related text in Rule 7015 and Chapter XV Section 3 to more accurately reflect the services being provided and eliminate an outdated term. Both Rule 7015 and Chapter XV, Section 3, include connectivity to the TradeInfo
The Exchange is also proposing to amend reference to the title of Rule 7015 in Rule 7011(a), which is titled “Collection of Exchange Fees and Other Claims and Billing Policy,” and is also amending reference to the title of Chapter XV, Section 3, found under Section 7(c)(2) of Chapter XV to reflect the amended titles of Rule 7015 and Chapter XV, Section 3. Last, the Exchange is deleting “OMX” from the name of the Exchange in references to the Exchange in Rules 7011 and 7015. The Exchange removed “OMX” from its name effective January 9, 2016,
The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The Exchange believes that, to the extent it has any impact on competition, the proposed change will promote competition by making it clear to all market participants and exchange competitors what is provided under Rule 7015 and Chapter, XV Section 3.
No written comments were either solicited or received.
Because the foregoing proposed rule change does not: (i) Significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, it has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(iii) of the Act
A proposed rule change filed under Rule 19b-4(f)(6) normally does not become operative for 30 days after the date of its filing. However, Rule 19b-4(f)(6)(iii)
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is: (i) Necessary or appropriate in the public interest; (ii) for the protection of investors; or (iii) otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Brent J. Fields, Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
Copies of the submission, all subsequent amendments, all written statements with respect to the proposed rule change that are filed with the Commission, and all written communications relating to the proposed rule change between the Commission and any person, other than those that may be withheld from the public in accordance with the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552, will be available for Web site viewing and printing in the Commission's Public Reference Room, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549, on official business days between the hours of 10:00 a.m. and 3:00 p.m. Copies of the filing also will be available for inspection and copying at the principal office of the Exchange. All comments received will be posted without change; the Commission does not edit personal identifying information from submissions. You should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly. All submissions should refer to File Number SR-BX-2016-066 and should be submitted on or before January 3, 2017.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
On May 27, 2016, The Depository Trust Company (“DTC”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”) proposed rule change SR-DTC-2016-003 pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
Section II below provides an overview and brief description of both DTC and the proposed rule change. Section III provides a summary of the comments received and DTC's response to those comments. Section IV provides a discussion of the proposed rule change,
DTC plays a critical function in the national clearance and settlement system. It is the nation's central securities depository, registered as a clearing agency under Section 17A of the Act,
DTC's participants (“Participants”) are primarily broker-dealers and banks, but as the nation's central securities depository, its role and actions also affect issuers and investors.
To facilitate book-entry transfers and other services that DTC provides for its Participants, Deposited Securities are generally registered on the books of the issuer of the Eligible Security (typically, in a register maintained by a transfer agent) in DTC's nominee name, Cede & Co. DTC maintains Deposited Securities that are eligible for book-entry services in “fungible bulk,” meaning that each Participant whose securities of an issue have been credited to its securities account has a
As detailed in a proposed rule change previously filed by DTC on December 5, 2013,
Prior to filing the current proposed rule change, DTC's practice was to impose a Deposit Chill upon detecting suspiciously large deposits of a thinly-traded Eligible Security.
Similarly, DTC's former practice was to impose a Global Lock if it became aware of a judicial or administrative proceeding alleging a violation of Section 5 of the Securities Act of 1933 (“Securities Act”) with respect to an Eligible Security on deposit with DTC.
DTC withdrew its prior proposed rule change regarding Deposit Chill and Global Lock procedures, as described
Accordingly, as modified by Amendment 1, DTC's proposal would add Rule 33 to DTC's Rules to establish the limited circumstances under which DTC would impose a Restriction, as well as the fair procedures for the issuer to receive notice and an opportunity to challenge the Restriction and the standards DTC would apply to determine when to release a Restriction. Section 1 of the proposed rule would establish the four specific circumstances in which DTC may impose either a Deposit Chill or a Global Lock. Section 2 would require DTC to send written notice of the Restriction to the issuer of the Eligible Security detailing the basis for the Restriction and the specific procedures for the issuer to follow to challenge the Restriction. If an issuer chooses to challenge a Restriction under Section 2, Section 3 of the proposed rule establishes DTC's obligations with respect to providing a written decision from an independent Review Officer in response to that challenge. Section 4 identifies the specific bases upon which DTC would release a Restriction, even in the absence of a challenge by an issuer. Finally, Section 5 would clarify and limit the scope and applicability of the proposed rule. Each section of the proposed rule change is discussed in more detail below.
Section 1 of the proposed rule establishes the conditions and the type of Restriction that DTC would impose under various circumstances. Under Section 1(a), DTC would impose a Global Lock if an Eligible Security is the subject of a trading halt imposed by the FINRA. Under Section 1(b), DTC would impose a Global Lock if an Eligible Security is the subject of a trading suspension imposed by the Commission. The proposed rule provides, however, that DTC would be permitted to decline to impose a Global Lock under Sections 1(a) and (b) of the proposed rule change if DTC reasonably determines that the Global Lock would not further the regulatory purpose of the trading halt or suspension.
Under Section 1(c) of the proposed rule change, DTC would impose a Restriction if ordered to do so by a court of competent jurisdiction. DTC would impose the particular Restriction imposed by court, or if no Restriction is specified, DTC would impose a Global Lock. According to DTC, Restrictions would be necessary in the circumstances described in Sections 1(a)-(c) to prevent settlement of trades that continue despite the halt or suspension, and prevent the liquidation of a halted or suspended position through DTC,
Lastly, under Section 1(d) of the proposed rule change, DTC would be permitted to impose a Restriction, either Deposit Chill or Global Lock, if it identifies or otherwise becomes aware of a need for immediate action to avert an imminent harm, injury, or other such material adverse consequence to DTC or its Participants that could arise from further deposits of, or continued book-entry services with respect to, an Eligible Security. This provision would provide DTC with flexibility to address unforeseen risks to DTC and its Participants, which would not be addressed by the more narrow conditions enumerated in Sections 1(a)-(c). DTC asserts that Section 1(d) would be invoked rarely, and only if such a Restriction would be necessary to avoid a significant material harm to DTC or one or more of its Participants.
Section 2 of the proposed rule would establish the timing and procedural requirements for DTC to provide an issuer with notice of a Restriction and for the issuer to object to that Restriction. First, DTC would be required to send a written “Restriction Notice” to the issuer of the Eligible Security within three business days of the imposition of the Restriction.
Section 3 of the proposed rule change establishes the process for DTC to issue a Restriction Decision when, under Section 2, it receives a Restriction Response. Specifically, Section 3 provides that DTC shall provide the issuer with a written “Restriction Decision” within 10 business days of receipt of the Restriction Response.
After receiving the Restriction Decision, an issuer would have 10 business days to submit a supplemental written response (“Supplement”). However, a Supplement could only be submitted for the purpose of establishing that DTC made a clerical mistake or mistake arising from an oversight or omission in reviewing the Restriction Response. If the issuer submits a Supplement, the Review Officer would provide a Supplement Decision within 10 business days after the Supplement was delivered. Section 3(d) of the proposed rule specifies that, taken together, the Restriction Notice, the Restriction Response, the Restriction Decision, the Supplement, the Supplement Decision, and any other documents submitted in connection with the proposed procedures would constitute the record for purposes of any appeal to the Commission.
Section 4 of the proposed rule establishes the specific grounds upon which DTC would be required to release a Restriction imposed pursuant to Section 1 of the proposed rule, even in the absence of a Restriction Response from an issuer, by establishing when adequate cause for the release of the Restriction would be deemed to exist. For Global Locks imposed pursuant to Sections 1(a) or (b) of the proposed rule change (
As noted above, Section 1(d) of the proposed rule change is intended to provide DTC with necessary flexibility to address unforeseen risks to it and its Participants, and thus DTC notes it is impossible to outline with specificity all of the scenarios that could give rise to a release of a Restriction under Section 1(d). However, to provide a workable standard for evaluating when the release of a Restriction imposed under Section 1(d), DTC provides that “adequate cause” for the release of the Restriction would exist when DTC reasonably determines that the release of the Restriction would not pose a threat of imminent adverse consequences to DTC or its Participants—typically meaning that the conditions underlying original basis for the Restriction have abated. For example, a Section 1(d) Restriction would be released when DTC determines that the perceived harm has passed or is significantly remote, or when the basis for the Restriction no longer exists.
Lastly, Section 4(e) of the proposed rule change would require DTC to release a Restriction if DTC reasonably determined that its imposition of the Restriction was based on a clerical mistake.
Section 5 of the proposed rule change clarifies the scope and applicability of the proposed rule change. Section 5(a) specifies that the proposed rules would not affect DTC's ability to lift or modify a Restriction, thus preserving DTC's flexibility to release or modify a Restriction based on the needs of DTC and its Participants. Section 5(b) clarifies that the proposed rules do not affect DTC's ability to operationally restrict book-entry services, Deposits, or other services in the ordinary course of business pursuant to other provisions of the DTC Rules, as such restrictions would not constitute Restrictions under the proposed rule change. Sections 5(c) and (d) would permit DTC to communicate with the issuer or its transfer agent or representative, if any, provided that substantive communications are memorialized in writing to be included in the record for purposes of any appeal to the Commission, and to send out a Restriction Notice prior to the imposition of a Restriction (thus giving the issuer or its transfer agent advance notice of the Restriction), respectively.
The Commission received 10 comment letters in response to the proposed rule change.
One commenter generally endorses the proposed rule change, stating that the proposed procedures for fair notice and opportunity to challenge would
STA and Kesner express general concerns with DTC, which STA and Kesner claim functions as a monopoly in the clearance and settlement of securities, exercising discretion to deny access to its services.
STA and Kesner argue that the proposed rule change is inconsistent with the Act for the following reasons: (i) The proposed basis for the imposition of Restrictions is vague and discretionary and inconsistent with the intent of Section 19 of the Exchange Act; (ii) the proposed basis for imposition of Restrictions would hurt issuers and shareholders; and (iii) Congress did not intend for DTC to be a fraud regulator. Each argument is discussed below.
Commenters were generally supportive of the proposed basis for imposing Restrictions under Sections 1(a), (b), and (c) of the proposed rule change,
Similar to STA, Kesner expresses concern that Section 1(d) of the proposed rule change would give authority to DTC to impose Restrictions merely upon the initiation of an investigation or enforcement proceeding where it concludes a threat is imminent requiring immediate action.
According to Kesner, DTC's previous imposition of Restrictions, in many cases, were only based upon “flimsy legal footing, notice of commencement of an investigation or inquiry, anecdotal observations or even unproven news stories.”
STA contends that the proposed rule change was not a “good faith attempt” by DTC to comply with the Commission's order in
STA states that the proposed rule change is inconsistent with Section 17A(b)(3)(F) of the Act
Commenters object to the proposed rule change on the basis that they do not believe that it is consistent with either Section 17A(b)(3)(H) of the Act
Second, Kesner states that DTC's imposition of Restrictions under Section 1(d) of the proposed rule change, if approved, should include specific methods by which an issuer can successfully appeal and require DTC to remove the Restriction (or provide for automatic removal after a short period) that are fair and reasonable and that do not burden smaller issuers with excessive costs or delays during the denial of the DTC's essential services.
Third, STA contends that Section 3 of the proposed rule change as originally proposed (
Fourth, STA expresses concern that the Review Officer tasked with reviewing a Restriction Response could be located in an office near the person that imposed the Restriction, could have been involved in imposing the Restriction, and could be charged with overturning the decision made by a colleague.
Finally, commenters raise other points that either did not pertain to the proposed rule change, or did not suggest how such issues would make the proposed rule change inconsistent with the Act.
As discussed more fully below, DTC argues that the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act in that it is consistent with Section 17A(b)(3)(F) of the Act because it is designed to protect investors and the public interest, and it provides fair procedures as required by Section 17A(b)(3)(H) of the Act.
In response to STA's comment that the basis for imposition of Restrictions under the proposed rule change is vague, DTC asserts that Sections 1(a)-(c) of the proposed rule change provide specific, objective trigger events for imposing Restrictions and would be the primary focus of the Restriction program going forward.
In response to Kesner's comment that Section 1(d) of the proposed rule change would give authority to DTC to impose Restrictions merely upon the initiation of an investigation or enforcement proceeding where DTC concludes a threat is imminent and requires immediate action, DTC asserts that the Commission recognized in
DTC states, generally, that the proposed rule change would assure the safeguarding of securities by providing a mechanism for DTC to act quickly and efficiently to screen out prior to deposit, or restrict after deposit, securities that pose an imminent harm to DTC or its Participants, or for which trading has been prohibited by a court or applicable regulator.
Further, DTC emphasizes that it would not impose a Restriction if DTC believes that the suspension or halt does not implicate concerns that DTC believes should lead to a Restriction.
With respect to Section 1(d) of the proposed rule change, DTC asserts that it believes that Section 1(d) is consistent with the Act because it would provide DTC with the flexibility it needs to protect its fungible bulk, which it holds on behalf of its Participants, from imminent harm that could arise from circumstances that would neither justify nor be affected by a trading halt or suspension,
In response to comments that Congress did not intend DTC to act as a fraud regulator or to enforce laws unrelated to clearance and settlement, DTC asserts that Sections 1(a)-(c) of the proposed rule change would further the regulatory purpose behind a Commission, FINRA, or court action by stopping the flow of questionable securities in other book-entry transfers that may continue despite other regulatory action.
With respect to Section 1(d), DTC states that there are situations that would require DTC to impose a Restriction that might not require a Commission suspension or FINRA halt.
DTC states that the proposed rule change is consistent with Section 17A(b)(3)(H) of the Act
In response to STA's specific claim that the proposal is procedurally deficient because it lacks a stated time period for the Review Officer to complete the review, DTC submitted Amendment No.1 to Section 3 of the proposed rule change, which, as described above, establishes a 10 business-day deadline, with limited extension, for the Review Officer to complete its review of the Restriction Response and for DTC to provide a Restriction Decision.
Similarly, in response to both STA's and Kesner's comments that Restrictions imposed under Section 1(d) of the
In response to STA's and Kesner's comments on the independence of the Review Officer, and STA's comment that notice of a Restriction should be at least contemporaneously with the imposition of the Restriction, DTC states that it believes the proposed rule change is sufficiently clear to require that the Review Officer not be conflicted and that the Review Officer's decision would be unbiased and independent,
Section 19(b)(2)(C) of the Act directs the Commission to approve a proposed rule change of a self-regulatory organization if it finds that such proposed rule change is consistent with the requirements of the Act and rules and regulations thereunder applicable to such organization.
Section 17A(b)(3)(F) of the Act requires, among other things, that the rules of the clearing agency are designed to assure the safeguarding of securities in the custody or control of the clearing agency and, in general, protect investors and the public interest.
Sections 1(a) and (b) of the proposed rule change, respectively, would authorize DTC to impose a Global Lock where FINRA has issued an order for the halt of trading of an Eligible Security or the Commission has issued an order for the suspension of trading of an Eligible Security. Section 1(c) of the proposed rule change would authorize DTC to impose a Restriction when ordered to do so by a court of competent jurisdiction. In such a situation, DTC would impose the Restriction specified by the court, or a Global Lock if no Restriction was specified. As noted above, commenters are generally supportive of the proposed basis for imposing Restrictions under Sections 1(a), (b), and (c) of the proposed rule change.
The proposed rule change would provide DTC the discretion to
Section 1(d) of the proposed rule change would authorize DTC to impose a Restriction upon identifying or becoming aware of a need to take such action to avoid imminent harm, injury, or other such material adverse consequence to DTC or its Participants that could arise from further deposits of, or continued book-entry services to, a particular Eligible Security. As described above, commenters generally raise three objections to Section 1(d): (i) Section 1(d) is impermissibly vague, thereby granting DTC unfettered discretion to impose Restrictions under it; (ii) issuers and investors would be harmed by Restrictions imposed under this provision, including because it would stop all book-entry services for that security, possibly affecting the value of the security;
The Commission does not find that Section 1(d) of the proposed rule change is impermissibly vague, or that it would grant DTC unfettered discretion to impose Restrictions without a proper basis or adequate protections for issuers. First, Section 1(d) is not impermissibly vague because it establishes specific criteria for imposing a Restriction and would require DTC to meet a high standard before it would be permitted to do so under that provision. Specifically, DTC would be required to identify (i) a need for
Regarding DTC's discretion under proposed Section 1(d), the Commission agrees that it would be impossible for DTC to predict and codify every possible circumstance that could taint DTC's fungible bulk, and thus harm DTC, its Participants, issuers, and investors. Without Section 1(d) of the proposed rule change, DTC would not have the authority or discretion to impose a Restriction when a significant concern arises that would not fall under Sections 1(a)-(c) because it is not related to a halt, suspension, or court order.
The Commission also does not find that the potential harm that could be caused to issuers and investors by Restrictions imposed under Section 1(d) outweighs the benefits to DTC, DTC's Participants, issuers, and investors gained by permitting DTC to impose Restrictions in the limited circumstances, and subject to the processes and procedures, that would be established by the proposed rule change. Any such potential harm would be mitigated not only by the issuer's ability under the proposed rule change to challenge a Restriction with DTC, but also by the issuer's ability to then appeal DTC's Restriction Decision to the Commission. Further, DTC, DTC's Participants, issuers, and investors could all be harmed if DTC did not have the authority to impose a Restriction in the circumstances described in Sections 1(a)-(d). Rather, the Commission finds that Section 1(d) of the proposed rule change is necessary to provide DTC with adequate flexibility and authority to prevent and avoid imminent harm to DTC and its Participants, as well as issuers and investors, that could arise as a result of unforeseen and unpredictable events outside DTC's ability to predict or control. In addition, the Commission believes that DTC's flexibility to impose a Restriction under Section 1(d) is appropriately balanced with the interests of issuers and shareholders of the security by Section 4(d) of the proposed rule change, which would require DTC to release the Restriction when it reasonably determines that the original basis for the Restriction has abated, and release of the Restriction would no longer pose a threat of imminent harm, injury, or other such material adverse consequent to DTC or its Participants.
Finally, with respect to commenters' third objection, that Section 1(d) of the proposed rule change is inconsistent with Section 17A(b)(3)(F) of the Act because Congress did not intend DTC to act as a fraud regulator or to enforce laws unrelated to clearance and settlement,
Based on the above, the Commission finds that the proposed rule change, is designed to help assure the safeguarding of securities in the custody or control of DTC, and, in general, protect investors and the public interest, as required by Section 17A(b)(3)(F) of the Act.
Section 17A(b)(3)(H) of the Act requires, among other things, that the rules of a clearing agency are in accordance with the provisions of Section 17A(b)(5)(B) of the Act, and, in general, provide a fair procedure with respect to the prohibition or limitation by the clearing agency of any person with respect to access to services offered by the clearing agency.
In
The Commission also held in
The Commission finds that the proposed rule change appropriately addresses the Commission's findings in
As described above, commenters' concerns with the notice and objection procedures that would be established by the proposed rule change were as follows: (i) The proposed rule change could not be fair and could not satisfy the requirements set forth in
The Commission believes that the limited discretion provided to DTC under Section 1(d) of the proposed rule change does not render the proposed rule change unfair or unable to satisfy the requirements of Section 17A(b)(3)(H) of the Act and the Commission's decision in
Further, although Section 1(d) of the proposed rule change would authorize DTC to impose a Restriction to avert an imminent harm, DTC could not maintain the Restriction indefinitely without providing expedited fair
With respect to the independence of the Review Officer, Section 3 of the proposed rule change requires an officer of DTC, as defined in DTC's By-Laws, who did not have responsibility for the initial imposition of the Restriction, to review the Restriction Response and provide the Restriction Decision to the issuer. As the Commission previously articulated in
The Commission believes that the proposed rule change establishes clear, consistent, and fair procedures for the imposition of Restrictions and for providing issuers with notice of Restrictions and opportunity to be heard. Section 1 identifies the specific circumstances under which a Restriction will be imposed, Sections 2 and 3 would establish clear, policies, procedures, and specific requirements for providing issuers with notice of Restrictions and an opportunity to be heard, and Section 4 of the proposed rule change would establish clear standards for determining when adequate exists to release a Restriction. The Commission therefore finds that the proposed rule change, as modified by Amendment No. 1, provides for fair procedures with respect to the prohibition or limitation by the clearing agency of any person with respect to access to services offered by the clearing agency, as required by Section 17A(b)(3)(H) of the Act.
On the basis of the foregoing, the Commission finds that the proposal, as modified by Amendment No. 1, is consistent with the requirements of the Act and in particular with the requirements of Section 17A of the Act
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”)
The Exchange is filing this proposed rule change in connection with a Transaction (“Transaction”) whereby Exchange Acquisition Corporation (“Merger Sub”), a corporation organized under the laws of the State of Delaware and wholly-owned subsidiary of North America Casin Holdings, Inc. (“NA Casin Holdings”), a corporation organized under the laws of the State of Delaware,
The text of the proposed Third Amended and Restated Certificate of Incorporation of CHX Holdings (“CHX Holdings Certificate”) is attached as Exhibit 5A.
The text of this proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of those statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.
The purpose of this proposed rule filing is to adopt and amend rules and other relevant corporate governing documents in order to permit the Exchange and CHX Holdings to effect the Transaction.
Since February 8, 2005, CHX has been a wholly-owned subsidiary of CHX Holdings.
CHX Holdings is beneficially owned by 193 firms or individuals, including Participants
Pursuant to the terms of a Merger Agreement dated February 4, 2016 (“Merger Agreement”) by and among NA Casin Holdings, Merger Sub, Chongqing Casin Enterprise Group Co., LTD. (“Chongqing Casin”), a limited company organized under the laws of the People's Republic of China (“PRC”), Richard G. Pane solely in his capacity as the Stockholders Representative thereunder, and CHX Holdings, Merger Sub will merge into CHX Holdings,
Upon the Closing, all of the outstanding and issued shares of NA Casin Holdings will be held by the following firms and individuals (“Indirect Upstream Owners” and with NA Casin Holdings “Upstream Owners”) in the following percentages:
•
•
The Exchange submits the following regarding the Indirect Upstream Owners:
• The only Related Persons
• There are no other Related Persons among the Indirect Upstream Owners.
• None of the Indirect Upstream Owners directly, or indirectly through one or more intermediaries, controls, or is controlled by, or is under common control with, a governmental entity or any political subdivision thereof.
As Related Persons, NA Casin Group and Castle YAC would own a combined 39% voting interest in NA Casin Holdings and, by extension, CHX Holdings, which is within the proposed 40% Concentration Limitation of NA Casin Holdings and CHX Holdings, as described below.
The Exchange submits that execution of the proposed NACH Stockholders' Agreement would not result in the parties to the agreement becoming Related Persons for the purposes of compliance with the proposed Ownership and Voting Limitations of NA Casin Holdings and CHX Holdings (“Ownership and Voting Limitations”). Generally, the proposed NACH Stockholders' Agreement includes provisions governing the relationship between the Indirect Upstream Owners, which are intended to protect the ownership interests of the respective individual Indirect Upstream Owners. While the proposed NACH Stockholders' Agreement includes various transfer of shares provisions,
The Exchange further notes that execution of the Saliba Put Agreement or the Raptor Put Agreement would not result in any Indirect Upstream Owners becoming Related Persons for the purposes of compliance with the proposed Ownership and Voting Limitations. Specifically, the Saliba Put Agreement grants Saliba a put option (“Saliba Put Option”) that, if exercised by Saliba, would compel NA Casin Holdings (and not another Indirect Upstream Owner) to purchase, or arrange for an unspecified third-party to purchase, a specified amount of Saliba's equity interest in NA Casin Holdings. Similarly, the Raptor Put Agreement grants Raptor a put option (“Raptor Put Option”) that, if exercised by Raptor, would compel NA Casin Holdings (and not another Indirect Upstream Owner) to purchase, or arrange for an unspecified third-party to purchase, a specified amount of Raptor's equity interest in NA Casin Holdings. Accordingly, the Exchange submits that execution of the Saliba Put Agreement or the Raptor Put Agreement would not result in the parties to the agreement becoming Related Persons for the purposes of compliance with the proposed Ownership and Voting Limitations.
Following the Closing, CHX will remain a Delaware for-profit stock corporation, with authority to issue 1,000 shares of common stock, all of which will remain owned by CHX Holdings.
Following the Closing, CHXBD will remain a Delaware limited liability corporation of which CHX Holdings will remain the sole member. Pursuant to Article 19, Rule 2 of CHX Rules, CHXBD provides the outbound routing of orders from the Exchange to other trading centers. CHXBD operates a facility (as defined in Section 3(a)(2) of the Exchange Act)
The Exchange states that all of the provisions of Article 19, Rule 2 of CHX Rules governing the operation of CHXBD will remain in full force and effect at all times prior to and after the Closing. The Exchange, on behalf of CHXBD, will provide notice to, and obtain any required consents from, FINRA, for the Transaction.
The Exchange proposes to retain most of the current provisions of the CHX Certificate and Bylaws, except that the Exchange proposes to amend certain requirements regarding CHX's board and committee composition and procedures to be largely similar to the board and committee composition requirements and procedures of the National Stock Exchange, Inc. (“NSX”).
Initially, the Exchange proposes the following non-substantive amendments to the CHX Certificate:
• Amend the title to CHX Certificate to reflect “Amended and Restated Certificate of Incorporation of the Chicago Stock Exchange, Inc.”
• Add an attestation clause and signature block to the end of the proposed CHX Certificate.
The Exchange also proposes the following non-substantive amendments to the CHX Bylaws:
• Move Articles I through XI of the current CHX Bylaws to Article II through XII of the proposed CHX Bylaws, in light of the adoption of the definitions under Article I of the proposed CHX Bylaws, as discussed below, and amend all citations to reflect the new Article.
• Amend references to each section under an Article to reflect the Article to which it is associated (
As discussed in detail below, the proposed CHX board and committee composition and procedure requirements are similar to the board and committee composition and procedure requirements of NSX,
• include a new board composition requirement that at least 20% of the CHX Board be comprised of CHX Holdings Directors, which is not an NSX requirement;
• require a minimum of ten CHX Board directors, as opposed to a minimum of seven NSX board directors;
• maintain the current position of Vice Chairman and associated responsibilities, which is not an NSX requirement; and
• maintain current procedures for selecting members of CHX Board committees, current composition requirements for CHX Board committees (
Initially, the Exchange proposes to adopt Article I of the proposed CHX Bylaws to provide definitions for certain terms used throughout the proposed CHX Bylaws, which are largely similar to the terms and definitions under Article I of the Third Amended and Restated By-Laws of NSX (“NSX By-Laws”).
Article II and Article IV of the current CHX Bylaws and Article FIFTH of the current CHX Certificate provide, among other things, CHX Board composition and procedure requirements, the key provisions of which include the following:
• The CHX Board shall consist of not fewer than ten (10) and not more than sixteen (16) directors (“CHX Directors”) divided into three classes, with the term of office of one class expiring each year.
• The CHX Board shall consist of the following:
○ The Chief Executive Officer (“CEO”) of the CHX;
○ Public Directors,
○ Participant Directors.
• The Chairman of the CHX Board shall be either the CEO of CHX or a Public Director and if the CEO of CHX is the Chairman of the CHX Board, the CEO may not hold any other office at CHX.
• The Nominating and Governance Committee shall nominate directors for each director position standing for election, provided that candidates for STP Director positions may also be nominated by Participants.
• CHX Directors are elected to full three-year terms at the annual meeting of stockholders at which a quorum is present by a plurality of the votes cast.
• Vacancies are generally filled only with a person nominated by the Chairman and Vice Chairman and elected by a majority of the directors then in office, though less than a quorum or by a sole remaining director, provided that the CHX Board composition requirements are met.
• Members of the CHX Board (“CHX Directors”) may only be removed for cause.
The Exchange now proposes various amendments to the CHX Board composition requirements, which include the following key amendments:
• The CHX Board shall consist of not fewer than ten (10) and not more than twenty-five (25) CHX Directors and shall not be divided into classes. NSX requires at least seven directors.
• The CHX Board shall be comprised of:
○ The CEO of the CHX;
○ at least 50% Non-Industry Directors
○ at least 20% Participant Directors;
○ at least 20% CHX Holdings Directors.
• The Chairman of the CHX Board may be the CEO and/or President of CHX or a Non-Industry Director.
• The CHX Director term shall be one year, except that the term of the CEO of CHX shall expire when such individual ceases to be the CEO of the CHX.
• Eliminate the “STP Participant Director” positions and corresponding nominating and selection process and replace with a simplified Participant Director nominating process, whereby the Participant Director Nominating Committee
• Adopt a CHX Holdings Director nomination and selection process that is virtually identical to the proposed Participant Director nominating and selection process, except that candidates for the CHX Holdings Director positions shall be selected by the CHX Holdings Board.
• CHX Directors may be removed from office by a vote of the stockholders at any time with or without cause; provided, however, that any Participant Director or CHX Holdings Director may only be removed for cause.
• Adopt Chairman of the CHX Board,
Incidentally, the Exchange proposes to delete Sections (b) through (d), (f) and (g) of Article FIFTH of the current CHX Certificate, as the provisions are obviated by the proposed amendments reflected in the proposed CHX Bylaws.
The Exchange also proposes to amend Article IV of the current CHX Bylaws regarding CHX Committees. The current key requirements for CHX Committees are as follows:
• The CHX Bylaws currently require the following CHX Committees: Executive Committee; Nominating and Governance Committee; Audit Committee; Compensation Committee; Regulatory Oversight Committee; Finance Committee; Judiciary Committee; and other CHX Committees as may be provided in the bylaws or CHX Rules or as may be from time to time established by the CHX Board.
• Members of the CHX Committees are selected (1) by the Chairman and/or Vice Chairman of the CHX Board with approval of the CHX Board; (2) by the Vice Chairman of the CHX Board with approval of the Public Directors of the CHX Board—for the Regulatory Oversight Committee; (3) by the CEO of CHX alone—for the Judiciary Committee; or (4) by the CHX Board alone—for the Nominating and Governance Committees, subject to composition requirements, as described under current Article 2 of the CHX Rules.
The Exchange proposes to maintain the current requirements for the CHX Committees with the following amendments:
• Move Article 2, Rules 2-4, 8-9, and 11-12 of the current CHX Rules
• Adopt Section 3.6 of the proposed CHX Bylaws, which provide CHX Director nomination and election provisions similar to analagous provisions under the NSX By-Laws.
○ Paragraph (b) thereunder provides that the Nominating and Governance Committee will only nominate persons (1) for Participant Director positions who have been approved and submitted by the Participant Director Nominating Committee and (2) for CHX Holdings Director positions who have been approved and submitted by the CHX Holdings Board.
○ Paragraph (c) thereunder provides that the Participant Director Nominating Committee shall consult with the Nominating and Governance Committee, the Chairman of the CHX Board and the CEO of CHX, as well as solicit comments from Participants, for the purpose of identifying Participant Director nominees. The list of Participant Director nominees (“initial nominees”) shall be submitted to the Nominating and Governance Committee no later than 75 days prior to the date announced for the annual meeting of stockholders.
○ Paragraph (d) thereunder provides that the Nominating and Governance Committee shall provide the Secretary of CHX the initial nominees no later than 60 days prior to the date announced for the annual meeting of stockholders. The Participants may also identify other candidates (“additional candidates”), subject to specific conditions and requirements.
○ Paragraph (e) thereunder provides that if additional candidates are identified and validly presented to the Secretary of CHX, the Secretary of CHX shall notify all Participants of the list of initial nominees and additional candidates, as well as the date and time of the Participant Director election, no later than 20 days prior the date announced for the annual meeting of stockholders. Paragraph (e) further provides specific Participant voting requirements, procedures and limitations.
○ Paragraph (f) thereunder provides that if no additional candidates are received by the date that is 35 days prior to the date announced for the annual meeting of stockholders, the initial nominees shall be deemed to be the persons approved by the Participants as Participant Director nominees and the Secretary of CHX shall so notify the Nominating and Governance Committee.
• Adopt Section 5.11 of the proposed CHX Bylaws describing the Participant Director Nominating Committee, which is virtually identical Section 5.7 of the NSX By-Laws.
The Exchange also proposes to amend current Section 2 of Article II (Special Meetings) of the current CHX Bylaws (
The Exchange proposes to retain most of the current provisions of the CHX Holdings Certificate and Bylaws, except that the Exchange proposes to amend certain requirements regarding (1) board composition and procedures; (2) Ownership and Voting Limitations to be similar to those of NSX Holdings;
Initially, the Exchange proposes the following non-substantive amendments to the CHX Holdings Certificate:
• Replace current Article FOURTH in its entirety with, among other provisions described in detail below, language that provides that the total number of shares of stock which CHX Holdings shall have authority to issue is 1,000 shares of common stock having a par value of $0.01 per share and that NA Casin Holdings shall be the sole owner of this stock.
• Amend title to the CHX Holdings Certificate to state “Third Amended and Restated Certificate of Incorporation of the Chicago Stock Exchange, Inc.”
• Adopt caption paragraph above Article FIRST to reflect the amendment history of the CHX Holdings Certificate.
• Move Article SIXTH of the current CHX Holdings Certificate to Article FIFTH of the proposed CHX Holdings Certificate, due to the proposed deletion of Article FIFTH of the current CHX Holdings Certificate, as discussed below.
• Delete Article SEVENTH of the current CHX Holdings Certificate as it contains obsolete information regarding the incorporator.
• Move Articles EIGHTH through THIRTEENTH of the current CHX Holdings Certificate to Articles SIXTH through ELEVENTH of the proposed CHX Holdings Certificate, respectively, due to proposed deletions of Articles FIFTH and SEVENTH of the current CHX Holdings Certificate. Moreover, replace “United States Securities and Exchange Commission” with “Commission,” due to adoption of the shorthand reference of “Commission” for the “United States Securities and Exchange Commission” under paragraph (b)(ii) of Article FOURTH of the proposed CHX Holdings Certificate.
• Add attestation clause and signature block to the end of the proposed CHX Holdings Certificate.
The Exchange also proposes the following non-substantive amendments to the CHX Holdings Bylaws:
• Amend reference to each section under an Article to reflect the Article to which it is associated (
• Amend reference to the “Securities Exchange Act of 1934” under Section 3.1 of the proposed CHX Holdings Bylaws to note shorthand reference to the “Exchange Act” and corresponding amendments to Section 3.3 and Article VIII of the proposed CHX Holdings Bylaws to replace references to either “Securities Exchange Act of 1934” or the “Act” with the “Exchange Act.”
• Amend reference to the “Chicago Stock Exchange, Inc.” under Section 3.1 of the proposed CHX Holdings Bylaws to note shorthand reference to “CHX” and corresponding amendments under Sections 3.1, 3.2, 3.5, 3.6, 7.5, 9.3 and Article VIII of the proposed CHX Holdings Bylaws.
• Adopt shorthand reference of “Commission” for the “United States Securities and Exchange Commission” under Section 3.2 of the proposed CHX Holdings Bylaws and corresponding amendments under Section 3.5 and Article VIII of the proposed CHX Holdings Bylaws.
The Exchange further proposes to adopt Section (a) of Article FOURTH of the proposed CHX Holdings Certificate to authorize the CHX Holdings Board to create and issue options, warrants and other rights. The Exchange believes that the proposed provision would facilitate the ability of the CHX Holdings Board to raise additional capital for CHX Holdings, which would in turn permit CHX Holdings to further capitalize the Exchange so that the Exchange may continue to meet its regulatory obligations. The Exchange notes that the proposed provision is virtually identical to Section (A) of Article FOURTH of the NSX Holdings Certificate.
The Exchange proposes to substantively modify certain requirements related to CHX Holdings Board composition and procedures, which is similar to the board composition and procedures requirement of NSX Holdings, as described below. Article SIXTH of the current CHX Holdings Certificate and Articles II, IV and V of the current CHX Holdings Bylaws provide, among other things, CHX Holdings Board composition and procedure requirements, the relevant provisions of which include the following:
• CHX Holdings Board shall consist of not less than 10 nor more than 16 directors, divided into three classes, where one CHX Holdings Director must be the CEO of CHX Holdings.
• The Nominating and Governance Committee, comprised of six or more CHX Holdings Directors, shall nominate directors for the class of directors standing for election each year. In the event a vacancy on the CHX Holdings Board occurs between annual meeting of the stockholders, the vacancy shall be filled only with a person nominated by the Chairman and Vice Chairman and elected by a majority of the CHX Holdings Directors then in office, though less than a quorum, except that those vacancies resulting from removal from office by a vote of the stockholders
• CHX Holdings Directors are elected to full three-year terms at the annual meeting of stockholders at which a quorum is present by a plurality of the votes cast, with one class expiring each year.
• CHX Holdings directors may only be removed for “cause”
• Vacancies created on the CHX Holdings Board may only be filled by a person nominated by the Chairman and Vice Chairman of CHX Holdings and elected by a majority of the directors then in office, though less than a quorum, except that those vacancies resulting from removal from office by a vote of the stockholders for cause may be filled by a vote of the stockholders at the same meeting at which such removal occurs.
• All committees of CHX Holdings are appointed by the Chairman and/or Vice Chairman, with the approval of the CHX Holdings Board, except that members of the Nominating and Governance Committee are appointed by the board of directors.
The Exchange now proposes various amendments to the CHX Holdings Board composition requirements and procedures to be similar to those of NSX Holdings, which include the following key amendments:
• Eliminate required minimum and maximum number of CHX Holdings Directors and permit the number of CHX Holdings Directors to be fixed by resolution of the CHX Holdings Board.
• Eliminate classes of CHX Holdings Directors and associated three-year terms and replace with a general provision that each CHX Holdings Director shall hold office until his or her successor is elected and qualified or until his or her earlier resignation or removal. CHX Holdings Directors shall continue to be elected at the annual meeting of stockholders at which a quorum is present by a plurality of the votes cast.
• Maintain the current CHX Holdings Director nominating process via the Nominating and Governance Committee, but reduce the number of required members of the Nominating and Governance Committee to one or more directors, in light of the proposed elimination of the required minimum/maximum number of CHX Holdings Directors. This would harmonize the minimum CHX Holdings Board and committee member requirements.
• Any CHX Holdings Director or the entire CHX Holdings Board may be removed, with or without cause, by the holders of a majority of the voting power of the shares then entitled to vote at an election of directors; except that the CHX Holdings Board must consist of one director who is the CEO of CHX Holdings.
Incidentally, the Exchange proposes to delete paragraphs (b) through (d) and (f) through (h) of Article SIXTH of the current CHX Holdings Certificate, as the provisions are either obviated by the proposed amendments reflected in the proposed CHX Holdings Bylaws or obsolete.
The Exchange also proposes to amend current Section 2 of Article IV (Special Meetings) of the current CHX Holdings Bylaws (
Section (b) of Article FIFTH of the current CHX Holdings Certificate contains Ownership and Voting Limitations, which provide in general that for so long as CHX Holdings controls the CHX: No Person,
The current CHX Holdings Certificate contains provisions to address violations of the current Ownership and Voting Limitations. Specifically, Section (d) of Article FIFTH the current CHX Holdings Certificate (Effect of Purported Transfers and Voting in Violation of this Article) requires CHX Holdings to only record the transfer or voting of shares that do not violate the Ownership and Voting Limitations. That is, to the extent a purported transfer or voting of shares exceeds the Ownership and Voting Limitations (“excess shares”), such excess shares are not recorded nor effective. Furthermore, Section (e) of Article FIFTH the current CHX Holdings Certificate (Right to Redeem Shares Purportedly Transferred or Voted in Violation of this Article) provides that if any stockholder purports to transfer or vote shares in excess of the Ownership and Voting Limitations, CHX Holdings shall have the right to redeem such excess shares for a price per share equal to the par value of those shares.
With respect to the ability of the Commission to enforce the Act as it applies to the CHX after the Closing, the CHX will operate in the same manner following the close of the Transaction in which it operates today. Thus, the Commission will continue to have plenary regulatory authority over the CHX, as is the case currently with the CHX being a wholly-owned subsidiary of CHX Holdings. As described throughout this proposed rule filing, the CHX is proposing a series of amendments to its governing documents, as well as governing documents of NA Casin Holdings that will create an ownership structure and provide the Commission with appropriate oversight tools to ensure that the Commission will have the ability to enforce the Exchange Act with respect to the CHX and their respective directors, officers, employees, and agents to the extent that they are involved in the activities of the CHX.
As described above, CHX Holdings will become a wholly-owned direct subsidiary of NA Casin Holdings (“Proposed Share Ownership”). In order to permit the Proposed Share Ownership in excess of the current Ownership and Voting Limitations, paragraph (b)(iii)(B) and paragraph (b)(iv) of Article FIFTH of the current CHX Holdings Certificate requires that the CHX Holdings Board adopt a bylaw that waives the current Ownership and Voting Limitations and make certain findings with respect to the waiver of the current Ownership and Voting Limitations.
Thus, pursuant to paragraph (b)(iii)(B) of Article FIFTH of the current CHX Holdings Certificate, on February 3, 2016 and November 22, 2016, the CHX Holdings Board voted to approve Article XII, Section 12.1 of the proposed CHX Holdings Bylaws, which provides as follows:
(a) For the sole purpose of permitting the merger contemplated by an Agreement and Plan of Merger, dated February 4, 2016, among the Corporation, Exchange Acquisition Corporation (“Merger Sub”) and North America Casin Holdings, Inc. (“Parent”), under which the Corporation will become a wholly-owned subsidiary of Parent, the Board of Directors hereby waives pursuant to Article FIFTH, paragraph (b)(iii)(B) of the certificate of incorporation of the Corporation dated July 27, 2006, as amended (“2006 Certificate”): (i) The restrictions on ownership of capital stock of the Corporation described in Article FIFTH, paragraph (b)(ii)(A) of the 2006 Certificate (“Ownership Limits”) to permit Parent to possess ownership in the Corporation in excess of the Ownership Limits (“Proposed Share Ownership”); and (ii) the restrictions on voting rights with respect to the capital stock of the Corporation as described in Article FIFTH, paragraph (b)(ii)(C) of the 2006 Certificate (“Voting Limits”) to permit Parent to possess voting rights in excess of the Voting Limits (“Proposed Voting Rights”).
(b) In so waiving the applicable Ownership Limits and Voting Limits, the Board of Directors has determined that: (i) The acquisition of the Proposed Share Ownership by Parent will not impair the ability of the Chicago Stock Exchange, Inc. (“Exchange”) to carry out its functions and responsibilities as an “exchange” under the Exchange Act and the rules and regulations promulgated thereunder, is otherwise in the best interests of the Corporation, its stockholders and the Exchange, and will not impair the ability of the Commission to enforce the Exchange Act and the rules and regulations promulgated thereunder; (ii) the acquisition or exercise of the Proposed Voting Rights by Parent will not impair the ability of the Exchange to carry out its functions and responsibilities as an “exchange” under the Exchange Act and the rules and regulations promulgated thereunder, that it is otherwise in the best interests of the Corporation, its stockholders and the Exchange, and that it will not impair the ability of the Commission to enforce the
Moreover, on November 22, 2016, the CHX Holdings Board approved the Resolutions, herein attached as Exhibit 5H, which includes, among other things, findings that (1) the acquisition of the Proposed Share Ownership by Parent will not impair the ability of the Exchange to carry out its functions and responsibilities as an “exchange” under the Exchange Act and the rules and regulations promulgated thereunder, is otherwise in the best interests of the Corporation, its stockholders and the Exchange, and will not impair the ability of the Commission to enforce the Exchange Act and the rules and regulations promulgated thereunder; (2) the acquisition or exercise of the Proposed Voting Rights by Parent will not impair the ability of the Exchange to carry out its functions and responsibilities as an “exchange” under the Exchange Act and the rules and regulations promulgated thereunder, that it is otherwise in the best interests of the Corporation, its stockholders and the Exchange, and that it will not impair the ability of the Commission to enforce the Exchange Act and the rules and regulations promulgated thereunder; (3) neither Parent, nor any of its Related Persons, is subject to “statutory disqualification” within the meaning of Section 3(a)(39) of the Exchange Act; and (4) execution and delivery of the Merger Agreement by Parent constitutes notice of Parent's intention to acquire the Proposed Share Ownership and the Proposed Voting Rights, in writing not less than forty-five days before the proposed ownership of such shares or the proposed exercise of such voting rights.
The Exchange submits that SEC approval of the proposed rule change and, in particular, Section 12.1 of the proposed CHX Holdings Bylaws, will effectuate a waiver of the current Ownership and Voting Limitations and will permit the Proposed Share Ownership and the Proposed Voting Rights.
The Exchange further proposes to replace the Exchange's current Ownership and Voting Limitations under Article FIFTH of the current CHX Holdings Certificate with similar Ownership and Voting Limitations (comprised of the “Voting Limitation” and the “Concentration Limitation”) utilized by NSX Holdings, except that the Exchange is not requesting a temporary waiver of the Concentration Limitation as provided under Section B of Article FOURTH of the NSX Holdings Certificate. Given that the Indirect Upstream Owners will have a direct ownership interest in NA Casin Holdings, NA Casin Holdings would also adopt Ownership and Voting Limitations under the proposed NA Casin Holdings Certificate identical to the those in the proposed CHX Holdings Certificate,
Paragraph (c)(i) of Article FOURTH of the proposed CHX Holdings Certificate provides as follows:
Except as otherwise provided in this Section (c) of Article FOURTH, no Person,
Paragraph (c)(i)(A) of Article FOURTH of the proposed CHX Holdings Certificate provides as follows:
The Concentration Limitation shall apply unless and until: (x) a Person (either alone or with its Related Persons) intending to acquire such ownership shall have delivered to the Board of Directors of the Corporation a notice in writing, not less than 45 days (or such shorter period as the Board of Directors of the Corporation shall expressly consent to) prior to the acquisition of any shares that would cause such Person (either alone or with its Related Persons) to exceed the Concentration Limitation, of its intention to acquire such ownership; (y) the Board of Directors of the Corporation shall have resolved to expressly permit such ownership; and (z) such resolution shall have been filed with the Commission under Section 19(b) of the Exchange Act and shall have become effective thereunder.
Paragraph (c)(i)(B) of Article FOURTH of the proposed CHX Holdings Certificate provides as follows:
Subject to its fiduciary obligations pursuant to the Delaware General Corporation Law, the Board of Directors of the Corporation shall not adopt any resolution pursuant to paragraph (i)(A) of this Section (c) of Article FOURTH unless the Board of Directors of the Corporation shall have determined that: (x) such acquisition of beneficial ownership by such Person, either alone or with its Related Persons, will not impair any of the Corporation's or CHX's ability to discharge its responsibilities under the Exchange Act and the rules and regulations thereunder and is otherwise in the best interests of the Corporation and its stockholders; (y) such acquisition of beneficial ownership by such Person, either alone or with its Related Persons, will not impair the Commission's ability to enforce the Exchange Act; and (z) neither such Person nor any of its Related Persons is subject to any statutory disqualification as defined in Section 3(a)(39) of the Exchange Act. In making such determinations, the Board of Directors of the Corporation may impose such conditions and restrictions on such Person and its Related Persons owning any shares of stock of the Corporation entitled to vote on any matter as the Board of Directors of the Corporation may in its sole discretion deem necessary, appropriate or desirable in furtherance of the objectives of the Exchange Act and the governance of the Corporation.
Moreover, paragraph (c)(i)(C) of Article FOURTH of the proposed CHX Holdings Certificate provides as follows:
Unless the conditions specified in paragraph (i)(A) of this Section (c) of Article FOURTH are met, if any Person, either alone or with its Related Persons, at any time owns beneficially shares of stock of the Corporation in excess of the Concentration Limitation, the Corporation shall call from such Person and its Related Persons that number of shares of stock of the Corporation entitled to vote on any matter that exceeds the Concentration Limitation in accordance with Section (e) of this Article FOURTH at a price equal to the par value of such shares of stock.
The proposed CHX Holdings Certificate also provides for limitations on ownership of shares by Participants of the Exchange. Paragraph (c)(ii) of Article FOURTH of the proposed CHX Holdings Certificate provides as follows:
For so long as CHX remains a registered national securities exchange under Section 6
Paragraph (c)(iii) of Article FOURTH of the proposed CHX Holdings Certificate provides as follows:
The Corporation shall not register the purported transfer of any shares of stock of the Corporation in violation of the restrictions imposed by this Section (c) of Article FOURTH.
Paragraph (c)(iv) of Article FOURTH of the proposed CHX Holdings Certificate provides as follows:
For purposes of this Section (c) of this Article FOURTH, no Person shall be deemed to have any agreement, arrangement or understanding to act together with respect to voting shares of stock of the Corporation solely because such Person or any of such Person's Related Persons has or shares the power to vote or direct the voting of such shares of stock pursuant to a revocable proxy given in response to a public proxy or consent solicitation conducted pursuant to, and in accordance with, Regulation 14A promulgated pursuant to the Exchange Act, except if such power (or the arrangements relating thereto) is then reportable under Item 6 of Schedule 13D under the Exchange Act (or any similar provision of a comparable or successor report).
Section (d) of Article FOURTH (Ownership Limitation for Disqualified Controlling Stockholders) of the proposed CHX Holdings Certificate provides as follows:
Notwithstanding any other provision of this Third Amended and Restated Certificate of Incorporation, no Person that is subject to any statutory disqualification as defined in Section 3(a)(39) of the Exchange Act shall be permitted at any time to own beneficially, either alone or with its Related Persons, shares of stock of the Corporation representing in the aggregate more than 20% of the then outstanding votes entitled to be cast on any matter (such Person, a “Disqualified Controlling Stockholder”). If a Person becomes a Disqualified Controlling Stockholder, the Corporation shall call from such Person and its Related Persons that number of shares of stock entitled to vote on any matter that exceeds such 20% limitation in accordance with Section (e) of this Article FOURTH at a price equal to the par value of such shares of stock.
Section (e) of Article FOURTH of the proposed CHX Holdings Certificate (Procedure for Calling Shares) provides as follows:
In the event the Corporation shall call shares of stock (the “Called Stock”) of the Corporation pursuant to Sections (c) or (d) of this Article FOURTH, notice of such call shall be given by first class mail, postage prepaid, mailed not less than 5 business nor more than 60 calendar days prior to the call date, to the holder of the Called Stock, at such holder's address as the same appears on the stock register of the Corporation. Each such notice shall state: (w) the call date; (x) the number of Called Stock to be called; (y) the aggregate call price; and (z) the place or places where Called Stock are to be surrendered for payment of the call price. Failure to give notice aforesaid, or any defect therein, shall not affect the validity of the call of Called Stock. From and after the call date (unless default shall be made by the Corporation in providing funds for the payment of the call price), shares of Called Stock, which have been called as aforesaid shall be cancelled, shall no longer be deemed to be outstanding, and all rights of the holder of such Called Stock as a stockholder of the Corporation (except the right to receive from the Corporation the call price against delivery to the Corporation of evidence of ownership of such shares) shall cease. Upon surrender in accordance with said notice of evidence of ownership of Called Stock so called (properly assigned for transfer, if the Board of Directors of the Corporation shall so require and the notice shall so state), such shares shall be called by the Corporation at par value.
Section (f) of Article FOURTH of the proposed CHX Holdings Certificate (Right to Information; Determinations by the Board of Directors) provides as follows:
The Board of Directors of the Corporation shall have the right to require any Person and its Related Persons reasonably believed (v) to be subject to the Voting Limitation or the Nonvoting Agreement Prohibition, (w) to own beneficially (within the meaning of Rules 13d-3 and 13d-5 under the Exchange Act) shares of stock of the Corporation entitled to vote on any matter in excess of the Concentration Limitation, (x) to own beneficially (within the meaning of Rules 13d-3 and 13d-5 under the Exchange Act) an aggregate of 5% or more of the then outstanding shares of stock of the Corporation entitled to vote on any matter, which ownership such Person, either alone or with its Related Persons, has not reported to the Corporation, (y) to be subject to the ownership limitation set forth in paragraph (ii) of Section (c) of this Article FOURTH or (z) to be a Disqualified Controlling Stockholder, to provide the Corporation complete information as to all shares of stock of the Corporation beneficially owned by such Person and its Related Persons and any other factual matter relating to the applicability or effect of this Article FOURTH as may reasonably be requested of such Person and its Related Persons. Any constructions, applications or determinations made by the Board of Directors of the Corporation pursuant to this Article FOURTH in good faith and on the basis of such information and assistance as was then reasonably available for such purpose shall be conclusive and binding upon the Corporation and its directors, officers and stockholders.
With respect to voting limitations, paragraph (b)(i) of Article FOURTH of the proposed CHX Holdings Certificate provides as follows:
Notwithstanding any other provision of this Third Amended and Restated Certificate of Incorporation, (x) no Person, either alone or with its Related Persons, as of any record date for the determination of stockholders entitled to vote on any matter, shall be entitled to vote or cause the voting of shares of stock of the Corporation, in person or by proxy or through any voting agreement or other arrangement, to the extent such shares represent in the aggregate more than 20% of the then outstanding votes entitled to be cast on such matter (the “Voting Limitation”), and if votes have been cast, in person or by proxy or through any voting agreement or other arrangement, by any Person, either alone or with its Related Persons, in excess of the Voting Limitation, the Corporation shall disregard such votes cast in excess of the Voting Limitation and (y) no Person, either alone or with its Related Persons, may enter into any agreement, plan or other an agreement relating to shares of stock of the Corporation entitled to vote on any matter with any other Person, either alone or with its Related Persons, under circumstances which would result in shares of stock of the Corporation that would be subject to such agreement, plan or other arrangement not being voted on any matter, or the withholding of any proxy relating thereto, where the effect of such agreement, plan or other arrangement would be to enable any Person, either alone or with its Related Persons, to vote, possess the right to vote or cause the voting of shares of stock of the Corporation which would, as a result thereof, represent in the aggregate more than 20% of the then outstanding votes entitled to be cast on such matter (the “Nonvoting Agreement Prohibition”).
Paragraph (b)(ii) of Article FOURTH of the proposed CHX Holdings Certificate provides as follows:
The Voting Limitation or the Nonvoting Agreement Prohibition, as applicable, shall apply unless and until: (x) a Person (and its Related Persons) owning any shares of stock of the Corporation entitled to vote on such matter shall have delivered to the Board of Directors of the Corporation a notice in writing, not less than 45 days (or such shorter period as the Board of Directors of the Corporation shall expressly consent to) prior to any vote, of its intention to cast more than 20% of the votes entitled to be cast on such matter or to enter into an agreement, plan or other arrangement that would violate the Nonvoting Agreement Prohibition, as applicable; (y) the Board of Directors of the Corporation shall have resolved to expressly permit such exercise or the entering into of such agreement, plan or other arrangement, as applicable; and (z) such resolution shall have been filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (the “Commission”) under Section 19(b) of the Exchange Act and shall have become effective thereunder.
Paragraph (b)(iii) of Article FOURTH of the proposed CHX Holdings Certificate provides as follows:
Subject to its fiduciary obligations pursuant to the Delaware General Corporation Law, the Board of Directors of the Corporation shall not adopt any resolution pursuant to paragraph (b)(ii) of this Article FOURTH unless the Board of Directors of the Corporation shall have determined that: (v) the exercise of such voting rights or the entering into of such agreement, plan or other arrangement, as applicable, by such Person, either alone or with its Related Persons, will not impair any of the Corporation's or the CHX's ability to discharge its responsibilities under the Exchange Act and the rules and regulations thereunder and is otherwise in the best interests of the Corporation and its stockholders; (w) the exercise of such voting rights or the entering into of such agreement, plan or other arrangement, as applicable, by such Person, either alone or with its Related Persons, will not impair the Commission's ability to enforce the Exchange Act; (x) neither such Person nor any of its Related Persons is subject to any statutory disqualification as defined in Section 3(a)(39) of the Exchange Act; (y) in the case of a resolution to approve the exercise of voting rights in excess of the Voting Limitation, for so long as CHX remains a registered national securities exchange as defined under Section 6 of the Exchange Act, neither such Person nor any of its Related Persons is a Participant (any such Person that is a Related Person of a Participant shall hereinafter also be deemed to be a Participant for purposes of this Third Amended and Restated Certificate of Incorporation, as the context may require); and (z) in the case of a resolution to approve any waiver of the Nonvoting Agreement Prohibition, no such waiver may be approved with respect to any agreement, plan or other arrangement to which a Participant is a party that relates to shares of stock of the Corporation entitled to vote on any matter. In making such determinations, the Board of Directors of the Corporation may impose such conditions and restrictions on such Person and its Related Persons owning any shares of stock of the Corporation entitled to vote on any matter as the Board of Directors of the Corporation may in its sole discretion deem necessary, appropriate or desirable in furtherance of the objectives of the Exchange Act and the governance of the Corporation.
Paragraph (b)(iv) of Article FOURTH of the proposed CHX Holdings Certificate provides as follows:
This Section (b) of Article FOURTH shall not apply to (x) any solicitation of any revocable proxy from any stockholder of the Corporation by or on behalf of the Corporation or by any officer or director of the Corporation acting on behalf of the Corporation or (y) any solicitation of any revocable proxy from any stockholder of the Corporation by any other stockholder that is conducted pursuant to, and in accordance with, Regulation 14A promulgated pursuant to the Exchange Act.
The Exchange proposes to harmonize provisions under the proposed CHX Holdings Bylaws and the NA Casin Holdings Bylaws regarding jurisdiction over individuals.
Specifically, Section 3.5 of the proposed CHX Holdings Bylaws
• The Corporation and its officers, directors, employees and agents, by virtue of their acceptance of such position, shall be deemed to irrevocably submit to the jurisdiction of the United States federal courts, Commission, and CHX,
Similarly, Section 10.1.1 of the NA Casin Holdings Bylaws
• The Corporation and its officers, directors, employees and agents, by virtue of their acceptance of such position, shall be deemed to irrevocably submit to the jurisdiction of the United States federal courts, United States Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”), and the Chicago Stock Exchange, Inc. (“CHX”), for the purposes of any suit, action or proceeding pursuant to the United States federal securities laws, and the rules or regulations thereunder, arising out of, or relating to, the activities of CHX, and by virtue of their acceptance of any such position, shall be deemed to waive, and agree not to assert by way of motion, as a defense or otherwise in any such suit, action or proceeding, any claims that it or they are not personally subject to the jurisdiction of the United States federal courts, Commission or the CHX, that the suit, action or proceeding is an inconvenient forum or that the venue of the suit, action or proceeding is improper, or that the subject matter of that suit, action or proceeding may not be enforced in or by such courts or agency. The Corporation and its officers, directors, employees and agents also agree that they will maintain an agent, in the United States, for the service of process of a claim arising out of, or relating to, the activities of CHX.
The Exchange proposes to harmonize provisions under the CHX Holdings Bylaws and the NA Casin Holdings Certificate regarding access to certain books and records so as to facilitate access to such books and records of the Indirect Upstream Owners by the Commission and CHX.
Specifically, the proposed CHX Holdings Bylaws includes the following provisions:
• Section 3.2
• Section 3.3
• Section 3.7 provides that for so long as a stockholder shall maintain a direct or indirect equity interest in the Chicago Stock Exchange, Inc.: (a) The books, records, officers, directors (or equivalent) and employees of the stockholder shall be deemed to be the books, records, officers, directors and employees of Chicago Stock Exchange, Inc. for purposes of and subject to oversight pursuant to the Exchange Act to the extent that such books and records are related to, or such officers, directors (or equivalent) and employees are involved in, the activities of Chicago Stock Exchange, Inc.; (b) the stockholder's books and records related to the activities of Chicago Stock Exchange, Inc. shall at all times be made available for inspection and copying by the Commission and Chicago Stock Exchange, Inc.; and (c) the stockholder's books and records related to the activities of Chicago Stock Exchange, Inc. shall be maintained within the United States.
Similarly, the NA Casin Holdings Certificate includes the following provisions:
• Similar to Section 3.2 of the proposed CHX Holdings Bylaws, Section (16) of Article IX would provide that all confidential information pertaining to the self-regulatory function of CHX (including, but not limited to, confidential information regarding disciplinary matters, trading data, trading practices and audit information) contained in the books and records of CHX that shall come into the possession of the Corporation shall, to the fullest extent permitted by law: (i) Not be made available to any Person (other than as provided in the next sentence) other than to those officers, directors, employees and agents of the Corporation that have a reasonable need to know the contents thereof; (ii) be retained in confidence by the Corporation and the officers, directors, employees and agents of the Corporation; and (iii) not be used for any non-regulatory purposes. Nothing in this Amended and Restated Certificate of Incorporation shall be interpreted as to limit or impede: (A) The rights of the Commission or CHX to access and examine such confidential information pursuant to the federal securities laws and the rules and regulations promulgated thereunder; or (B) the ability of any officers, directors, employees or agents of the Corporation to disclose such confidential information to the Commission or CHX.
• Similar to Section 3.3 of the proposed CHX Holdings Bylaws, Section (17) of Article IX would provide that for so long as the Corporation shall control, directly or indirectly, CHX, the books, records, premises, officers, directors and employees of the Corporation shall be deemed to be the books, records, premises, officers, directors and employees of CHX for purposes of and subject to oversight pursuant to the Exchange Act, but only to the extent that such books and records are related to, or such officers, directors and employees are involved in, the activities of CHX. The Corporation's books and records relating to the activities of CHX shall be subject at all times to inspection and copying by the Commission and CHX. The Corporation's books and records related to the activities of CHX shall be maintained within the United States.
• Similar to Section 3.7 of the proposed CHX Holdings Bylaws, Section (18) of Article IX would provide that for so long as a stockholder shall maintain a direct or indirect equity interest in CHX: (a) The books, records, officers, directors (or equivalent) and employees of the stockholder shall be deemed to be the books, records, officers, directors and employees of CHX for purposes of and subject to oversight pursuant to the Exchange Act to the extent that such books and records are related to, or such officers, directors (or equivalent) and employees are involved in, the activities of CHX; (b) the stockholder's books and records related to the activities of CHX shall at all times be made available for inspection and copying by the Commission and CHX; and (c) the stockholder's books and records related to the activities of CHX shall be maintained within the United States.
The Exchange proposes to harmonize provisions under the CHX Holdings Bylaws and the NA Casin Holdings Certificate regarding the preservation of the independence of the self-regulatory function of the CHX, directors' consideration of the effect of CHX Holdings' actions on the CHX's ability to carry out its responsibilities under the Exchange Act and cooperation with the Commission and the CHX.
Specifically, the proposed CHX Holdings Bylaws includes the following provisions:
• Section 3.1 provides that for so long as the Corporation shall control Chicago Stock Exchange, Inc. (“CHX”), the Corporation and its Board of Directors, officers, employees and agents shall give due regard to the preservation of the independence of the self-regulatory function of the CHX and to its obligations to investors and the general public and shall not take any actions which would interfere with the effectuation of any decisions by the Board of Directors of the CHX relating to its regulatory functions (including enforcement and disciplinary matters) or the structure of the market which it regulates or which would interfere with the ability of the CHX to carry out its responsibilities under the Securities
• Section 3.4 provides that the Corporation and its officers, directors, employees and agents, by virtue of their acceptance of such position, shall comply with the federal securities laws and rules and regulations thereunder and shall: (a) Cooperate (i) with the Commission, and (ii) with CHX pursuant to, and to the extent of, CHX's regulatory authority; and (b) take reasonable steps necessary to cause its agents to cooperate (i) with the Commission, and (ii) with CHX pursuant to, and to the extent of, CHX's regulatory authority with respect to such agents' activities related to CHX.
Similarly, the NA Casin Holdings Certificate includes the following provisions:
• Similar to Section 3.1 of the proposed CHX Holdings Bylaws, Section (3) of Article IX would provide that for so long as the Corporation shall control CHX, the Corporation and its Board of Directors, officers, employees and agents shall give due regard to the preservation of the independence of the self-regulatory function of the CHX and to its obligations to investors and the general public and shall not take any actions which would interfere with the effectuation of any decisions by the Board of Directors of the CHX relating to its regulatory functions (including enforcement and disciplinary matters) or the structure of the market which it regulates or which would interfere with the ability of the CHX to carry out its responsibilities under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, as amended. The Corporation's books and records related to the activities of CHX shall be maintained within the United States.
• Similar to Section 3.4 of the proposed CHX Holdings Bylaws, Section (2) of Article IX would provide that the Corporation and its officers, directors, employees and agents, by virtue of their acceptance of such position, shall comply with the federal securities laws and rules and regulations thereunder and shall: (a) Cooperate (i) with the United States Securities and Exchange Commission (the “Commission”), and (ii) with the Chicago Stock Exchange, Inc. a Delaware corporation and an indirect wholly-owned subsidiary of the Corporation (“CHX”), pursuant to, and to the extent of, CHX's regulatory authority; and (b) take reasonable steps necessary to cause its agents to cooperate (i) with the Commission, and (ii) with CHX pursuant to, and to the extent of, CHX's regulatory authority with respect to such agents' activities related to CHX.
Moreover, so as to ensure that a new NA Casin Holdings board is elected by the Indirect Upstream Owners as soon as practicable after the Closing and to facilitate the ability of NA Casin Holdings to maintain board members that are experienced with the operation of the Exchange, NA Casin Holdings would adopt the following provision in the NA Casin Holdings Certificate:
• Section (4) of Article V of the NA Casin Holdings Certificate would provide that the directors shall hold office until their successors are elected and qualified, and prior to the election of directors described in paragraph (5) below, any director may be removed with or without cause at any time by a vote of the recordholders of a majority of the Shares then entitled to vote, or by written consent of the recordholders of a majority of the Shares entitled to vote at a meeting of the stockholders.
• Section (5) of Article V of the NA Casin Holdings Certificate would provide that within 30 days after the consummation of the merger contemplated by the Agreement and Plan of Merger dated as of February 4, 2016 among CHX Holdings, Inc., the Corporation and Exchange Acquisition Corp. (the “Merger Agreement”) the Corporation shall convene a special meeting of its stockholders for the purpose of electing a new Board of Directors. From and after such special meeting, the Board shall be and is divided into three classes, as nearly equal in number as possible, designated: Class I, Class II and Class III. In case of any increase or decrease, from time to time, in the number of directors, the number of directors in each class shall be apportioned as nearly equal as possible. No decrease in the number of directors shall shorten the term of any incumbent director.
• Section (6) of Article V of the NA Casin Holdings Certificate would provide that each director shall serve for a term ending on the date of the third annual meeting following the meeting at which such director was elected; provided, that each director initially appointed to Class I shall serve for an initial term expiring at the corporation's annual meeting of stockholders held in 2017; each director initially appointed to Class II shall serve for an initial term expiring at the corporation's annual meeting of stockholders held in 2018; and each director initially appointed to Class III shall serve for an initial term expiring at the corporation's annual meeting of stockholders held in 2019; provided further, that the term of each director shall continue until the election and qualification of a successor and be subject to such director's earlier death, resignation or removal.
The class board structure of Article V of the NA Casin Holdings Certificate would ensure overlap of board member terms, which would provide continuity and stability as to board composition and, thereby, facilitate the ability of the NA Casin Holdings board to meet its obligations under Article IX of the NA Casin Holdings Certificate.
The Exchange proposes to harmonize provisions under the CHX Holdings Bylaws, the NA Casin Holdings Certificate and the NA Casin Holdings Bylaws regarding the effectuation of amendments to those documents.
Specifically, Article VIII of the proposed CHX Holdings Bylaws provides as follows:
• These bylaws may be amended or repealed, or new bylaws may be adopted, by the Board of Directors. These bylaws may also be amended or repealed, or new bylaws may be adopted, by action taken by the stockholders of the Corporation. For so long as this Corporation shall control, directly or indirectly, CHX, before any amendment to or repeal of any provision of the bylaws of this Corporation shall be effective, those changes shall be submitted to the Board of Directors of CHX and if that Board shall determine that the same must be filed with or filed with and approved by the Commission before the changes may be effective, under Section 19 of the Exchange Act and the rules promulgated under that Exchange Act by the Commission or otherwise, then the proposed changes to the bylaws of this Corporation shall not be effective until filed with or filed with and approved by the Commission, as the case may be.
Also, Article ELEVENTH of the proposed CHX Holdings Certificate provides as follows:
• The Corporation reserves the right to amend this certificate of incorporation, and to change or repeal any provision of the certificate of incorporation, in the manner prescribed at the time by statute, and all rights conferred upon stockholders by such certificate of incorporation are granted subject to this reservation. For so long as this Corporation shall control, directly or indirectly, Chicago Stock Exchange, Inc., before any amendment to or repeal of any provision of this certificate of incorporation shall be effective, those changes shall be submitted to the Board of Directors of
Similarly, NA Casin Holdings would adopt the following provisions in its governing documents to require the consent of the CHX's board of directors in amending or repealing any provisions of NA Casin Holdings' governing documents:
• Section 11.1 of the NA Casin Holdings Bylaws would provide, in pertinent part, that for so long as this Corporation shall control, directly or indirectly, CHX, before any amendment to or repeal of any provision of these Bylaws shall be effective, the same shall be submitted to the board of directors of CHX and if said board shall determine that the same must be filed with, or filed with and approved by, the Commission before the same may be effective, under Section 19 of the Securities and Exchange Act of 1934 and the rules promulgated thereunder, then the same shall not be effective until filed with, or filed with and approved by, the Commission, as the case may be.
• Article X of the NA Casin Holdings Certificate would provide that for so long as this Corporation shall control, directly or indirectly, CHX before any amendment to or repeal of any provision of this Certificate of Incorporation shall be effective, the same shall be submitted to the board of directors of CHX and if said board shall determine that the same must be filed with, or filed with and approved by, the Commission before the same may be effective, under Section 19 of the Exchange Act and the rules promulgated thereunder, then the same shall not be effective until filed with, or filed with and approved by, the Commission, as the case may be.
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act in general,
• Omitting provisions from the proposed CHX Holdings Certificate regarding board composition requirements and election/vacancy procedures, as they are fully-described under Article II of the proposed CHX Holdings Bylaws.
• Omitting provisions from the proposed CHX Certificate regarding board composition requirements and election/vacancy procedures, as they are fully-described under Article III of the proposed CHX Bylaws.
• Moving provisions under Article 2, Rule 1 of the current CHX Rules regarding board committees and their respective composition requirements to Article V of the proposed CHX Bylaws.
Accordingly, the Exchange believes that the proposed rule change would further enable the Exchange to be so organized as to have the capacity to be able to carry out the purposes of the Act and to comply, and to enforce compliance by its Participants and persons associated with its Participants, with the provisions of the Act, the rules and regulations thereunder, and the rules of the Exchange, in furtherance of the objectives of Section 6(b)(1) of the Act.
Moreover, the Exchange believes that the proposed rule change furthers the objectives of Section 6(b)(5)
The proposed CHX Holdings Certificate and Bylaws establish an organizational structure for CHX Holdings, as the holding company for CHX, which will assure that the Commission and CHX will continue to be able to fully discharge their respective obligations to effectively regulate the equity securities markets and CHX. Specifically, among other key provisions, CHX Holdings and its directors, officers, employees and agents, are subject to the exclusive jurisdiction of the U.S. federal courts, the SEC and CHX; CHX Holdings is obligated to comply with the federal securities laws and the rules and regulations thereunder, as are its directors, officers and employees; prospective owners would be required to adhere to the proposed Ownership and Voting Limitations; and the books, records, premises, directors, employees and agents of CHX Holdings are deemed to be those of CHX for purposes of and subject to oversight pursuant to the Act. As such, these provisions operate to assure that the Exchange's rules meet the statutory requirements of Section 6(b)(5) of the Act to promote just and equitable principles of trade and to protect investors and the public interest.
The proposed CHX Holding Certificate and Bylaws also establish board composition and procedure requirements, which will facilitate the ability of the CHX Holdings to ensure that the CHX Holdings Board is optimally constituted with members that would give due regard to the preservation of the independence of the SRO function of the Exchange. To this end, the CHX Holdings Certificate and Bylaws have been updated to be largely consistent with the board composition and procedure requirements of NSX Holdings. Specifically, among other provisions, the proposed CHX Holdings Board composition and procedure requirements provide flexibility regarding the number of CHX Holdings Directors and the removal of CHX Holdings Directors. The Exchange believes that the proposed changes will also promote consistency among the various governance documents of the holding companies of the national securities exchanges and facilitate the ability of the Commission to provide oversight regarding the upstream governance of national securities exchanges. The Exchange also notes that CHX Holdings stockholder-called special meeting provision will facilitate the calling of special meetings of the stockholders, which would promote stockholder communication and transparency. As such, these provisions operate to assure that the Exchange's rules meet the statutory requirements of Section 6(b)(5) of the Act to promote just and equitable principles of trade and to protect investors and the public interest.
The proposed NA Casin Holdings Certificate and Bylaws establish an
The proposed CHX Certificate, Bylaws and Rules establish an organization structure for CHX that will assure that CHX will continue to be able to fully-discharge its obligations as an SRO pursuant to the Exchange Act. Specifically, among other key provisions, the CHX board composition and procedure requirements have been updated to be largely consistent with the board composition and procedure requirements of NSX; the CHX Regulatory Oversight Committee composition requirements have been updated to be consistent with the NSX Regulatory Oversight Committee composition requirements; and the rules governing the composition of the various CHX board committees have been restated under the proposed CHX Bylaws in a manner similar to the NSX By-Laws. The Exchange believes that these amendments will promote consistency among the various governance documents of the national securities exchanges and facilitate the ability of the Commission to provide oversight of the equity securities markets. The Exchange also notes that the current provisions regarding the SRO function of CHX will remain substantively unchanged and will remain in full force and effect prior to, during and after the Closing. As such, these provisions operate to assure that the Exchange's rules meet the statutory requirements of Section 6(b)(5) of the Act to promote just and equitable principles of trade and to protect investors and the public interest.
To the extent that the CHX Certificate and Bylaws differ from that of NSX, the Exchange believes that those provisions are also consistent with the objectives of Section 6(b)(5). Specifically, the Exchange believes that the proposed requirement that at least 20% of the CHX board be comprised of CHX Holdings Directors will promote governance efficiencies between CHX Holdings and CHX that will operate to enhance the governance and operation of the Exchange as an SRO. Also, the Exchange believes that maintaining the role of Vice Chairman of the CHX Board and the current CHX Board committee composition requirements (except for the Regulatory Oversight Committee composition requirements, as described above) will provide continuity in CHX governance so as to facilitate the transition to the post-Closing governance structure. Finally, the Exchange believes that the CHX stockholder-called special meeting provision will facilitate the calling of special meetings of the stockholders, which would promote stockholder communication and transparency. As such, all of these provisions operate to assure that the Exchange's rules meet the statutory requirements of Section 6(b)(5) of the Act to promote just and equitable principles of trade and to protect investors and the public interest.
In addition, the proposed NACH Stockholders' Agreement, Saliba Put Agreement and Raptor Put Agreement include provisions that provide reasonable financial protections to the Indirect Upstream Owners so as to facilitate consummation of the Transaction without violating the proposed Ownership and Voting Limitations. Specifically, while the proposed NACH Stockholders' Agreement includes various transfer of shares provisions, the agreement does not contain any provisions, such as lock-up, drag-along or tag-along rights, that could result in the Indirect Upstream Owners becoming Related Persons.
Moreover, the Exchange submits that the proposed call options under the proposed CHX Holdings Certificate
Further, the proposed rule change is designed to effectuate changes to the CHX Holdings' ownership necessary to close the Transaction and provide for an efficient transition into a new organizational structure as soon as practicable after approval by the Commission of the proposed rule change. To this extent, the Exchange submits that the rule changes are consistent with Section 6(b)(5) in that they are designed to remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and national market system.
The Exchange believes that the Transaction and the proposed rule change promote the protection of investors and the public interest. The Exchange submits that its proposal and the proposed ownership structure are consistent with the public interest in promoting efficient markets, reducing administrative burdens on exchanges, and providing flexibility where appropriate to the effective discharge of SRO responsibilities. The amendments are intended to provide market participants, investors, and the public with a clear and transparent description of the proposed changes to the CHX Holdings' ownership and governance structure as reflected in governing corporate documents. The Exchange
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The rule change is being proposed in connection with the Transaction that will, upon completion, change the ownership structure of CHX Holdings. The Exchange believes that the Transaction will result in substantial capital investment into the Exchange, which will better enable the Exchange to compete within the highly competitive U.S. securities market and better enable the Exchange to further the objectives of the Act. As such, the Exchange believes that there is no burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act.
No written comments were solicited or received.
Within 45 days of the date of publication of this notice in the
A. By order approve or disapprove the proposed rule change, or
B. Institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule change should be disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1)
The Exchange proposes to amend Rule 67 to modify the Web site data publication requirements relating to the Regulation NMS Plan to Implement a Tick Size Pilot Program (“Plan”). The proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of those statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.
On August 25, 2014, NYSE Group, Inc., on behalf of the Exchange, NYSE MKT LLC, NYSE Arca, Inc., the Bats BZX Exchange, Inc. f/k/a BATS Exchange, Inc. (“BZX”), BATS BYX Exchange, Inc. f/k/a BATS Y-Exchange, Inc. (“BYX”), Bats EDGA Exchange, Inc., Bats EDGX Exchange, Inc., Chicago Stock Exchange, Inc., Financial Industry Regulatory Authority, Inc. (“FINRA”), NASDAQ OMX BX, Inc., NASDAQ OMX PHLX LLC, and the Nasdaq Stock Market LLC (collectively “Participants”) filed with the Commission, pursuant to Section 11A of the Act
The Plan is designed to allow the Commission, market participants, and the public to study and assess the impact of increment conventions on the liquidity and trading of the common stock of small-capitalization companies. Each Participant is required to comply, and to enforce compliance by its member organizations, as applicable, with the provisions of the Plan.
The Exchange adopted rule amendments to implement the requirements of the Plan, including relating to the Plan's data collection requirements and requirements relating to Web site data publication.
The Exchange is proposing amendments to Rule 67(b)(2) (regarding Appendix B.I and B.II data) and Rule 67(b)(3)(C) (regarding Appendix B.IV data), to provide that data required to be made available on the Exchange's Web site be published within 120 calendar days following month end. In addition, the proposed amendments to Supplementary Material .70 to Rule 67 would provide that, notwithstanding the provisions of paragraphs (b)(2), (b)(3)(C) and (b)(5), the Exchange shall make data for the Pre-Pilot period publicly available on the Exchange's or DEA's Web site pursuant to Appendix B and C to the Plan by February 28, 2017.
The purpose of delaying the publication of the Web site data is to address confidentiality concerns by providing for the passage of additional time between the market information reflected in the data and the public availability of such information.
Finally, the Exchange is proposing an amendment to Rule 67(b)(5) (regarding data described in Item III of Appendix B) to add a provision identical to Rule 67(b)(2) (as amended above pursuant to the proposed changes described above to such Rule), which shall require the Exchange to make the data described in Item III of Appendix B publicly available on the Exchange Web site within 120 calendar days following month end at no charge and shall not identify the member organization that generated the data. The Exchange is proposing such an amendment in order to add a provision in its rules to comply with such requirement and provision in the Plan.
As noted in Item 2 of this filing, the Exchange has filed the proposed rule change for immediate effectiveness and has requested that the Commission waive the 30-day operative delay. If the Commission waives the 30-day operative delay, the operative date of the proposed rule change will be the date of filing.
The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
The Exchange believes that this proposal is consistent with the Act because it is designed to assist the Participants in meeting their regulatory obligations pursuant to the Plan and is in furtherance of the objectives of the Plan, as identified by the SEC. The Exchange believes that the instant proposal is consistent with the Act in that it is designed to address confidentiality concerns by permitting the Exchange to delay Web site publication to provide for passage of additional time between the market information reflected in the data and the public availability of such information.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will result in any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The Exchange notes that the proposed rule change implements the provisions of the Plan, and is designed to assist the Participants in meeting their regulatory obligations pursuant to the Plan.
The proposal is intended to address confidentiality concerns that may adversely impact competition, especially for Pilot Securities that may have a relatively small number of designated Market Makers, by permitting the Exchange to delay Web site publication to provide for passage of additional time between the market information reflected in the data and the public availability of such information. The Exchange notes that the proposal does not alter the information required to be submitted to the SEC.
No written comments were solicited or received with respect to the proposed rule change.
Because the foregoing proposed rule change does not: (i) Significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, it has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)
A proposed rule change filed under Rule 19b-4(f)(6)
The Exchange notes that the proposed rule change implements the provisions of the Plan, and is designed to assist the Participants in meeting their regulatory obligations pursuant to the Plan. The proposal is intended to address confidentiality concerns by permitting the Exchange to delay Web site publication to provide for passage of additional time between the market information reflected in the data and the public availability of such information. The proposal also does not alter the information required to be submitted to the SEC.
The Commission believes that waiving the 30-day operative delay is consistent with the protection of investors and the public interest because it will allow the Exchange to implement proposed changes that are intended to address confidentiality concerns. The Commission notes that some Pilot data was scheduled to be published on November 30, 2016. Therefore, the Commission hereby waives the 30-day operative delay and designates the proposed rule change to be operative as of November 30, 2016.
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1)
Pursuant to the provisions of Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”)
IEX has filed the proposed rule change for immediate effectiveness. IEX has requested that the SEC waive the 30-day operative period so that the proposed rule change may become operative upon filing.
The text of the proposed rule change is available at the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statement may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The self-regulatory organization has prepared summaries, set forth in Sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
On August 25, 2014, FINRA and several other self-regulatory organizations (the “Participants”) filed with the Commission, pursuant to Section 11A of the Act
The Plan is designed to allow the Commission, market participants, and the public to study and assess the impact of increment conventions on the liquidity and trading of the common stock of small-capitalization companies. Each Participant is required to comply, and to enforce compliance by its member organizations, as applicable, with the provisions of the Plan.
IEX adopted rule amendments to implement the requirements of the Plan, including relating to the Plan's data collection requirements and requirements relating to Web site data publication.
IEX is proposing amendments to Rule 11.340(b)(2)(C) (regarding Appendix B.I and B.II data) and Rule 11.340(b)(3)(C) (regarding Appendix B.IV data), to provide that data required to be made available on IEX's Web site be published within 120 calendar days following month end. In addition, the proposed amendments to Supplementary Material .09 to Rule 11.340 would provide that, notwithstanding the provisions of paragraphs (b)(2)(C) and (b)(3)(C), IEX shall make data for the Pre-Pilot period publicly available on the IEX Web site pursuant to Appendix B to the Plan by February 28, 2017.
The purpose of delaying the publication of the Web site data is to address confidentiality concerns by providing for the passage of additional time between the market information reflected in the data and the public availability of such information.
As noted in Item 1 of this filing, IEX has filed the proposed rule change for immediate effectiveness and has requested that the Commission waive the 30-day operative delay. If the Commission waives the 30-day operative delay, the operative date of the proposed rule change will be the date of filing.
IEX believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with the provisions of Section 6(b) of the Act,
IEX believes that this proposal is consistent with the Act because it is designed to assist the Participants in meeting their regulatory obligations pursuant to the Plan and is in furtherance of the objectives of the Plan, as identified by the Commission. IEX believes that the instant proposal is consistent with the Act in that it is designed to address confidentiality concerns by permitting IEX to delay Web site publication to provide for passage of additional time between the market information reflected in the data and the public availability of such information.
IEX does not believe that the proposed rule change will result in any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. IEX notes that the proposed rule change implements the provisions of the Plan, and is designed to assist the Participants in meeting their regulatory obligations pursuant to the Plan.
The proposal is intended to address confidentiality concerns that may adversely impact competition, especially for Pilot Securities that may have a relatively small number of designated Market Makers, by permitting IEX to delay Web site publication to provide for passage of additional time between the market information reflected in the data and the public availability of such information. IEX notes that the proposed change will not affect the data reporting requirements of Members under IEX's rules. The proposal also does not alter the information required to be submitted to the Commission.
Written comments were neither solicited nor received.
Because the foregoing proposed rule change does not: (i) Significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, it has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)
A proposed rule change filed under Rule 19b-4(f)(6)
The Exchange notes that the proposed rule change implements the provisions of the Plan, and is designed to assist the Participants in meeting their regulatory obligations pursuant to the Plan. The proposal is intended to address confidentiality concerns by permitting the Exchange to delay Web site publication to provide for passage of additional time between the market information reflected in the data and public availability of such information. The proposal does not alter the information required to be submitted to the Commission.
The Commission believes that waiving the 30-day operative delay is consistent with the protection of investors and the public interest because it will allow the Exchange to implement these proposed changes that are intended to address confidentiality concerns. The Commission notes that some Pilot data was scheduled to be published on November 30, 2016. Therefore, the Commission hereby waives the 30-day operative delay and designates the proposed rule change to be operative on November 30, 2016.
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Brent J. Fields, Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Notice is hereby given, pursuant to the provisions of the Government in the Sunshine Act, Public Law 94-409, that the Securities and Exchange Commission will hold an Open Meeting on Wednesday, December 14, 2016 at 10:00 a.m., in the Auditorium, Room L-002.
The subject matter of the Open Meeting will be:
• The Commission will consider whether to approve the 2017 budget of the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board and the related annual accounting support fee for the Board under Section 109 of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002.
At times, changes in Commission priorities require alterations in the scheduling of meeting items.
For further information and to ascertain what, if any, matters have been added, deleted, or postponed, please contact Brent J. Fields in the Office of the Secretary at (202) 551-5400.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1)
The Exchange proposes this rule change to provide that the Exchange would not be required to report to the securities information processor an Official Closing Price, as defined under Rule 123C(1)(e)(i)—Equities, as an “M” sale condition. The proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of those statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.
The Exchange is proposing to provide that the Exchange would not be required to report to the securities information processor (“SIP”) an Official Closing Price, as defined under Rule 123C(1)(e)(i)—Equities, as an “M” sale condition.
As set forth in the SIP Specifications, a price reported to the SIP by an exchange under the “M” sale condition, which is called the “Market Center Official Close,” is not used for purposes of determining a consolidated last sale price or the high or low price of a security and does not include any volume information. Each exchange determines what price could be reported to the SIP as its “Market Center Official Close.” To date, the Exchange has not reported to the SIP a price with an “M” sale condition.
By contrast, a trade reported to the SIP as a Market Center Closing Trade with a “6” sale condition includes volume information, is included in the consolidated last sale, and is included in the high or low price of a security. The Exchange reports to the SIP closing auction trades of a round lot or more with a “6” sale condition.
Recently, the Exchange amended Rule 123C(1)(e)—Equities to specify back-up procedures for determining an Official Closing Price for Exchange-listed securities if it is unable to conduct a closing transaction in one or more securities due to a systems or technical issue.
With this proposed rule change, the Exchange is modifying this statement to permit, but not require, the Exchange to report a price with an “M” sale condition to the SIP when the Official Closing Price is determined under Rule 123C(1)(e)(i)—Equities. Specifically, the Exchange does not believe that it should publish an Official Closing Price to the SIP as an “M” value if there has not been a last-sale eligible trade in a security on a trading day. For example, based on feedback from industry participants, the Exchange understands that certain market participants, such as index providers and mutual funds, follow a different method of determining a security's closing price when there have not been any last-sale eligible trades on a trading day. Under these circumstances, the Exchange understands that an Official Closing Price reported to the SIP as an “M” sale condition that differs from how an industry market participant may determine such value for its own purposes could lead to confusion if a market participant's systems read the “M” value published by the SIP that differs from their calculation.
Accordingly, this proposed rule change is intended to provide that the Exchange's would not be required to publish an Official Closing Price, as defined in Rule 123C(1)(e)(i)—Equities, as an “M” sale condition to the SIP. And, as noted above, this proposed rule change would not alter how the Official Closing Price would be disseminated under Rules 123C(1)(e)(ii)-(iv)—Equities.
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change would remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system because it would provide transparency that the Exchange's is not required to report a price to the SIP as an “M” sale condition. The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act because the “M” sale condition does not contribute to the consolidated last sale price for a security, the high or low price of a security, or reported volume for a security, and therefore is an informational value. The Exchange further believes that this proposed rule change is consistent with the protection of investors and the public interest because it would reduce confusion by eliminating publication to the SIP of a price that may conflict with how an index provider or mutual fund determines that value for a security if there are no last-sale eligible trades on a trading day. Finally, the Exchange believes that the proposed rule change would remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system because it would apply only when the Exchange is fully operational. If the Exchange is unable to conduct a closing transaction due to a systems or technical issue, current Rule 123C(1)(ii)-(iv)—Equities would govern, with no change.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The proposed rule change is not designed to address any competitive issues, but rather to specify that the Exchange would not be required to report an Official Closing Price to the SIP as an “M” sale condition if there has not been a last-sale eligible trade on a trading day.
No written comments were solicited or received with respect to the proposed rule change.
The Exchange has filed the proposed rule change pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(iii) of the Act
A proposed rule change filed under Rule 19b-4(f)(6)
At any time within 60 days of the filing of such proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings under Section 19(b)(2)(B)
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Brent J. Fields, Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Small Business Administration.
Notice of 30 day reporting requirements submitted for OMB review.
Under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35), agencies are required to submit proposed reporting and recordkeeping requirements to OMB for review and approval, and to publish a notice in the
Submit comments on or before January 11, 2017. If you intend to comment but cannot prepare comments promptly, please advise the OMB Reviewer and the Agency Clearance Officer before the deadline.
Address all comments concerning this notice to:
Curtis Rich, Agency Clearance Officer, (202) 205-7030
U.S. Small Business Administration (SBA).
Notice to change meeting date for the December Advisory board meeting.
The SBA is issuing this notice to announce the change in date of the December 2016 meeting for the National Small Business Development Center (SBDC) Advisory Board.
The meeting for December will be held on the following date: Tuesday, December 13, 2016 at 1:00 p.m. EST.
This meeting will be held via conference call.
The meeting is open to the public however; advance notice of attendance is required. Anyone wishes to be a listening participant must contact Monika Nixon by fax (202) 481-5624 or email
If you would like to request accommodations or require additional information, please contact Monika Nixon at the information above.
Pursuant to section 10(a) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act (5 U.S.C. Appendix 2), SBA announces the meetings of the National SBDC Advisory Board. This Board provides advice and counsel to the SBA Administrator and Associate Administrator for Small Business Development Centers.
The purpose of this meeting is to discuss the following issues pertaining to the SBDC Advisory Board:
Social Security Administration.
Notice; reopening of the comment period.
On Monday, September 19, 2016, we published in the
The comment period for the notice published on September 19, 2016 (81 FR 64254), is reopened. To ensure that your written comments are considered, we must receive them no later than January 11, 2017.
You may submit comments by any one of three methods—Internet, fax, or mail. Do not submit the same comments multiple times or by more than one method. Regardless of which method you choose, please state that your comments refer to Docket No. SSA-2016-0036 so that we may associate your comments with the correct regulation.
Caution: You should be careful to include in your comments only information that you wish to make publicly available. We strongly urge you not to include in your comments any personal information, such as Social Security numbers or medical information.
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Comments are available for public viewing on the Federal eRulemaking portal at
Susan Wilschke, Acting Associate Commissioner for the Office of Research, Demonstration, and Employment Support, Office of Retirement and Disability Policy, Social Security Administration, 6401 Security Boulevard, Baltimore, Maryland 21235-6401, (410) 966-8906, for information about this notice. For information on eligibility or filing for benefits, call our national toll-free number, 1-800-772-1213, or TTY 1-800-325-0778, or visit our Internet site, Social Security Online, at
This document reopens to January 11, 2017, the comment period for the notice RFI that we published on September 19, 2016. We are reopening the comment period in light of the comments that we have received on the RFI notice. If you have already provided comments on the proposed rules, we will consider your comments and you do not need to resubmit them.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice.
This notice contains a summary of a petition seeking relief from specified requirements of Title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations. The purpose of this notice is to improve the public's awareness of, and participation in, the FAA's exemption process. Neither publication of this notice nor the inclusion or omission of information in the summary is intended to affect the legal status of the petition or its final disposition.
Comments on this petition must identify the petition docket number and must be received on or before January 3, 2017.
Send comments identified by docket number FAA-2016-6581 using any of the following methods:
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Dale Williams (202) 267-4179, Office of Rulemaking, Federal Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20591.
This notice is published pursuant to 14 CFR 11.85.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Noise Exposure Map Notice and Receipt of Noise Compatibility Program and Request for Review.
The Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) announces its determination that the Noise Exposure Maps (NEM's) submitted by the Melbourne Airport Authority (Authority, Melbourne, FL) for the Orlando Melbourne International Airport (MLB), Melbourne, FL under the provisions of 40 U.S.C. 47501
Mr. Allan Nagy at the Federal Aviation Administration, Orlando Airports District Office, 5950 Hazeltine National Drive, Orlando, FL, 32882, Telephone 407-813-6331.
This Notice announces that the FAA finds that the Noise Exposure Maps submitted for Orlando Melbourne International Airport are in compliance with applicable requirements of Title 14 Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) Part 150, effective December 1, 2016. Furthermore, FAA is reviewing a proposed Noise Compatibility Program for MLB which will be approved or disapproved on or before May 30, 2017. This notice also announces the availability of this Noise Compatibility Program for public review and comment.
Under 49 U.S.C., Section 47503, Aviation Safety and Noise Abatement Act (the Act), an airport operator may submit to the FAA Noise Exposure Maps which meet applicable regulations and which depict non-compatible land uses as of the date of submission of such maps, a description of projected aircraft operations, and the ways in which such operations will affect such maps. The Act requires such maps to be developed in consultation with interested parties in the local community, government agencies, and persons using the airport.
An airport operator who has submitted Noise Exposure Maps that are found by FAA to be in compliance with the requirements of Part 150, promulgated pursuant to the Act, may submit a Noise Compatibility Program for FAA approval which sets forth the measures the operator has taken or proposes to take to reduce existing non-compatible uses and prevent the introduction of additional non-compatible uses.
The Melbourne Airport Authority submitted to the FAA on September 9, 2016 Noise Exposure Maps, descriptions and other documentation that were produced during the Orlando Melbourne International Airport Part
The FAA has completed its review of the Noise Exposure Maps and accompanying documentation submitted by the Melbourne Airport Authority. The documentation that constitutes the “Noise Exposure Maps” as defined in CFR Part 150 Section 150.7 includes: Chapter 2.0 Airport Facilities and Local Airspace, Chapter 5.0 Noise Modeling, Chapter 6.0 Airport Operational Data, Chapter 7.0 Noise Exposure, Chapter 8.0 Noise Exposure Maps Certification, Figure 6-1 Modeled Flight Tracks—East Flow, Figure 6-2 Modeled Flight Tracks—West Flow, Figure 6-3 Modeled Flight Tracks—Touch and Go and Helicopter, Figure 7-1 2016 Noise Exposure Map, Figure 7-2 Future Land Use, Figure 7-3 2021 Noise Exposure Map, Table 6-1 2016 Annual Operations, Table 6-2 2016 Annual-Average Day Fleet Mix (Itinerant Operations), Table 6-3 2016 Annual-Average Day Fleet Mix (Local Operations), Table 6-4 2021 Annual Operations, Table 6-5 2021 Annual-Average Day Fleet Mix (Itinerant Operations), Table 6-6 2021 Annual-Average Day Fleet Mix (Local Operations), Table 6-7 2016 and 2021 Stage Length Percentages, Table 6-8 2016 and 2021 Runway Use Percentages, Table 6-9 2016 and 2021 Departure Flight Track Use Percentages, Table 6-10 2016 and 2021 Arrival Flight Track Use Percentages, Table 6-11 2016 and 2021 Local and Helicopter Flight Track Use Percentages, Table 7-1 Land Use Acreage within Existing (2016) DNL Contours, Table 7-3 2021 DNL Contour Land Use Impacts. The FAA has determined that these noise exposure maps and accompanying documentation are in compliance with applicable requirements. This determination is effective on December 1, 2016.
The FAA's determination on an airport operator's noise exposure maps is limited to a finding that the maps were developed in accordance with the procedures contained in Appendix A of CFR Part 150. Such determination does not constitute approval of the airport operator's data, information or plans, or a commitment to approve a Noise Compatibility Program or to fund implementation of that Program. If questions arise concerning the precise relationship of specific properties to noise exposure contours depicted on a Noise Exposure Map submitted under Section 47503 of the Act, it should be noted that the FAA is not involved in any way in determining the relative locations of specific properties with regard to the depicted noise exposure contours, or in interpreting the Noise Exposure Maps to resolve questions concerning, for example, which properties should be covered by the provisions of Section 47506 of the Act. These functions are inseparable from the ultimate land use control and planning responsibilities of local government. These local responsibilities are not changed in any way under Part 150 or through FAA's review of Noise Exposure Maps. Therefore, the responsibility for the detailed overlaying of noise exposure contours onto the maps depicting properties on the surface rests exclusively with the airport operator that submitted those maps, or those public agencies and planning agencies with which consultation is required under Section 47503 of the Act. The FAA has relied on the certification by the airport operator, under Section 150.21 of Part 150, that the statutorily required consultation has been accomplished.
The FAA has formally received the Noise Compatibility Program for Orlando Melbourne International Airport, also effective on December 1, 2016. Preliminary review of the submitted material indicates that it conforms to the requirements for the submittal of Noise Compatibility Programs, but that further review will be necessary prior to approval or disapproval of the program. The formal review period, limited by law to a maximum of 180 days, will be completed on or before May 30, 2017.
The FAA's detailed evaluation will be conducted under the provisions of Part 150, Section 150.33. The primary considerations in the evaluation process are whether the proposed measures may reduce the level of aviation safety, create an undue burden on interstate or foreign commerce, or be reasonably consistent with obtaining the goal of reducing existing non-compatible land uses and preventing the introduction of additional non-compatible land uses. Interested persons are invited to comment on the proposed program with specific reference to these factors. All comments, other than those properly addressed to local land use authorities, will be considered by the FAA to the extent practicable.
Copies of the full Noise Exposure Map documentation and the proposed Noise Compatibility Program are available for examination at the following locations:
Questions may be directed to the individual named above under the heading,
Federal Highway Administration (FHWA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Notice of Limitation on Claims for Judicial Review of Actions by FHWA.
This notice announces actions taken by the FHWA that are final within the meaning of Section 1308 of the Moving Ahead for Progress in the 21st Century Act. The action relates to design refinements to West Approach Bridge South, the Montlake Lid, and other elements of the Montlake Interchange on State Route (SR) 520 in the City of Seattle, King County, State of Washington.
A claim seeking judicial review of the Federal agency actions on the listed highway project will be barred unless the claim is filed on or before May 11, 2017. If the Federal law that authorizes judicial review of a claim provides a time period of less than 150 days for filing such claim, then that shorter time period still applies.
Anthony Sarhan, Major Project Oversight Manager, Federal Highway Administration, 711 S. Capitol Way, Suite 501, Olympia, WA 98501-1284, 360-753-9487, or
On September 7, 2011, FHWA published a
The project proposed to improve safety and mobility for people and goods across Lake Washington by replacing the SR 520 Portage Bay and Evergreen Point bridges and improve existing roadway between Interstate 5 (I-5) in Seattle and Evergreen Point Road in Medina spanning 5.2 miles. The Final Environmental Impact Statement (EIS) for the project was published in January 2011 and the Record of Decision (ROD) was issued in August 2011.
Since issuance of the FHWA ROD, the design has been refined for the West Approach Bridge South, Montlake Lid, and other project elements in the Montlake Interchange Area including changes to the path connections, changes to stormwater facilities, and changes to the design of the intersection at 24th Avenue East and East Lake Washington Boulevard. The re-evaluation considering these refinements was prepared in October 2016. It identifies and documents potential effects associated with these refinements. This notice only applies to the re-evaluation.
Information about the re-evaluation and associated records are available from FHWA and WSDOT at the addresses provided above and can be found at:
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23 U.S.C. 139(l)(1), as amended by Moving Ahead for Progress in the 21st Century Act, (Pub. L. 112-141, 126 Stat. 405).
Federal Transit Administration, DOT.
Notice of Buy America waiver.
The Federal Transit Administration (FTA) received a request from the North County Transit District (NCTD) in California for a Buy America non-availability waiver for the procurement of replacement parts for Diesel Multiple Unit (DMU) rail vehicles. The 12 DMU rail vehicles were manufactured by Siemens as a part of their Desiro series and were placed in revenue service in 2008. Mid-life maintenance and replacement overhauls of vehicle parts are now required in order to ensure safe and continuous transit service. The FTA hereby waives its Buy America requirements, finding that the materials for which the waiver is requested are not produced in the United States in sufficient and reasonably available quantities and of satisfactory quality. This waiver is limited to the purchase of the replacement parts by NCTD over several phases from 2018 through 2026.
The waiver is effective immediately.
Cecelia Comito, Assistant Chief Counsel, at (202) 366-2217 or
The purpose of this notice is to announce that FTA has granted a Buy America non-availability waiver for the NCTD's purchase of replacement parts on their Siemens-manufactured Desiro series DMU rail vehicles, including, but not limited to, Power Pack Assembly, Power Truck Assembly, Jakobs Truck Assembly, Transmission, Primary Suspension, Secondary Suspension, Power Wheelset Assembly, Power Truck Brake Rotors, Jakobs Truck Brake Rotors, Power Truck Wheels, Jakobs Truck Wheels, A/C Compressors, Carbody Brake Components, Automatic Train Couplers, and HVAC Roof Mounted Units (the “Replacement Parts”) pursuant to 49 U.S.C. 5323(j)(2)(B) and 49 CFR 661.7(c).
With certain exceptions, FTA's Buy America requirements prevent FTA from obligating an amount that may be appropriated to carry out its program for a project unless “the steel, iron, and manufactured goods used in the project are produced in the United States.” 49 U.S.C. 5323(j)(1). A manufactured product is considered produced in the United States if: (1) All of the manufacturing processes for the product take place in the United States; and (2) all of the components of the product are of U.S. origin. A component is considered of U.S. origin if it is manufactured in the United States, regardless of the origin of its subcomponents. 49 CFR 661.5(d). If, however, FTA determines that “the steel, iron, and goods produced in the
NCTD provides transit service to the entire North San Diego County, serving more than 12 million riders annually. In 2003, NCTD requested and received from FTA a non-availability Buy America waiver for the procurement of 12 DMU vehicles for use on NCTD's Sprinter line, with 15 light rail stations between the cities of Escondido and Oceanside. NCTD purchased the 12 DMU vehicles in 2004 and placed the vehicles into revenue service in 2008 on NCTD's Sprinter line. The useful life of the vehicles is 25 years.
According to NCTD, the Replacements Parts for the DMU vehicles are nearing the end of their useful service lives and showing signs of wear and fatigue. Without periodic capital equipment replacement and/or rebuild, the likelihood of mechanical downtime increases significantly, equating to prolonged service outages for riders. In March 2013, NCTD removed the Sprinter service from revenue service for more than two months due to premature wear of one of the three braking systems and unavailability of domestic replacement parts. NCTD intends to replace the components over several phases during the coming years, from 2018 through 2026. The last phase is anticipated to be procured over a subsequent seven-year period. Any non-availability waiver granted would be effective for all phases of these projects and will expire upon completion of these projects.
As a part of its search for domestic Replacement Parts, NCTD issued a Request for Information (RFI) on November 12, 2013 to maintenance and engineering communities to determine if any firms existed that could either supply Buy America compliant parts and components, or reverse engineer the parts and components utilizing plans and specifications provided. More than 300 vendors received the RFI; 19 downloaded the RFI. One vendor responded that “with proper specifications, drawings, and samples, we may be able to design and supply Buy America Compliant, OE equivalent, air bellows, primary suspension, and passenger bellows.” However, the original equipment manufacturer (“OEM”) would not provide the requested proprietary information. NCTD undertook three additional procurements for the Replacement Parts. Three responses were received; none could certify to Buy America compliance.
NCTD's 12 vehicles are the only Siemens Sprinter vehicles in the United States. Additionally, since these vehicles were specifically designed to meet California Public Utilities Commission rail safety requirements, Sprinter is the only vehicle of its kind internationally. NCTD's multiple procurement efforts have demonstrated that there are no suppliers willing to invest in infrastructure to manufacture parts that are suitable only for NCTD's 12 vehicles.
Under 49 U.S.C. 5323(j)(6), FTA cannot deny an application for a waiver based on non-availability unless FTA can certify that (i) the steel, iron, or manufactured good (the “item”) is produced in the United States in a sufficient and reasonably available amount; and (ii) the item produced in the United States is of a satisfactory quality. Additionally, FTA must provide a list of known manufacturers in the United States from which the item can be obtained. FTA is not aware of any manufacturers who produce the Replacement Parts in the United States.
The 12 DMUs purchased by NCTD were granted a waiver from Buy America, and Replacement Parts are necessary for mid-life maintenance of the rail vehicles. Due to its unsuccessful efforts to identify domestic manufacturers, NCTD seeks a non-availability waiver of the Buy America requirements for the various Replacement Parts. FTA published a notice in the
Therefore, based on the information provided in support of NCTD's request for a Buy America waiver and the lack of any comments, FTA hereby waives its Buy America requirements for the procurement of the various Replacement Parts on the grounds that the manufactured product is not available in the U.S. This waiver is limited to the purchase of replacement parts for the 12 DMUs which will be acquired for the replacement of the components over several phases from 2018 through 2026. The waiver is effective for all phases of these projects.
Federal Transit Administration, DOT.
Notice of Buy America waiver.
In response to Greater Dayton Regional Transit Authority's (GDRTA) request for a Buy America non-availability waiver for the procurement of radio consoles, which would be a part of GDRTA's new communication system (“radio consoles”), the Federal Transit Administration (FTA) hereby waives its Buy America requirements, finding that the materials for which the waiver is requested are not produced in the United States in sufficient and reasonably available quantities and of satisfactory quality. This waiver is limited to a single procurement by GDRTA for the radio consoles.
This waiver is effective immediately.
Cecelia Comito, FTA Assistant Chief Counsel, at (202) 366-2217 or
The purpose of this notice is to announce that FTA has granted a Buy America non-availability waiver for GDRTA for the procurement of radio consoles under 49 U.S.C. 5323(j)(2)(B) and 49 CFR 661.7(c).
With certain exceptions, FTA's Buy America requirements prevent FTA from obligating an amount that may be appropriated to carry out its program for a project unless “the steel, iron, and manufactured goods used in the project are produced in the United States.” 49 U.S.C. 5323(j)(1). A manufactured product is considered produced in the United States if: (1) All of the manufacturing processes for the product take place in the United States; and (2) all of the components of the product are of U.S. origin. A component is considered of U.S. origin if it is manufactured in the United States, regardless of the origin of its subcomponents. 49 CFR 661.5(d). If, however, FTA determines that “the
In January 2014, GDRTA conducted a technology scope development project to determine how technology enhancements could improve its operational efficiency; this included a voice and data communication alternatives analysis. GDRTA comprehensively examined various technologies available for its voice and data communication needs. GDRTA compared and evaluated the differences between radio and cellular-based communication, including a cost analysis, reliability assessment, and long-range maintenance and operational differences. On August 5, 2014, the GDRTA Board approved the adopted of a mixed communication system for the agency, which would employ both voice and cellular data systems. GDRTA would join Montgomery County's 800 MHz analog trunked system, instead of continuing to own a 450 MHz radio system.
Montgomery County's analog system uses proprietary Motorola SmartNetTrunking, and all equipment must be original equipment manufacturer (OEM) Motorola devices. All equipment also must be programmed to use the County's 800 MHz analog system and have the ability to work on the MARCS 800 MHz digital system without any additional hardware. In November 2014, GDRTA purchased Motorola mobile and portable radios for its supervisors and its diesel, trolly, paratransit, maintenance, and support vehicles. The procurement and installation of the radio consoles is the final step to move GDRTA's communication system to Montgomery County's system.
Motorola manufactures equipment both domestically and overseas. While the voice processing module portion of the radio consoles currently are manufactured in Illinois, the other components are manufactured in Mexico. Thus, GDRTA submitted a waiver request based on non-availability under 49 CFR 661.7(c)(1).
On Tuesday November 1, 2016, and in accordance with 49 U.S.C. 5323(j)(3)(A), FTA published a notice in the
Therefore, based on the information supplied in support of GDRTA's request for a Buy America waiver for the radio consoles, FTA hereby waives its Buy America requirements for the radio consoles on the grounds that the manufactured product is not available in the U.S. This waiver is limited to a single procurement for the radio consoles by GDRTA.
Federal Transit Administration, DOT.
Notice Buy America waiver.
The Federal Transit Administration (FTA) received a request from the Port Authority of New York and New Jersey (PANYNJ) for a Buy America public interest waiver for the procurement of equipment to replace what was damaged at the World Trade Center Transportation Hub (WTC Hub) project during Hurricane Sandy. A public interest waiver is needed because Hurricane Sandy damaged an existing construction site that receives federal funds but is not subject to FTA's Buy America requirements and the only option PANYNJ had to implement Sandy recovery work was to replace the damaged equipment with the same equipment. 49 U.S.C. 5323(j)(2)(A) and 49 CFR 661.7(b). In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 5323(j)(3)(A), FTA provided notice of the public interest waiver request and sought comment on whether to grant the request. FTA received one comment in support of the waiver, and no comments objecting to the waiver. Therefore, FTA is issuing a general public interest waiver for two PANYNJ Hurricane Sandy grants, NY-44-X005 and NY-44-X014. This public interest waiver is limited to the Hurricane Sandy recovery projects at the WTC Hub only and does not apply to separately funded resiliency projects.
This waiver is effective immediately.
Cecelia Comito, FTA Assistant Chief Counsel, (202)366-2217 or
The purpose of this notice is to announce that FTA is granting a public interest waiver to the Port Authority of New York and New Jersey (PANYNJ) for the procurement of replacement equipment damaged by Hurricane Sandy at the World Trade Center Transportation Hub (WTC Hub) project.
With certain exceptions, FTA's Buy America requirements prevent FTA from obligating an amount that may be appropriated to carry out its program for a project unless “the steel, iron, and manufactured goods used in the project are produced in the United States.” 49 U.S.C. 5323(j)(1). If, however, FTA finds that the application of this requirement would be inconsistent with the public interest, it may waive this requirement. 49 U.S.C. 5323 (j)(2)(A). In determining whether the conditions exist to grant a public interest waiver, FTA will consider all appropriate factors on a case-by-case basis, unless a general exception is specifically set out in this part. 49 U.S.C. 5323(j)(2)(A); 49 CFR 661.7(b).
On May 13, 2015, PANYNJ requested a Buy America waiver for the replacement or repair of equipment damaged by Hurricane Sandy at the WTC Hub because the WTC Hub project is being constructed pursuant to a grant awarded in 2003, it is not feasible to replace the damaged equipment with equipment that is different than that used in the original project and it is in the public's interest to repair the damage at the WTC Hub as quickly as possible. 49 U.S.C. 5323(j)(2)(A); 49 CFR 661.7(b). Additionally, the underlying project is not subject to FTA's Buy America requirements.
The September 11, 2001 terrorist attacks on the World Trade Center resulted in extensive damage to the WTC Hub. In August 2002, the Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) entered into a memorandum of agreement with the U.S. Department of Transportation under which FEMA agreed to provide $2.75 billion to cover expenses incurred in repairing or rebuilding public transportation facilities and systems damaged by the September 11, 2001 terrorist attacks. Under the agreement, FTA would serve as the lead agency to oversee the grant and the construction of the project. In December 2003, FTA entered into a grant agreement with PANYNJ to
In October 2012, the WTC Hub project was an active construction site, with an estimated project completion date of December 2015. Hurricane Sandy caused extensive damage to the construction site, resulting in more than $214 million in damage to the construction site. FTA awarded PANYNJ two grants—NY-44-X005 for $54.24 million and NY-44-X014 for $159.72 million—in Hurricane Sandy recovery funds to be used for recovery and emergency repair work for the WTC Hub project. Because the repair work was for an ongoing construction project, PANYNJ was required to use existing contracts that were originally procured in accordance with the requirements for the FEMA-funded WTC Hub project. To apply FTA's Buy America requirements to replace or repair equipment installed on an ongoing construction project would result in significant delay to completion of the project, impact contracts awarded under the FEMA funds, and potentially impact previously provided warranties. Moreover, a public interest waiver would maintain overall consistency of administration, oversight and implementation of both the ongoing WTC Hub project and the WTC Hurricane Sandy recovery work.
On November 4, 2016, and in accordance with 49 U.S.C. 5323(j)(3)(A), FTA published a notice in the
Accordingly, because the original project was funded by FEMA and therefore, not subject to FTA's Buy America regulations, and the lack of any comments opposing the waiver, FTA is granting a general public interest waiver of FTA's Buy America requirements for the two grants, NY-44-X005 for $54.24 million and NY-44-X014 for $159.72 million—awarded to PANYNJ. This public interest waiver is limited to the Hurricane Sandy recovery projects at the WTC Hub only, and does not apply to separately funded resiliency projects.
Federal Transit Administration, DOT.
Notice of Buy America waiver.
The Federal Transit Administration (FTA) received a request from the Central Puget Sound Transit Authority (Sound Transit) for a Buy America non-availability waiver for the procurement of ultrastraight rail. Sound Transit seeks to procure approximately 15,100 feet ultrastraight rail for a portion of its Northgate Link light rail extension to avoid exceedance of contractually-mandated vibration thresholds. The FTA hereby waives its Buy America requirements, finding that the materials for which the waiver is requested are not produced in the United States in sufficient and reasonably available quantities and of satisfactory quality. This waiver is limited to a single procurement by Sound Transit.
The waiver is effective immediately.
Cecelia Comito, Assistant Chief Counsel, at (202) 366-2217 or
The purpose of this notice is to announce that FTA has granted a Buy America non-availability waiver for Sound Transit for the procurement of approximately 15,100 feet of ultrastraight rail pursuant to 49 U.S.C. 5323(j)(2)(B) and 49 CFR 661.7(c).
With certain exceptions, FTA's Buy America requirements prevent FTA from obligating an amount that may be appropriated to carry out its program for a project unless “the steel, iron, and manufactured goods used in the project are produced in the United States.” 49 U.S.C. 5323(j)(1). A manufactured product is considered produced in the United States if: (1) All of the manufacturing processes for the product take place in the United States; and (2) all of the components of the product are of U.S. origin. A component is considered of U.S. origin if it is manufactured in the United States, regardless of the origin of its subcomponents. 49 CFR 661.5(d). If, however, FTA determines that “the steel, iron, and goods produced in the United States are not produced in a sufficient and reasonably available amount or are not of a satisfactory quality,” then FTA may issue a non-availability waiver. 49 U.S.C. 5323(j)(2)(B); 49 CFR 661.7(c). “It will be presumed that the conditions exist to grant this non-availability waiver if no responsive and responsible bid is received offering an item produced in the United States.” 49 CFR 661.7(c)(1).
Sound Transit's Northgate Link extension is a $1.9 billion rail project that consists of 4.3 miles and 3 new stations, and runs through residential and employment areas, including the University of Washington. Approximately 15,100 feet of that extension will run under the University of Washington's Health Sciences and Physics-Astronomy buildings, which house precision-measurement laboratories and experiments conducted by Nobel Prize winning faculty. The project's potential impact on the University's buildings was considered as part of the environmental review process required by the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA). In 2006, FTA issued a final Record of Decision (ROD) for the project, and required implementation of mitigation measures, including a measure that would minimize vibration under the University buildings. Sound Transit then executed a 2007 agreement with the University of Washington in which Sound Transit agreed to not exceed specified vibration thresholds, which could be met through use of ultrastraight rail, with parameters for that ultrastraight rail based on American Railway Engineers Maintenance-of-Way Association (“AREMA”) standards.
Sound Transit contacted domestic rail manufacturers regarding their ability to produce ultrastraight rail within the agreed upon AREMA specifications for the rail. Two leading manufacturers, Steel Dynamics, Inc. (SDI) and EVRAZ North America (EVRAZ), stated unequivocally that they are unable to fabricate rail that meets the specification. Sound Transit subsequently explored using domestically-sourced, milled rail. However, testing of the as-installed milled rail found that the rail failed to meet the applicable vibration thresholds. Due to its unsuccessful
Therefore, based on the information supplied in support of Sound Transit's request for a Buy America waiver and the lack of any comments, FTA hereby waives its Buy America requirements for the procurement of ultrastraight rail on the grounds that the manufactured product is not available in the U.S. This waiver is limited to a single procurement by Sound Transit for the procurement of approximately 15,100 feet of ultrastraight rail.
National Cemetery Administration, Department of Veterans Affairs.
Notice.
The Department of Veterans Affairs (VA) National Cemetery Administration (NCA) is announcing an opportunity for public comment on the proposed collection of certain information by the agency. Under the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, Federal agencies are required to publish notice in the
Written comments and recommendations on the proposed collection of information should be received on or before January 11, 2017.
Submit written comments on the collection of information through Federal Docket Management System (FDMS) at
Cynthia Harvey-Pryor, Enterprise Records Service (005R1B), Department of Veterans Affairs, 810 Vermont Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20420, (202) 461-5870 or email
Under the PRA of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-13; 44 U.S.C. 3501-21), Federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. This request for comment is being made pursuant to Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA.
With respect to the following collection of information, NCA invites comments on: (1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of NCA's functions, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of NCA's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or the use of other forms of information technology.
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By direction of the Secretary.
Veterans Health Administration, Department of Veterans Affairs.
Notice.
In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3521), this notice announces that the Veterans Health Administration (VHA), Department of Veterans Affairs, will submit the collection of information abstracted below to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and comment. The PRA submission describes the nature of the information collection and its expected cost and burden; it includes the actual data collection instrument.
Comments must be submitted on or before January 11, 2017.
Submit written comments on the collection of information through
Cynthia Harvey-Pryor, Enterprise Records Service (005R1B), Department of Veterans Affairs, 810 Vermont Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20420, (202) 461-5870 or email
By direction of the Secretary.
National Cemetery Administration, Department of Veterans Affairs.
Notice.
In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3521), this notice announces that the National Cemetery Administration (NCA), Department of Veterans Affairs (VA), will submit the collection of information abstracted below to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and comment. The PRA submission describes the nature of the information collection and its expected cost and burden; it includes the actual data collection instrument.
Written comments and recommendations on the proposed collection of information should be received on or before January 11, 2017.
Submit written comments on the collection of information through Federal Docket Management System (FDMS) at
Cynthia Harvey-Pryor, Enterprise Records Service (005R1B), Department of Veterans Affairs, 810 Vermont Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20420, (202) 461-5870 or email
By direction of the Secretary.
Office of Information and Technology, Department of Veterans Affairs.
Notice.
In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3521), this notice announces that the Office of Information and Technology (OIT), Department of Veterans Affairs (VA), will submit the collection of information abstracted below to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and comment. The PRA submission describes the nature of the information collection and its expected cost and burden; it includes the actual data collection instrument.
Written comments and recommendations on the proposed collection of information should be received on or before January 11, 2017.
Submit written comments on the collection of information through Federal Docket Management System (FDMS) at
Cynthia Harvey-Pryor, Enterprise Records Service (005R1B), Department of Veterans Affairs, 810 Vermont Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20420, (202) 461-5870 or email
By direction of the Secretary.
Veterans Health Administration, Department of Veterans Affairs.
Notice.
In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3521), this notice announces that the Veterans Health Administration (VHA), Department of Veterans Affairs, will submit the collection of information abstracted below to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and comment. The PRA submission describes the nature of the information collection and its expected cost and burden; it includes the actual data collection instrument.
Comments must be submitted on or before January 11, 2017.
Submit written comments on the collection of information through
Cynthia Harvey-Pryor, Enterprise Records Service (005R1B), Department of Veterans Affairs, 810 Vermont Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20420, (202) 461-5870 or email
1. Academic Verification, VA Form 10-0491.
2. Addendum to Application, VA Form 10-0491a.
3. Annual VA Employment Deferment Verification, VA Form 10-0491c.
4. Education Program Completion Notice Service Obligation Placement, VA Form 10-0491d.
5. Evaluation Recommendation Form, VA Form 10-0491e.
6. HPSP Agreement, VA Form 10-0491f.
7. HPSP/OMPSP Application, VA Form 10-0491g.
8. Notice of Approaching Graduation, VA Form 10-0491h.
9. Notice of Change and/or Annual Academic Status Report, VA Form 10-0491i.
10. Request for Deferment for Advanced Education, VA Form 10-0491j.
11. VA Scholarship Offer Response, VA Form 10-0491k.
12. VIOMPSP Agreement, VA Form 10-0491l.
The information required determines the eligibility or suitability of an applicant desiring to receive an award under the provisions of 38 U.S.C. 7601 through 7619, and 38 U.S.C. 7501 through 7505. The information is needed to apply for the VA Health Professional Scholarship Program or Visual Impairment and Orientation and Mobility Professional Scholarship Program. The VA Health Professional Scholarship Program awards scholarships to students receiving education or training in a direct or indirect healthcare services discipline to assist in providing an adequate supply of such personnel for VA and for the United States. The Visual Impairment and Orientation and Mobility Professional Scholarship Program awards scholarships to students pursuing a program of study leading to a degree in visual impairment or orientation and mobility in order to increase the supply of qualified blind rehabilitation specialists for VA and the Nation. The
By direction of the Secretary.
U.S. Customs and Border Protection, DHS.
Interim final rule.
In 2012, U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) developed a test to incrementally transition the operational trade functions that traditionally reside with port directors to the Centers of Excellence and Expertise (Centers). The purpose of the test was to broaden the ability of the Centers to make decisions by waiving certain identified regulations to the extent necessary to provide the Center directors, who manage the Centers, with the authority to make the decisions normally reserved for the port directors. At this time, CBP is prepared to end the test and establish the Centers as a permanent organizational component of the agency and to transition certain additional trade functions to the Centers. This rule amends the CBP regulations on an interim basis to implement this organizational change by: Defining the Centers and the Center directors; amending the definition for port directors to distinguish their functions from those of the Center directors; identifying the Center management offices; explaining the process by which importers will be assigned to Centers; providing the importer with an appeals process for its Center assignment; identifying the regulatory functions that will be transitioned from the port directors to the Center directors and those that will be jointly carried out by the port directors and the Center directors; and providing clarification in applicable regulations that payments and documents may continue to be submitted at the ports of entry or electronically.
You may submit comments identified by
•
•
Lori Whitehurst, CBP Office of Field Operations by telephone (202) 344-2536 or by email,
Interested persons are invited to participate in this rulemaking by submitting written data, views, or arguments on all aspects of this interim final rule. U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) also invites comments that relate to the economic, environmental, or federalism effects that might result from this regulatory change. Comments that will provide the most assistance to CBP will reference a specific portion of the rule, explain the reason for any recommended change, and include data, information or authority that support such recommended change. Written comments must be submitted on or before January 19, 2017. CBP will consider those comments and make any changes appropriate after consideration of those comments.
U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) established ten Centers of Excellence and Expertise (Centers) managed from strategic locations around the country to focus CBP's trade expertise on industry-specific issues and provide tailored support for importers. The concept of the Centers arose in response to claims that CBP's port-by-port trade processing authority sometimes resulted in similar goods entered at different ports of entry receiving disparate processing treatment causing trade disruptions, increased transaction costs, and information lapses for both CBP and the importer. CBP established the Centers to facilitate trade, reduce transaction costs, increase compliance with applicable import laws, and achieve uniformity of treatment at the ports of entry for the identified industries. CBP believes that providing broad decision-making authority to the Centers will better enable the Centers to achieve these goals for CBP and the trade.
The concept of Centers was developed as a result of discussions with the Advisory Committee on Commercial Operations of U.S. Customs and Border Protection (COAC), which promoted the management by account framework. The COAC is an advisory committee established in accordance with the provisions of the
In October 2011, CBP established the first two Centers: The Electronics Center managed from Long Beach, California; and the Pharmaceuticals Center (later renamed the
On May 10, 2012, the Acting Commissioner of CBP announced at the West Coast Trade Symposium two new Centers: The Automotive & Aerospace Center managed from Detroit, Michigan, and the Petroleum, Natural Gas & Minerals Center managed from Houston, Texas.
On August 28, 2012, CBP published a General Notice in the
On November 27, 2012, the Deputy Commissioner of CBP announced at the East Coast Trade Symposium six new Centers: The Agriculture & Prepared Products managed from Miami, Florida; the Apparel, Footwear & Textiles managed from San Francisco, California; the Base Metals managed from Chicago, Illinois; the Consumer Products & Mass Merchandising managed from Atlanta, Georgia; the Industrial & Manufacturing Materials managed from Buffalo, New York; and the Machinery managed from Laredo, Texas.
On April 4, 2013, CBP published a General Notice in the
On March 10, 2014, CBP published a General Notice in the
Since their establishment in October 2011, the Centers have been staffed with CBP employees who facilitate trade by providing account management for members in the identified industries, engaging in risk segmentation, and by strengthening trade outreach.
Under the test, the Centers have had the ability to review entries and the Center directors, who are tasked with leading the Centers, have had decision-making authority for the functions identified by regulation in the test notices, which, for the most part, dealt with the post-release environment. Under the test, the Center directors have also had the ability to make recommendations to the port directors concerning decisions that were retained by the port directors notwithstanding the test.
On September 11, 2014, Commissioner R. Gil Kerlikowske signed Delegation Order number 14-004, which delegated to the Center directors all functions, authorities, rights, privileges, powers, and duties vested in port directors by law, regulation, or otherwise. The delegation enabled these functions, authorities, rights, privileges, powers, and duties to be exercised concurrently by port directors and Center directors. CBP began implementing the delegation order on January 28, 2015, for the Electronics Center, the Pharmaceutical, Health & Chemicals Center, and the Petroleum, Natural Gas & Minerals Center.
During the Centers' test period, CBP incrementally transitioned to the Center directors some of the trade functions that traditionally reside with the port directors, such as determinations, notifications, and processing concerning duty refund claims based on 19 U.S.C. 1520(d) and issuance of all Requests for Information (CBP Form 28). As explained in the Executive Order 13563 and Executive Order 12866 section below, the Centers met their trade enhancement goals and the test was a success. Moreover, section 110 of the
CBP notes that certain authorities and responsibilities that were provided to the Center directors by waiving certain regulatory sections in the test notices will not be transitioned to the Centers under the regulations. CBP has made the decision to maintain the current regulatory authorities for: The control, movement, examination and release of cargo; export; drawback; and Fines, Penalties & Forfeitures. The sections that will not be transitioned to the Centers under the regulations that were transitioned in the test notices are listed here along with parenthetical explanations: § 10.66 (exportation of goods); § 10.67 (exportation of goods); § 12.3 (condition of release); § 12.73(k) (detention of motor vehicle); § 12.80 (condition of release); § 134.3(b)(2) (location of examination); § 141.58(c) (request to ship merchandise separately); § 142.13 (condition of release); § 144.34(a) (physical transport of goods from warehouse); § 141.57 (incremental release of split shipments); § 146.63 (Foreign Trade Zone release); § 162.79b (involves Fines, Penalties & Forfeitures officers); § 181.13 (involves Fines, Penalties & Forfeitures officers); and § 191.61 (drawback).
This document also amends certain regulations to jointly authorize the port directors and Center directors to implement certain functions, such as the authority to accept certain documentation (
This document also provides a list of industries that will be covered by each of the Centers.
This document amends § 101.1 of title 19 of the regulations (19 CFR 101.1) to define the Centers of Excellence and Expertise as national CBP offices that are responsible for performing certain trade functions and making certain determinations as set forth in this title, regarding importations of merchandise by their assigned importers, regardless of the ports of entry at which the importations occur. The Centers are organized by industry sectors, which are categorized by the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS) numbers. The list of HTSUS numbers is published in this document and any change made to that list will be announced in a subsequent
This document amends § 101.1 of title 19 of the regulations (19 CFR 101.1) to define the term “Center director” as the person who manages their designated Center and is responsible for certain trade decisions and functions concerning that Center and the importers that are processed by that Center.
This document amends § 101.1 by revising the definition of “Port” and “Port of Entry” by updating the term “Customs” to “U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP)” or “customs”, as applicable, to reflect the nomenclature changes made necessary by the transfer of the legacy U.S. Customs Service of the Department of the Treasury to the Department of Homeland Security (DHS) and DHS' subsequent renaming of the component as U.S. Customs and Border Protection on March 31, 2007 (
This document amends § 101.1 to add a definition of “Port director” that is consistent with the description currently found in the definition for “port” and “port of entry” but also distinguishes the port directors responsibilities from those of the Center director. The new definition for “Port director” is the person who has jurisdiction within the geographical boundaries of their port of entry unless the regulations provide that particular trade functions or determinations are exclusively within the purview of a Center Director or other CBP personnel.
This document creates a new § 101.10 in title 19 of the regulations (19 CFR 101.10) to provide a list of the existing Centers and their management offices. The Center management offices will continue to be located in the cities that were designated in the published test notices noted above. The Centers and the cities wherein each management office is located is as follows:
Generally, each importer will be assigned to an industry-category administered by a specific Center based on the tariff classification in the HTSUS of the predominant number of goods imported. The list of HTSUS numbers that will be used by CBP for the importer's placement in a Center is the same list of HTSUS numbers that are referenced in the definition for Centers (see § 101.1). Factors that may cause CBP to place an importer in a Center not based on the tariff classification of the predominant number of goods imported include the importer's associated business practices within an industry, the intended use of the predominant number of goods imported, or the high relative value of goods imported. Brokers acting as the IOR will have their entry summary processed by the Center relating to the predominant HTSUS number for the entry summary since brokers' business models do not necessarily align within a particular industry sector.
All importers may appeal the Center assignment at any time by submitting a written appeal, with a subject line identifier reading “Appeal Regarding Center Assignment”, to U.S. Customs and Border Protection, Office of Field Operations, Executive Director, Cargo and Conveyance Security (CCS) Division, 1300 Pennsylvania Ave. NW., Suite 2.3D, Washington, DC 20229-1015 or by email to
(2) Preferred Center assignment; (3) All affected Importer of Record (IOR) numbers and associated bond numbers; and (4) Written justification for the change in Center assignments; and (5) Import data, as follows:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
This document amends certain regulations to transition to the Center directors a variety of post-release trade functions that are currently handled by the port directors, including decisions and processing related to entry summaries; decisions and processing related to all types of protests; suspension and extension of liquidations; decisions and processing concerning free trade agreements and duty preference programs; decisions concerning warehouse withdrawals wherein the goods are entered into the commerce of the United States; all functions and decisions concerning country of origin marking issues; functions concerning informal entries; and classification and appraisement of merchandise, including valuation of merchandise.
This document also amends some regulations to identify the circumstances where the port directors and the Center directors will have joint authority. For example, § 141.56(a) is amended to note that CBP may accept, either at the port of entry or electronically, one entry summary for consumption or for warehouse for merchandise covered by multiple entries for immediate transportation, subject to the requirements of § 142.17(a), provided the merchandise covered by each immediate transportation entry is released at the port of destination under a separate entry, in accordance with § 142.3. The reference to “port directors” is being removed and replaced with “CBP” because the authority to accept the entry summary will continue to reside with the personnel working for the port directors and will also be extended to the personnel working for the Center directors. Importers will continue to have the ability to submit the documentation at the port or electronically and this ability is merely being reflected in the regulation. In this example, if the entry summary were submitted electronically to CBP, it would be internally routed to the appropriate Center. As a second example, the port director and Center director personnel will have joint authority for all functions involving sampling and redelivery requests (
This document also amends the regulations to provide that port directors and the Center directors will have joint authority to collect payments. These amendments do not affect the public's responsibility to continue to submit payments using the same methods of payment that are prescribed in the regulations today; they merely extend the authority to accept payments to Center directors as well (
Any functions that are not identified in this package as being transferred to the Centers will remain with the parties who are currently engaging in those activities, as per the regulations. While the language in § 4.14 of the regulations need not be amended to show that the function is being transitioned to the Center directors, CBP notes that the Vessel Repair Units (VRUs) will no longer report to the port directors and will instead report to the Automotive & Aerospace Center.
The responsibilities of the public remain unchanged after the amendments are implemented. Importers of record may continue to file entry documentation where the importer's merchandise is entered. Importers and brokers who file electronically through the Automated Broker Interface (ABI) will continue to use CBP's authorized electronic data interchange system to submit required import data with CBP. Paper filings at the ports of entry will remain unchanged. Importers and brokers who file paper entries may continue to file at the port of entry where the paper documents will be processed, reviewed, and accepted by CBP, which may be personnel working for either the Center director or the port director. When necessary, CBP will internally route the data to the appropriate Center for review and processing. As per usual, CBP will continue its process of contacting the filer if there are any problems and will notify the filer of the appropriate person at CBP to contact if a response is necessary.
Any decisions or requests for information or samples that were made by the port director prior to the publication of this document will
The test notices defined the types of merchandise for which each Center is responsible by identifying the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS) headings for which each Center is responsible. CBP will continue to define the scope of industries covered by each Center by the HTSUS heading that will be handled by each Center. The scope of industries covered by each Center has been defined as noted below.
If changes are made to the scope of coverage for any of the Centers, CBP will announce the change in the
For inclusion in the Agriculture & Prepared Products Center, importers must be part of the agriculture, aquaculture, animal products, vegetable products, prepared food, beverage, alcohol, tobacco or similar industries based on the tariff classification in the HTSUS of the predominant number of goods imported. For purposes of assigning an importer to this Center, CBP considers the term “agriculture and prepared products” to consist of merchandise classified under Chapters 1 through 24 of the HTSUS.
For inclusion in the Apparel, Footwear & Textiles Center, importers must be part of the wearing apparel, footwear, textile mill, textile mill products, or similar industries based on the tariff classification in the HTSUS of the predominant number of goods imported. For purposes of assigning an importer to this Center, CBP considers the term “apparel, footwear, and textiles” to consist of merchandise classified under headings 4015, 4203, 4303, 4304, 5001 through 5007, 5101 through 5113, 5201 through 5212, 5301, 5302, 5303, 5305 through 5311, 5401 through 5408, 5501 through 5516, 5601 through 5609, 5701 through 5705, 5801 through 5811, 5901 through 5911, 6001 through 6006, 6101 through 6117, 6201 through 6217, 6301 through 6310, 6401 through 6406, 6501, 6502, 6504, 6505 6506, and 6507 of the HTSUS.
For inclusion in the Automotive & Aerospace Center, importers must be part of the automotive, aerospace, or other transportation equipment and related parts industries based on the tariff classification in the HTSUS of the predominant number of goods imported. For purposes of assigning an importer to this Center, CBP considers the term “automotive” to consist of merchandise classified under headings 8701 through 8711, 8713, 8714, and 8716, HTSUS. For purposes of assigning an importer to this Center, CBP considers the term “aerospace” to consist of merchandise classified under headings 8801 through 8805, HTSUS. For purposes of assigning an importer to this Center, CBP considers the term “other transportation equipment and related parts” to consist of merchandise classified under headings 4011 through 4013, 8406 through 8412, 8511, 8512, 8601 through 8609, 8901 through 8908, HTSUS.
For inclusion in the Base Metals Center, importers must be part of the steel, steel mill products, ferrous and nonferrous metal, or similar industries based on the tariff classification in the HTSUS of the predominant number of goods imported. For purposes of assigning an importer to this Center, CBP considers the term “base metals” to consist of merchandise classified under headings 7201 through 7308, 7312 through 7318, 7320, 7322, 7324 through 7413, 7415, 7419 through 7614, 7616 through 8113, and 8307 through 8311 of the HTSUS.
For inclusion in the Consumer Products and Mass Merchandising Center, importers must be part of the household goods, consumer products, or similar industries, and or mass merchandisers of products typically sold for home use based on the tariff classification in the HTSUS of the predominant number of goods imported. For purposes of assigning an importer to this Center, CBP considers the term “consumer products and mass merchandising” to consist of merchandise classified under headings 3303 through 3307, 3401, 3406, 3605, 3924, 3926, 4201, 4202, 4205, 4206, 4414, 4419, 4420, 4421, 4602, 4803, 4817, 4818, 4820, 4901 through 4911, 6601 through 6603, 6701 through 6704, 6911 through 6913, 7113 through 7118, 7319, 7321, 7323, 7418, 7615, 8210 through 8215, 8301, 8303 through 8306, 8469, 8470, 8508, 8509, 8510, 8513, 8516, 8539, 8712, 8715, 9001 through 9006, 9013, 9101 through 9114, 9201, 9202, 9205 through 9209, 9401, 9403 through 9405, 9503 through 9508, 9601 through 9619, and 9701 through 9706 of the HTSUS.
For inclusion in the Electronics Center, importers must be part of the electronics industry based on the tariff classification in the HTSUS of the predominant number of goods imported. For purposes of assigning an importer to this Center, CBP considers the term “electronics” to consist of merchandise classified under headings 3818, 8471, 8473, 8501 through 8504, 8517 through 8538, and 8540 through 8548 of the HTSUS.
For inclusion in the Industrial & Manufacturing Materials Center, importers must be part of the plastics, polymers, rubber, leather, wood, paper, stone, glass, precious stones or precious metals, or similar industries based on the tariff classification in the HTSUS of the predominant number of goods imported. For purposes of assigning an importer to this Center, CBP considers the term “industrial and manufacturing materials” to consist of merchandise classified under headings 2501 through 2530, 3901 through 3923, 3925, 4001 through 4010, 4016 through 4115, 4301, 4302, 4401 through 4413, 4415 through 4418, 4501 through 4601, 4701 through 4802, 4804 through 4814, 4816, 4819, 4821, 4822, 4823, 6801 through 6910, 6914 through 7011, 7013, 7014 through 7112, 7309 through 7311, and 9406 of the HTSUS.
For inclusion in the Machinery Center, importers must be part of the tools, machine tools, production
For inclusion in the Petroleum, Natural Gas & Minerals Center, importers must be part of the petroleum, natural gas, petroleum related, minerals, or mining industries based on the tariff classification in the HTSUS of the predominant number of goods imported. For purposes of assigning an importer to this Center, CBP considers the terms “petroleum” and “natural gas” to consist of merchandise classified under headings 2709 through 2713, HTSUS. For purposes of assigning an importer to this Center, CBP considers the term “petroleum related” to consist of merchandise classified under headings 2701, 2705, 2707, 2708, 2714, 2715, 2716, and 3826, HTSUS. For purposes of assigning an importer to this Center, CBP considers the terms “minerals” or “mining” to consist of merchandise classified under headings 2601 through 2621, 2702, 2703, 2704, and 2706, HTSUS.
For inclusion in the Pharmaceuticals, Health & Chemicals Center, importers must be part of the pharmaceuticals, health, or chemical and allied industries based on the tariff classification in the HTSUS of the predominant number of goods imported. For purposes of assigning an importer to this Center, CBP considers the term “pharmaceuticals” to consist of merchandise classified under headings 2936, 2937, 2939, 2941, 3001 through 3006, HTSUS. For purposes of assigning an importer to this Center, CBP considers the term “health equipment” to consist of merchandise classified under headings 4014, 9018, 9019, 9021, 9022, and 9402, HTSUS. For purposes of assigning an importer to this Center, CBP considers the term “chemicals” to consist of merchandise classified under headings 2801 through 2935, 2938, 2940, 2942, 3101 through 3302, 3402 through 3405, 3407 through 3604, 3606 through 3817, and 3819 through 3825, HTSUS.
This section of the document explains the amendments that are being made in various parts of title 19 of the Code of Federal Regulations (19 CFR) to: Transition functions from the port directors to the Center directors; jointly authorize the port directors and Center directors to implement certain functions; or provide clarification that payments and documents may continue to be submitted at the ports of entry or electronically. CBP has decided not to amend the following parts of 19 CFR because the functions are not transitioning to the Centers or because the parts are included in another regulatory package: 111, 114, 118, 122, 123, 125, 127, 191 and 192.
Section 4.94a(d) is amended to provide that upon entry completion and deposit of duty under § 4.94a(d), the bond posted with CBP will be returned to the importer of record, and a new bond on CBP Form 301, containing the bond conditions set forth in 19 CFR 113.62, may be required by the Center director, rather than by the port director. This bond function is being transferred from the port directors to the Center directors because it is a post-release function.
Section 7.3(e)(1)(iii)(B) is amended to provide the Center director, rather than the port director, with the authority to determine whether an importation into an insular possession or the United States results from the original commercial transaction between the importer and the producer or the latter's sales agent.
Section 7.3(e)(2) is amended to provide that the Center director, rather than the port director, will have the authority to require that appropriate shipping papers, invoices, or other documents be submitted within 60 days of the date of entry as evidence that the goods were shipped to the United States directly from an insular possession or shipped from the United States directly to an insular possession and returned from the insular possession to the United States by direct shipment within the meaning of section 7.3(e)(1). The Center director, rather than the port director, will also have the authority to determine whether evidence of direct shipment will be subject to verification. The section is also being amended to provide that evidence of direct shipment will not be required when the Center director, rather than the port director, is otherwise satisfied, taking into consideration the kind and value of the merchandise, that the goods qualify for duty-free treatment under General Note 3(a)(iv), HTSUS, and section 7.3(a).
Section 7.3(f)(1) is amended to provide the Center director, rather than the port director, with the authority to decide whether goods qualify for duty-free treatment under section 7.3(a)(1).
Section 7.3(f)(2) is amended to provide that the declarations noted in § 7.3(f)(2)(i)-(ii) must be filed with the entry/entry summary unless the Center director, rather than the port director, is satisfied by reason of the nature of the goods or otherwise that the goods qualify for such duty-free entry.
In Part 10, the responsibilities and functions currently designated by the regulations for the port directors will be transferred to the Center directors, except for those found in the following sections and those described further below:
• 10.5(d), (e), (g), and (h):
• 10.6:
• 10.7:
• 10.31(b):
• 10.36(a):
• 10.38(a), (f), and (g):
• 10.39(d)(2), (e)(2), (e)(3), and (g):
• 10.41b(b), (b)(1), (b)(2)(vi), (b)(3)-(b)(6), and (i):
• 10.53(e)(5):
• 10.59(a)(3) and (e):
• 10.60(f) and (h):
• 10.61:
• 10.62(c)(1), (e), and (f):
• 10.62a(b):
• 10.62b(g)(9):
• 10.64(a) and (b):
• 10.65(c)(2):
• 10.66(b), (a)(3) and (c)(1):
• 10.67(c):
• 10.68(a):
• 10.71(e):
• 10.75:
• 10.81(a):
• 10.101(c) and (d):
• 10.107(b) and (c):
• 10.151:
• 10.152:
These functions, which generally occur at the ports and relate to pre-release decisions, will remain with the port directors: Collection of information used to make release decisions; functions concerning exportation; determinations concerning destruction of merchandise; decisions and functions concerning the physical control of warehoused goods and the transfer of those goods from warehouse to warehouse or warehouse to port and the final disposition regarding entry; decisions and functions concerning vessels; decisions concerning passengers; pre-release decisions and functions; and decisions concerning importations not over $800 and bona-fide gifts.
The following sections in Part 10 include either the responsibilities and functions for personnel working for either the port director and Center director or the section contains additional regulatory changes as noted below:
• Sections 10.8(d) (
• Section 10.37 (
• Section 10.40(b) (
• Section 10.41a(e) (
• Section 10.49(d) (
• Section 10.71(c) (
• Section 10.84(e) (
• Section 10.91(c)(2) (
• Section 10.102(a) (
• Section 10.179(b)(1) (
• Section 10.235(b) (
• Section 10.245(b) (
• Sections 10.441(a) (
• Section 10.847(c) (
Section 11.12(b) is amended to provide the Center director, rather than the port director, with the authority to allow the importer a reasonable opportunity to label imported wool products that were not correctly labeled where the Center director is satisfied that the error or omission did not involve fraud or willful neglect.
Section 11.12(c) is amended to provide that the Center director, rather than the port director, will set the bond amount for packages of wool products that are not designated for examination and are released.
Section 11.12(d) is amended to require the Center director, rather than the port director, to provide written notice to the importer of any lack of compliance with the Wool Products Labeling Act of 1939 in respect of an importation of wool products, and to note that pursuant to § 141.113 the Center director, rather than the port director, will demand the immediate return of the involved products to Customs custody, unless the lack of compliance is forthwith corrected.
Section 11.12(e) is amended to give the Center director, rather than the port director, the discretion to determine whether the imported wool products have been brought into compliance with the Wool Products Labeling Act of 1939.
Section 11.12(f) is amended to state that if any fraudulent violation of the Wool Products Labeling Act of 1939 with respect to imported articles comes to the attention of the Center director, the involved merchandise shall be placed under seizure, or a demand shall be made for the redelivery of the merchandise if it has been released from Customs custody, and the case shall be reported to the Federal Trade Commission, Washington, DC.
Section 11.12a(b) is amended to provide that if imported fur products are not correctly labeled and the Center director, rather than the port director, is satisfied that the error or omission involved no fraud or willful neglect, the importer shall be afforded a reasonable opportunity to label the merchandise under Customs supervision to conform with the requirements of such act and the rules and regulations of the Federal Trade Commission.
Section 11.12a(c) is amended to provide that the Center director, rather than the port director, will set the bond amount for packages of fur products that are not designated for examination and are released.
Section 11.12a(d) is amended to provide that the Center director, rather than the port director, will give written notice to the importer of any lack of compliance with the Fur Products Labeling Act (15 U.S.C. 69b) in respect of an importation of fur products, and pursuant to § 141.113 the Center director, rather than the port director, will demand the immediate return of the involved products to Customs custody, unless the lack of compliance is forthwith corrected.
Section 11.12a(e) is amended to provide that the Center director, rather than the port director, needs to be fully satisfied that a product covered by a notice and demand given pursuant to § 11.12a(d), that has not been promptly returned to Customs custody, has been brought into compliance with the Fur Products Labeling Act.
Section 11.12a(f) is amended to provide that if any fraudulent violation of the act with respect to imported articles comes to the attention of a Center director, the involved merchandise shall be placed under seizure, or a demand shall be made for the redelivery of the merchandise if it has been released from Customs custody, and the case shall be reported to the Federal Trade Commission, Washington, DC 20580.
Section 11.12b(b) is amended to provide that if imported fiber products are not correctly labeled and the Center director, rather than the port director, is satisfied that the error or omission involved no fraud or willful neglect, the importer shall be afforded a reasonable opportunity to label the merchandise under customs supervision to conform with the requirements of such Act and the rules and regulations of the Federal Trade Commission.
Section 11.12b(c) is amended to provide that the Center director, rather than the port director, will set the bond amount for packages of fiber products that are not designated for examination and are released.
Section 11.12b(d) is amended to require the Center director, rather than the port director, to provide written notice to the importer of any lack of compliance with the Textile Fiber Products Identification Act in respect of an importation of fiber products, and pursuant to § 141.113 of this chapter to demand the immediate return of the involved products to customs custody, unless the lack of compliance is corrected.
Section 11.12b(e) is amended to provide that the Center director, rather than the port director, needs to be fully satisfied that a product covered by a notice and demand given pursuant to § 11.12b(d), that has not been promptly returned to Customs custody, has been brought into compliance with the Fiber Products Identification Act (15 U.S.C. 70 through 70k).
Section 11.12b(f) is amended to provide that if any willful or flagrant violation of the Act with respect to the importation of articles comes to the attention of a Center director, the involved merchandise shall be placed under seizure, or a demand shall be made for the redelivery of the merchandise if it has been released from Customs custody, and the case shall be reported to the Federal Trade Commission, Washington DC 20580.
Section 12.26(f) is amended to provide that if the permit referred to in § 12.26(e) is refused by the Fish and Wildlife Service, or if the permit is not produced within the said 30 days, an authorized CBP official (a CBP employee working for either the port director or the Center director) shall promptly recall the property, if delivered under bond, and shall require its immediate exportation at the expense of the importer or consignee.
Section 12.39(b)(2)(i) is amended to provide that, to enter merchandise that is the subject of a Commission exclusion order, importers must file with CBP prior to entry a bond in the amount determined by the Commission that contains the conditions identified in the special importation and entry bond set forth in appendix B to part 113 of this chapter. The term “CBP” here means that importers may file the bond with personnel working for either the port director or the Center director.
Section 12.39(b)(3) is amended to provide that CBP shall notify each importer or consignee of articles released under bond pursuant to § 12.39(b)(2) when the Commission's determination of a violation of § 337 becomes final and that entry of the articles is refused. The term “CBP” here means personnel working for either the port director or the Center director.
Section 12.39(b)(4) is amended to provide that in addition to the notice given to importers or consignees of articles released under bond, CBP shall provide written notice to all owners, importers or consignees of articles which are denied entry into the United States pursuant to an exclusion order that any future attempt to import such articles may result in the articles being seized and forfeited. The term “CBP” here means personnel working for either the port director or the Center director. The paragraph is also amended by removing “by port directors” in the last sentence to read as follows: Copies of all such notices are to be forwarded to the Executive Director, Commercial Targeting and Enforcement, Office of Trade, at CBP Headquarters, and to the Office of The General Counsel, USITC, 500 E Street SW., Washington, DC 20436.
Section 12.39(c)(1)(iii) is amended to conform with the modification to paragraph (b)(4), above. Similarly, the term “CBP” in this instance means personnel working for either the port director or the Center director.
Section 12.39(e)(2) is amended to provide that CBP shall enforce any court order or USITC exclusion order based upon a mask work registration in accordance with the terms of such order. The term “CBP” here means personnel working for either the port director or the Center director.
Section 12.73(j) is amended to provide that, if good cause is shown, the Center director, rather than the port director, has the authority to extend the period of time that the importer has to submit a U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) statement that the vehicle or engine is conformity with Federal emission requirements. The prescribed statement must be delivered by the importer to CBP, either to the port of entry or electronically. This means that the importer may continue to submit the statement using the means currently permitted, but the authority to collect the statement will be extended to the personnel working for either the Center director or port director.
Section 12.121(a)(2)(ii) is amended to provide that a Center director, rather than the port director, may, in his discretion, approve an importer's use of a “blanket” certification, in lieu of filing a separate certification for each chemical shipment, for any chemical shipment that conforms to a product description provided to Customs pursuant to § 12.121(a)(2)(ii)(A). This document also amends the section to provide that in approving the use of a “blanket” certification, the Center director, rather than the port director, should consider the reliability of the importer and Customs broker.
Section 12.121(a)(2)(ii)(A) is amended to provide that a “blanket” certification must be filed with CBP, either at the port of entry or electronically. This means that the importer may continue to submit the statement using the means currently permitted, but the authority to collect the statement will be extended to the personnel working for either the Center director or port director.
Section 12.121(a)(2)(ii)(B) is amended to provide that a “blanket” certification will remain valid, and may be used, for 1 year from the date of approval unless the approval is revoked earlier for cause by the Center director.
Section 24.1(a)(3)(i) is amended to provide that an uncertified check drawn by an interested party on a national or state bank or trust company of the United States or a bank in Puerto Rico or any possession of the United States if such checks are acceptable for deposit by a Federal Reserve bank, branch Federal Reserve bank, or other designated depositary shall be accepted if there is on file with CBP a bond to secure the payment of the duties, taxes, fees, interest, or other charges, or if a bond has not been filed, the organization or individual drawing and tendering the uncertified check has been approved by an authorized CBP official (a CBP employee working for either the port director or the Center director) to make payment in such manner. In determining whether an uncertified check shall be accepted in the absence of a bond, an authorized CBP official shall use available credit data obtainable without cost to the Government, such as that furnished by banks, local business firms, better business bureaus, or local credit exchanges, sufficient to satisfy him of the credit standing or reliability of the drawer of the check.
Section 24.1(a)(3)(ii) is amended to provide that if, during the preceding 12-month period, an importer or interested party has paid duties or any other obligation by check and more than one check is returned dishonored by the debtor's financial institution, an authorized CBP official (a CBP employee working for either the port director or Center director) shall require a certified check, money order or cash from the importer or interested party for each subsequent payment until such time that an authorized CBP official is satisfied that the debtor has the ability to consistently present uncertified checks that will be honored by the debtor's financial institution.
Section 24.2 is amended to include Center directors to the list of CBP employees that are authorized to receive Customs collections. They are also permitted, along with the port directors, to designate employees who are authorized to receive Customs collections.
Section 24.4(a) is amended to provide that an importer, including a transferee of alcoholic beverages in a customs bonded warehouse who wishes to pay on a semi-monthly basis the estimated import taxes on alcoholic beverages entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption by him during such a period may apply by letter to the Center director, either at a port of entry or electronically, rather than to the director of each port at which he wishes to defer payment. The reason the language “Center director, either at the port of entry or electronically” is used rather than “CBP, either at the port of entry or electronically” is because the Center director will have the authority to permit a deferral of payment, but the importer may submit the letter either to the port of entry or electronically. The paragraph is also amended to provide that an importer who receives approval from the Center director, rather than the port director, to defer such payments may, however, continue to pay the estimated import taxes due at the time of entry, or withdrawal from warehouse, for consumption. While the Center directors will be responsible for the duty impact and entry summary aspects of the bonded warehouses, the port directors will remain responsible for the physical control and supervision of the bonded warehouses.
Section 24.4(b) is amended to provide that an importer may begin the deferral of payments of estimated tax to a
Section 24.4(c)(1) is amended to provide that an importer must state his estimate of the largest amount of taxes to be deferred in any semimonthly period based on the largest amount of import taxes on alcoholic beverages deposited with CBP in such a period during the year preceding his application. He must also identify any existing bond or bonds that he has on file with CBP and shall submit in support of his application the approval of the surety on his bond or bonds to the use of the procedure and to the increase of such bond or bonds to such larger amount or amounts as may be found necessary by the Center director. These changes are being made to reflect that bonds will be maintained by both the port directors and Center directors and that bonds amount determinations related to the importation of alcoholic beverages will be made by the Center directors.
Section 24.4(c)(2) is amended to provide that each application noted in § 24.4 must include a declaration in substantially the following language: I declare that I am not presently barred by CBP from using the deferred payment procedure for payment of estimated taxes upon imports of alcoholic beverages, and that if I am notified by a Center director to such effect I shall advise any future Center director where approval has been given to me to use such procedure. The purpose of using the term “CBP” rather than keeping “port director” in this declaration is to take into account if the importer is presently barred by a port director or a Center director. The other instances of “port director” have been changed to “Center director” because this document is transferring from the port directors to the Center directors the authority to bar importers from using the deferred payment procedures for payment of estimated taxes upon imports of alcoholic beverages. Future Center directors are accounted for in this language in case an importer's industry changes and the importer is placed in a new Center.
Section 24.4(d)(1) is amended to provide that the Center director, rather than the port director, will notify the importer, or his authorized agent if requested, of approval for using the deferred payment procedures.
Section 24.4(i) is amended to provide that the deferred payment privilege once approved by the port director or Center director before January 19, 2017, or the Center director on or after January 19, 2017, will remain in effect until terminated under the provisions of § 24.4(h) or the importer or surety requests termination. This section is being amended to include date ranges because the decisions made prior to the effective date of these regulatory amendments will have been made by the port director or Center director (pursuant to the Delegation Order described in section I.B. of the Background section of this document) and the decisions made on or after the effective date of these regulatory amendments will be made by the Center director.
Section 24.14(c) is amended to provide that CBP's stamp, rather than the port director's stamp, will be impressed upon a completely prepared bill or receipt for the purchase of customs forms that is presented by the purchaser at the time of purchase.
Section 54.5(b) is amended to provide that no deposit of estimated duty shall be required upon the entry, or withdrawal from warehouse for consumption, of the articles described in paragraph (a) of this section if the Center director, rather than the port director, is satisfied at the time of entry, or withdrawal, by written declaration of the importer that the merchandise is being imported to be used in remanufacture by melting, or to be processed by shredding, shearing, compacting, or similar processing which renders it fit only for the recovery of the metal content. The reason this authority is being transitioned to the Center director is because Center director personnel, rather than port director personnel, will be in the position to determine whether goods meet the requirements for duty free entry and determine rates of duty generally.
Section 54.6(c) is amended to require the importer to submit to CBP, either at the port of entry or electronically, a statement from the superintendent or manager of the plant at which the articles were used in remanufacture by melting, or were processed by shredding, shearing, compacting, or similar processing which rendered them fit only for the recovery of the metal content showing the information contained in § 54.6(c)(1)-(c)(4). Currently, the importer is required to submit this statement to the port director. The language is being amended to permit the importer to submit the statement using the means currently permitted, while also extending the authority to collect the statement to personnel working for either the Center director or the port director.
Section 54.6(c)(4) is amended to provide that the statement submitted by the importer must contain a description of the remanufacture or processing in sufficient detail to enable the Center director, rather than the port director, to determine whether it constituted a use in remanufacture by melting, or processing by shredding, shearing, compacting, or similar processing which rendered the articles fit only for the recovery of the metal content.
Section 101.1 is amended to include: The definition for the Centers; the definition for Center director; the revised definition for port and port of entry; and the definition for port director. A new section 101.10 includes language describing the designation of Center Management Offices; the factors considered for the assignment of importers to the Centers; and the process for appealing a Center assignment. The new or amended language is described in detail in Section II.E of this document.
Section 102.23(a) is amended to provide that if an entry filed for commercial importations of textile or apparel products fails to include the manufacturer identification code (MID) properly constructed from the name and address of the manufacturer, the Center director, rather than the port director, may reject the entry or take other appropriate action. The reason for this change is because entry rejection or other appropriate action will be done by personnel working for the Center director, rather than the port director.
Section 102.23(b) is amended to provide that if the Center director, rather than the port director, is unable to determine the country of origin of a textile or apparel product, the importer must submit additional information as requested by the Center director.
Section 102.25 is amended to provide that if the Center director, rather than the port director, is unable to determine the country of origin of the textile or apparel products for which preferential tariff treatment is sought, they will not be entitled to preferential tariff treatment or any other benefit under the NAFTA for which they would otherwise be eligible.
Section 103.26 is amended to add Center directors to the list of officials that may, in the interest of federal, state, and local law enforcement, upon receipt of demands of state or local authorities, and at the expense of the State, authorize employees under their supervision to attend trials and administrative hearings on behalf of the government in any state or local criminal case, to produce records, and to testify as to facts coming to their knowledge in their official capacities.
Section 103.32 is amended to add “Center directors” to the list of CBP officials who must refrain from disclosing facts concerning seizures, investigations, and other pending cases until Customs action is completed.
Appendix B to part 113 is amended to provide that if it is determined, as provided in § 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended, to exclude merchandise from the United States, then, on notification from CBP, the principal is obligated to export or destroy under Customs supervision the merchandise released under this stipulation within 30 days from the date of the CBP's notification. The purpose of this change is to enable CBP to transition to the Center directors the exclusion order functions provided in section 12.39 of title 19 of the CFR (19 CFR 12.39).
Appendix C to part 113 currently notes that the corporate seal is to be used when no power of attorney has been filed with the port director of customs. This document amends Appendix C to part 113 by removing the words “the port director of customs” and adding in their place the term “CBP”, which means personnel working for either the port director or the Center director.
Section 132.11a(c) is amended to provide that if presentation is chosen to be made pursuant to § 132.11a(a)(2) and payment is not made as required through the statement processing method, the Center director, rather than the port director, may require filing of an entry summary for consumption with estimated duties attached as described in § 132.11(a)(1) for future filings.
Section 132.12(a) is amended to provide that the Center director, rather than the port director, will approve the opening of the quota period.
Section 132.13(a)(1)(i) is amended to provide that when instructed by Headquarters, the Center director, rather than the port director, will require an importer to present an entry summary for consumption, or its electronic equivalent, with estimated duties attached, at the over-quota rate of duty until Headquarters has determined the quantity, if any, of the merchandise entitled to the quota rate.
Section 132.13(a)(1)(ii) is amended to provide that the documentation must be presented to CBP, either at the port of entry or electronically, which here means that the importer may use the method(s) of submission currently permitted to submit the documentation; however, the authority to collect the documentation is being extended to the personnel working for either the port director or the Center director.
Section 132.13(a)(2) is amended to remove the words “at the port of entry” and replaced with “to CBP, either at the port of entry or electronically” so as to provide that the entry summary for consumption or withdrawal for consumption, or their electronic equivalents, must be presented to CBP, which means personnel working for either the port director or the Center director, using the means currently permitted.
Section 132.14(a)(4)(i)(A) is amended to provide that an authorized CBP official (a CBP employee working for either the port director or the Center director) may demand the return to Customs custody of the released merchandise in accordance with § 141.113.
Section 132.14(a)(4)(i)(B) is amended to provide that the Center director shall require the timely presentation to CBP, either at the port of entry or electronically, of the entry summary for consumption, or a withdrawal for consumption, with the estimated duties attached. The term to “CBP, either at the port of entry or electronically”, here means that the documentation may be presented to CBP using the means currently permitted; however, the authority to collect the documentation is being extended to the personnel working for either the port director or the Center director.
Section 132.14(a)(4)(ii)(A) is amended to provide that the Center director shall require the timely presentation, to CBP, either at the port of entry or electronically, of the entry summary for consumption, or a withdrawal for consumption, with estimated duties attached. The term to “CBP, either at the port of entry or electronically”, here means that the documentation may be presented to CBP using the means currently permitted; however, the authority to collect the documentation is being extended to the personnel working for either the port director or the Center director.
Section 133.26 is amended by permitting an authorized CBP official to demand redelivery of released merchandise. This section is amended by removing the words “the port director” and adding in their place the words “an authorized CBP official” so as to extend the authority to demand redelivery of released merchandise to a CBP employee working for either the port director or the Center director.
Section 133.46 is amended to provide that if it is determined that articles which have been released from CBP custody are subject to the prohibitions or restrictions of this subpart, an authorized CBP official (a CBP employee working for either the port director or the Center director) shall promptly make demand for redelivery of the articles under the terms of the bond on CBP Form 301, containing the bond conditions set forth in § 113.62, in accordance with § 141.113.
Section 134.3(b) is amended by removing the words “[t]he port director” and replacing it with “[a]n authorized CBP official” so as to provide that CBP employees working for either the port director or the Center director have joint authority to demand redelivery of released articles that were not marked legally with the country of origin. CBP notes that while the redelivery notices may be sent out by either personnel working for the port director or the Center director, the resolution of marking issues will be the sole authority of the Center directors.
Section 134.25(a) is amended by removing the words “port director having custody of the article,” and adding in their place the words “Center director” to provide that the Center director, rather than the port director, is the party who will make the determination as to whether the article in question will be repacked after its release. Moreover, the paragraph is amended to require the importer to certify to the Center director that: (1) If the importer does the repacking, the new container shall be marked to indicate the country of origin of the article in accordance with the requirements of this part; or (2) if the article is intended to be sold or transferred to a subsequent purchaser or repacker, the importer shall notify such purchaser or transferee, in writing, at the time of sale or transfer, that any repacking of the article must conform to
Section 134.25(c) is amended to require the certificate of marking for repacked J-list articles and articles incapable of being marked to be filed with the Center director, rather than with the port director. The section is also amended to provide that in case of failure to timely file the certification required under § 134.25, the Center director may decline to accept a bond for the missing document and demand redelivery of the merchandise under § 134.51.
Section 134.26(a) is amended by removing the words “port director having custody of the article,” and adding in their place the words “Center director” to provide that the Center director, rather than the port director, is the party who will make the determination as to whether the article in question will be repacked after its release. Moreover, the paragraph is amended to require the importer to certify to CBP, either at the port of entry or electronically, that: (1) If the importer does the repacking, he shall not obscure or conceal the country of origin marking appearing on the article, or else the new container shall be marked to indicate the country of origin of the article in accordance with the requirements of this part; or (2) if the article is intended to be sold or transferred to a subsequent purchaser or repacker, the importer shall notify such purchaser or transferee, in writing, at the time of sale or transfer, that any repacking of the article must conform to these requirements. This section is also amended by removing the words “at each port where the article(s) is entered” and adding in their place the words “CBP, either at the port of entry or electronically.” The language “CBP, either at the port of entry or electronically” here means that the importer may use the means of submission currently permitted; however, the authority to collect the certification is being extended to personnel working for either the port director or the Center director.
Section 134.26(c) is amended by noting that the certificate of marking statement required in § 134.26(a) must be filed with the Center director, rather than the port director, and in case of repeated failure to timely file the required certification, the Center director, rather than the port director, may decline to accept a bond for the missing document and demand redelivery of the merchandise under § 134.51.
Section 134.34(a) is amended to allow the Center director, rather than the port director, to make an exception under § 134.32(d).
Section 134.34(b) is amended by noting that the Center director, rather than the port director, will have the authority to extend the sixty (60)-day deferral period for liquidation of entries of imported articles which are to be repacked after release from CBP custody.
Section 134.51(a) is amended by requiring the Center director, rather than the port director, to notify the importer on Customs Form 4647, or its electronic equivalent, to arrange with the Center director's office, rather than the port director's office, to properly mark an article or container that has not been legally marked, or to return all released articles to CBP custody for marking, exportation, or destruction.
Section 134.51(b) is amended by requiring that the identity of the imported article, which was not legally marked and is to be exported, destroyed, or marked under CBP supervision, to be established to the satisfaction of the Center director, rather than the port director.
Section 134.51(c) is amended by noting that the Center director, rather than the port director, may accept a certificate of marking as provided for in § 134.52 in lieu of marking under CBP supervision.
Section 134.52(a) is amended by noting that Center directors, rather than port directors, may accept certificates of marking supported by samples of articles required to be marked, for which Customs Form 4647, or its electronic equivalent, was issued, from importers or from actual owners complying with the provision of § 141.20, to certify that marking of the country of origin on imported articles as required by this part has been accomplished.
Section 134.52(b) is amended by requiring that the certificates of marking must be filed in duplicate with CBP, either at the port of entry or electronically. The language “CBP, either at the port of entry or electronically” here means that the importer may use the means of filing the certificates of marking as currently permitted; however, the authority to collect the certification is being extended to personnel working for either the port director or the Center director. Moreover, the Center director, rather than the port director, will now have the authority to waive the production of the marked sample when he is satisfied that the submission of such sample is impracticable.
Section 134.52(c) is amended by requiring the Center director, rather than the port director, to notify the importer or actual owner when the certificate of marking is accepted. Moreover, the paragraph is amended to authorize the Center director, rather than the port director, to spot check the marking of articles on which a certificate has been filed.
Section 134.52(d) is amended by removing the words “port director” and adding in their place the words “Center director”, thereby stating that if a false certificate of marking is filed with the Center director indicating that goods have been properly marked when in fact they have not been so marked, a seizure shall be made or claim for monetary penalty reported under section 592, Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (19 U.S.C. 1592).
Section 134.52(e) is amended by noting that the Center director, rather than the port director, may require physical supervision of marking as specified in § 134.51(c) in those cases in which he determines that such action is necessary to insure compliance with part 134.
Section 134.53(a)(2) is amended by providing the Center director, rather than the port director, with the discretion to accept a bond on CBP Form 301, containing the basic importation and entry bond conditions set forth in § 113.62 as security for the requirements of 19 U.S.C. 1304(f) and (g).
Section 134.54(a) is amended to provide that the Center director, rather than the port director, is allowed, for good cause shown, to extend the 30 day period of time that the importer has to properly mark or redeliver all merchandise previously released to him.
The ability to demand payment of liquidated damages incurred under the bond will remain with the port director.
Section 141.20(a)(1) is amended to provide that a consignee in whose name an entry summary for consumption, warehouse, or temporary importation under bond is filed, or in whose name a rewarehouse entry or a manufacturing warehouse entry is made, and who desires, under the provisions of section
Section 141.20(a)(2) is amended to provide that if the consignee desires to be relieved from contractual liability for the payment of increased and additional duties voluntarily assumed by him under the single-entry bond which he filed in connection with the entry documentation and/or entry summary, or under his continuous bond against which the entry and/or entry summary is charged, he shall file a bond of the actual owner on Customs Form 301, containing the bond conditions set forth in § 113.62 of this chapter, with CBP, either at the port of entry or electronically, within 90 days from the time of entry. The language “CBP, either at the port of entry or electronically” here means that the importer may use the means of submission currently permitted; however, the authority to collect the bond is being extended to personnel working for either the port director or the Center director.
Section 141.35 is amended to provide that any power of attorney shall be subject to revocation at any time by written notice given to and received by CBP, either at the port of entry or electronically. The language “CBP, either at the port of entry or electronically” here means that the importer may use the means of submission currently permitted; however, the authority to collect the written notice is being extended to personnel working for either the port director or the Center director.
Section 141.38 is amended to provide that a power of attorney shall not be required if the person signing Customs documents on behalf of a resident corporation is known to CBP to be the president, vice president, treasurer, or secretary of the corporation. When a power of attorney is required for a resident corporation, it shall be executed by a person duly authorized to do so. The term “CBP” here means either the personnel working for the port director or the personnel working for the Center director.
Section 141.44 is amended to provide that unless a power of attorney specifically authorizes the agent to act thereunder at the appropriate Center and at all Customs ports, the name of the appropriate Center or each port where the agent is authorized to act thereunder shall be stated in the power of attorney. The power of attorney shall be filed with CBP, either at the port of entry or electronically, in a sufficient number of copies for distribution to the appropriate Center and each port where the agent is to act, unless exempted from filing by § 141.46. The Center director or port director with whom a power of attorney is filed, irrespective of whether his Center or port is named therein, shall approve it, if it is in the correct form and the provisions of this subpart are complied with, and forward any copies intended for other ports or another Center as appropriate. The language “CBP, either at the port of entry or electronically” here means that the power of attorney may be filed using the means of submission currently permitted; however, the authority to collect the power of attorney documentation is being extended to personnel working for either the port director or the Center director.
Section 141.45 is amended to provide that upon request of a party in interest, the Center director or a port director may have on file an original power of attorney document and will forward a certified copy of the document to another Center director or port director.
Section 141.46 currently states that a customhouse broker is required to obtain a valid power of attorney but he is not required to file the power of attorney with a port director. This document amends § 141.46 by removing the words “a port director” and adding in their place the term “CBP” to mean either the port director personnel or the Center director personnel.
Section 141.52 is amended to provide that under certain delineated circumstances, if the Center director, rather than the port director, is satisfied that there will be no prejudice to: Import admissibility enforcement efforts; the revenue; and the efficient conduct of CBP business, separate entries may be made for different portions of all merchandise arriving on one vessel or vehicle and consigned to one consignee. One of the delineated circumstances, specifically § 141.52(i), is also amended to remove the reference to the “port director” and add “Center director” to read as follows: A special application is submitted to the Commissioner of Customs with the recommendation of the Center director concerned and is approved by the Commissioner.
Section 141.56(a) is amended to provide that CBP may accept, either at the port of entry or electronically, one entry summary for consumption or for warehouse for merchandise covered by multiple entries for immediate transportation, subject to the requirements of § 142.17(a), provided the merchandise covered by each immediate transportation entry is released at the port of destination under a separate entry, in accordance with § 142.3. The reference to “port directors” is being removed and replaced with “CBP may accept, either at the port of entry or electronically” because the authority to accept the entry summary will continue to reside with the personnel working for the port directors and will also be extended to the personnel working for the Center directors. Importers will continue to have the ability to submit the documentation at the port or electronically and this ability is merely being reflected in the regulation.
Section 141.61(e)(2) is amended to provide that a Center director, rather than a port director, may require additional documentation to substantiate the statistical information required by § 141.61(e)(1).
Section 141.61(e)(2)(ii) is amended to provide that a Center director, rather than a port director, may grant a reasonable extension of time to produce the required documentation for good cause shown. (See § 141.91(d) for bond requirements relating to failure to produce an invoice.)
Section 141.61(e)(4) is amended to provide that a Center director, rather than a port director, will reject a form for failure to provide required statistical information if the information is omitted or if the information provided clearly appears on its face, or is known to the CBP officer, to be erroneous.
Section 141.63(a) is amended to provide that under certain delineated circumstances, entry summary documentation may be submitted at the customhouse for preliminary review, without estimated duties attached, within such time before arrival of the merchandise as may be fixed by the Center director, rather than by the port director.
Section 141.63(b) is amended to provide that entry summary documentation may be submitted at the
Section 141.69(c) is amended by removing the words “the port director” and adding in their place the words “CBP” so as to provide that personnel working for either the port director or the Center director may require documentary evidence as to the movement of merchandise between its removal from the port of entry or the place of intended release and its return to the port of entry.
Section 141.83(c)(2) is amended by removing the words “[t]he port director” and replacing it with “CBP”. The first sentence of the paragraph would therefore read: “CBP may accept a copy of a required commercial invoice in place of the original.” This change would allow the commercial invoice when necessary for entry (for purposes of release) to remain with the port director and when necessary for entry summary and withdrawal for consumption to be handled by the Center director.
Section 141.85 the Pro Forma Invoice language is amended by removing the words “Advices of the Port Director” and adding in their place the term “CBP”. The purpose of this change is to note that the prices, or in the case of consigned goods the values, of the merchandise may be based on the advices of the port director personnel or the Center director personnel. This document also amends § 141.85 by removing the words “file it with the Port Director” and adding in their place the words “file it with an authorized CBP official”. The purpose of this change is to note that the invoice may be filed with an “authorized CBP official”, meaning a CBP employee working for either the port director or the Center director.
Section 141.86(a) includes a list of information that must be included in each invoice of imported merchandise. Paragraph 141.86(a)(11) provides that the invoice must set forth all goods or services furnished for the production of the merchandise
Section 141.88 is amended to provide that when the Center director, rather than the port director, determines that information as to computed value is necessary in the appraisement of any class or kind of merchandise, he shall so notify the importer, and thereafter invoices of such merchandise shall contain a verified statement by the manufacturer or producer of computed value as defined in § 402(e), Tariff Act of 1930, as amended by the Trade Agreements Act of 1979 (19 U.S.C. 1401a(e)).
Section 141.91(a) is amended by removing the words “[t]he port director” and adding in their place the term “CBP”. This change would allow the port director personnel to accept entry documentation without the invoice and would allow the Center director personnel to accept entry summary documentation without the invoice if they are satisfied that the failure to produce the required invoice is due to a cause beyond the control of the importer.
Section 141.91(d) is amended to provide that if needed for statistical purposes, the invoice shall be produced within 50 days after the date of the entry summary (or the entry, if there is no entry summary) is required to be filed, unless a reasonable extension of time is granted by the Center director, rather than the port director, for good cause shown.
Section 141.92(a) is amended by removing the words “[t]he port director” and adding in their place the term “CBP”. This change would allow the port director personnel (at entry stage) and the Center director personnel (at the entry summary stage) to waive production of a required invoice when they are satisfied that either: (1) the importer cannot by reason of conditions beyond his control furnish a complete and accurate invoice; or (2) the examination of merchandise, final determination of duties, and collection of statistics can be effected properly without the production of the required invoice.
Section 141.92(b) includes a list of documents that are required to be filed by the importer with the entry as a condition to the granting of a waiver for the production of a required invoice. This document amends § 141.92(b)(4) to provide that the Center director, rather than the port director, may require other information for either appraisement or classification of the merchandise, or for statistical purposes. This responsibility is being provided to only the Center director because it concerns appraisement and classification issues.
Section 141.105 is amended to provide that if either the importer of record or the actual owner whose declaration and superseding bond have been filed in accordance with § 141.20 desires, he may estimate, on the basis of information contained in the entry papers or obtainable from the Center director, rather than the port director, the probable amount of unpaid duties which will be found due on the entire entry and deposit them in whole or in part with CBP, either at the port of entry or electronically. The deposit shall be tendered in writing in the form provided in § 141.105 and instead of using the words “To the Port Director” the form should state “To CBP”. The language “CBP, either at the port of entry or electronically” here means that the importer may use the means of submission currently permitted; however, the authority to collect the unpaid duties is being extended to personnel working for either the port director or the Center director.
Section 141.113(a)(2) is amended to provide that the Center director, rather than the port director, may demand the return to CBP custody of merchandise that is found after release to be not legally marked. Demand may be made no later than 30 days after the date of examination in the case of merchandise examined at the importer's premises or such other appropriate places as determined by the port director or Center director.
Section 141.113(b) is amended to provide that if the Center director, rather than the port director, finds during the conditional release period that a textile or textile product is not entitled to admission into the commerce of the United States because the country of origin of the textile or textile product was not accurately represented to CBP, he shall promptly demand its return to CBP custody.
Section 141.113(c)(3) is amended to provide that the FDA will communicate to the Center director, rather than the port director, if the FDA refuses admission of a food, drug, device, cosmetic, or tobacco product into the United States, or if any notice of sampling or other request is not complied with. The paragraph is also amended to provide that the demand for redelivery of the product to CBP custody may be carried out by an authorized CBP official (a CBP employee working for either the port director or the Center director). The prescription of a bond, described in the last sentence of the paragraph, will remain with the port director.
Section 141.113(d) is amended by removing the words “the port director” and adding in their place the words “an authorized CBP official” and by removing the words “he” and adding in its place the words “an authorized CBP official”. The reason for these changes is to note that if at any time after entry an authorized CBP official, which may be a CBP employee working for either the port director or the Center director, finds that any merchandise contained in an importation is not entitled to admission into the commerce of the United States for any reason not enumerated in §§ 141.113(a), (b), or (c), that same authorized CBP official or a different authorized CBP official shall promptly demand the return to CBP custody of any such merchandise which has been released.
Section 141.113(e) is amended by removing the words “the port director” and adding in their place the words “an authorized CBP official”. The reason for this amendment is to note that if the importer has not promptly complied with a request for samples or additional examination packages made by an authorized CBP official (which may be a CBP employee working for either the port director or the Center director) pursuant to § 151.11, that same authorized CBP official or a different authorized CBP official may demand the return of the necessary merchandise to CBP custody.
Section 141.113(g) is amended by noting that an authorized CBP official, which is a CBP employee working for either the port director or the Center director, will retain one copy, with the date of mailing or delivery noted thereon, of the demand for the return of merchandise to CBP, which is made on Customs Form 4647, or its electronic equivalent, other appropriate form, or by letter, and it will be made part of the entry record.
Section 141.113(i) is amended to reflect that an authorized CBP official (a CBP employee working for either the port director or the Center director) may demand return of merchandise to CBP custody.
Section 142.3(c) is amended by removing the reference to “port director” and replacing it with “CBP” because the authority to require additional copies of the entry summary documentation will continue to reside with the personnel working for the port directors and will also be extended to the personnel working for the Center directors.
Section 142.11(b) is amended by removing the reference to “port director” and replacing it with “CBP” because the authority to require additional copies of the entry summary will continue to reside with the personnel working for the port directors and will also be extended to the personnel working for the Center directors.
Section 142.13(a) is amended to provide that CBP, meaning either the personnel working for the Center director or the port director, may require that the entry summary documentation be filed and that estimated duties, if any, be deposited at the time of entry before the merchandise is released if any of the circumstances noted in § 142.13(a)(1)-(4) apply. The reason that the Center director personnel and the port director personnel will have joint authority for live entries is to ensure that the trade mission and security mission are met regardless of the hour of operation for either of the personnel.
Section 142.17(a) is amended to provide that the Center director, rather than the port director, has the authority to permit the filing of one entry summary for merchandise the subject of separate entries if certain delineated circumstances are met.
Section 142.17a(a) is amended to provide that the Center director, rather than the port director, may permit a broker as nominal consignee to file a consolidated entry summary in his own name under his own bond covering shipments of like or similar merchandise consigned to various ultimate consignees as long as certain delineated circumstances are met.
Section 142.18(a) is amended to provide that an authorized CBP official (a CBP employee working for either the port director or the Center director) will demand return to CBP custody of merchandise released at time of entry that is later found to be prohibited in accordance with § 141.113.
Section 142.28(a) is amended to provide that that an authorized CBP official (a CBP employee working for either the port director or the Center director) will demand return to CBP custody if merchandise released under a special permit for immediate delivery later is found to be prohibited.
Section 143.22 is amended to provide that CBP may require a formal consumption or appraisement entry for any merchandise if deemed necessary for import admissibility enforcement purposes; revenue protection; or the efficient conduct of customs business. This means that either port director or Center director personnel may require a formal consumption or appraisement entry in these circumstances. While the handling of informal entries will be transitioned to the Center directors, in this case, personnel working for either the port director or the Center director need to have the authority to require formal entry to ensure that the trade mission is met regardless of the hour of operation for either of the personnel.
Section 143.23 is amended to provide that except for the types of merchandise listed in § 143.23 which may be entered on the forms indicated, merchandise to be entered informally must be entered on a CBP Form 368 or 368A, (serially numbered) or CBP Form 7501, or its electronic equivalent or, if authorized by the Center director, rather than the port director, upon the presentation of a commercial invoice which contains the declaration noted in § 143.23, signed by the importer or his agent. This function is being transitioned to the Center directors because it involves informal entry.
Section 144.5 is amended to provide that merchandise must not remain in a bonded warehouse beyond 5 years from the date of importation or such longer period of time as the Center director, rather than the port director, may at his discretion permit upon proper request being filed and good cause shown. While the Center directors will be responsible for the duty impact and entry summary aspects of the bonded warehouses, the port directors will remain responsible for the physical control and supervision of the bonded warehouses.
Section 144.12 is amended to provide that the entry summary, Customs Form 7501, or its electronic equivalent shall show the value, classification, and rate of duty as approved by the Center director, rather than the port director, at the time the entry summary is filed.
Section 144.13 is amended to provide that a bond on Customs Form 301, containing the bond conditions set forth in § 113.62 shall be filed in the amount required by the Center director, rather than the port director, to support the entry documentation. The reason that the Center director will be determining the amounts for these bonds is because the bond is for the purpose of protecting the revenue.
Section 144.38 concerns withdrawals for consumption. Section 144.38(d) is amended to provide that the Center director, rather than the port director, may increase or decrease the amount of estimated duties to be deposited on the final withdrawal to bring the aggregate amount of duties deposited into balance
Section 144.41(h) is amended to provide that a protest may be filed with CBP, either at the port of entry or electronically, against a liquidation made under § 159.7(a) or (b) of this chapter, or against a refusal to liquidate pursuant to said sections. In all other cases, any protest shall be filed against the original warehouse entry. The language “CBP, either at the port of entry or electronically” here means that the importer may use the means of submission currently permitted; however, the authority to collect the protest is being extended to personnel working for either the port director or the Center director.
Section 145.12(a) is amended to provide that CBP, meaning personnel working for either the Center director or the port director, may require formal entry of any mail shipment regardless of value if it is necessary to protect the revenue. The reason that the Center director personnel and the port director personnel will have joint authority for requiring formal entry is to ensure that the trade mission is met regardless of the hour of operation for either of the personnel.
Section 145.14(b) is amended to provide that since there is no provision for post office supervision of these special marking requirements, such as those contained in the Textile Fiber Products Identification Act, the Wool Products Labeling Act, and the Trademark Act, CBP shall require compliance with the law and regulations (see parts 11 and 133 of this chapter). Currently, the regulatory language provides that the “port director shall require compliance”, but the language is being amended in this document to note that “CBP” shall require compliance since both Center director and port director personnel will be enforcing the applicable laws and regulations.
Section 146.65(b)(3) is amended to provide that an allowance in the dutiable value of foreign trade zone merchandise may be made by the Center director, rather than by the port director, in accordance with the provisions of subparts B and C of part 158 (19 CFR part 158, subparts B and C), for damage, deterioration, or casualty while the merchandise is in the zone.
Section 146.65(c) is amended to provide that the Center director, rather than the port director, is authorized to provide an extension of liquidation.
Section 147.32 is amended to provide that the Center director, rather than the port director, will detail an officer to act as his representative at the fair and shall station inside the buildings as many additional Custom officers and employees as may be necessary to properly protect the revenue.
Section 147.33 is amended to read as follows: [a]ll actual and necessary charges for labor, services, and other expenses in connection with the entry, examination, appraisement, custody, abandonment, destruction, or release of articles entered under the regulations of this part, together with the necessary charges for salaries of Customs officers and employees in connection with the accounting for, custody of, and supervision over, such articles, shall be reimbursed by the fair operator to the Government, payment to be made to CBP, either at the port of entry or electronically, on the port director's or Center director's demand made before January 19, 2017 or on the Center director's demand made on or after January 19, 2017, for deposit to the appropriation from which paid. The language “CBP, either at the port of entry or electronically” here means that the importer may use the means of submission currently permitted; however, the authority to collect the payment is being extended to personnel working for either the port director or the Center director. This section is being amended to include date ranges because the demands made prior to the effective date of these regulatory amendments will have been made by the port director or Center director (pursuant to the Delegation Order described in section I.B. of the Background section of this document) and the demands made on or after the effective date of these regulatory amendments will be made by the Center director.
Section 147.41 is amended by noting that the Center director, rather than the port director, may demand payment of any unpaid duty, tax, fees, charges, or exaction due on any article removed from the trade fair premises or disposed of contrary to subpart E of part 147, including any article lost or stolen regardless of the fair operator's fault. The section is also amended to provide that the payment must be made to CBP, either at the port of entry or electronically. The language “CBP, either at the port of entry or electronically” here means that the importer may use the means of submission currently permitted; however, the authority to collect the payment is being extended to personnel working for either the port director or the Center director.
Section 151.10 is amended to provide that when necessary, an authorized CBP official, which includes personnel working for either the port director or the Center director, may obtain samples of merchandise for appraisement, classification, or other official purposes.
Section 151.11 is amended to provide that if an authorized CBP official (a CBP employee working for either the port director or the Center director) requires samples or additional examination packages of merchandise which has been released from CBP custody, an authorized CBP official (either the CBP official that made the initial request or a different CBP official) will send the importer a written request, on Customs Form 28, or its electronic equivalent, Request for Information, or other appropriate form, to submit the necessary samples or packages. If the request is not promptly complied with, that same authorized CBP official or a different authorized CBP official may make a demand under the bond for the return of the necessary merchandise to CBP custody in accordance with § 141.113 of this chapter.
Section 151.12(c)(5) is amended to provide that a commercial laboratory accredited by Customs agrees to promptly investigate any circumstance which might affect the accuracy of work performed as an accredited laboratory, to correct the situation immediately, and to notify the port director, the Executive Director, and the Center director of such matters, their consequences, and any corrective action taken or that needs to be taken. The amendment adds “Center director” to the list of persons who must be provided notification.
Section 151.12(c)(6) is amended to provide that a commercial laboratory accredited by Customs agrees to immediately notify the port director, the Executive Director, and the Center director of any attempt to impede, influence, or coerce laboratory personnel in the performance of their duties, or of any decision to terminate laboratory operations or accredited status. The amendment adds “Center director” to the list of persons who must be provided notification.
Section 151.13(b)(5) is amended to provide that a commercial gauger approved by Customs agrees to promptly investigate any circumstance which might affect the accuracy of work performed as an approved gauger, to correct the situation immediately, and
Section 151.13(b)(6) is amended to provide that a commercial gauger approved by Customs agrees to immediately notify the port director, the Executive Director, and the Center director of any attempt to impede, influence, or coerce gauger personnel in the performance of their duties, or of any decision to terminate gauger operations or approval status. The amendment adds “Center director” to the list of persons who must be provided notification.
Section 151.51(b) is amended to provide that when, on the basis of invoice information, the nature of any available sample, knowledge of prior importations of similar materials, and other data, the Center director, rather than the port director, is satisfied that metal-bearing ores entered under heading 2617, HTSUS, as containing less than 1 percent of metals dutiable under headings 2603, 2607, and 2608, HTSUS, are properly entered, he may liquidate the entry on the basis of the assay information contained in the entry papers.
Section 151.52(c) is amended to provide that where no commercial samples have been taken, an authorized CBP official (a CBP employee working for either the port director or the Center director) shall take representative samples from different parts of the shipment.
Section 151.54 is amended to provide that an authorized CBP official (a CBP employee working for either the port director or the Center director) may secure from the importer a certified copy of the commercial settlement tests for moisture and for assay which shall be transmitted with the commercial samples to the Custom laboratory.
Section 151.55 is amended to provide that deductions for the loss of copper, lead, or zinc content during processing, as authorized by Chapter 26, Additional U.S. Note 1, Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (19 U.S.C. 1202), shall be made by the Center director, rather than the port director, in the liquidation of any entry only if the importer has followed the procedures set forth in that headnote.
Section 151.65 is amended to provide that duties on wool or hair subject to duty at a rate per clean kilogram may be estimated at the time of filing the entry summary on the basis of the clean yield shown on the entry summary if the Center director, rather than the port director, is satisfied that the revenue will be properly protected. Liquidated duties shall be based upon the Center director's, rather than the port director's, final determination of clean yield. Moreover, the section is amended to provide that this adjustment shall be made by increasing or decreasing such estimated percentage clean yield of each lot by the difference between the percentage clean yield of the related sampling unit, as determined by the Center director, rather than the port director, and the weighted average percentage clean yield for the sampling unit, as computed from the estimated percentages clean yield and net weights shown on the entry summary for the lots included in the sampling unit.
Section 151.68(c) is amended to provide that an authorized CBP official (a CBP employee working for either the port director or the Center director) may designate other imported wool or hair to be weighed, sampled, and tested for clean yield, unless such sampling or testing is not feasible.
Section 151.69(b) is amended to provide that when part of an original sampling unit, which has been weighed, sampled, and tested in accordance with subpart E of part 151, is exported from continuous Customs custody without having been manipulated as provided for in section 562, Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (19 U.S.C. 1562), the percentage clean yield of the part not exported shall be determined, at the discretion of the Center director, rather than the port director, either on the basis of a new determination by reweighing, resampling, and retesting, or by a computation as described in § 151.69(a), for either the exported or the remaining part.
Section 151.70 is amended to provide that the Center director or chief chemist, rather than the port director, may desire a second test for clean yield of wool or hair.
Section 151.71(a) is amended to provide that a report of the percentage clean yield of each general sample as established by test in a Customs laboratory, or a statement of the reason for not testing a general sample, shall be forwarded to the Center director, rather than to the port director.
Section 151.71(b) is amended to provide that where samples of wool or hair have been tested in a Customs laboratory and the Center director, rather than the port director, has received a copy of the Laboratory Report, Customs Form 6415, the Center director, rather than the port director, shall promptly provide notice of the test results by mailing a copy of that report to the importer.
Section 151.71(c) is amended to provide that if the importer is dissatisfied with the port director's or Center director's finding of clean yield, made before January 19, 2017, or the Center director's finding of clean yield made on or after January 19, 2017, he may file with CBP, either at the port of entry or electronically, a written request in duplicate for another laboratory test for percentage clean yield. Such request shall be filed within 14 calendar days after the date of mailing of the notice of the port director's or Center director's finding of clean yield. The request shall be granted if it appears to the Center director to be made in good faith and if a second general sample as provided for in § 151.70 is available for testing, or if all packages or, in the opinion of the Commissioner of Customs, an adequate number of the packages represented by the general sample are available and in their original imported condition. This section is being amended to include date ranges because the decisions made prior to the effective date of these regulatory amendments will have been made by the port director or Center director (pursuant to the Delegation Order described in section I.B. of the Background section of this document) and the decisions made on or after the effective date of these regulatory amendments will be made by the Center director. The language “CBP, either at the port of entry or electronically” here means that the importer may use the means of submission currently permitted; however, the authority to collect the written request for another laboratory test for percentage clean yield is being extended to personnel working for either the port director or the Center director.
Section 151.73(b) is amended to provide that the importer's request shall be filed in writing with the Center director within 14 calendar days after the date of mailing of the notice of the port director's or Center director's findings based on the retest mailed before January 19, 2017, or within 14 calendar days after the date of mailing of the notice of the Center director's findings based on the retest mailed on or after January 19, 2017. This provision is amended to include reference to mailings sent before and after the effective date of this document in the
Section 151.73(c) is amended to provide that the Center director, rather than the port director, shall cause a representative quantity of the wool or hair in dispute to be selected and tested by a commercial method approved by the Commissioner of Customs. Moreover, the paragraph is amended to note that such test shall be made under the supervision and direction of the Center director, rather than the port director, at an establishment approved by him, and the expense thereof, including the actual expense of travel and subsistence of Customs officers but not their compensation, shall be paid by the importer.
Section 151.74 is amended to provide that if the Center director, rather than the port director, is not satisfied with the results of any test provided for in § 151.71 or § 151.73, he may, within 14 calendar days after receiving the report of the results of such test, proceed to have another test made upon a suitable sample of the wool or hair at the expense of the Government. When the Center director, rather than the port director, is proceeding to have another test made, he shall, within the 14-day period specified in this paragraph, notify the importer by mail of that fact.
Section 151.75 is amended to provide that the Center director, rather than the port director, has the authority to make a final determination on clean yield and must base that determination upon a consideration of all the tests made in connection with the wool or hair concerned.
Section 151.76(a) is amended to provide that the Center director, rather than the port director, shall cause wool dutiable at a rate per clean kilogram to be examined for grade.
Section 151.76(b) is amended to provide that if classification of the wool at the grade or grades determined on the basis of the examination will result in the assessment of duty at a rate higher than the rate provided for wool of the grade stated in the entry, the Center director, rather than the port director, shall promptly notify the importer by mail.
Section 151.76(c) is amended to provide that if the importer is dissatisfied with the port director's or Center director's findings as to the grades of wool, made before January 19, 2017, or the Center director's findings as to the grade or grades of the wool made on or after January 19, 2017, he may, within 14 calendar days after the date of mailing of the notice of the port director's or Center director's findings, file in duplicate a written request with the Center director for another determination of grade or grades, stating the reason for the request. Notice of the Center director's findings on the basis of the reexamination of the wool shall be mailed to the importer. This section is being amended to include date ranges because the decisions made prior to the effective date of these regulatory amendments will have been made by the port director or Center director (pursuant to the Delegation Order described in section I.B. of the Background section of this document) and the decisions made on or after the effective date of these regulatory amendments will be made by the Center director. The language “CBP, either at the port of entry or electronically” here means that the importer may use the means of submission currently permitted; however, the authority to collect the written request for another determination of grade or grades of wool is being extended to personnel working for either the port director or the Center director.
Section 151.84 is amended to provide that the Center director, rather than the port director, shall have one or more samples of each sampled bale of cotton stapled by a qualified Customs officer, or a qualified employee of the Department of Agriculture designated by the Commissioner of Customs for the purpose, and shall promptly mail the importer a notice of the results determined.
Section 151.85 is amended to provide that if the importer is dissatisfied with the port director's or Center director's determination, made before January 19, 2017, or the Center director's determination made on or after January 19, 2017, he may file with the Center director, within 14 calendar days after the mailing of the notice, a written request in duplicate for a redetermination of the staple length. Each such request shall include a statement of the claimed staple length for the cotton in question and a clear statement of the basis for the claim. The request shall be granted if it appears to the Center director to be made in good faith. In making the redetermination of staple length, the Center director may obtain an opinion of a board of cotton examiners from the U.S. Department of Agriculture, if he deems such action advisable. This section is being amended to include date ranges because the decisions made prior to the effective date of these regulatory amendments will have been made by the port director or Center director (pursuant to the Delegation Order described in section I.B. of the Background section of this document) and the decisions made on or after the effective date of these regulatory amendments will be made by the Center director.
Section 152.1(c) is amended to provide that if there is no positive evidence at hand as to the actual date of exportation, the Center director, rather than the port director, shall ascertain or estimate the date of exportation by all reasonable ways and means in his power, and in so doing may consider dates on bills of lading, invoices, and other information available to him.
Section 152.2 is amended to provide that if the Center director, rather than the port director, believes that the entered rate or value of any merchandise is too low, or if he finds that the quantity imported exceeds the entered quantity, and the estimated aggregate of the increase in duties on that entry exceeds $15, he shall promptly notify the importer on Customs Form 29, or its electronic equivalent, specifying the nature of the difference on the notice. Liquidation shall be made promptly and shall not be withheld for a period of more than 20 days from the date of mailing of such notice unless in the judgment of the Center director, rather than the port director, there are compelling reasons that would warrant such action.
Section 152.13(a) is amended to provide that the Center director, rather than the port director, will give written notice to the importer as promptly as possible after any commingling of merchandise is discovered.
Section 152.13(c)(1) is amended to provide that to obtain the benefit of General Note 3(f), HTSUS, the importer shall, within 30 days after the date of mailing or personal delivery of the notice provided for in § 152.13(a), file with the Center director, rather than the port director, evidence showing performance of the commercial settlement tests specified in General Note 3(f), HTSUS.
Section 152.13(c)(3) is amended to provide that to obtain the benefit of General Note 3(f), HTSUS, the importer shall, within 30 days after the date of mailing or personal delivery of the notice provided for in § 152.13(a), file with the Center director, rather than the port director, documentary proof which will satisfy him that the merchandise is entitled to the lower rate of duty under General Note 3(f), HTSUS.
Section 152.13(d) is amended to provide that the 30-day limit for filing the evidence specified in General Note 3(f) or for performing the segregation
Section 152.16(c) is amended to provide that if a court decision overruling a protest contains a definite statement that a higher rate than that assessed by the port director or Center director before January 19, 2017, or the Center director on or after January 19, 2017, was properly chargeable, such higher rate shall be applied to all merchandise, whether identical or similar to that passed on by the court, which is affected by the principles of the court's decision and which is entered or withdrawn for consumption after 30 days from the date of the publication of the court's decision in the Customs Bulletin. The Center director is included for the dates prior to the effective date of this document because under the Center test, the assessments for the Center test participants may have been made by the Center director. Moreover, pursuant to the Delegation Order (noted in section I.B. of the Background section of this document) the assessments may have been made by the Center director as well. However, the assessments made on or after the effective date of these regulatory amendments will be made by the Center director.
Section 152.26 is amended to provide that the Center director, rather than the port director, shall furnish to importers the latest information as to values in his possession, subject to certain conditions. This document amends the conditions by removing the words “port director” or “port director's” where they appear and replacing them with “Center director” or “Center director's” so as to note that the information shall be given only in regard to merchandise to be appraised by, or under the jurisdiction of, the Center director who receives the request, and only with respect to merchandise for which there is presented evidence of a firm commitment or intent to import such merchandise into the United States. Also, the section is amended to provide that value information shall be given by the Center director only with an understanding and agreement in each case that the information is in no sense an appraisement and is not binding upon the Center director's action when he appraises the merchandise. Moreover, the section is amended to provide that the Center director shall not be required to reply to a written request for value information after a value for the merchandise has been declared on entry unless he has information indicating a probable appraised value different from such entered value.
Section 152.101(c) is amended to provide that the importer's request for the application of the computed value method before the deductive value method must be made at the time the entry summary for the merchandise is filed with CBP, either at the port of entry or electronically (see § 141.0a(b) of this chapter). The language “CBP, either at the port of entry or electronically” here means that the importer may use the means of submission currently permitted; however, the authority to collect the entry summary is being extended to personnel working for either the port director or the Center director.
Section 152.101(d) is amended to provide that upon receipt of a written request from the importer within 90 days after liquidation, the Center director, rather than the port director shall provide a reasonable and concise written explanation of how the value of the imported merchandise was determined.
Section 152.103(a)(5)(iii) is amended to provide that a sale for export and placement for through shipment to the United States under § 152.103(a)(5)(ii) shall be established by means of a through bill of lading to be presented to CBP, either at the port of entry or electronically. The paragraph is also amended to provide that only in those situations where it clearly would be impossible to ship merchandise on a through bill of lading (
Section 152.103(d) is amended to provide that if the value of an assist is to be added to the price actually paid or payable, or to be used as a component of computed value, the Center director, rather than the port director, shall determine the value of the assist and apportion that value to the price of the imported merchandise in one of the manners delineated in § 152.103(d)(1)-(d)(2).
Section 152.103(l) is amended to provide that the Center director, rather than the port director, shall not disregard a transaction value solely because the buyer and seller are related.
Section 152.103(l)(2)(iii) is amended to provide that if one of the test values provided in § 152.103(j)(2)(i) has been found to be appropriate, the Center director shall not seek to determine if the relationship between the buyer and seller influenced the price. If the Center director already has sufficient information to be satisfied, without further detailed inquiries, that one of the test values is appropriate, he shall not require the importer to demonstrate that the test value is appropriate.
Section 152.103(m) is amended to provide that when CBP has grounds for rejecting the transaction value declared by an importer and that rejection increases the duty liability, the Center director, rather than the port director, shall inform the importer of the grounds for the rejection. The importer will be afforded 20 days to respond in writing to the Center director, rather than the port director, if in disagreement.
Section 152.105(h)(3)(i)(2) is amended to provide that the Center director, rather than the port director, will review on its merits each case involving the following issues: If the imported merchandise loses its identity as a result of further processing, the method specified in § 152.105(c)(3) will not be applicable unless the value added by the processing can be determined accurately without unreasonable difficulty for either importers or Customs; and if the imported merchandise maintains its identity but forms a minor element of the merchandise sold in the United States, the use of § 152.105(c)(3) will be unjustified.
Section 152.106(f)(2) is amended to provide that, if not contrary to domestic law regarding disclosure of information, and if information other than that supplied by or on behalf of the producer is used to determine computed value, the Center director, rather than the port director, shall inform the importer, upon written request, of: (i) The source of the information, (ii) the data used,
Section 158.3 is amended to provide that allowance shall be made in the assessment of duties for lost or missing packages of merchandise included in an entry summary whenever it is established to the satisfaction of the Center director, rather than the port director, before the liquidation of the entry summary becomes final that the merchandise claimed to be lost or missing was not “permitted.”
Section 158.5(a) is amended to provide that an allowance shall be made in the assessment of duties for deficiencies in the contents of packages when, before the liquidation of the entry becomes final, the importer files in the case of a concealed shortage, a Customs Form 5931, in triplicate, executed by the importer alone, and the Center director, rather than the port director, is satisfied as to the validity of the claim.
Section 158.13(b) is amended to provide that if the port director is satisfied after any necessary investigation that the merchandise contains moisture or impurities as described in § 158.13(a), the Center director, rather than the port director, will make allowance for the amount thereof in the liquidation of the entry. The reason that the term “port director” is being maintained the first time it appears in this provision is because entry and condition of release issues will continue to be handled by the personnel working for the port directors. The word “he” in the provision originally meant “the port director”; however, the words “he shall” is being removed and replaced with “the Center director will” because the authority to make liquidation determinations is being transitioned to the Center directors.
Section 159.7(b) is amended by removing the words “at the port where the merchandise is held in CBP custody” and replacing them with the words “by the Center director” to specifically provide that the Center director personnel will effectuate on the effective date of the change any necessary reliquidations of customs duty or tax on merchandise covered by a rewarehouse entry which may be required by reason of a change in rate of customs duty or tax made by an act of Congress or a proclamation of the President.
Section 159.7(c) is amended by removing the words “port director of the port where the merchandise is entered for rewarehouse” and replacing them with “Center director” to provide that the Center director, rather than the port director where the merchandise is entered for rewarehouse, has the authority to determine that circumstances that make it advisable to follow the liquidation of the original warehouse entry and to make an appropriate adjustment in the amount of duties to be assessed under the rewarehouse entry.
Section 159.12(a)(1) is amended to provide that the Center director, rather than the port director, may extend the one (1)-year statutory period for liquidation for an additional period not to exceed one (1)-year under certain circumstances, including if the importer requests an extension in writing before the statutory period expires and shows good cause why the extension should be granted.
Section 159.12(a)(1)(ii) is amended by stating that “good cause” is demonstrated when the importer satisfies the Center director, rather than the port director, that more time is needed to present to CBP information which will affect the pending action, or there is a similar question under review by CBP.
Section 159.12(b) is amended by noting that if the Center director, rather than the port director, extends the time for liquidation, as provided in § 159.12(a)(1), he promptly will notify the importer or the consignee and his agent and surety on CBP Form 4333-A, appropriately modified, that the time has been extended and the reasons for doing so.
Section 159.12(c) is amended to provide that if the liquidation of an entry is suspended as required by statute or court order, as provided in § 159.12(a)(2), the Center director, rather than the port director, promptly will notify the importer or the consignee and his agent and surety on CBP Form 4333-A, appropriately modified, of the suspension.
Section 159.12(d)(1) is amended to provide that if an extension has been granted because CBP needs more information and the Center director, rather than the port director, thereafter determines that more time is needed, he may extend the time for liquidation for an additional period not to exceed 1 year provided he issues the notice required by § 159.12(b) before termination of the prior extension period.
Section 159.12(d)(2) is amended to provide that if the Center director, rather than the port director, finds that good cause (as defined in § 159.12(a)(1)(ii)) exists, he will issue a notice extending the time for liquidation for an additional period not to exceed 1 year.
Section 159.12(e) is amended to provide that the total time for which extensions may be granted by the Center director may not exceed 3 years. Currently, the regulation states that the extension granted by the port director may not exceed 3 years. This provision is being amended because the authority to make liquidation determinations is being transitioned to the Center directors.
Section 159.22(d)(2) is amended to provide that if the Center director, rather than the port director, is of the opinion that the invoice or schedule tare does not correctly represent the tare of the merchandise the actual tare shall be ascertained and in so doing the weigher shall empty and weigh as many casks, boxes, and other coverings as he may deem necessary.
Section 159.36(b) is amended to provide that when multiple rates have been certified for a foreign currency, the rate to be used for Customs purposes shall be the type of certified rate which the Center director, rather than the port director, is satisfied, from information in his own files, information obtained and presented to him by the importer, or information obtained from other sources, is uniformly applicable under the laws and regulations of the country of exportation to the particular class of merchandise on the date of exportation.
Section 159.36(c) is amended to provide that if the Center director, rather than the port director, has credible information that a type of rate or combination of types of rates which would otherwise be applicable under § 159.36(b) were not required or permitted, as the case may be, under the laws and regulations of the country of exportation to be used uniformly during any period in connection with the payment for all merchandise of the class involved, he shall immediately submit a detailed report to the Commissioner of Customs, and shall suspend appraisement and liquidation as to all merchandise of the class involved exported to the United States during the period involved, until instructions are received from the Commissioner of Customs.
Section 159.36(d) is amended to provide that if the Center director, rather than the port director, has credible information that a type of rate or combination of types of rates not applicable to payment for the merchandise was required or permitted
Section 159.38 is amended to provide that for purposes of calculating estimated duties, the Center director, rather than the port director, shall use the rate or rates appearing to be applicable under the instructions in this subpart to the merchandise involved. When it is not yet known what certified rate or rates are applicable or no rate has been certified, the Center director, rather than the port director, shall take into account all the information in his possession and shall use the highest rate or combination of rates (
Section 159.44 is amended to provide that whenever it appears that imported articles may be subject to the special duties provided for in section 802, Act of September 8, 1916 (15 U.S.C. 73), the Center director, rather than the port director, shall report the matter to the Commissioner of Customs and await instructions with respect to the imposition of such duties.
Section 159.58(a) is amended to provide that upon receipt of notification from the Commissioner, the Center director will suspend liquidation on merchandise entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption, on or after the date of publication of the “Notice of Preliminary Affirmative Antidumping Determination,” “Notice of Final Affirmative Antidumping Determination” or “Notice of Violation of Agreement” as provided by part 353, chapter III, of this title. The Center director will immediately notify the importer, consignee, or agent of each entry of merchandise in question with respect to which liquidation is suspended.
Section 159.58(b) is amended to provide that upon receipt of notification from the Commissioner, the Center director will suspend liquidation on merchandise entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption, on or after the date of publication of the “Notice of Preliminary Affirmative Countervailing Duty Determination,” “Notice of Final Affirmative Countervailing Duty Determination” or “Notice of Violation of Agreement,” as provided by part 355, Chapter III, of this title. The Center director will immediately notify the importer, consignee, or agent of each entry of merchandise in question with respect to which liquidation is suspended.
Section 161.16 concerns the filing of a claim for informant compensation. Paragraph (b) is amended to provide that the Special Agent in Charge, U.S. Immigration and Customs Enforcement, Homeland Security Investigations will forward the form to the Center director (rather than the port director), who will make a recommendation on the form as to approval and the amount of the award. The Center director, rather than the port director, will forward the form to CBP Headquarters for action. If for any reason a claim has not been transmitted by the Center director, the claimant may apply directly to CBP Headquarters.
Section 162.74(c) is amended to provide that concerning prior disclosures, after Headquarters reviews the actual loss of duties, taxes and fees and renders its decision, the concerned Fines, Penalties, and Forfeitures Officer will be notified and the concerned Center director, rather than the CBP port, will recalculate the loss, if necessary, and notify the disclosing party of any actual loss of duties, taxes or fees increases.
Section 162.80(a)(1) is amended to provide that when an entry is the subject of an investigation for possible violation of section 592, Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (19 U.S.C. 1592), or of a penalty action established under that section, the Center director, rather than the port director, subject to the provisions of paragraph (a)(2) of this section, may liquidate the entry and CBP, either at the port of entry or electronically, may collect duties before the conclusion of the investigation or final disposition of the penalty action if the Center director, rather than the port director, determines that liquidation would be in the interest of the Government. The language “CBP, either at the port of entry or electronically” here means that the importer may use the means of submission currently permitted; however, the authority to collect the duties is being extended to personnel working for either the port director or the Center director.
Section 162.80(a)(2)(i) is amended to provide that an entry not liquidated within one (1)-year from the date of entry or final withdrawal of all merchandise covered by a warehouse entry shall be deemed liquidated at the rate of duty, value, quantity, and amount of duties asserted at the time of entry by the importer, his consignee, or agent unless the time for liquidation is extended by the Center director (rather than the port director) because of certain circumstances delineated in § 162.80(a)(2)(i)(A)-(C).
Section 162.80(a)(2)(iii) is amended to provide that the Center director, rather than the port director, promptly shall notify the importer or consignee concerned and any authorized agent and surety of the importer or consignee in writing of any extension or suspension of the liquidation period.
Section 163.1(a)(2)(vii) is amended to provide that the maintenance of any documentation that the importer may have in support of a claim for preferential tariff treatment under the United States-Singapore Free Trade Agreement (SFTA), including a SFTA importer's supporting statement if previously required by the port director or Center director before January 19, 2017, or the Center director on or after January 19, 2017. This section is being amended to include date ranges because the decision to require a SFTA importer's supporting statement made prior to the effective date of these regulatory amendments will have been made by the port director or Center director (pursuant to the Delegation Order described in section I.B. of the Background section of this document) and the decision made on or after the effective date of these regulatory amendments will be made by the Center director.
Section 163.7(a) is amended by including Center directors to the list of individuals, who may in certain noted situations, issue a summons requiring a person within a reasonable period of time to appear before the appropriate CBP officer and to produce records or give relevant testimony under oath or both.
The appendix to part 163 is amended at section 10.512 of part IV to add the
Section 173.1 is amended to provide that Center directors, rather than port directors, have broad responsibility and authority to review transactions to ensure that the rate and amount of duty assessed on imported merchandise is correct and that the transaction is otherwise in accordance with the law.
Section 173.2 is amended to provide that the Center director, rather than the port director, may review transactions for correctness, and take appropriate action under his general authority to correct errors, including those in appraisement where appropriate, at the time of: (a) Liquidation of an entry; (b) Voluntary reliquidation completed within 90 days after liquidation; (c) Voluntary correction of an exaction within 90 days after the exaction was made; (d) Reliquidation made pursuant to a valid protest covering the particular merchandise as to which a change is in order; or (e) Modification, pursuant to a valid protest, of a transaction or decision which is neither a liquidation or reliquidation.
Section 173.3(a) is amended to provide that the Center director, rather than the port director, may reliquidate on his own initiative a liquidation or a reliquidation to correct errors in appraisement, classification, or any other element entering into the liquidation or reliquidation, including errors based on misconstruction of applicable law. A voluntary reliquidation may be made even though a protest has been filed, and whether the error is discovered by the Center director or is brought to his attention by an interested party.
Section 173.4(a) is amended to provide that even though a valid protest was not filed, the Center director, rather than the port director, upon timely application and for entries of merchandise made, or withdrawn from warehouse for consumption, before December 18, 2004, may correct pursuant to section 520(c)(1), Tariff Act of 1930, as amended, a clerical error, mistake of fact, or other inadvertence meeting the requirements of § 173.4(a)(1), by reliquidation or other appropriate action.
Section 173.4(a)(2) is amended to provide that a clerical error, mistake of fact, or other inadvertence meeting the requirements of § 173.4(a)(1) must be brought to the attention of the Center director or other appropriate CBP officer within 1 year after the date of liquidation or exaction. The term “other appropriate CBP officer” includes personnel working for the port director.
Section 173.4a is amended to provide that pursuant to section 520(a)(4), Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (19 U.S.C. 1520(a)(4)), the Center director, rather than the port director may, prior to liquidation of an entry, take appropriate action to correct a clerical error that resulted in the deposit or payment of excess duties, fees, charges, or exactions.
Section 174.0 is amended to provide that part 174 deals with the administrative review of decisions of the both the port director and Center director.
Section 174.3(b)(1) states that a corporate power of attorney to file protests shall be signed by a duly authorized officer or employee of the corporation. Paragraph (b)(1) is amended to provide that if the Center director, rather than the port director, is otherwise satisfied as to the authority of such corporate officer or employee to grant such power of attorney, compliance with the requirements of § 141.37 of this chapter may be waived with respect to such power.
Section 174.3(c) is amended to provide that powers of attorney issued by a partnership shall be limited to a period not to exceed 2 years from the date of receipt thereof by the Center director. The date on which the power of attorney information is input into CBP's authorized electronic data interchange system will be considered the date of receipt by the Center director.
Section 174.3(d) is amended to provide that any power of attorney shall be subject to revocation at any time by written notice given to and received by CBP, either at the port of entry or electronically. The language “CBP, either at the port of entry or electronically” here means that the importer may use the means of submission currently permitted; however, the authority to collect the notice is being extended to personnel working for either the port director or the Center director.
Section 174.12(d) is amended by removing the words “port director whose decision is protested” and replacing it with “CBP, either at the port of entry or electronically”. The language “CBP, either at the port of entry or electronically” here means that the importer may use the means of submission currently permitted; however, the authority to receive the protest is being extended to personnel working for either the port director or the Center director.
Section 174.13(b) is amended to provide that a single protest may be filed with respect to more than one entry with CBP, either at any port or electronically, if all such entries entries involve the same protesting party, and if the same category of merchandise and a decision or decisions common to all entries are the subject of the protest. The language “with CBP, either at any port or electronically” here means that the importer may choose the means of submission; however, the authority to receive the protest is being extended to personnel working for either the port director or the Center director.
Section 174.14(e) is amended to provide that rather than the amendment to a protest being filed with the port director with whom the protest was filed, an amendment to a protest shall be filed with CBP, either at the port of entry or electronically. The language “CBP, either at the port of entry or electronically” here means that the importer may use the means of submission currently permitted; however, the authority to receive the protest is being extended to personnel working for either the port director or the Center director.
Section 174.15(b)(2) is amended to provide that consolidation of protests under § 174.15(a) may be done by the port director or Center director, before January 19, 2017, or the Center director on or after January 19, 2017. The Center director is included for the dates prior to the effective date of this document because under the Center test, protests for the test participants were processed and decided upon by the Center director. Moreover, pursuant to the Delegation Order (described in section
Section 174.16 is amended to provide that a protest shall not be filed against the reliquidation decision of the port director or Center director made before
Section 174.21(a) is amended to provide that, except as provided in § 174.21(b), the Center director, rather than the port director, shall review and act on a protest filed in accordance with section 514, Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (19 U.S.C. 1514), within 2 years from the date the protest was filed.
Section 174.21(b) is amended to provide that if the protest relates to an administrative action involving exclusion of merchandise from entry or delivery under any provision of the Customs laws, the Center director, rather than the port director, shall review and act on a protest filed in accordance with section 514(a)(4), Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (19 U.S.C. 1514(a)(4)), within 30 days from the date the protest was filed.
Section 174.22(a) is amended to provide that written requests for accelerated disposition of protests may be filed with the port director, Center director, or other CBP officer with whom the protest was filed. Accordingly, the authority to receive the written requests for accelerated disposition of protests resides with personnel working for either the port director or the Center director.
Section 174.22(c) is amended to provide that the Center director shall review the protest which is the subject of the request for accelerated disposition within 30 days from the date of mailing of a request for accelerated disposition filed in accordance with the provisions of § 174.22, and may allow or deny the protest in whole or in part.
Section 174.22(d) is amended to provide that the Center director, rather than the port director, will be responsible for allowing or denying a protest which is the subject of a request for accelerated disposition. As amended, it will be the Center director's, rather than the port director's, failure to do so within thirty days from the date of mailing such request that will result in the protest being deemed to have been denied at the close of the thirtieth day following such date of mailing.
Section 174.23 is amended to provide that a protesting party may seek further review of a protest in lieu of review by the Center director by filing, on the form prescribed in § 174.25, an application for such review within the time allowed and in the manner prescribed by § 174.12 for the filing of a protest. The filing of an application for further review shall not preclude a preliminary examination by the Center director for the purpose of determining whether the protest may be allowed in full. If such preliminary examination indicates that the protest would be denied in whole or in part by the Center director in the absence of an application for further review; however, he shall forward the protest and application for consideration in accordance with § 174.26.
Section 174.24 is amended to provide that a further review of a protest which would otherwise be denied by the Center director, rather than the port director, shall be accorded a party filing an application for further review which meets the requirements of § 174.25 when the decision against which the protest was filed meets one of the listed criteria in § 174.24.
Section 174.24(a) is amended to state that further review shall be accorded when a decision against which the protest was filed is alleged to be inconsistent with a ruling of the Commissioner of CBP or his designee, or with a decision made by CBP with respect to the same or substantially similar merchandise.
Section 174.24(b) is amended to state that further review shall be accorded when a decision against which the protest was filed is alleged to involve questions of law or fact which have not been ruled upon by the Commissioner of CBP or his designee or by the Customs courts.
Section 174.24(c) is amended to state that further review shall be accorded when a decision against which the protest was filed involves matters previously ruled upon by the Commissioner of CBP or his designee or by the Customs courts but facts are alleged or legal arguments presented which were not considered at the time of the original ruling.
Section 174.24(d) is amended to state that further review shall be accorded when a decision against which the protest was filed is alleged to involve questions which the Headquarters Office, U.S. Customs and Border Protection, refused to consider in the form of a request for internal advice pursuant to § 177.11(b)(5).
Section 174.26(a) is amended to provide that if upon examination of a protest for which an application for further review was filed the Center director, rather than the port director, is satisfied that the claim is valid, he shall allow the protest.
Section 174.26(b) is amended to provide that if upon examination of a protest for which an application for further review was filed the Center director, rather than the port director, decides that the protest in his judgment should be denied in whole or in part, the Center director, rather than the port director, will forward the application together with the protest and appropriate documents to be reviewed as delineated in § 174.26(b)(1)-(2).
Section 174.26(b)(2) is amended to provide that all other protests shall be reviewed by a designee of the Center director (rather than by a designee of the port director) who did not participate directly in the decision which is the subject of the protest.
Section 174.27 is amended to provide that upon completion of further review, the protest and appropriate documents forwarded for review shall be returned to the Center director, rather than the port director, together with directions for the disposition of the protest.
Section 174.29 is amended to provide that the Center director, rather than the port director, shall allow or deny in whole or in part a protest filed in accordance with section 514, Tariff Act of 1930, as amended, (19 U.S.C. 1514) within 2 years from the date the protest was filed. If the protest is allowed in whole or in part the Center director, rather than the port director, shall remit or refund any duties, charge, or exaction found to have been collected in excess, or pay any drawback found due. Moreover, the section is amended to provide that if the protest is denied in whole or in part the Center director, rather than the port director, shall give notice of the denial in the form and manner prescribed in § 174.30.
Section 174.30(b) is amended to provide that the importer of record or consignee may give notice to CBP, either at the port of entry or electronically, instructing that notice of denial of any protest involving merchandise imported in his name or on his behalf shall be mailed to a person other than the person filing such protest or the designee of such person. This document also amends the provision to note that notice of denial of a protest shall be mailed to the substituted person so designated only if the notice of substitution is
Section 174.30(c) is amended to provide that the Center director, rather than the port director, shall note on the notice of denial of a protest the payment of all liquidated duties, charges, or exactions, if he has actual knowledge of such payment at the time that the protest is denied.
Section 176.1 is amended to provide that when an action is initiated in the Court of International Trade a copy of the summons shall be served in the manner prescribed by the Court of International Trade upon the CBP official(s) who denied the protest(s), and an additional copy shall be served upon the Assistant Chief Counsel for Court of International Trade Litigation, United States Customs and Border Protection, 26 Federal Plaza, New York, N.Y. 10007. The term “CBP official(s)” is added here in place of “director of each port where a protest cited in the summons was denied” because the protest may have been denied by either a CBP employee working for either the Center director or the port director depending on the date on which the protests were denied.
Section 181.12(b)(1) is amended by noting that for purposes of determining compliance with the provisions of part 181 (19 CFR part 181), the records required to be maintained under § 181.12 shall be made available for examination and inspection by the Center director or other appropriate Customs officer in the same manner as provided in part 163 of this chapter in the case of U.S. importer records.
Section 181.22(b) is amended to provide that an importer who claims preferential tariff treatment on a good under § 181.21 shall provide, at the request of the Center director, rather than the port director, a copy of each Certificate of Origin pertaining to the good which is in the possession of the importer.
Section 181.22(b)(3) is amended to provide that a Certificate of Origin submitted to CBP under § 181.22(b) or under § 181.32(b)(3) shall be completed either in the English language or in the language of the country from which the good is exported. If the Certificate is completed in a language other than English, the importer shall also provide to the Center director (rather than the port director), upon request, a written English translation thereof.
Section 181.22(c) is amended to provide that a Certificate of Origin shall be accepted by the Center director, rather than the port director, as valid for the purpose set forth in § 181.11(a), provided that the Certificate is completed, signed and dated in accordance with the requirements of § 181.22(b). The paragraph is also amended to provide that if the Center director, rather than the port director, determines that a Certificate is illegible or defective or has not been completed in accordance with § 181.22(b), the importer shall be given a period of not less than five working days to submit a corrected Certificate. Acceptance of a Certificate will result in the granting of preferential tariff treatment to the imported good unless, in connection with an origin verification initiated under subpart G of part 181 (19 CFR part 181) or based on a pattern of conduct within the meaning of § 181.76(c), the Center director determines that the imported good does not qualify as an originating good or should not be accorded such treatment for any other reason as specifically provided for elsewhere in part 181 (19 CFR part 181). A Certificate shall not be accepted in connection with subsequent importations during a period referred to in § 181.22(b)(5)(ii) if, based on an origin verification under subpart G of part 181 (19 CFR part 181), the Center director, rather than the port director, determined that a previously imported identical good covered by the Certificate did not qualify as an originating good.
Section 181.22(d)(1)(i) is amended to provide that except as otherwise provided in § 181.22(d)(2), an importer shall not be required to have a Certificate of Origin in his possession for an importation of a good for which the port director or Center director before January 19, 2017, or the Center director on or after January 19, 2017, has in writing waived the requirement for a Certificate of Origin because the port director or Center director is otherwise satisfied that the good qualifies for preferential tariff treatment under the NAFTA. This provision is amended to include reference to dates before and after the effective date of this document in the
Section 181.22(d)(1)(iii) is amended to provide that except as otherwise provided in § 181.22(d)(2), an importer shall not be required to have a Certificate of Origin in his possession for a commercial importation for which the total value of originating goods does not exceed US$2,500, provided that, unless waived by the Center director (rather than the port director), the producer, exporter, importer or authorized agent includes on, or attaches to, the invoice or other document accompanying the shipment the signed statement as noted in § 181.22(d)(1)(iii).
Section 181.22(d)(2) is amended to provide that if the Center director, rather than the port director, determines that an importation described in § 181.22(d)(1) forms part of a series of importations that may reasonably be considered to have been undertaken or arranged for the purpose of avoiding a certification requirement set forth in part 181 (19 CFR part 181), the Center director, rather than the port director, shall notify the importer in writing that for that importation the importer must have in his possession a valid Certificate of Origin to support the claim for preferential tariff treatment.
Section 181.23(a) is amended to note that if the importer fails to comply with any requirement under part 181 (19 CFR part 181), including submission of a Certificate of Origin under § 181.22(b) or submission of a corrected Certificate under § 181.22(c), the Center director, rather than the port director, may deny preferential tariff treatment to the imported good.
Section 181.23(b) is amended to provide that where the requirements for preferential tariff treatment set forth elsewhere in part 181 (19 CFR part 181) are met, the Center director, rather than the port director, nevertheless may deny preferential tariff treatment to an originating good if the good is shipped through or transshipped in a country other than the United States, Canada or Mexico and the importer of the good does not provide, at the request of the Center director, copies of the customs control documents that indicate to the satisfaction of the Center director that the good remained under customs control while in such other country.
Section 181.32(a) is amended to require that a post-importation claim for a refund under § 181.31 be filed with
Section 181.33(a) is amended to provide that after receipt of a post-importation claim under § 181.32, the Center director, rather than the port director, shall determine whether the entry covering the good has been liquidated and, if liquidation has taken place, whether the liquidation has become final.
Section 181.33(b) is amended to provide that if the Center director, rather than the port director, determines that any protest or any petition or request for reliquidation relating to the good has not been finally decided, the Center director, rather than the port director, shall suspend action on the claim filed under this subpart until the decision on the protest, petition or request becomes final. If a summons involving the tariff classification or dutiability of the good is filed in the Court of International Trade, the Center director, rather than the port director, shall suspend action on the claim filed under this subpart until judicial review has been completed.
Section 181.33(c)(1) is amended to provide that if the Center director, rather than the port director, determines that a claim for a refund filed under this subpart should be allowed and the entry covering the good has not been liquidated, the Center director, rather than the port director, shall take into account the claim for refund under this subpart in connection with the liquidation of the entry.
Section 181.33(c)(2) is amended to provide that if the Center director, rather than the port director, determines that a claim for a refund filed under subpart D of part 181 (19 CFR part 181, subpart D) should be allowed and the entry covering the good has been liquidated, whether or not the liquidation has become final, the entry must be reliquidated in order to effect a refund of duties pursuant to this subpart. If the entry is otherwise to be reliquidated based on administrative review of a protest or petition for reliquidation or as a result of judicial review, the Center director, rather than the port director, shall reliquidate the entry taking into account the claim for refund under this subpart.
Section 181.33(c)(3) is amended to provide that if any information is provided to Customs pursuant to § 181.32(b)(4) or (5) of part 181 (19 CFR part 181), that information, together with notice of the allowance of the claim and the amount of duty refunded pursuant to this subpart, shall be provided by the Center director, rather than the port director, to the customs administration of the country from which the good was exported.
Section 181.33(d)(1) is amended to provide that the Center director, rather than the port director, may deny a claim for a refund filed under this subpart if the claim was not filed timely, if the importer has not complied with the requirements of this subpart, if the Certificate of Origin submitted under § 181.32(b)(3) of part 181 (19 CFR part 181) cannot be accepted as valid (see § 181.22(c)), or if, following initiation of an origin verification under § 181.72(a), the Center director, rather than the port director, determines either that the imported good did not qualify as an originating good at the time of importation or that a basis exists upon which preferential tariff treatment may be denied under § 181.72(d), § 181.74(c) or § 181.76(c).
Section 181.33(d)(2) is amended to provide that if the Center director, rather than the port director, determines that a claim for a refund filed under this subpart should be denied and the entry covering the good has not been liquidated, the Center director, rather than the port director, shall deny the claim in connection with the liquidation of the entry, and written notice of the denial and the reason therefor shall be given to the importer and, in the case of a denial on the merits, to any person who completed and signed a Certificate of Origin relating to the good.
Section 181.33(d)(3) is amended to provide that if the Center director, rather than the port director, determines that a claim for a refund filed under subpart D of part 181 (19 CFR part 181, subpart D) should be denied and the entry covering the good has been liquidated, whether or not the liquidation has become final, the claim may be denied without reliquidation of the entry. If the entry is otherwise to be reliquidated based on administrative review of a protest or petition for reliquidation or as a result of judicial review, such reliquidation may include denial of the claim filed under this subpart. In either case, the Center director, rather than the port director, shall give written notice of the denial and the reason therefor to the importer and, in the case of a denial on the merits, to any person who completed and signed a Certificate of Origin relating to the good.
Section 181.64(c)(2) is amended to provide that Center director, rather than the port director, may require such additional documentation as is deemed necessary to prove actual exportation of the goods from the United States for repairs or alterations, such as a foreign customs entry, a foreign customs invoice, a foreign landing certificate, bill of lading, or airway bill.
Section 181.64(c)(3) is amended to provide that if the Center director, rather than the port director, is satisfied, because of the nature of the goods or production of other evidence, that the goods are imported under circumstances meeting the requirements of § 181.64, he may waive submission of the declarations provided for in § 181.64(c)(1).
Section 181.64(c)(4) is amended to provide that for goods returned after having been repaired or altered in Canada other than pursuant to a warranty, the Center director, rather than the port director, shall require a deposit of estimated duties based upon the full cost or value of the repairs or alterations. The paragraph is also amended to provide that the duties must be deposited with CBP, either at the port of entry or electronically. The language “CBP, either at the port of entry or electronically” here means that the means of submission currently permitted may be used; however, the authority to collect the duties is being extended to personnel working for either the port director or the Center director.
Section 181.112(a) is amended to provide that the term
Section 181.113(a) is amended to provide that the exporter or producer of the merchandise which is the subject of an adverse marking decision may request a statement concerning the basis for the decision by filing a typewritten request, in English, with CBP, either at the port of entry or electronically. The language “CBP, either at the port of entry or electronically” here means that the means of submission currently permitted may be used; however, the authority to receive the petition is being extended to personnel working for either the port director or the Center director and the request may be submitted electronically.
Section 181.114(a) is amended to provide that the Center director, rather than the port director, will issue a written response to the requestor within 30 days of receipt of a request containing the information specified in § 181.113. If the request is incomplete, such that the transaction in question cannot be identified, the Center director, rather than the port director, will notify the requestor in writing within 30 days of receipt of the request regarding what information is needed.
Section 181.114(b) is amended to reflect that the Center director, rather than the port director, will be providing the response noted in § 181.114(a).
Section 181.115(b) is amended by removing the words “port director with whom the protest was filed” and adding in their place the words “Center director” to reflect that if an exporter or producer of merchandise want to intervene in an importer's protest of an adverse marking decision, the party must file their intervention with the Center director.
Section 181.115(e) is amended to provide that if final administrative action has already been taken with respect to the importer's protest at the time the intervention is filed, the Center director, rather than the port director, shall so advise the exporter or producer and, if the importer has filed a civil action in the Court of International Trade as a result of a denial of the protest, the Center director, rather than the port director, shall advise the exporter or producer of that filing and of the exporter's or producer's right to seek to intervene in such judicial proceeding. If final administrative action has not been taken on the protest, the Center director, rather than the port director, shall forward the intervention letter to the CBP office which has the importer's protest under review for consideration in connection with the protest.
Section 181.116(a) is amended to provide that if the importer filed a protest on which final administrative action has not been taken and notice of the pending protest was not provided to the exporter or producer under § 181.114, a petition filed under § 181.116 shall be treated by the Center director, rather than the port director, as an intervention under § 181.115.
Section 181.116(b) is amended to provide that a petition under § 181.115 shall be typewritten, in English, and shall be filed, in triplicate, with the port of entry or filed electronically with CBP.
Section 181.116(d)(1) is amended to provide that within 60 days of the date of receipt of the petition, the Center director, rather than the port director, shall determine if the petition is to be granted or denied, in whole or in part. The paragraph is also amended to provide that if, after reviewing the petition, the Center director, rather than the port director, agrees with all of the petitioner's claims and determines that the initial adverse marking decision was not correct, a written notice granting the petition shall be issued to the petitioner. The paragraph is also amended to provide that a description of the merchandise, a brief summary of the issue(s) and the Center director's findings shall be forwarded to the Director, Tariff Classification Appeals Division, Customs Headquarters, for publication in the Customs Bulletin. The paragraph is further amended to provide that if, after reviewing the petition, the Center director, rather than the port director, determines that the initial adverse marking decision was correct in its entirety, a written notice shall be issued to the petitioner advising that the matter has been forwarded to the Director, Tariff Classification Appeals Division, Customs Headquarters, for further review and decision. Finally, the paragraph is amended to provide that all relevant background information, including available samples, a description of the adverse marking decision and the reasons for the decision, and the Center director's recommendation shall be furnished to Headquarters.
Section 181.121 is amended by removing the words “port director or other Customs officer” and adding in their place the words “port director, Center director, or other CBP officer” to specify that Center directors, in addition to port directors and other CBP officers who have possession of confidential business information collected pursuant to part 181 (19 CFR part 181) shall, in accordance with part 103 (19 CFR part 103), maintain its confidentiality and protect it from any disclosure that could prejudice the competitive position of the persons providing the information.
Executive Orders 13563 and 12866 direct agencies to assess the costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, distributive impacts, and equity). Executive Order 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, of reducing costs, of harmonizing rules, and of promoting flexibility. This rule has not been designated a “significant regulatory action,” under section 3(f) of Executive Order 12866. Accordingly, the rule has not been reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget.
Prior to the launch of the Centers test, CBP port directors overseeing imports were solely responsible for facilitating lawful importation; protecting U.S. revenue by assessing and collecting customs duties, taxes and fees; and detecting, interdicting, and investigating illegal international trafficking in arms, munitions, counterfeit goods, currency, and acts of terrorism at their U.S. port of entry. Historically, when a shipment reached the United States, the importer of record (
Since their test implementation, the Centers have successfully met their trade enhancement goals. Based on such success, CBP would like to discontinue the Centers test and establish the Centers as permanent organizational components of CBP through regulatory amendments.
With this rule, CBP will formally transition certain trade enforcement responsibilities in addition to the majority of post-release trade functions from the purview of port directors to Center directors.
In this regulatory impact analysis, CBP discusses the costs and benefits that CBP and trade members will experience with the regulatory implementation of the Centers of Excellence and Expertise in qualitative and, when possible, quantitative terms. CBP excludes any sunk costs already incurred during the Centers test phase from this assessment as such costs are not a result of this rule. The document “Program Assessment of the Centers of Excellence and Expertise,” available in the docket for this rulemaking, assesses certain impacts of the Centers test phase.
This rule will introduce minimal costs to CBP and the trade community because it largely meets its objectives through low- to no-cost internal organization changes. The transition of post-release import processing and trade-related responsibilities from ports of entry to Centers will not affect the duties, taxes, and fees payment and entry summary submission process for importers, nor will it adversely impact other post-release activities (
Following this rule's implementation, if an importer or broker submits paper entry summary documentation at a port of entry without an appropriate Center representative on site, CBP staff at the port will reroute the documents internally by electronic means to the Center assigned to manage the importer's account. This electronic rerouting system will not introduce costs to CBP because the agency created such necessary technological capabilities during the Centers test phase. However, document rerouting will create time, or opportunity, costs. CBP estimates that it will need to reroute 9,000 entry summary documents each year based on historical paper documentation rerouting needs and an anticipated lack of physical Center representation at certain ports of entry.
In addition to sustaining document rerouting costs on account of the Centers, CBP will experience costs from processing (
As outlined throughout this rule, the responsibilities of the trade community will remain largely unchanged after the Centers' regulatory implementation. Importers may continue to file pre- and post-cargo release documentation and payments where their merchandise is entered. CBP personnel, who may work for either a Center director or a port director will accept all paper import documents from trade members. When necessary, CBP will internally route documentation to the appropriate Center for review and processing. Importers and brokers who file electronically will continue to use CBP's automated systems, such as ABI, to submit required import data and payments to CBP. Meanwhile, CBP will maintain a consistent formal notification and remedy process with importers regarding post-release and other trade-related issues following the Centers' establishment. Trade members will only incur costs from this rule when appealing a Center assignment.
Importers may choose to appeal their Center assignment for a number of reasons, including the expectation of better service or product knowledge at another Center. As previously discussed, if an importer chooses to appeal their Center assignment, they must submit a written appeal to CBP by mail or email that includes information about their current and preferred Center assignments (see “Finalization of the Centers of Excellence and Expertise Test” for specific appeal requirements). CBP estimates that each appeal will take 60 minutes (1 hour) for an importer to complete,
Certain trade members, particularly Customs-accredited laboratories and Customs-approved gaugers, may incur added costs with this rule's amendments to their obligations outlined in 19 CFR 151.12(c)(5)-(6) and 19 CFR 151.13(b)(5)-(6). As amended, CBP will require Customs-accredited laboratories to notify an additional CBP representative, the Center director, of “any circumstance which might affect the accuracy of work performed as an accredited laboratory, . . . their consequences, and any corrective action taken or that needs to be taken” and “. . . of any attempt to impede, influence, or coerce laboratory personnel in the performance of their duties, or of any decision to terminate laboratory operations or accredited status.”
In all, the Centers rule will introduce a time burden of 1,260 hours to CBP each year and an annual cost of $1,803 to trade members.
This rule will likely produce valuable benefits to CBP and the trade community. This section of the analysis largely discusses the benefits of the rule qualitatively due to quantitative data limitations. Based on the success of the Centers test, CBP believes that as permanent organizational components, the Centers will continue to provide uniform post-release processing and trade-related decision-making, strengthen critical agency knowledge of industry practices and products, heighten CBP's trade enforcement skills, and improve trade communication, though on a much grander scale than observed during the test phase because of the expansion of the Centers concept to all importers.
The Centers allow CBP to conduct uniform entry summary processing and trade-related decision-making nationwide on an industry-specific, importer account basis by transitioning the post-release processing of an importer's goods from a transactional level at each port of entry to one assigned Center. Such organization has already benefited at least one Center test participant, who claims that they have gained numerous administrative efficiencies since joining the Center, including time and cost savings from reduced paperwork submission requirements.
With a single Center conducting all post-release processing for a particular importer, determinations on protests, marking, and classification matters will also now be consistent rather than sometimes contrasting as in the current environment, where importers occasionally receive different determinations on similar trade compliance issues depending on the port of entry where their merchandise is processed that sometimes requires duplicative action on behalf of CBP and the importer. This consistency may enhance importers' awareness of CBP's positions on trade compliance issues, which may lead to improved compliance and an unknown amount of subsequent savings to both parties in the future. To the extent that this rule's uniform processing and determinations also decrease post-entry amendments, post-summary corrections, exams, hold times, and other trade obstacles, the benefits of this rule will be higher.
In addition to creating uniform post-release processing and determinations, the Centers will strengthen CBP trade personnel's industry knowledge by concentrating their expertise into a specific import industry set as opposed to the entire range of import industries. According to outreach conducted while evaluating this rule, such focused expertise has already enriched CBP-Trade relations, as demonstrated through a Centers test participant's claim that Center account managers are very knowledgeable of their industry and are now more familiar with their imports and trade issues.
Furthermore, the Centers will improve communication among CBP and the entire U.S. importing universe by replacing communication with each port of entry with communication with one Center. The Centers will serve as a single source for trade members to contact regarding such subjects as importing requirements, IPR infringement or other trade violations, merchandise holds, and PGA issues, eliminating the need for trade members to contact multiple CBP employees and for multiple CBP employees to share duplicative information with members of the trade. Such a decrease in redundant information requests and
In summary, this rule's formal establishment of the Centers of Excellence and Expertise will introduce costs and benefits. CBP will sustain 1,260 added work hours each year from rerouting paper documentation and reviewing Center assignment appeals, while trade members will bear an annual cost of $1,803 attributable to Center assignment appeals. CBP and trade members will also experience benefits from this rule's decreased import costs and time burdens, streamlined trade processing, broadened industry and trade compliance knowledge, enhanced trade enforcement posture, and improved communication, though the overall value of these benefits is unknown. Although not fully quantified, CBP believes this rule's benefits to CBP and the trade community will be considerable, while its costs to these parties will be relatively negligible. For these reasons, CBP asserts that the benefits of this rule will outweigh its costs, thus providing an overall net benefit to the agency and members of the trade community.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
Through this rule, CBP will formally transition certain trade enforcement responsibilities in addition to the majority of post-release trade functions from the purview of port directors to Center directors.
This rule will generate costs and benefits to importers and related members of the trade. As outlined throughout this rule, the responsibilities of the trade community remain largely unchanged after the Centers' regulatory implementation. However, trade members may experience costs when filing a Center assignment appeal and when notifying a Center under amended 19 CFR 151.12(c)(5)-(6) and 19 CFR 151.13(b)(5)-(6) requirements.
As previously mentioned in the “Executive Order 13563 (Improving Regulation and Regulatory Review) and Executive Order 12866 (Regulatory Planning and Review)” section, importers will incur an opportunity cost of $30.05 per Center assignment appeal. With 60 appeals expected each year, the annual cost of Center assignment appeals to the entire trade community will equal $1,803. It is likely that some small entities will file Center assignment appeals, though the exact number is unknown. Regardless of the number of small entities impacted by this requirement, CBP does not believe that a cost of $30.05 to file a Center assignment appeal will amount to a “significant” level to these entities.
Under current regulations, CBP mandates Customs-accredited laboratories and Customs-approved gaugers to contact the port director and Executive Director on the matters described in 19 CFR 151.12(c)(5)-(6) and 19 CFR 151.13(b)(5)-(6). Given that CBP has not received any such notifications in the past 20 years, CBP assumes that this rule's added requirement to contact a Center director per 19 CFR 151.12(c)(5)-(6) and 19 CFR 151.13(b)(5)-(6)'s amendments will not impact a substantial number of small entities. In the event that a Customs-accredited laboratory or Customs-approved gauger considered “small” has to notify an additional CBP representative according to these regulatory changes, CBP does not believe that requiring one more phone call, letter, or email will cause a significant economic impact to the entity.
Besides costs, importers and related members of the trade will experience benefits from this rule, though the value of these benefits is unknown due to data limitations. The trade community will likely benefit from this rule's uniform post-release processing and decision-making, increased agency knowledge of industry practices and products, and improved communication with CBP, based on observations from the Centers test. CBP expects the Centers' uniform post-release processing and trade-related determinations to decrease administrative burdens on the trade, resulting in time and cost savings. This uniformity may also enhance the trade community's awareness of CBP's position on trade compliance issues, which may improve compliance and generate an unknown amount of subsequent savings to trade members in the future. The Centers' strengthened industry focus will likely enhance CBP-Trade relations, facilitate trade, and result in an improved ability to identify high-risk commercial importations that could increase import safety, increase revenue protection, and reduce economic loss associated with trade violations. By replacing port-by-port communication with communication with one Center, the Centers will serve as a single source for trade members to contact regarding such subjects as importing requirements, IPR or other trade violation reports, merchandise holds, and PGA issues. This sole communication source will eliminate the need for trade members to contact multiple CBP resources, which will likely produce additional time and cost savings. The Centers will also allow for enhanced communication between CBP and the trade community by offering extended hours of service compared to port of entry service hours, which may expedite trade. Despite their unknown value, CBP notes that the economic impact of these changes on small entities, if any, will be entirely beneficial.
Although CBP presumes that this rule will affect a substantial number of small entities, CBP does not believe that the
The Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3507(d)) requires that CBP consider the impact of paperwork and other information collection burdens imposed on the public. As this document does not involve any collections of information under the Act, the provisions of the Act are inapplicable.
The Administrative Procedure Act (APA) requires agencies to provide advance public notice and seek public comment on substantive regulations.
Pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 553(a)(2), public notice and the opportunity to provide public comment are inapplicable to matters relating to “agency management or personnel.” This interim final rule relates to agency management and personnel because it involves the transitioning of certain work functions from the port directors and the port director personnel to the Center directors and the Center director personnel.
Pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(A), rules of “agency organization, procedure, and practice” are also exempted from the notice-and-comment requirements of the APA. This interim final rule permanently creates the Centers, which have been operating under a test period that began in 2012 and have been implemented through
Finally, 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B) of the APA authorizes CBP to dispense with notice and comment requirements when CBP for good cause finds that notice and comment is “impracticable, unnecessary, or contrary to the public interest.” CBP has been operating the Centers as a test for several years pursuant to 19 CFR 101.9(a), which authorizes CBP to conduct test programs or procedures to evaluate the effectiveness of certain operational procedures. The Centers have been staffed with CBP employees who facilitate trade by providing account management for members in the identified industries; engaging in risk segmentation; and strengthening trade outreach. This interim final rule codifies CBP personnel adjustments and internal agency procedures that reflect a realignment of certain trade functions within CBP, rather than a substantive change in policy. Therefore, advance notice and comment is unnecessary.
This document is being issued in accordance with 19 CFR 0.2(a), which provides that the authority of the Secretary of the Treasury with respect to CBP regulations that are not related to customs revenue functions was transferred to the Secretary of Homeland Security pursuant to section 403(1) of the Homeland Security Act of 2002. Accordingly, this interim final rule to amend such regulations may be signed by the Secretary of Homeland Security (or his delegate).
Customs duties and inspection, Exports, Freight, Harbors, Maritime carriers, Oil pollution, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Vessels.
American Samoa, Coffee, Cuba, Customs duties and inspection, Guam, Guantanamo Bay Naval Station, Kingman Reef, Liquors, Midway Islands, Puerto Rico, Wake Island, Wine.
Caribbean Basin initiative, Customs duties and inspection, Exports, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Customs duties and inspection, Labeling, Packaging and containers.
Customs duties and inspection, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Accounting, Claims, Customs duties and inspection, Harbors, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Taxes.
Customs duties and inspection, Metals, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Customs duties and inspection, Harbors, Organization and functions (Government agencies), Seals and insignia, Vessels.
Canada, Customs duties and inspection, Imports, Mexico, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Trade agreements.
Administrative practice and procedure, Confidential business information, Courts, Freedom of information, Law enforcement, Privacy, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Common carriers, Customs duties and inspection, Exports, Freight, Laboratories, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Surety bonds.
Customs duties and inspection.
Copyright, Customs duties and inspection, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements Trade names, Trademarks.
Customs duties and inspection, Labeling, Packaging and containers.
Customs duties and inspection, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Canada, Customs duties and inspection, Mexico, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Customs duties and inspection, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Customs duties and inspection, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Warehouses.
Mail importations.
Administrative practice and procedure, Customs duties and inspection, Exports, Foreign trade zones, Penalties, Petroleum, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Customs duties and inspection, Fairs and expositions, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Surety bonds.
Cigars and cigarettes, Cotton, Customs duties and inspection, Fruit juices, Laboratories, Metals, Oil imports, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sugar, Wool.
Customs duties and inspection.
Customs duties and inspection, Exports, Freight, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Antidumping, Countervailing duties, Customs duties and inspection, Foreign currencies.
Customs duties and inspection, Exports, Law enforcement.
Administrative practice and procedure, Customs duties and inspection, Drug traffic control, Exports, Law enforcement, Marihuana, Penalties, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Search warrants, Seizures and forfeitures.
Administrative practice and procedure, Customs duties and inspection, Exports, Imports, Penalties, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Administrative practice and procedure, Customs duties and inspection.
Administrative practice and procedure, Customs duties and inspection.
Courts, Customs duties and inspection.
Administrative practice and procedure, Canada, Customs duties and inspection, Exports, Imports, Mexico, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Trade agreements.
5 U.S.C. 301; 19 U.S.C. 66, 1431, 1433, 1434, 1624, 2071 note; 46 U.S.C. 501, 60105.
Section 4.94a also issued under 19 U.S.C. 1484b;
19 U.S.C. 66, 1202 (General Note 3(i), Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States), 1623, 1624; 48 U.S.C. 1406i.
19 U.S.C. 66, 1202 (General Note 3(i), Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS)), 1321, 1481, 1484, 1498, 1508, 1623, 1624, 3314.
Sections 10.801 through 10.829 also issued under 19 U.S.C. 1202 (General Note 30, HTSUS) and Pub. L. 109-169, 119 Stat. 3581 (19 U.S.C. 3805 note).
Sections 10.861 through 10.890 also issued under 19 U.S.C. 1202 (General Note 31, HTSUS) and Pub. L. 109-283, 120 Stat. 1191 (19 U.S.C. 3805 note).
Sections 10.901 through 10.934 also issued under 19 U.S.C. 1202 (General Note 32, HTSUS), 19 U.S.C. 1520(d), and Pub. L. 110-138, 121 Stat. 1455 (19 U.S.C. 3805 note).
Sections 10.1001 through 10.1034 also issued under 19 U.S.C. 1202 (General Note 33, HTSUS), 19 U.S.C. 1520(d),
Sections 10.3001 through 10.3034 also issued under 19 U.S.C. 1202 (General Note 34, HTSUS), 19 U.S.C. 1520(d), and Pub. L. 112-42, 125 Stat. 462 (19 U.S.C. 3805 note).
(b) If any article entered under Chapter 98, subchapter XIII, Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States, is not exported or destroyed within the period of time during which articles may remain in the
5 U.S.C. 301; 19 U.S.C. 66, 1202 (General Note 3(i) and (j), Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States), 1624.
5 U.S.C. 301; 19 U.S.C. 66, 1202 (General Note 3(i), Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS)), 1624.
Sections 12.73 and 12.74 also issued under 19 U.S.C. 1484, 42 U.S.C. 7522, 7601;
(j)
5 U.S.C. 301; 19 U.S.C. 58a-58c, 66, 1202 (General Note 3(i), Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States), 1505, 1520, 1624; 26 U.S.C. 4461, 4462; 31 U.S.C. 3717, 9701; Pub. L. 107-296, 116 Stat. 2135 (6 U.S.C. 1
(a) * * *
(3)(i) An uncertified check drawn by an interested party on a national or state bank or trust company of the United States or a bank in Puerto Rico or any possession of the United States if such checks are acceptable for deposit by a Federal Reserve bank, branch Federal Reserve bank, or other designated depositary shall be accepted if there is on file with CBP a bond to secure the payment of the duties, taxes, fees, interest, or other charges, or if a bond has not been filed, the organization or individual drawing and tendering the uncertified check has been approved by an authorized CBP official to make payment in such manner. In determining whether an uncertified check shall be accepted in the absence of a bond, an authorized CBP official shall use available credit data obtainable without cost to the Government, such as that furnished by banks, local business firms, better business bureaus, or local credit exchanges, sufficient to satisfy him of the credit standing or reliability of the drawer of the check. For purposes of this paragraph, a customs broker who does not have a permit for the district (see the definition of “district” at § 111.1 of this chapter) where the entry is filed, is an interested party for the purpose of CBP's acceptance of such broker's own check, provided the broker has on file the necessary power of attorney which is unconditioned geographically for the performance of ministerial acts. CBP may look to the principal (importer) or to the surety should the check be dishonored.
Center directors, port directors, CBP cashiers, CBP officers, CBP dock tellers, and such other officers and employees as the Center director or port director will designate will receive Customs collections.
(c)
(2) Each application must include a declaration in substantially the following language:
I declare that I am not presently barred by CBP from using the deferred payment procedure for payment of estimated taxes upon imports of alcoholic beverages, and that if I am notified by a Center director to such effect I shall advise any future Center director where approval has been given to me to use such procedure.
(i)
19 U.S.C. 66, 1202 (General Note 3(i); Section XV, Note 5, Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States), 1623, 1624.
5 U.S.C. 301; 19 U.S.C. 2, 66, 1202 (General Note 3(i), Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States), 1623, 1624, 1646a.
The additions and revision read as follows:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(1) Current Center assignment;
(2) Preferred Center assignment;
(3) All affected Importer of Record (IOR) numbers and associated bond numbers;
(4) Written justification for the change in Center assignments; and
(5) Import data:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
19 U.S.C. 66, 1202 (General Note 3(i), Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States), 1624, 3314, 3592.
5 U.S.C. 301, 552, 552a; 19 U.S.C. 66, 1624; 31 U.S.C. 9701.
19 U.S.C. 66, 1623, 1624.
19 U.S.C. 66, 1202 (General Note 3(i), Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS)), 1623, 1624.
(a) * * *
4) * * *
(i) * * *
(A) An authorized CBP official may demand the return to Customs custody of the released merchandise in accordance with § 141.113 of this chapter;
(B) The Center director shall require the timely presentation to CBP, either at the port of entry or electronically, of the entry summary for consumption, or a withdrawal for consumption, with the estimated duties attached;
* * *
(ii) * * *
(A) The Center director shall require the timely presentation to CBP, either at the port of entry or electronically, of the entry summary for consumption, or a withdrawal for consumption, with estimated duties attached;
15 U.S.C. 1124, 1125, 1127; 17 U.S.C. 101, 601, 602, 603; 19 U.S.C. 66, 1202, 1499, 1526, 1624; 31 U.S.C. 9701. Sections 133.21 through 133.25 also issued under 18 U.S.C. 1905; Sec. 818(g), Pub. L. 112-81 (10 U.S.C. 2302).
5 U.S.C. 301; 19 U.S.C. 66, 1202 (General Note 3(i), Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States), 1304, 1624.
19 U.S.C. 66, 1448, 1484, 1498, 1624.
Subpart F also issued under 19 U.S.C. 1481;
Subpart G also issued under 19 U.S.C. 1505;
Unless a power of attorney specifically authorizes the agent to act thereunder at the appropriate Center and at all CBP ports, the name of the appropriate Center or each port where the agent is authorized to act thereunder shall be stated in the power of attorney. The power of attorney shall be filed with CBP, either at the port of entry or electronically, in a sufficient number of copies for distribution to the appropriate Center and each port where the agent is to act, unless exempted from filing by § 141.46. The Center director or port director with whom a power of attorney is filed, irrespective of whether his Center or port is named, shall approve it, if it is in the correct form and the provisions of this subpart are complied with, and forward any copies intended for other ports or another Center as appropriate.
19 U.S.C. 66, 1448, 1484, 1624.
19 U.S.C. 66, 1321, 1414, 1481, 1484, 1498, 1624, 1641.
19 U.S.C. 66, 1484, 1557, 1559, 1624.
(h)
19 U.S.C. 66, 1202 (General Note 3(i), Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States, 1624.
Section 145.12 also issued under 19 U.S.C. 1315, 1484, 1498;
19 U.S.C. 66, 81a-81u, 1202 (General Note 3(i), Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States), 1623, 1624.
19 U.S.C. 66, 1623, 1624, 1751-1756, unless otherwise noted.
All actual and necessary charges for labor, services, and other expenses in connection with the entry, examination, appraisement, custody, abandonment, destruction, or release of articles entered under the regulations of this part, together with the necessary charges for salaries of Customs officers and employees in connection with the accounting for, custody of, and supervision over, such articles, shall be reimbursed by the fair operator to the Government, payment to be made to CBP, either at the port of entry or electronically, on the port director's or Center director's demand made before January 19, 2017 or on the Center director's demand made on or after January 19, 2017, for deposit to the appropriation from which paid.
19 U.S.C. 66, 1202 (General Note 3(i) and (j), Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS)), 1624;
(c)
(b)
If the Center director is not satisfied with the results of any test provided for in § 151.71 or § 151.73, he may, within 14 calendar days after receiving the report of the results of such test, proceed to have another test made upon a suitable sample of the wool or hair at the expense of the Government. When the Center director is proceeding to have another test made, he shall, within the 14-day period specified in this paragraph, notify the importer by mail of that fact.
(c)
If the importer is dissatisfied with the port director's or Center director's determination made before January 19, 2017, or the Center director's determination made on or after January 19, 2017, he may file with the Center director, within 14 calendar days after the mailing of the notice, a written request in duplicate for a redetermination of the staple length. Each such request shall include a statement of the claimed staple length for the cotton in question and a clear statement of the basis for the claim. The request shall be granted if it appears to the Center director to be made in good faith. In making the redetermination of staple length, the Center director may obtain an opinion of a board of cotton examiners from the U.S. Department of Agriculture, if he deems such action advisable. All expenses occasioned by any redetermination of staple length, exclusive of the compensation of CBP officers, shall be reimbursed to the Government by the importer.
19 U.S.C. 66, 1401a, 1500, 1502, 1624;
Subpart C also issued under 19 U.S.C. 1503;
(c)
The Center director will furnish to importers the latest information as to values in his possession, subject to the following conditions:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
19 U.S.C. 66, 1624, unless otherwise noted. Subpart C also issued under 19 U.S.C. 1563.
(b)
19 U.S.C. 66, 1500, 1504, 1624.
(a)
(b)
5 U.S.C. 301; 19 U.S.C. 66, 1600, 1619, 1624.
5 U.S.C. 301; 19 U.S.C. 66, 1592, 1593a, 1624, 6 U.S.C. 101, 8 U.S.C. 1324(b).
5 U.S.C. 301; 19 U.S.C. 66, 1484, 1508, 1509, 1510, 1624.
(a) * * *
(2) * * *
(vii) The maintenance of any documentation that the importer may have in support of a claim for preferential tariff treatment under the United States-Singapore Free Trade Agreement (SFTA), including a SFTA importer's supporting statement if previously required by the port director or Center director before January 19, 2017, or the Center director on or after January 19, 2017.
IV. * * *
19 U.S.C. 66, 1501, 1520, 1624.
19 U.S.C. 66, 1514, 1515, 1624.
Section 174.21 also issued under 19 U.S.C. 1499.
A protest shall not be filed against the reliquidation decision of the port director or Center director made before January 19, 2017, or the reliquidation decision of the Center director made on or after January 19, 2017, upon any question not involved in the reliquidation.
A protesting party may seek further review of a protest in lieu of review by the Center director by filing, on the form prescribed in § 174.25, an application for such review within the time allowed and in the manner prescribed by § 174.12 for the filing of a protest. The filing of an application for further review shall not preclude a preliminary examination by the Center director for the purpose of determining whether the protest may be allowed in full. If such preliminary examination indicates that the protest would be denied in whole or in part by the Center director in the absence of an application for further review; however, he shall forward the protest and application for consideration in accordance with § 174.26.
R.S. 251, as amended, sec. 624, 46 Stat. 759; 19 U.S.C. 66, 1624, unless otherwise noted.
When an action is initiated in the Court of International Trade a copy of the summons will be served in the manner prescribed by the Court of International Trade upon the CBP official(s) who denied the protest(s), and an additional copy will be served upon the Assistant Chief Counsel for Court of International Trade Litigation, United States Customs and Border Protection, 26 Federal Plaza, New York, N.Y. 10007.
19 U.S.C. 66, 1202 (General Note 3(i), Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States), 1624, 3314;
(d) * * *
(1) * * *
(i) An importation of a good for which the port director or Center director before January 19, 2017, or the Center director on or after January 19, 2017, has in writing waived the requirement for a Certificate of Origin because the port director or Center director is otherwise satisfied that the good qualifies for preferential tariff treatment under the NAFTA;
(a)
Family and Youth Services Bureau (FYSB), Administration on Children, Youth and Families (ACYF), Administration for Children and Families (ACF), Department of Health and Human Services (HHS).
Final rule.
This final rule reflects existing statutory requirements in the Runaway and Homeless Youth Act and changes made via the Reconnecting Homeless Youth Act of 2008. More specifically, the rule establishes program performance standards for Runaway and Homeless Youth grantees providing services to eligible youth and their families. Revisions have been made to the rule regarding additional requirements that apply to the Basic Center, Transitional Living, and Street Outreach Programs, including non-discrimination, background checks, outreach, and training. Furthermore, the rule updates existing regulations to reflect statutory changes made to the Runaway and Homeless Youth Act, and updates procedures for soliciting and awarding grants. This final rule makes changes to the proposed rule published on April 14, 2014, and is in response to public comments recommending ways to improve the rule.
This final rule is effective January 19, 2017. However, compliance with the new performance standards is not required until the beginning of the next budget period after promulgation of this final rule.
Christopher Holloway, (202) 205-9560 (not a toll-free call). Deaf and hearing impaired individuals may call the Federal Dual Party Relay Service at 1-800-877-8339 between 8 a.m. and 7 p.m. Eastern Time.
This final rule is published under the authority granted to the Secretary of Health and Human Services by the Runaway and Homeless Youth Act (Title III of the Juvenile Justice and Delinquency Prevention Act of 1974), 42 U.S.C. 5701
The Runaway and Homeless Youth Act (“the Act”) authorizes three major grant programs administered by the Family and Youth Services Bureau (FYSB), Administration on Children, Youth and Families (ACYF), Administration for Children and Families (ACF), in the Department of Health and Human Services (HHS). These programs support local efforts to assist youth who have run away or are homeless.
The Basic Center Grant Program (hereafter referred to as the Basic Center Program) funds grants to community-based public and nonprofit private agencies (and combinations of such entities) to establish and operate local centers to provide services for runaway and homeless youth and for the families of such youth. Services provided include the provision of outreach, crisis intervention, temporary shelter, counseling, family unification, and aftercare services to runaway and homeless youth and their families. Basic Center projects generally serve youth under 18 years of age and can provide up to 21 days of shelter.
The Transitional Living Grant Program (hereafter referred to as the Transitional Living Program) provides grants to public and private organizations to establish and operate transitional living youth projects for homeless youth, including for community-based shelter including group homes, host family homes, and supervised apartments for youth, ages 16 to under 22, who cannot safely live with their own families. Transitional Living projects provide a safe, stable, and nurturing environment for up to 21 months. Young people who have not yet reached their 18th birthday at the end of the 21-month period may continue to receive services until they turn 18. Services include counseling in basic life skills, interpersonal skill building, educational advancement, job attainment skills, and physical and mental health care. These services are designed to help youth who are homeless develop the skills necessary to make a successful transition to self-sufficient living. The Transitional Living Program also funds Maternity Group Homes, which are specifically designed to meet the needs of pregnant and parenting youth.
The Sexual Abuse Prevention Program (hereafter referred to as the Street Outreach Program) provides grants to nonprofit private agencies for street-based outreach and education, including treatment, counseling, provision of information, and referrals for runaway, homeless, and street youth 21 years and younger who have been subjected to or are at risk of being subjected to sexual abuse, prostitution or sexual exploitation.
The Act also authorizes additional activities conducted through grants, including grants for research, evaluation, and service projects; grants for a national communications system to assist runaway and homeless youth in communicating with their families and service providers; and grants for technical assistance and training. This final rule covers all of these activities.
The Reconnecting Homeless Youth Act of 2008 (hereafter referred to as “the 2008 Act”) (Pub. L. 110-378) reauthorized the Runaway and Homeless Youth Act (hereafter referred to as “the Act”) through federal fiscal year (FY) 2013, and made a number of changes to the Act, including a requirement for the establishment of performance standards. Specifically, section 386A of the 2008 Act, Performance Standards, requires that: (1) HHS issue rules that specify performance standards; (2) HHS consult with grantees and national nonprofit organizations concerned with youth homelessness in developing those standards; and (3) HHS integrate the performance standards into the HHS processes for grant making, monitoring, and evaluation for the three major grant programs under the Act.
We have already implemented elements of these statutory mandates through funding opportunity announcements, technical assistance and training, and data collection. This final rule allows us to complete implementation of these legislative requirements. In addition, it will bring the program's codified regulations, last updated August 17, 2000 (65 FR 50139), into conformity with existing statutory provisions, the administrative and managerial procedures we already use in accordance with the 2008 Act, and previous statutory changes.
We intend to provide technical assistance to grantees that focuses on effective implementation of these performance standards, and to implement them as new budget periods begin, after promulgation of this final rule, rather than in the middle of an existing budget period.
In keeping with the requirements of the 2008 Act, the Family and Youth Services Bureau (FYSB) sought input from grantees and other stakeholders prior to the development of the proposed rule. In April 2009, FYSB conducted a consultation forum that brought together forty-four individuals including subject experts, technical assistance providers, Runaway and Homeless Youth (RHY) grantees, federal staff, persons with extensive program monitoring experience, and national, regional and statewide youth servicing organization representatives.
FYSB also obtained stakeholder perspectives and other information to inform the proposed rule in a number of additional ways. Since 2008, we have conducted national conferences bringing together all stakeholder groups and allowing for broad, informal exchanges of views. One such conference, the 2008 Runaway and Homeless Youth Grantee Conference was attended by 442 participants (including representatives from 252 grantee organizations) to share ideas, promising approaches, and best practices. Participants met in over 30 different workshops addressing both universal issues and specific programmatic needs of the three major RHY programs. Through the Runaway and Homeless Youth Training and Technical Assistance Centers, we have conducted an extensive training, technical assistance, and monitoring effort aimed not only at assisting grantees, but also at obtaining their feedback on operational issues. In tandem with these efforts, we conducted an in-depth review of existing regulatory and sub-regulatory issuances and developed a comprehensive set of on-site review materials, in use since February 2009.
These consultative processes provided valuable input that we used in formulating the performance and procedural standards. Importantly, the input we received emphasized that:
• The standards should promote an integrated, holistic approach to service delivery.
• The standards should be responsive to the complex social identities (
• The standards should serve as models for program quality and encourage programs to strive for excellence.
• The standards should achieve a balance between clarity and precision of regulatory intent and regulatory flexibility so that programs can be most responsive to local needs, settings, and circumstances.
• The standards should place emphasis on family-focused aspects of the program by strengthening links with local community providers, and helping families identify and address individualized goals.
• Standards of any kind—whether performance or procedural—should facilitate rather than impede local flexibility in creating and operating effective programs that respond to local needs and priorities.
• Standards should not unnecessarily impose burdensome requirements that would divert local resources away from service.
We retained these principles in developing the final rule. As we stated in the proposed rule, we believe that “Regular measurement of progress toward specified outcomes is a vital component of any effort at managing-for-results.” (Harry P. Hatry,
In the proposed rule preamble, we stated that we welcomed comments on whether our proposed standards struck the proper balance in meeting the objectives stated above, including measuring the most important program goals that are feasible to measure, preserving flexibility to grantees, and minimizing unnecessary burden. We asked for suggestions, particularly those supported by research or evaluative evidence, for improvements in the proposed standards. To assist in such comments, we provided specific regulatory text that commenters could review and suggest changes. As described later in this preamble, we received useful and detailed comments from individuals, providers, advocacy groups, government agencies, and others that have assisted us in making the decisions reflected in this final rule.
As a result of the consultative and rulemaking process, this final rule codifies a targeted number of process and procedural requirements in order to minimize burden to grantees and to provide grantees flexibility in meeting their performance standards and in dealing with unique circumstances in their communities. This final rule reflects that there are many effective practices that are best handled through technical assistance and training rather than established as regulatory standards.
We will work closely with our grantees in implementation of this final rule through our training and technical assistance activities to ensure they thoroughly understand the new standards and reporting requirements.
This final rule establishes Runaway and Homeless Youth Program Performance Standards to help assess the quality and effectiveness of the Runaway and Homeless Youth Program nationally by providing indicators of successful outcomes for youth. The performance standards will be used to monitor individual grantee performance in achieving the purposes of the Act. Program projects will also be subject to other requirements including other applicable regulations (
This final rule also makes largely technical changes to existing program rules to conform to current law and to correct outdated provisions. Equally important, it revises our regulatory provisions on making awards to reflect the performance standards and to reflect onsite review and monitoring procedures that have been in place for a number of years.
This final rule is effective 30 days after publication in the
We received 72 responsive and unique comments or sets of comments on the proposed rule, not including comments that were word-for-word identical. Multiple organizations and individuals endorsed several of these comment sets, and the total number of commenting individuals and organizations was about 300. About a dozen comments expressed overall support for the rule and made no specific suggestions for change.
Without exception, the substantive comments reflect an understanding of the many problems affecting runaway and homeless youth, and of the many challenges that arise in administering programs for these youth. This understanding was evident in not only comments from advocacy groups and other organized commenters, but also the comments from individual service providers and from concerned individuals. We were able to accommodate many, but not all, of the recommendations in these comments. In some cases, the statute gives us little or no flexibility to accept commenter recommendations. In other cases, we agree that the comment raises an important issue, but not that the issue can or should be addressed through this regulation. Many recommendations in the comments address issues that we believe are best addressed either in implementation guidance, in funding opportunity announcements, or in individual decisions by service providers themselves. Other issues raised involved the respective roles of federal and state governments, or of other agencies or programs involved in the lives of these youth (
We received a number of comments that did not address a particular section of the proposed rule either directly or by inference. We address those first.
More specifically, the ACF Policy on Grants to Faith-Based Organizations states the following: “This administration is committed to providing the full range of legally permissible services to people who need them, and to doing so in a timely fashion and in a manner that respects the diverse religious and cultural backgrounds of those we serve. At the same time, we also are committed to finding ways for organizations to partner with us even if they object to providing specific services on religious grounds.” The full policy can be found here:
The significant terms in § 1351.1 reflect current statutory terminology and operating practice. We proposed to revise a number of existing definitions, to add a number of definitions, to delete a few definitions that we do not believe are useful or necessary, and to change the format of the definitions. We requested comment on each new or revised definition. The additions and revisions are intended to reflect both recent changes to the statute and important practices in the administration of the program. The definitions section applies to all grants under the Act. Each individual definition only applies where it is applicable to each type of grant. We received comments on many, but not all, of the definitions.
We are leaving unchanged and as proposed the definitions on which we received no comments. These include the following terms: Act, client, drop-in center, drug abuse education and prevention services, runaway and homeless youth project, short-term training, state, supervised apartments, and technical assistance.
We received no comments on this definition and have retained it in this final rule.
We proposed to revise the definition of Aftercare to read: `Aftercare means additional services provided beyond the period of residential stay that offer continuity and supportive follow-up to youth served by the program.'
We proposed to delete the existing regulatory definition of “area” in the NPRM because a precise definition is not required for the purposes of the program. Receiving no comments, we have deleted it in this final rule.
We received a dozen unique comments on this definition and/or on the related requirement in proposed § 1351.20(l), which is numbered § 1351.23(j) in this final rule, (requirements that apply to all Runaway and Homeless Youth Program local services grants) that all grantees “shall conduct complete background checks on all employees and volunteers.” These comments represent in total over a hundred individuals and organizations. Most of the comments argued that the definition and/or requirement as worded were too broad and would be both expensive, time consuming (weeks for responses from some states), and disruptive of program operations.
Several commenters objected to subjecting volunteers to the same check as employees (
Several commenters asked whether the driving record check would apply only to those who transport youth. One commenter pointed out that some kinds of criminal backgrounds do not pose serious risk of harm to the grantee or clients, and asked for clarification that employment of such persons (who might have committed minor crimes as youth) not be prohibited. Several commenters noted that there was ambiguity as to what kind of national check might be required and several pointed out that at least one state performed an out-of-state check only for states in which the person has recently lived.
We do not agree with the comments that request background checks only include state records. Both state and national records are necessary for youth safety. However, we did revise the final rule to provide clarity on which background checks are required.
We did not address background check fees in this rule. We understand programs may bear costs associated with background checks and we encourage programs to use the resources available to them and consider ways to allocate funds differently to cover these costs.
In the interest of youth safety and to be mindful that all parties have an obligation to exercise due diligence, our proposed definition and related requirements for background checks have been revised in the final rule. We have revised the definition of background check for employees, consultants, contractors, and employment applicants to include: State or tribal criminal history records (including fingerprint checks); Federal Bureau of Investigation criminal history records including fingerprint checks, (to the extent FSYB determines this to be practicable and specifies the requirement in a Funding Opportunity Announcement that is applicable to a grantee's award); a child abuse and neglect registry check (to the extent FSYB determines this to be practicable and specifies the requirement in a Funding Opportunity Announcement that is applicable to a grantee's award); and a sex offender registries check.
The plans, procedures, and standards must identify background check findings that would disqualify an applicant from consideration for employment to provide services for which assistance is made available in accordance with this part. To further protect children's safety, in § 1351.20(l), which is numbered § 1351.23(j) in this final rule, we also require that programs document the justification for any hire where an arrest, pending criminal charge, or conviction is present.
In the NPRM, we proposed defining the term Budget Period as “
Case management is a central concept in serving client youth, and we proposed to add a definition to read: Case management means assessing the needs of the client and, as appropriate, arranging, coordinating, monitoring, evaluating, and advocating for a package of services to meet the specific needs of the client.
We did not receive any comments on this definition and therefore have retained the proposed definition in the final rule.
We proposed congregate care to read: Congregate care means a shelter type that combines living quarters and restroom facilities with centralized dining services, shared living spaces, and access to social and recreational activities.
Contacting homeless youth is a core function of the entire program, and the primary function of the Street Outreach Program. We proposed to define Contact to read: Contact means the engagement between Street Outreach Program staff and homeless youth in need of services that could reasonably lead to shelter or significant harm reduction. Closely related to this definition, and dependent on this definition, is § 1351.32, where we proposed as a performance measure for the Street Outreach Program the total number of contacts made by the project, giving the projects credit for repeatedly reaching youth.
Core competencies are essential in providing services that lead to improved outcomes for clients. We proposed to add a definition for core competencies of youth worker to read: Core competencies of youth worker means the ability to demonstrate skills in six domain areas: (1) Professionalism (including, but not limited to, consistent and reliable job performance, awareness and use of professional ethics to guide practice), (2) applied positive youth development approach (including, but not limited to, skills to develop a positive youth development plan and identifying the client's strengths in order to best apply a positive youth development framework), (3) cultural and human diversity (including, but not limited to, gaining knowledge and skills to meet the needs of clients of a different race, ethnicity, nationality, religion/spirituality, gender identity/expression, sexual orientation), (4) applied human development (including, but not limited to, understanding the needs of those at risk and with special needs), (5) relationship and communication (including, but not limited to, working with clients in a collaborative manner), and (6) developmental practice methods (including, but not limited to, utilizing methods focused on genuine relationships, health and safety, intervention planning).
We proposed to revise the definition of counseling services to include runaway prevention and intervention related services as follows: Counseling services means the provision of guidance, support, referrals for services including, but not limited to, health services, and advice to runaway or otherwise homeless youth and their families, as well as to youth and families when a young person is at risk of running away. These services are designed to alleviate the problems that have put a youth at risk of running away or contributed to his or her running away or being homeless. We received six unique comments on our proposed revision, several of them endorsed by many individuals or organizations.
Furthermore, based on a comment received urging ACF to specifically prohibit conversion therapy in § 1351.19 of the proposed rule we are adding a sentence to the definition of “counseling services” to specifically exclude conversion therapy and referrals to conversion therapy by adding language at the end of the definition that says “[a]ny treatment or referral to treatment that aims to change someone's sexual orientation, gender identity or gender expression is prohibited.” This change is described further in the comments to § 1351.19 of the proposed rule in this preamble.
We proposed to delete the existing regulatory definition of “Demonstrably frequented by or reachable”. The definition is unnecessary. No commenters raised any concern over this change and this final rule deletes it.
We received no comments on the proposed definition and have left it unchanged in the regulatory text.
Drug abuse education and prevention services are important, and are defined under that term in the Act (section 387(1)). We proposed to broaden the substance of the statutory definition in regulatory text to read: `Drug abuse education and prevention services means services to prevent or reduce drug and/or alcohol abuse by runaway and homeless youth, and may include (1) individual, family, group, and peer counseling; (2) drop-in services; (3) assistance to runaway and homeless youth in rural areas (including the development of community support groups); (4) information and training relating to drug and/or alcohol abuse by runaway and homeless youth to individuals involved in providing services to such youth; and (5) activities to improve the availability of local drug and/or alcohol abuse prevention services to runaway and homeless youth.' Our reasons for the broadening of this definition are two-fold. First, we note that the RHY statute explicitly contemplates services to address alcohol abuse in section 387(5). Second, the inclusion of alcohol abuse in addition to drug abuse is standard practice in the substance abuse field as is demonstrated in the definition used by the Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration: `substance abuse means the abuse of alcohol or other drugs.' We received no comments on this definition and it is retained as proposed.
In the proposed rule, the definition of health care services read: `Health care services means physical, mental, behavioral and dental health services and, in the case of Maternity Group Homes mean those provided to the child of the youth; and where applicable and allowable within a program, family or household members of the youth shall receive information on appropriate health related services.'
We proposed to follow the substance of the statutory definition (section 387(2)) of home-based services to read as follows: Home-based services means services provided to youth and their families for the purpose of preventing such youth from running away or otherwise becoming separated from their families and assisting runaway youth to return to their families. It includes services that are provided in the residences of families (to the extent practicable), including intensive individual and family counseling and training related to life skills and parenting.
Homeless youth is an essential definition because it identifies individuals eligible to be served under the Act. We proposed to revise the previous definition to read as follows, paraphrasing the Act (section 387(3)): `Homeless youth means an individual who cannot live safely with a parent, guardian or relative, and who has no other safe alternative living arrangement. For purposes of Basic Center Program eligibility, a homeless youth must be less than 18 years of age (or higher if allowed by a state or local law or regulation that applies to licensure requirements for child- or youth-serving facilities). For purposes of Transitional Living Program eligibility, a homeless youth cannot be less than 16 years of age and must be less than 22 years of age (unless the individual commenced his or her stay before age 22, and the maximum service period has not ended).'
The word “guardian” normally means an officially appointed legal guardian, but for consistency with other text we have added the word “legal” to our definition. We agree with the comment that “safe” and “safely” encompass avoiding mental (including emotional) and physical harm. We further note that Runaway and Homeless Youth projects must also serve youth at risk of running away or becoming homeless, which is particularly important when either physical or mental abuse or family instability is involved. Finally, while there are some instances in which state definitions of “youth homelessness” differ from federal law, the federal statutory language which governs RHY programs is very specific and cannot be amended without action from Congress. This definition aligns with the existing statutory language in the Act.
We proposed host family home to read: Host family home means a family or single adult home that provides shelter to a homeless youth.
Intake services are essential functions under the Act. We proposed to define intake to read: `Intake means a process for gathering information to assess eligibility and the services required to meet the immediate needs of the client.'
Extremely important in this program are interfaces between Runaway and Homeless Youth projects and the juvenile justice system. We received no comments on our proposed language but have recognized that only the term “juvenile justice system” is referenced in the Act and in other places in regulatory text. For this reason, we have deleted the words “institutions, or authorities” from the defined term.
In the proposed rule, we stated that “law enforcement structure” and “a locality” are definitions that are unnecessary in these regulations and accordingly we proposed to delete them. We received no comments on these proposals, and the final rule deletes these definitions.
For runaway and homeless youth who are pregnant or who have children, congregate or scattered-site maternity-related services are essential. Accordingly, we proposed: `Maternity group home means a community-based, adult-supervised transitional living arrangement where client oversight is provided on site or on-call 24 hours a day and that provides pregnant or parenting youth and their children with a supportive environment in which to learn parenting skills, including child development, family budgeting, health and nutrition, and other skills to promote their long-term economic independence and ensure the well-being of their children.'
We proposed to add a definition for outreach to read as follows: `Outreach means finding runaway, homeless, and street youth, or youth at risk of becoming runaway or homeless, who might not use services due to lack of awareness or active avoidance, providing information to them about services and benefits, and encouraging the use of appropriate services.' Outreach includes low-barrier services such as food packs and personal hygiene packs.
We include risk and protective factors under the list of technical assistance or short-term training that may be determined as necessary by HHS as a condition of funding. Therefore, we proposed a definition of risk and protective factors to read: `Risk and protective factors mean those factors that are measureable characteristics of a youth that can occur at multiple levels, including biological, psychological, family, community, and cultural levels, that precede and are associated with an outcome. Risk factors are associated with higher likelihood of problematic outcomes, and protective factors are associated with lower likelihood of problematic outcomes. While we received no comments on this change, it was deemed appropriate to frame protective factors as positive impact outcomes and so we have made minor wording changes to reflect that protective factors are associated with a higher likelihood of positive outcomes. We made other minor changes in order to mirror the definition used across the
Another core statutory term is runaway youth. We proposed to update the existing definition to reflect the Act (section 387(4)) and to read: Runaway youth means an individual under 18 years of age who absents himself or herself from home or a place of legal residence without the permission of a parent or legal guardian.
We received no comments on the proposed definition and it is unchanged in the final rule.
We proposed to add a definition of Safe and Appropriate Settings When Exiting Basic Center Program Services or Transitional Living Program Services. The proposed definition said that Safe and Appropriate Settings When Exiting Basic Center Program Services or Transitional Living Program Services means settings that reflect achievement of the intended purposes of the Basic Center and Transitional Living Programs as outlined in section 382(a) of the Act. Safe and appropriate settings when exiting Basic Center Program Services or Transitional Living Program Services are
• To another shelter;
• to the street;
• to a private residence, other than a youth who is staying stably with family, if the youth is not paying rent;
• to another residential program if the youth is not paying rent or if the youth's transition to the other residential program was unplanned;
• to a correctional institute or detention center if the youth became involved in activities that lead to this exit after entering the program;
• to an unspecified other living situation; or
• to a living situation that is not known.
By defining “Safe and Appropriate Settings when exiting Basic Center Program services or Transitional Living Program services,” our intent was to move the field beyond just finding a place for the youth to stay. However, as discussed in the following responses to the several dozen comments we received, all requesting clarifications or changes to the proposed definition, we have made significant changes to the definition in the final rule. Almost all commenters found the proposed limitations on safe and appropriate settings to be inconsistent with commonly used best practices and some desirable outcomes. Some of these commenters also raised concerns about achieving performance standards with such restrictions in the definition.
We also proposed to define a service plan, sometimes called a treatment plan, to read: Service plan or treatment plan means a written plan of action based on the assessment of client needs and strengths and engagement in joint problem solving with the client that identifies problems, sets goals, and describes a strategy for achieving those goals. To the extent possible, the plan should incorporate the use of evidence-based or evidence-informed interventions.
We received no comments and the final rule contains the proposed definition unchanged.
We did not receive any comments and have left this definition unchanged in the final rule.
We proposed to define street youth to read: `Street youth means an individual who is a runaway youth or an indefinitely or intermittently homeless youth who spends a significant amount of time on the street or in other areas that increase the risk to such youth for sexual abuse, sexual exploitation, prostitution, or drug and/or alcohol abuse. For purposes of this definition, youth means an individual who is age 21 or less.' This definition reflects the statutory language from the Act (section 387(6)).
We received no comments on the definition of `supervised apartments' and have left the regulatory text unchanged in this final rule.
We received no comments on this definition and have left it unchanged in the final rule.
Finally, we proposed to update the definition of temporary shelter to read: `Temporary shelter means all shelter settings in which runaway and homeless youth are provided room and board, crisis intervention, and other services on a 24-hour basis for up to 21 days.'
We also received a number of comments suggesting that we add definitions to the final rule. We address these suggestions below.
The previous rule contained a number of sections dealing with the purposes of the program, eligibility for grants, priority for grants, matching requirements, the period of grant awards, allowable costs, application procedures, criteria for grant funding decisions, and additional information for grantees. We proposed revisions to all of these sections as well as to the title of the subpart to be Runaway and Homeless Youth Program Grants. These sections apply to all grants under the program.
Currently § 1351.10 asks, “What is the purpose of the Runaway and Homeless Youth Program grant?” We proposed to re-title this section “What is the purpose of Runaway and Homeless Youth Program grants?” This change in title reflects the growth of the program over time from the core Basic Center Program to a broader range of grant types and purposes. Relatedly, we proposed to amend the statement of purpose to emphasize not only transitional living services and other services added in recent years, but also the increasing emphasis on prevention and identifying the vulnerability of these youth. Under the proposal, the purpose of Runaway and Homeless Youth Program grants would be to establish or strengthen community-based projects to provide runaway prevention, outreach, shelter, and transition services to runaway, homeless, or street youth or youth at risk of running away or becoming homeless. We stated that youth who have become homeless or who leave and remain away from home without parental permission are disproportionately subject to serious health, behavioral, and emotional problems.
The existing rule asks in § 1351.11 “Who is eligible to apply for a Runaway and Homeless Youth Program grant?” The eligibility requirements of the program have not changed significantly over the years but we proposed changes to this section to conform the regulatory language to the current statute. We proposed to state that all `public (state and local) and private non-profit entities, and coordinated networks of such entities, are eligible to apply for a Runaway and Homeless Youth Program grant unless they are part of the law enforcement structure or the juvenile justice system.' While specific regulatory language is not needed, we pointed out that most faith-based organizations meet the regulatory definition of non-profit. We received no comments on this section. However, because we are removing the definition of “law enforcement structure” in this final rule, we have deleted the reference to “law enforcement structure” in this section.
The existing regulation addresses priority for awards. In consideration of the numerous comments and varying points of view on these issues, we proposed significant and streamlined changes to the language regarding grant award priorities in § 1351.12. We received more than a half dozen unique comments on the proposed priorities and on ways to improve or refine them.
In paragraph (b), for the Transitional Living Program, we added language from section 322(b) of the Act for prioritizing grants which says “[i]n selecting eligible applicants to receive grants under this part, the Secretary shall give priority to entities that have experience in providing to homeless youth shelter and services of the types described in subsection (a)(1)”, which references Transitional Living Programs.
In paragraph (c), we have added language from section 351(b) of the Act which says that in selecting applicants to receive grants under the Street Outreach Program, the Secretary shall give priority to public and nonprofit private agencies that have experience in providing services to runaway and homeless and street youth.
In paragraph (d), for the national communications system, we have added language that follows section 331 of the Act with a slight modification. The
In paragraph (e), to prioritize grants for research, evaluation, demonstration and service projects, we added language to this section in accordance with section 343(b) and (c) of the Act.
In paragraph (f), we added language to specify that the performance standards will be integrated into the grantmaking, monitoring, and evaluation processes for the Basic Center Program, Transitional Living Program, and the Street Outreach Program. We also indicated that specific details about how performance standards will be considered, along with examples of performance documentation, will be provided in the annual funding opportunity announcements.
To be clear, a grant application in an amount larger than $200,000 from a project with demonstrated or likely superior performance can indeed receive an award.
We also understand that serving disadvantaged youth can require additional financial investment. We want to emphasize our dedication to ensuring that all youth are served, including LGBTQ youth (as noted by the commenter) and youth who have experienced adverse circumstances, including physical and mental abuse, drug use, human trafficking, and other circumstances. We will address additional criteria for prioritizing grants to serve these vulnerable young people within our annual FOAs.
Based on comments received and for clarity, we have revised the final rule language in this section to mirror the language in the Act.
We proposed a change to § 1351.13 regarding matching share. The previous regulatory language conflicted with the updated statute on the amount of funding required by grantees to satisfy the match requirement. The previous language required a non-federal match amount which was at least equal to 10 percent of the federal funds received. To align the statute and the regulations, we proposed that the federal share of the project represents 90 percent of the total project cost supported by the federal government, thus the remaining 10 percent represents the required project match cost by the grantee. This may be a cash or in-kind contribution.
We note that the language of the statute is phrased in terms implying an exact 10 percent matching share, but HHS has always taken the position that the language should not be interpreted to prevent grantees from spending additional funds from their own resources. We received no comments on these proposed changes and have left them unchanged in the final rule.
We did not propose changes to § 1351.14, providing that the period for which a grant will be awarded is generally one year, renewable annually. We received no comments on this section and have left it unchanged.
We proposed minor changes to update the language under § 1315.15 to more fully describe costs allowed under Runaway and Homeless Youth Program grants. Costs that can be supported include, but are not limited to, staff training and core services such as outreach, intake, case management, data collection, temporary shelter, transitional living arrangements, referral services, counseling services, and aftercare services. We proposed to retain the existing prohibition against acquisition or renovation costs that exceed 15 percent of the grant award, subject to potential waiver. We also proposed adding language that clarifies that research and evaluation, communications, and technical assistance grants are allowable costs that pertain to their unique purposes.
We proposed a change to the language under § 1351.16, now § 1351.16(a) of the final rule, that currently states only that capital costs for new facilities are not allowed under Runaway and Homeless Youth Program grants. We proposed retaining this prohibition and also explicitly prohibiting payment for the operating costs of existing community centers or other facilities that are used partially or incidentally for services to runaway or homeless youth clients. This does not mean that a reasonable fraction of utility or other overhead costs could not be charged to our grant when a facility provides multiple services, but it does mean that such fraction would have to be based on a reasonable cost allocation method approved by HHS, such as proportion of square footage devoted exclusively to each service in the facility. Separable costs of the Runaway and Homeless Youth project are, of course, fully reimbursable. The reason for this clarification is that we have seen proposed project budgets that include disproportionate allocations of facility-wide or overhead costs to
However, we have revised the final rule by adding a new § 1351.16(b) that states, “A Runaway and Homeless Youth Program grant does not cover any treatment or referral to treatment that aims to change someone's sexual orientation, gender identity or gender expression.” This is further discussed later in the preamble.
The current rule under § 1351.17 provides that HHS will publish program announcements of availability of grant funds annually in the
Under existing § 1351.18 we listed a number of criteria that we use for deciding which grant applications to fund. We proposed small technical changes to these criteria.
Under paragraph (a) we proposed to retain the criteria that proposed projects meet funding priorities. We also added a clause making specific reference to our use of FOAs to establish specific details of the broad requirements, standards, and evaluation criteria contained in the proposed rule. Under the proposal, in reviewing applications, HHS would take into consideration whether the grant application meets the particular priorities, requirements, standards, or evaluation criteria established in funding opportunity announcements. We renumbered these criteria accordingly.
In paragraph (b), we proposed to modify and combine the current requirements of paragraphs (b) and (c) for demonstrating “need” to require that the likely estimated number of unserved runaway and homeless youth in the area exceed the capacity of existing services. That is, we would not require a census-like count of such youth, but merely a reasonable estimate that the number of such youth exceeds the capacity of existing services.
We received no comments on subsections (a) or (b) and the proposed text in these subsections are unchanged in the final rule.
Under proposed paragraph (c), we proposed to retain the existing requirement that runaway and homeless youth centers maintain a minimum residential capacity of four and a maximum of 20 youth in a single structure (except where the applicant assures that the state where the center or locally controlled facility is located has a state or local law or regulation that requires a higher maximum to comply with licensure requirements for child and youth serving facilities as authorized in § 312(b)(2) of the Act) for all youth residing at the shelter on any given night. We proposed to clarify that the capacity standards apply only to grants that include such centers. We also proposed to revise the regulation to require centers to have the number of staff sufficient to assure adequate supervision of and treatment for the number of clients served rather than a mandatory ratio of staff to clients. This change is for consistency with the statute at section 312(b)(2)(B) of the Act. While we are not aware of any uniform best practice for establishing such a ratio, an agency would refer to state laws and licensing regulations as they pertain to runaway and homeless youth shelters for guidelines. If no runaway and homeless youth shelter laws and licensing regulations have been established in a state, the agency would refer to state child welfare laws and regulations for youth. Agencies would be required to cite the guidelines they are following for the staff ratios they deem to be appropriate. To clarify this, we have added language to paragraph (c) to say that criteria used when determining which grant applications to fund must consider the guidelines followed for determining the appropriate staff ratio.
Under paragraph (d), we proposed to slightly modify the criteria under current paragraph (e) removing the language concerning the 72-hour timeframe from admission for the program to make contact with family. The requirement is contained in Subpart C, at new § 1351.24(e).
We received six unique comments on this section, and address the concerns of these commenters separately below.
As for the comments suggesting that we revise the text concerning best interest of the child to more clearly indicate that alternative living arrangements (not just to return home or to law enforcement) are an option that will sometimes be in the best interest of the child, we agree that alternative living arrangements should be considered when developing plans for Basic Center grantees. We have modified the language to cite the statute more closely, which says in section 312(b)(3) that such grantees “shall develop adequate plans for contacting the parents or other relatives of the youth and ensuring the safe return of the youth according to the best interests of the youth, for contacting local government officials pursuant to informal arrangements established with such officials by the runaway and homeless youth center, and for providing for other appropriate alternative living arrangements.”
We proposed to retain the language in paragraphs (f) through (h) of the previous version of this regulation and renumber them (e) through (g). This language ensures that HHS criteria for deciding which RHY grant applications to fund include:
(e) Plans for the delivery of aftercare or counseling services to runaway or otherwise homeless youth and their families;
(f) Whether the estimated cost to HHS for the Runaway and Homeless Youth project is reasonable considering the anticipated results; and
(g) Whether the proposed personnel are well qualified and the applicant agency has adequate facilities and resources.
We added a new paragraph (h) to ensure that HHS criteria for deciding which RHY grant applications to fund includes past performance on a RHY grant, including but not limited to program performance standards. In fact, paragraph (h) clearly states our intent to consider a grantee's past performance, including measures associated with the performance standards outlined in §§ 1351.30, 1351.31, and 1351.32, when deciding which RHY grantee applications to fund.
Paragraphs (i) and (j) outline funding criteria for whether the proposed project design, if well executed, is capable of attaining program objectives. The paragraphs also outline funding criteria for whether the grant application is consistent with the provisions of the Act and these regulations. These paragraphs were unchanged. A new paragraph (k) was proposed to include other factors as outlined in the funding opportunity announcements.
After reviewing comments, the final rule has expanded upon § 1351.19 of the proposed rule to provide clarity by separating the section into §§ 1351.20 through 1351.22 in subpart A of the final rule. This is discussed in detail below. Under the previous rule, § 1351.19 contains a list of other rules and regulations that apply to applicants for, or recipients, of program funds. These include, for example, regulations concerning civil rights obligations of recipients and regulations concerning fraud, waste, and abuse. We proposed amending that rule to include additional rules that also are specifically intended to apply to all HHS grantees or, in some cases, to all federal grantees.
The expanded list under proposed paragraph (a) included rules related to civil rights requirements, to other client protections, to administrative requirements in HHS grant programs, and to preventing fraud or abuse. This expanded list does not attempt to list all of the federal laws and regulations (
A preceding clause at § 1351.20 includes references to 45 CFR part 86 and 92, both which prohibit discrimination on the basis of sex, which includes gender identity. The former rule, at 45 CFR 86.31, applies to education programs or activities that are carried out under various HHS-funded grant programs including RHY grants. The latter rule, at 45 CFR part 92, applies to the provision of mental health counseling and other health activities carried out by the RHY programs.
Section 1351.20 of the final rule lists fourteen codified regulations that apply or potentially apply to all federal grantees (as applicable). Title 42 U.S.C. 18116 was enacted in 2010 and conforming regulations were issued on May 18, 2016 at 45 CFR part 92, entitled “Nondiscrimination in Health Programs and Activities,” which implements the prohibition of discrimination under section 1557 of the Affordable Care Act (ACA) of 2010. These regulations prohibit discrimination on the basis of sex, including gender identity in HHS-funded health programs or activities. To the extent that an RHY grantee operates health programs or activities, any part of which receives federal financial assistance, section 1557 and the corresponding regulations under 45 CFR part 92 will apply to that health program or activity.
For these reasons we revised our list of regulations that apply or potentially apply to Runaway and Homeless Youth Program grantees to include 45 CFR part 92.
Additionally, we have revised “counseling services” and “health care
Conversion therapy is a controversial practice and a number of states, including Oregon, California, New Jersey and Washington, DC, have passed laws in recent years banning it. In 2001, U.S. Surgeon General issued a report stating that “there is no valid scientific evidence that sexual orientation can be changed.”
With respect to the Basic Center Program, section 312(b)(7) of the Act is clear that grantees “shall keep adequate statistical records profiling the youth and family members whom it serves (including youth who are not referred to out-of-home shelter services), except that records maintained on individual runaway and homeless youth shall not be disclosed without the consent of the individual youth and parent or legal guardian to anyone other than another agency compiling statistical records or a government agency involved in the disposition of criminal charges against an individual youth. Reports or other documents based on such statistical records shall not disclose the identity of individual runaway and homeless youth.”
For youth in Transitional Living Programs, section 322(a)(13) of the Act requires grantees “not to disclose records maintained on individual homeless youth
Section 384 of the Act reads: “Records containing the identity of individual youth pursuant to this Act may under no circumstances be disclosed or transferred to any individual or to any public or private agency.” It is important to note that there are exceptions to this provision. For example, as noted previously, records may be released after proper consent of youth or parent/guardian. Further, de-identified information can be released for research purposes. De-identified is a technical term that applies to methods commonly used in sensitive research to prevent identification of individuals from a dataset. For example, names might be replaced by numbers (often much more complex steps need to be taken as well). This is further explained in the response to the comment below. We have changed the regulatory text to reflect these statutory requirements.
We did not receive any comments on paragraphs (a)(2) through (a)(4) and therefore did not make any changes to the proposed text in this final rule.
Section 1351.19(b)(5) proposed requirements that grantees serve, in a non-discriminatory fashion, individual needs of youth without regard to language, gender, or LGBTQ status, and to be “culturally sensitive and respectful of the complex social identities of youth,” including “religion/spirituality, gender identity/expression, sexual orientation, socioeconomic status, disability, language, beliefs, values, behavior patterns, or customs” as well as race and physical abilities. The inclusion of the term “behavior patterns” in this section will of course not prevent grantees from determining ineligible for services youth with a history or criminal record that poses a potential safety risk to other youth in the grantee's care.
We specifically do not intend this change to reference the CLAS voluntary guideline standards of the U.S. Public Health Service, which as previously explained are inappropriate for a number of reasons (
We emphasize that the language of this final rule is in no way intended to create new individual rights. Civil rights for individuals served by HHS programs are enforced through the Office for Civil Rights under its regulations and guidance and in compliance with federal civil rights law. Grantees who are unfamiliar with these laws and regulations should review our list of civil rights and other regulations that apply to HHS grantees but that are administered by other agencies.
However, we do agree that “age” and “cognitive” ability, as well as “physical ability,” should be included in paragraph (a). We have made these changes in the final rule.
As discussed in the previous section of this preamble, the final rule expands on § 1351.19 of the proposed rule and provisions of this section have been reorganized in §§ 1351.20 through 1351.22 to address, “What Government-
We requested comments on whether there is substantial evidence that these or any other requirements not proposed here would improve program outcomes, either overall or for each type of grant, at reasonable effort and cost. We also requested comment on whether placing either the proposed standards or additional standards in funding opportunity announcements rather than in regulations would allow sufficient flexibility to grantees or would hinder our ability to use targeted initiatives to improve program practices.
Under § 1351.20(a), we proposed revising the language requiring grantees to participate in technical assistance and training in order to allow flexibility in which techniques will be used, and proposed clarifying that grantees must also accept monitoring. This list of technical assistance and training options reflected primarily the evolution and expansion over the years of the training and technical assistance program, and the items listed are all conducted currently under the program. Requirements we proposed to add are core competencies for youth workers, core support services, cultural and linguistic diversity, background checks, ethics, and staff safety. In particular, we proposed positive youth development as a priority area for training or technical assistance. Under our proposal, grantees would participate in technical assistance or short-term training as a condition of funding, as determined necessary by HHS, in areas such as, but not limited to:
• Aftercare services or counseling;
• Background checks;
• Core competencies of youth workers;
• Core support services;
• Crisis intervention techniques;
• Cultural and linguistic diversity;
• Development of coordinated networks of private nonprofit agencies and/or public agencies to provide services;
• Ethics and staff safety;
• Fiscal management;
• Low cost community alternatives for runaway or otherwise homeless youth;
• Positive youth development;
• Program management;
• Risk and Protective Factors related to youth homelessness;
• Screening and assessment practices;
• Shelter facility staff development;
• Special populations (tribal youth; LGBTQ; intersex youth; youth with disabilities; youth victims of trafficking, sexual exploitation or sexual abuse),
• Trauma and the effects of trauma on youth;
• Use of evidence-based and evidence-informed interventions;
• Youth and family counseling; and
• Confidentiality policies and protocols.
This is a substantial addition but one that we believe is useful to reflect the current set of policy and program priorities as set forth in the Act and in the program solicitations and management improvements that have been made in the overall program in recent years. Virtually all of these proposed provisions were derived from specific statutory mandates and are already part of standard operating procedures. Many participants in our consultative process also suggested most of these items, reflecting the general consensus as to their importance in operating effective services. We received six comments on this subsection.
To clarify this provision further, we have added a sentence at the end of paragraph (a) that highlights that this it is not a requirement that every staff person receive training in every subject but all youth-serving workers on staff should receive training sufficient to meet the stated core competencies of youth workers. This training is offered by ACF.
ACF will provide the development of the curriculum for all training and technical assistance as well as provide access to courses and materials. The vast majority of these trainings will be available on the internet. We hope that this will provide the greatest flexibility for our grantees.
If for any reason, a staff member is not able to participate in the training from the federal government, the grantee can provide its own training based on the ACF materials.
Additionally, grantees are expected to provide in-house training to new hires on some of the most critical responsibilities, without waiting for the next available Runaway and Homeless Youth Training and Technical Assistance Center (RHYTTAC) course. Some kinds of training or technical assistance, beyond core competencies, may be mandated for all grantees in funding opportunity announcements, in other cases only for those identified as needing help.
In still other cases, grantees will request help in particular areas. ACF offers different formats and levels of training within a variety of subjects, allowing quick training for many and in-depth training for few. More information about these resources is available at our online Runaway and Homeless Youth Training and Technical Assistance Center (see:
Under § 1351.20(b), we proposed minor technical revisions to update the existing provision requiring coordination with the National Runaway Safeline. Under our proposal, grantees shall coordinate their activities with the 24-hour national toll-free communication system, which links Runaway and Homeless Youth projects and other service providers with runaway or otherwise homeless youth, as appropriate to the specific activities provided by the grantee. At present, this system is called the National Runaway Safeline, its Web site is
Under § 1351.20(c), we proposed a technical revision to the reporting provision to require grantees to submit statistical reports that profile the clients served and that provide management and performance information in accordance with guidance provided by HHS. Such data submission was handled through the Runaway and Homeless Youth Management Information System (RHYMIS) and is now being handled through an integrated RHYMIS/HUD Management Information System (HMIS). While these information systems are a major innovation and improvement tool in program data collection, updating the regulatory reference is a minor change from a regulatory perspective. The existing rule quotes specific statutory language in place when the rule was written. The Act now contains additional requirements (see in particular sections 312(b)(7) and (8), and section 322(a)(9)). For example, it explicitly states that Runaway and Homeless Youth projects “shall keep adequate statistical records profiling the youth and family members whom it serves,” that grantees “shall submit annual reports to the Secretary detailing how the center has been able to meet the goals of its plans,” and that grantees shall submit “statistical summaries describing . . . the number and characteristics of the runaway and homeless youth . . . who participate . . . and the services provided to such youth.” We proposed to revise this section to require appropriate reporting and to delete specific quotations from the Act.
We proposed adding a new regulatory requirement for outreach for the three major grant programs. Outreach is a key statutory requirement of these programs. We proposed in § 1351.20(d) that grantees perform outreach to locate runaway and homeless youth, and to coordinate activities with other organizations serving the same or similar clients.
We requested comments on the following two proposed requirements. First, under paragraph (e), we proposed that grantees shall develop and implement a plan for addressing youth who have run away from foster care placement or correctional institutions and for returning those youth appropriately to the responsible organizations, in accordance with federal, state, or local laws or regulations that apply to these situations.
Second, under § 1351.20(f) of the proposed rule, we proposed that grantees take steps to ensure that youth who are under the legal jurisdiction of
We proposed to codify three provisions focused on the need to serve youth outside the program, which have previously been included in RHY funding opportunity announcements. Under proposed § 1351.20(g), which in the final rule is § 1351.26(a), grantees shall develop and implement an aftercare plan, covering at least six months, to stay in contact with youth who leave the program in order to ensure their ongoing safety. A youth's individual aftercare plan shall outline what services were provided, including appropriate referrals for needed health care services, the youth's housing status, and the rate of participation and completion of the services in the plan at three months and at six months after exiting the program. In § 1351.20(h), which in the final rule is § 1351.26(b), we proposed that grantees shall develop and implement a plan for health care service referrals for youth during the service and aftercare periods. Under proposed § 1351.20(i), which in the final rule is § 1351.26(c), we proposed that grantees shall assist youth to stay connected with their schools or to obtain appropriate educational services. This includes coordination with McKinney-Vento school district liaisons, designated under the McKinney-Vento Homeless Assistance Act, to assure that runaway and homeless youth are provided information about the services available under that Act. Under that law, which is the primary piece of federal legislation dealing with the education of homeless children in U.S. public schools, school districts are required to provide equal access to the same free, appropriate public education provided to other children and youth and to undertake additional steps as needed for such access. For example, school districts must identify potential barriers to the education of homeless youth, and homeless youth may not be segregated from other students. We received almost 24 unique comments on these proposed requirements, some of which represented individuals, while others represented several hundred individuals and/or organizations.
In addition, we have added the requirement in section 312(b)(5) of the Act that, as possible, Basic Center program grantees should provide counseling and aftercare services to youth who are returned beyond the state in which a runaway and homeless youth services is located, as possible.
The Act, at sections 312(b)(13) and 322(a)(16), specifically requires grantees to develop emergency plans. We proposed to adopt this requirement under § 1351.20(j) of the proposed rule by requiring that grantees develop and
In § 1351.20(k), which is numbered § 1351.23(h) in this final rule, we clarify that shelters operated by grantees must meet any applicable state or local licensure requirements, and that grantees determine that any shelters to which they regularly refer clients also meet such requirements. We did not propose to establish as a federal requirement that grantees meet any other state or local laws.
We have revised the regulatory language to require grantees to report to HHS instances when they fail to meet licensing requirements or lose their license. The rule now states, “grantees shall promptly report to HHS instances in which shelters are cited for failure to meet licensure or related requirements, or lose licensure. For grantee-operated facilities, failure to meet any applicable state or local legal requirements as a condition of operation may be grounds for grant termination”.
Under § 1351.20(l), which is numbered § 1351.23(j) in this final rule, we initially proposed to require that all employees and volunteers be subject to a broad range of background checks for criminality and suitability (see the definition of background check). We also proposed to require that all adult host homes occupants be subjected to criminal and child abuse checks.
We point out that the rule also requires training in a number of subjects, including the administration and use of background checks that will cover cases such as these. Also, while we note that the requirement in the rule does not propose a specific standard or criterion for “passing” a background check, grantees should have a set of “passing” criteria in place. In this regard, we note there are issues of fiduciary stewardship such as potential embezzlement, not just crimes such as rape or assault that may be identified by background checks.
In the final rule, we did not limit background checks to the state of the grantee, as suggested by several commenters. Instead we are requiring state or tribal criminal history records including fingerprint checks as well as Federal Bureau of Investigation criminal history records including fingerprint checks, to the extent FSYB determines this to be practicable and specifies the requirement in a Funding Opportunity Announcement that is applicable to a grantee's award. The federal background check will provide RHY providers with critical information about both in-state and out-of-state histories of prospective employees and volunteers. Criminal activity may not be limited to one state, and not all states share information through reciprocal agreements. As such, limiting a background check to only a single state could miss important criminal history. We also are aware that there may be complications or challenges with securing federal background checks. The background check requirements also include a child abuse and neglect state registry check (to the extent FSYB determines this to be practicable and specifies the requirement in a Funding Opportunity Announcement that is applicable to a grantee's award), sex offender registries checks, and other checks required by state or local law. The essence of the final requirement is that grantees are responsible for developing plans and procedures that reasonably protect youth while minimizing unnecessary costs and burden while allowing for effective services.
Under proposed § 1351.20(m), which is numbered § 1351.23(a) in this final rule, positive youth development (PYD), which has been a central framework of the program for years, would be required. PYD emphasizes:
• Healthy messages to adolescents about their bodies, behaviors, interpersonal relationships, and interactions;
• Safe and structured places for teens to study, recreate, and socialize;
• Strong relationships with adult role models;
• Skill development in literacy competence, work readiness, and social skills; and
• Opportunities for youth to serve others and build self-esteem.
Runaway and Homeless Youth projects that adopt these principles provide the youth they serve with opportunities for positive use of time, for positive self-expression and self-development, and for constructive civic and social engagement. Accordingly, we proposed under this section to require PYD on a program-wide basis. Under this paragraph, grantees must utilize and integrate into the operation of their projects the principles of positive youth development, including healthy messages, safe and structured places, adult role models, skill development, and opportunities to serve others.
We preface § 1351.23(a) of this final rule with the statement that there are numerous other possible requirements related to positive youth development that could have been included in this section of the final rule. We did not propose such additional requirements for three reasons. First, it is difficult to craft requirements that do not unduly constrain grantee flexibility by imposing a “one size fits all” approach that does not in fact reasonably apply to particular grantees, particular situations, or particular staff. Second, such requirements almost by necessity create burdens,
To this end, we have included language in § 1351.22(l) in this final rule, stating that grantees must provide such other services and meet such additional requirements as HHS determines are necessary to carry out the purposes of the statute, as appropriate to the services and activities for which they are funded. These services and requirements will be articulated in the funding opportunity
Language has been moved from § 1351.22(b) to § 1351.23(m) as it applies to all programs, stating that nothing in this rule gives the federal government control over staffing and personnel decisions. This will be interpreted to mean that FYSB will not make direct hiring decisions. At the same time, rules regarding nondiscrimination and background checks, and other requirements still apply.
In addition to the requirements that all RHY grantees must meet, there are additional requirements specific to each of the three core RHY programs which stem from the Act and the unique purposes of each program.
We proposed to create a new § 1351.21 “What are the additional requirements that the Basic Center Program grantees must meet?” This section addresses the additional program specific requirements that are central to the purposes of the Basic Center Program. First, we proposed under paragraph (a) that all Basic Center grantees shall have an intake procedure that is available 24 hours a day and 7 days a week to all youth seeking services and temporary shelter. The intake process must, at all hours, enable staff to address and respond to young people's immediate needs for crisis counseling, food, clothing, shelter, and health care services. The second proposed requirement under paragraph (b) describes the primary function described under the Act for Basic Center grantees, requiring that grantees shall provide, either directly or through arrangements, access to temporary shelter 24 hours a day and 7 days a week. Any grantee that did not provide temporary living services to eligible youth would not be meeting an essential function of the program (section 311(a)(2) of the Act). Note that this requirement allows for a combination of facilities that are directly operated by the grantee, operated by others, or accessible through referral. Third, under paragraph (c), we proposed to require that Basic Center grantees provide case management, counseling and referral services that meet client needs and that encourage, when in the best interests of youth particularly with regard to safety, the involvement of parents or legal guardians. Under paragraph (d), we proposed to require that grantees provide additional core support services to clients both residentially and non-residentially, as appropriate. The core services must include case planning, skill building, recreation and leisure activities, and aftercare. Again, this is an essential function of the program established by the Act and codification in this final rules does not require changes in program operations. Under paragraph (e), we proposed to require that grantees make contact with the parent(s), legal guardian or other relatives of each client within 72 hours of entering the program with a “best interest of the youth” exception allowed for disclosure of the location if additional information is needed to ensure the safety of the youth. The “best interest of the youth” would be defined by the state child welfare legal requirements with respect to child protective services and law enforcement mandated reporting. Finally, under paragraph (f), we proposed that grantees be subject to any additional requirements that are included in the FOA. We received several comments on these proposals and made revisions as appropriate.
We received no comments on § 1351.21(d) of the proposed rule and have left it unchanged in this final rule.
Additionally, if the grantee is unable to locate, or the youth refuses to disclose the contact information of, the parent(s), legal guardian or other relative of the client within 72 hours of entering the program the grantee will follow the protocols set forth in paragraph (e).
Examples of when it would not be in the best interest of the child to contact the parents include instances of severe physical or emotional abuse, or fear of harm to the child.
Regarding the 72-hour timeframe, based on the past practice of our grantees, it has been determined that making a notification within 72 hours allows grantees time to assess whether contacting parents will be in the best interest of a child. However, we encourage grantees to contact parents or guardians sooner if appropriate and possible.
We also proposed a new § 1351.22 “What are the additional requirements that the Transitional Living Program and Maternity Group Home grantees must meet?” to include specific requirements for core services to be provided by the programs. Under paragraph (a), we proposed requiring that grantees provide transitional living arrangements and additional core services including case planning/management, counseling, skill building, consumer education, referral to needed social and health care services, and education, recreation and leisure activities, aftercare, and, as appropriate to grantees providing maternity-related services, parenting skills, child care, and child nutrition. Additionally, under paragraph (b), we proposed requiring that Transitional Living Program and Maternity Group Home grantees be subject to any additional requirements included in the FOA. We received no comments on this section and make no changes in the final rule.
We proposed to create a new § 1351.23 “What are the additional requirements that the Street Outreach Program grantees must meet?” The proposed requirements were specific to the purposes of the Street Outreach Program. We proposed under paragraph (a) to require that SOP grantees provide services designed to assist clients in leaving the streets, in making healthy choices, and in building trusting relationships in areas where targeted youth congregate. Under paragraph (b), we proposed to require SOP grantees provide directly or by referral other core services to their clients. Finally, under paragraph (c), we proposed to require that SOP grantees be subject to any additional requirements included in the FOA. We received no comments on this section other than those previously addressed, and make no changes in the final rule.
Section 386A of the Act requires performance standards be established for Basic Center, Transitional Living and Street Outreach Programs. In addition to requirements that apply to all Runaway and Homeless Youth Programs, we proposed to establish a new Subpart that creates specific standards for each major type of local services grant, with a focus on performance-based standards. Performance standards focus directly on program outcomes. More specifically, we explained that performance standards are focused on four core outcomes: (1) Social and emotional well-being; (2) permanent connections; (3) education or employment; and (4) stable housing. Research indicates that improvements on risk and protective factors can serve as pathways to get to better outcomes in these four core areas.
The regulatory provisions concerning pre-natal care, well-baby exams, and immunizations for Maternity Group Home grantees are fully adopted without changes in this final rule.
We received almost twenty unique comments on the proposed performance standards for the Transitional Living Program. Essentially the same group of commenters as commented on the quantitative performance criteria for the Basic Center Program commented on these criteria for the Transitional Living Program.
These commenters made similar or identical arguments, especially against the 90 percent standard for exit to safe and appropriate settings. Some also addressed the 45 percent standard for community service, and one of these criticized that standard as somewhat inconsistent with the program's goals of securing education, employment, and safe housing. This comment suggested conceptually different measures, such as providing youth the opportunity to perform community service once a month.
Several comments to the proposed performance criteria for the Street Outreach Program criticized our proposal to count total contacts as ambiguous. For example, would contacting the same youth multiple times count the same as contacting multiple youth once each? One comment suggested that it might be possible to develop a good performance measure from the percentage of youth contacted that accepted shelter, case management, or other services. Another comment asked about the dividing line between a youth who was a contact and a youth who was a client. Another comment suggested that any such measure would be skewed downward in cases where the same youth was contacted multiple times but only accepted housing after the final encounter. Several comments criticized the total contacts measure as meaningless given the different sizes of Street Outreach Program service areas and the different sizes of individual programs. Two of these comments recommended that we adjust the measure by the population of the service area or by population density; the latter reflecting the presumably greater difficulty of reaching youth in rural areas.
A third said the total contacts measure should be used as a reporting requirement, but dropped as a performance measure. One commenter praised the proposed numeric standard in § 1351.32 and suggested no specific change. One commenter proposed broader measures such as comparing the number contacted to the estimated universe of runaway and homeless youth in the service area. One commenter suggested comparing the number contacted to the total population in the service area. This commenter also recommended that HHS convene SOP grantees to collaboratively determine what standards should be used. One commenter suggested collecting data on the immediate outcomes of outreach contacts, but not setting specific performance standards. One commenter mentioned the option of comparing the total number of youth contacted to the number accepting services and criticized it because contacting a single youth many times, such as 20 times, followed by that youth finally accepting shelter, would lead to a misleading 5 percent effectiveness figure.
We have decided to remove the numerical metrics from the regulatory language for Basic Center, Transitional Living, and Street Outreach Programs. Specific numeric metrics based on the performance standards will be outlined
For the Street Outreach Program performance standards, we interpret the standard as allowing each contact with the same youth on later occasions to count as a new contact, but see no need to amend the language. Youth receiving services should be counted as clients rather than contacts. We will make these points clear in training and technical assistance materials and in the HMIS system's reporting directions. Finally, we appreciate the conceptual improvement of a percentage measure related to acceptance of services, but think that it would be very difficult to measure accurately in practice. We will explore that idea further in consultations with grantees and stakeholders, as a possible future improvement.
After careful consideration of the various criticisms of and suggestions for improving the performance standard, we have added language to the end of this Street Outreach Program performance standards section that will determine appropriate proportions of contacts based on grantee staff size through existing data collection and grant reports. Specific numeric metrics will be outlined in future Funding Opportunity Announcements. FYSB will provide more specific guidance and training and technical assistance to grantees on collection and reporting data.
In the final rule, we also added language that reinforces that grantees need to report data about each of the performance standards. This language was inconsistently incorporated into the proposed rule. To ensure clarity, the final rule explicitly includes language related to reporting within each performance standard subparagraph.
We did not propose performance standards for technical assistance and other grants that do not provide direct services. We do not believe that support grants such as these lend themselves to across-the-board, outcome-oriented performance standards such as those proposed here.
We proposed to create a new § 1351.33 “How and when will performance standards for the Runaway and Homeless Youth Program be revised?” We stated that for those performance standards for which benchmarks would not be set in the codified rule, benchmarks might be set in the coming years as data are collected. Additionally, we said that as grantees improve performance, it might be necessary to adjust the benchmark on a given performance standard in the coming years. Furthermore, we stated that as more is learned about how to improve outcomes, performance standards themselves might need to be modified or added. The rulemaking process is not conducive to making quick or on-going adjustments.
We did not receive comments on this section but have determined since publishing the proposed rule that this section is not needed because it does not directly relate to the responsibilities of the grantees. Therefore, we have deleted this section in the final rule text.
We proposed to create a new § 1351.34 “When Are Program-Specific Requirements Effective?” We proposed that grantees shall meet program specific requirements, as applicable, upon the effective date of this final rule, or starting at the beginning of the next budget period for the grant, whichever comes later. Since most budget periods begin on October 1 of each year, this means that grantees would have however many days there are between the issuance of final regulations and that date, but never less than 30 days.
While we received no comments on this newly created section, we acknowledge the effective date is included as part of the regulations publication in the
This final rule contains no new information collection requirements because all information required in the performance standards has been collected by RHYMIS. The OMB Control Number for RHYMIS is 0970-0123, which has a current expiration date of February 28, 2018. We are looking to revise data standards to reduce the burden associated with filling out the data for the RHY program by the Spring of 2017, with the effective date of October 1, 2017.
The Secretary certifies that this final rule will not result in a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. We have not imposed any new requirements that will have such an effect. This final rule conforms to the existing statutory requirements and existing practices in the program. In particular, we have imposed only a few new processes, procedural, or documentation requirements that are not encompassed within the existing rule, existing FOAs, or existing information collection requirements. None of these will impose a consequential burden on grantees. Accordingly, a Regulatory Flexibility Analysis is not required.
Executive Order 12866 requires that regulations be reviewed to ensure that they are consistent with the priorities and principles set forth in the Executive Order. HHS has determined that this final rule is consistent with these priorities and principles. The Executive Order requires a Regulatory Impact Analysis for proposed or final rules with an annual economic impact of $100 million or more. Nothing in this final rule approaches effects of this magnitude. This rule has been reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget.
This rule is not a major rule (economic effects of $100 million or more) as defined in the Congressional Review Act.
Executive Order 13132, Federalism, requires that federal agencies consult with state and local government officials in the development of regulatory policies with federalism implications. This rule will not have substantial direct impact on the states, on the relationship between the National Government and the states, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. Therefore, in accordance with the Executive Order we have determined that this rule does not have sufficient federalism implications to warrant the preparation of a federalism summary impact statement.
Section 654 of the Treasury and General Government Appropriations Act of 1999 (Pub L. 105-277) requires federal agencies to issue a Family Policymaking Assessment for any rule that may affect family well-being. This
Administrative practice and procedure, Grant programs—social programs, Homeless, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Technical assistance, Youth.
This document was received at the Office of the Federal Register on December 12, 2016.
42 U.S.C. 5701.
For the purposes of this part:
(1) Professionalism (including, but not limited to, consistent and reliable job performance, awareness and use of professional ethics to guide practice);
(2) Applied positive youth development approach (including, but not limited to, skills to develop a positive youth development plan and identifying the client's strengths in order to best apply a positive youth development framework);
(3) Cultural and human diversity (including, but not limited to, gaining knowledge and skills to meet the needs of clients of a different race, ethnicity, nationality, religion/spirituality, gender identity/expression, sexual orientation);
(4) Applied human development (including, but not limited to, understanding the developmental needs of those at risk and with special needs);
(5) Relationship and communication (including, but not limited to, working with clients in a collaborative manner); and
(6) Developmental practice methods (including, but not limited to, utilizing methods focused on genuine relationships, health and safety, intervention planning).
(1) To the private residence of a parent, guardian, another adult relative, or another adult that has the youth's best interest in mind and can provide a stable arrangement;
(2) To another residential program if the youth's transition to the other residential program is consistent with the youth's needs; or
(3) To independent living if consistent with the youth's needs and abilities.
(1) To the street;
(2) To a locked correctional institute or detention center if the youth became involved in activities that lead to this exit after entering the program;
(3) To another residential program if the youth's transition to the other residential program is inconsistent with the youth's needs; or
(4) To an unknown or unspecified other living situation.
(a) The purpose of Runaway and Homeless Youth Program grants is to establish or strengthen community-based projects to provide runaway prevention, outreach, shelter, and transition services to runaway, homeless, or street youth or youth at risk of running away or becoming homeless.
(b) Youth who have become homeless or who leave and remain away from home without parental permission are disproportionately subject to serious health, behavioral, and emotional problems. They lack sufficient resources to obtain care and may live on the street for extended periods, unable to achieve stable, safe living arrangements that at times put them in danger. Many are urgently in need of shelter, which, depending on the type of Runaway and Homeless Youth project, can include host family homes, drop-in centers, congregate care, or supervised apartments, and services, including services that are linguistically appropriate, responsive to their complex social identities (
Public (state and local) and private non-profit entities, and coordinated networks of such entities, are eligible to apply for a Runaway and Homeless Youth Program grant unless they are part of the juvenile justice system.
(a) In selecting applications for grants under the Basic Center Program the Secretary shall give priority to—
(1) Eligible applicants who have demonstrated experience in providing services to runaway and homeless youth; and
(2) Eligible applicants that request grants of less than $200,000 or such figure as Congress may specify.
(b) In selecting applications for grants under the Transitional Living Program, the Secretary shall give priority to entities that have experience in providing to homeless youth shelter (such as group homes, including maternity group homes, host family homes, and supervised apartments) and services (including information and counseling services in basic life skills which shall include money management, budgeting, consumer education, and use of credit, parenting skills (as appropriate), interpersonal skill building, educational advancement, job attainment skills, and mental and physical health care) to homeless youth.
(c) In selecting applicants to receive grants under the Street Outreach Program, the Secretary shall give priority to public and nonprofit private agencies that have experience in providing services to runaway and homeless, and street youth.
(d) In selecting grants for the national communication system to assist runaway and homeless youth in communicating with their families and with service providers, the Secretary shall give priority to grant applicants that have experience in providing electronic communications services to runaway and homeless youth, including telephone, Internet, mobile applications, and other technology-driven services.
(e) In selecting grants for research, evaluation, demonstration and service projects, the Secretary shall give priority to proposed projects outlined in section 343(b) and (c) of the Act.
(f) The Secretary shall integrate the performance standards outlined in §§ 1351.30, 1351.31, or 1351.32 into the grantmaking, monitoring, and evaluation processes of the Basic Center Program, Transitional Living Program, and Street Outreach Program. Specific details about how performance standards will be considered, along with examples of performance documentation, will be provided in the annual funding opportunity announcements.
The federal share of the project represents 90 percent of the total project cost supported by the federal government. The remaining 10 percent represents the required project match cost by the grantee. This may be a cash or in-kind contribution.
(a) For all grant programs, costs that can be supported include, but are not limited to, staff training and core services such as outreach, intake, case management, data collection, temporary shelter, transitional living arrangements, referral services, counseling services, and aftercare services. Costs for acquisition and renovation of existing structures may not normally exceed 15 percent of the grant award. HHS may waive this limitation upon written request under special circumstances based on demonstrated need.
(b) For grants that support research, evaluation, and service projects; a national communications system to assist runaway and homeless youth in communicating with service providers; and for technical assistance and training grants; costs that can be supported include those enumerated above as well as services such as data collection and analysis, telecommunications services, and preparation and publication of materials in support of the purposes of such grants.
(a) A Runaway and Homeless Youth Program grant does not cover the capital costs of constructing new facilities, or operating costs of existing community centers or other facilities that are used partially or incidentally for services to runaway or homeless youth clients, except to the extent justified by application of cost allocation methods accepted by HHS as reasonable and appropriate.
(b) A Runaway and Homeless Youth Program grant does not cover any treatment or referral to treatment that aims to change someone's sexual orientation, gender identity or gender expression.
An applicant should follow instructions included in funding opportunity announcements, which describe procedures for receipt and review of applications.
In reviewing applications for a Runaway and Homeless Youth Program grant, HHS takes into consideration a number of factors, including, but not limited to:
(a) Whether the grant application meets the particular priorities, requirements, standards, or evaluation criteria established in funding opportunity announcements;
(b) A need for Federal support based on the likely number of estimated runaway or otherwise homeless youth in the area in which the Runaway and Homeless Youth project is or will be located exceeding the availability of existing services for such youth in that area;
(c) For runaway and homeless youth centers, whether there is a minimum residential capacity of four (4) and a maximum residential capacity of twenty (20) youth in a single structure (except where the applicant assures that the state where the center or locally controlled facility is located has a state or local law or regulation that requires a higher maximum to comply with licensure requirements for child and youth serving facilities), or within a single floor of a structure in the case of apartment buildings, with a number of staff sufficient to assure adequate supervision and treatment for the number of clients to be served and the guidelines followed for determining the appropriate staff ratio;
(d) Plans for meeting the best interests of the youth involving, when reasonably possible, both the youth and the family. For Basic Center grantee applicants, the grantee shall develop adequate plans for contacting the parents or other relatives of the youth and ensuring the safe return of the youth according to the best interests of the youth, for contacting local government officials pursuant to informal arrangements established with such officials by the runaway and homeless youth center, and for providing for other appropriate alternative living arrangements;
(e) Plans for the delivery of aftercare or counseling services to runaway or otherwise homeless youth and their families;
(f) Whether the estimated cost to HHS for the Runaway and Homeless Youth project is reasonable considering the anticipated results;
(g) Whether the proposed personnel are well qualified and the applicant agency has adequate facilities and resources;
(h) Past performance on a RHY grant, including but not limited to program performance standards;
(i) Whether the proposed project design, if well executed, is capable of attaining program objectives;
(j) The consistency of the grant application with the provisions of the Act and these regulations; and
(k) Other factors as outlined in funding opportunity announcements.
A number of other rules and regulations apply or potentially apply to applicants and grantees. These include:
(a) 2 CFR part 182—Government-wide Requirements for Drug Free Workplace;
(b) 2 CFR part 376—Nonprocurement Debarment and Suspension
(c) 45 CFR part 16—Procedures of the Departmental Grant Appeals Board;
(d) 45 CFR part 30—Claims Collection;
(e) 45 CFR part 46—Protection of Human Subjects;
(f) 45 CFR part 75—Uniform Administrative Requirements, Cost principles, and Audit Requirements for HHS Awards, including nondiscrimination requirements.
(g) 45 CFR part 80—Nondiscrimination Under Programs Receiving Federal Assistance Through the Department of Health and Human
(h) 45 CFR part 81—Practice and Procedure for Hearings Under part 80;
(i) 45 CFR part 84—Nondiscrimination on the Basis of Handicap in Programs or Activities Receiving Federal Financial Assistance;
(j) 45 CFR part 86—Nondiscrimination on the Basis of Sex in Education Programs or Activities receiving Federal Financial Assistance;
(k) 45 CFR part 87—Equal Treatment for Faith Based Organizations;
(l) 45 CFR part 91—Nondiscrimination on the Basis of Age in Programs or Activities Receiving Federal Financial Assistance;
(m) 45 CFR part 92—Nondiscrimination in Health Programs and Activities; and
(n) 45 CFR part 93—New Restrictions on Lobbying.
Several program policies regarding confidentiality of information, treatment, conflict of interest and state protection apply to recipients of Runaway and Homeless Youth Program grants. These include:
(a) Confidential information. Pursuant to the Act, no records containing the identity of individual youth, including but not limited to lists of names, addresses, photographs, or records of evaluation of individuals served by a Runaway and Homeless Youth project, may be disclosed or transferred to any individual or to any public or private agency except:
(1) For Basic Center Program grants, records maintained on individual runaway and homeless youth shall not be disclosed without the informed consent of the individual youth and parent or legal guardian to anyone other than another agency compiling statistical records or a government agency involved in the disposition of criminal charges against an individual runaway and homeless youth;
(2) For Transitional Living Programs, records maintained on individual homeless youth shall not be disclosed without the informed consent of the individual youth to anyone other than an agency compiling statistical records;
(3) Research, evaluation, and statistical reports funded by grants provided under section 343 of the Act are allowed to be based on individual data, but only if such data are de-identified in ways that preclude disclosing information on identifiable individuals; and
(4) Youth served by a Runaway and Homeless Youth project shall have the right to review their records; to correct a record or file a statement of disagreement; and to be apprised of the individuals who have reviewed their records.
(b) State law protection. HHS policies regarding confidential information and experimentation and treatment shall not apply if HHS finds that state law is more protective of the rights of runaway or otherwise homeless youth.
(c) Procedures shall be established for the training of project staff in the protection of these rights and for the secure storage of records.
(a)
(1) The criteria that grantees adopt to determine eligibility for the program, or any activity or service, may include an assessment of the needs of each applicant, and the health and safety of other beneficiaries, among other factors.
(2) [Reserved]
(b)
(c)
To improve the administration of these Runaway and Homeless Youth Programs by increasing the capacity of Runaway and Homeless Youth projects to deliver services, by improving their performance in delivering services, and by providing for the evaluation of performance:
(a) Grantees shall participate in technical assistance, monitoring, and short-term training as a condition of funding, as determined necessary by HHS, in such areas as: Aftercare services and counseling; background checks; core competencies of youth workers; core support services; crisis intervention techniques; culturally and linguistically sensitive services; participation in or development of coordinated networks of private nonprofit agencies and/or public agencies to provide services; ethics and staff safety; fiscal management; low cost community alternatives for runaway or otherwise homeless youth; positive youth development; program management; risk and protective factors related to youth homelessness; screening and assessment practices; shelter facility staff development; special populations (tribal youth; lesbian, gay, bisexual, transgender, questioning (LGBTQ), and intersex youth; youth with disabilities; youth victims of trafficking, sexual exploitation or sexual abuse); trauma and the effects of trauma on youth; use of evidence-based and evidence-informed interventions; and youth and family counseling. It is not a requirement that every staff person receives training in every subject but all staff members who work directly with youth should receive training sufficient to meet the stated core-competencies of youth workers.
(b) Grantees shall coordinate their activities with the 24-hour National toll-free and Internet communication system, which links Runaway and Homeless Youth projects and other service providers with runaway or otherwise homeless youth, as appropriate to the specific activities provided by the grantee.
(c) Grantees shall submit statistical reports profiling the clients served and providing management and performance information in accordance with guidance provided by HHS.
(d) Grantees shall perform outreach to locate runaway and homeless youth and to coordinate activities with other organizations serving the same or similar client populations, such as child welfare agencies, juvenile justice
(e) Grantees shall develop and implement a plan for addressing youth who have run away from foster care placement or correctional institutions, in accordance with federal, state, or local laws or regulations that apply to these situations. In accordance with section 312(b)(4) of the Act, Basic Center grantees must also develop a plan that ensures the return of runaway and homeless youth who have run away from the correctional institution back to the correctional institution.
(f) Grantees shall take steps to ensure that youth who are or should be under the legal jurisdiction of the juvenile justice or child welfare systems obtain and receive services from those systems until such time as they are released from the jurisdiction of those systems.
(g) Grantees shall develop and document plans that address steps to be taken in case of a local or national situation that poses risk to the health and safety of staff and youth. Emergency preparedness plans should, at a minimum, include routine preventative maintenance of facilities as well as preparedness, response, and recovery efforts. The plan should contain strategies for addressing evacuation, security, food, medical supplies, and notification of youths' families, as appropriate. In the event of an evacuation due to specific facility issues, such as a fire, loss of utilities, or mandatory evacuation by the local authorities, an alternative location needs to be designated and included in the plan. Grantees must immediately provide notification to their project officer and grants officer when evacuation plans are executed.
(h) Grantees shall ensure that all shelters that they operate are licensed and determine that any shelters to which they regularly refer clients have evidence of current licensure, in states or localities with licensure requirements. Grantees shall promptly report to HHS instances in which shelters are cited for failure to meet licensure or related requirements, or lose licensure. For grantee-operated facilities, failure to meet any applicable state or local legal requirements as a condition of operation may be grounds for grant termination.
(i) Grantees shall utilize and integrate into the operation of their projects the principles of positive youth development, including healthy messages, safe and structured places, adult role models, skill development, and opportunities to serve others.
(j) No later than October 1, 2017, grantees shall have a plan, procedures, and standards for ensuring background checks on all employees, contractors, volunteers, and consultants who have regular and unsupervised private contact with youth served by the grantee, and on all adults who reside in or operate host homes. The plans, procedures, and standards must identify the background check findings that would disqualify an applicant from consideration for employment to provide services for which assistance is made available in accordance with this part.
(1) Required background checks include:
(i) State or tribal criminal history records, including fingerprint checks;
(ii) Federal Bureau of Investigation criminal history records, including fingerprint checks, to the extent FSYB determines this to be practicable and specifies the requirement in a Funding Opportunity Announcement that is applicable to a grantee's award;
(iii) Child abuse and neglect state registry check, to the extent FSYB determines this to be practicable and specifies the requirement in a Funding Opportunity Announcement that is applicable to a grantee's award;
(iv) Sex offender registry check; and,
(v) Any other checks required under state or tribal law.
(2) Programs must document the justification for any hire where an arrest, pending criminal charge or conviction, is present.
(k) Grantees shall provide such other services and meet such additional requirements as HHS determines are necessary to carry out the purposes of the statute, as appropriate to the services and activities for which they are funded. These services and requirements are articulated in the funding opportunity announcements and other instructions issued by the Secretary or secretarial designees. This includes operational instructions and standards of execution determined by the Secretary or secretarial designees to be necessary to properly perform or document meeting the requirements applicable to particular programs or projects.
(a) Grantees shall have an intake procedure that is available 24 hours a day and 7 days a week to all youth seeking services and temporary shelter that addresses and responds to immediate needs for crisis counseling, food, clothing, shelter, and health care services.
(b) Grantees shall provide, either directly or through arrangements, access to temporary shelter 24 hours a day and 7 days a week.
(c) Grantees shall provide trauma-informed case management, counseling and referral services that meet client needs and that encourage, when in the best interests of the youth particularly with regard to safety, the involvement of parents or legal guardians.
(d) Grantees shall provide additional core support services to clients both residentially and non-residentially as appropriate. The core services must include case planning, skill building, recreation and leisure activities.
(e) Grantees shall, as soon as feasible and no later than 72 hours of the youth entering the program, contact the parents, legal guardians or other relatives of each youth according to the best interests of the youth. If a grantee determines that it is not in the best interest of the client to contact the parents, legal guardian or other relatives of the client, or if the grantee is unable to locate, or the youth refuses to disclose the contact information of, the parent, legal guardian or other relative of the client, they must:
(1) Inform another adult identified by the child;
(2) Document why it is not in the client's best interest to contact the parent, legal guardian or other relative, or why they are not able to contact the parent, legal guardian or other relative; and
(3) Send a copy of the documentation to the regional program specialist for review.
(f) Additional requirements included in the funding opportunity announcement.
(a) Grantees shall provide transitional living arrangements and additional core services including case planning/management, counseling, skill building, consumer education, referral to needed social and health care services, and education, recreation and leisure activities, aftercare and, as appropriate to grantees providing maternity-related services, parenting skills, child care, and child nutrition.
(b) Additional requirements included in the funding opportunity announcement.
(a) Basic Center and Transitional Living grantees shall develop and implement an aftercare plan, covering at least 3 months, to stay in contact with youth who leave the program in order to ensure their ongoing safety and access to services. A youth's individual aftercare plan shall outline what services were and will be provided as well as the youth's housing status during and after the program. The plan shall be provided to the youth in exit counseling or before. Follow-up efforts shall be made for all youth. For those contacted after 3 months, the plan shall be updated to record the rate of participation and completion of the services in the plan at 3 months after exiting the program. In accordance with section 312(b)(5) of the Act, as possible, Basic Center grantees shall also provide a plan for providing counseling and aftercare services to youth who are returned beyond the state in which the runaway and homeless youth service is located.
(b) Basic Center and Transitional Living grantees shall develop and implement a plan for health care services referrals for youth during the service and aftercare periods. Such referral plans shall include health care services and referrals and counseling on insurance coverage through family health insurance plans, or to agencies that assist in enrolling persons in Medicaid or in insurance plans offered under Affordable Care Act exchanges.
(c) Basic Center and Transitional Living grantees shall develop and implement a plan to assist youth to stay connected with their schools or to obtain appropriate educational services, training, or employment services. This includes coordination with McKinney-Vento school district liaisons, designated under the McKinney-Vento Homeless Assistance Act, to assure that runaway and homeless youth are provided information about the services available under that Act. This also includes coordination with local employment and employment training coordinating agencies or programs, coordination with local college placement services, and providing access to the Free Application for Federal Student Aid (FAFSA) application.
(a) Grantees shall provide services that are designed to assist clients in leaving the streets, making healthy choices, and building trusting relationships in areas where targeted youth congregate.
(b) Grantees shall directly or by referral provide treatment, counseling, prevention, and education services to clients as well as referral for emergency shelter.
(c) Additional requirements included in the funding opportunity announcement.
(a)(1) Grantees shall consistently enhance outcomes for youth in the following four core areas:
(i) Social and Emotional Well-being;
(ii) Permanent Connections;
(iii) Education or Employment; and
(iv) Stable Housing.
(2) Each grantee shall report data related to these outcomes, using existing data collection processes found under PRA OMB Control Numbers 0970-0406 and 0970-0123, and their successors.
(b) Grantees shall ensure that youth receive counseling services that are trauma informed and match the individual needs of each client. Data shall be reported by each grantee on the type of counseling each youth received (individual, family and/or group counseling), the participation rate based on a youth's service plan or treatment plan, and the completion rate based on a youth's service plan or treatment plan, where applicable.
(c) Grantees that choose to provide street-based services, home-based services, drug and/or alcohol abuse education and prevention services, and/or testing for sexually transmitted diseases (at the request of the youth) shall ensure youth receive the appropriate services. Data shall be reported on the completion rate for each service provided based on the youth's service or treatment plan.
(d) Grantees shall ensure that youth have safe and appropriate exits when leaving the program. Each grantee shall report data on the type of exit experienced by each young person departing a Basic Center Program.
(a)(1) Grantees shall consistently enhance outcomes for youth in the following four core areas:
(i) Social and Emotional Well-being;
(ii) Permanent Connections;
(iii) Education or Employment; and
(iv) Stable Housing.
(2) Each grantee shall report data related to these outcomes, using existing data collection and reporting processes, in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act and the Office of Management and Budget Control Numbers 0970-0406 and 0970-0123, and their successors.
(b) Grantees shall ensure youth are engaged in educational advancement, job attainment skills or work activities while in the program. Each grantee shall report data on the type of education or job-related activities that each youth is engaged in.
(c) Grantees shall ensure and report that youth receive health care referrals, including both services and insurance, as determined within their health care referral plan.
(d) Maternity Group Home Grantees shall ensure and report that youth receive consistent pre-natal care, well-baby exams, and immunizations for the infant while in the program.
(e) Grantees shall ensure that youth have safe and appropriate exits when leaving the program. Each grantee shall report data on the type of exit experienced by each young person departing a Transitional Living Program.
Grantees shall contact youth who are or who are at risk of homeless or runaway status on the streets in numbers that are reasonably attainable for the staff size of the project. Grantees with larger staff will be expected to contact larger numbers of youth in approximate proportion, as determined by HHS, to the larger number of staff available to provide this service. Each grantee shall report data related to this outcome, using existing data collection and reporting processes, in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act and the Office of Management and Budget Control Numbers 0970-0406 and 0970-0123, and their successors.
Office of Surface Mining Reclamation and Enforcement, Interior.
Final rule.
We, the Office of Surface Mining Reclamation and Enforcement (OSMRE or OSM), are revising our regulations, based on, among other things, advances in science, to improve the balance between environmental protection and the Nation's need for coal as a source of energy. This final rule will better protect water supplies, surface water and groundwater quality, streams, fish, wildlife, and related environmental values from the adverse impacts of surface coal mining operations and provide mine operators with a regulatory framework to avoid water pollution and the long-term costs associated with water treatment. We have revised our regulations to define “material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area” and require that each permit specify the point at which adverse mining-related impacts on groundwater and surface water would reach that level of damage; collect adequate premining data about the site of the proposed mining operation and adjacent areas to establish an adequate baseline for evaluation of the impacts of mining and the effectiveness of reclamation; adjust monitoring requirements to enable timely detection and correction of any adverse trends in the quality or quantity of surface water and groundwater or the biological condition of streams; ensure protection or restoration of perennial and intermittent streams and related resources; ensure that permittees and regulatory authorities make use of advances in science and technology; ensure that land disturbed by mining operations is restored to a condition capable of supporting the uses that it was capable of supporting before mining; and update and codify the requirements and procedures for protection of threatened or endangered species and designated critical habitat. Approximately thirty percent of the final rule consists of editorial revisions and organizational changes intended to improve consistency, clarity, accuracy, and ease of use.
This rule is effective January 19, 2017.
Significant advances in scientific knowledge and in mining and reclamation techniques have occurred in the more than 30 years that have elapsed since the enactment of the Surface Mining Control and Reclamation Act of 1977 (SMCRA or the Act)
The rule has the following seven major elements:
• First, the rule defines the term “material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area” and requires that each permit establish the point at which adverse mining-related impacts on groundwater and surface water reach an unacceptable level;
• Second, the rule sets forth how to collect adequate premining data about the site of the proposed mining operation and adjacent areas to establish a comprehensive baseline that will facilitate evaluation of the effects of mining operations.
• Third, the rule outlines how to conduct effective, comprehensive monitoring of groundwater and surface water during and after both mining and reclamation and during the revegetation responsibility period to provide timely information documenting mining-related changes in water quality and quantity. Similarly, the rule addresses the need to require monitoring of the biological condition of perennial and certain intermittent streams during and after mining and reclamation to evaluate changes in aquatic life. Proper monitoring will enable timely detection of any adverse trends and allow timely implementation of any necessary corrective measures.
• Fourth, the rule promotes the protection or restoration of perennial and intermittent streams and related resources, especially the headwater streams that are critical to maintaining the ecological health and productivity of downstream waters.
• Fifth, the rule ensures that permittees and regulatory authorities make use of advances in information, technology, science, and methodologies related to surface and groundwater hydrology, surface-runoff management, stream restoration, soils, and revegetation, all of which relate directly or indirectly to protection of water resources.
• Sixth, the rule ensures that land disturbed by surface coal mining operations is restored to a condition capable of supporting the uses that it was capable of supporting before mining or to higher or better uses of which there is reasonable likelihood. Soil characteristics and the degree and type of revegetation have a significant impact on surface-water runoff quantity and quality as well as on aquatic life and the terrestrial ecosystems dependent upon perennial and intermittent streams. The rule also requires use of native species to revegetate reclaimed mine sites unless and until a conflicting postmining land use, such as intensive agriculture, is implemented.
• Seventh, the rule updates measures to protect threatened and endangered species and designated critical habitat under the Endangered Species Act of 1973.
This rule more completely implements SMCRA's permitting requirements and performance standards and provides regulatory clarity to operators and stakeholders while better achieving the purposes of SMCRA as set forth in section 102 of the Act.
The final regulatory impact analysis (RIA) for this rule contains a detailed discussion of the rule's benefits and costs. We estimate that, among other things, the rule's benefits to streams and forests between 2020 and 2040 will include—
• Restoration of 22 miles of intermittent and perennial streams per year.
• Improved water quality in 263 miles of intermittent and perennial streams per year downstream of minesites.
• Four miles of intermittent and perennial streams per year not being covered by excess spoil fills or coal mine waste facilities.
• Improved reforestation of 2,486 acres of mined land per year.
• Avoidance by mining operations of eight acres of forest per year.
In terms of economic impacts, we estimate that the rule will result in an average annual employment gain of 156 fulltime equivalents between 2020 and 2040. This estimate includes an average annual reduction of 124 fulltime equivalents in employment related to coal production and an average annual gain of 280 fulltime equivalents in industry employment related to implementation of the rule.
We estimate that the rule will result in an average annual 0.08% reduction in coal production between 2020 and 2040, which equates to 0.7 million tons of coal. That amount includes 0.2 million tons produced by surface mining methods (0.04% of the total amount produced by surface mining methods) and 0.5 million tons produced by underground mining methods (0.14% of the total amount produced by underground mining methods). The final RIA projects that this reduction in production will be accompanied by an increase in average annual coal prices ranging from 0.2% in the Powder River Basin to 1.3% in Central Appalachia and the Illinois Basin.
We estimate that total industry compliance costs per year during 2020-2040 would average $81 million, which is 0.1% or less of aggregate annual industry revenues, ranging from an additional one cent per ton of longwall-mined coal on the Colorado Plateau to an additional $1.40 per ton for surface-mined coal in the Illinois Basin. Of the $81 million in increased annual costs to industry, surface mining operations will bear an estimated $71 million, while underground mining operations will absorb $10 million. In the aggregate, state regulatory authorities will incur estimated additional costs of $0.5 million per year between 2020 and 2040.
Implementation of this rule will result in reductions in greenhouse gas emissions from coal production. Expressed in terms of carbon dioxide equivalents, we project that those reductions will total 2.6 million short tons in 2020. “Carbon dioxide equivalent” is a unit used to describe the impact of different greenhouse gases on a comparative basis by expressing the impact in terms of the amount of carbon dioxide that would have the same global warming impact as the type and amount of greenhouse gases at issue. We also project that implementation of the final rule will result in the annualized benefit of $57 million due to the reduced carbon dioxide emissions from fossil fuel consumption across the timeframe of the analysis (2020—2040).
Our primary purpose in adopting this rule is to strike a better balance between “protection of the environment and agricultural productivity and the Nation's needs for coal as an essential source of energy.”
The preamble to the proposed rule sets forth the detailed rationale for adoption of this rule and the history of prior rulemaking and litigation concerning stream buffer zones and stream protection.
The final EIS for this rule contains an expanded discussion of the impacts of mining on the environment. Almost all the literature surveys and studies reviewed for this rulemaking process have been published since the adoption in 1983 of our principal regulations concerning protection of the hydrologic balance
On July 16, 2015, we announced that the proposed rule, draft environmental impact statement (DEIS), and draft regulatory impact analysis (DRIA) were available for review at
During the public comment period, we held six public hearings on the proposed rule in Golden, Colorado (September 1, 2015); Lexington, Kentucky (September 3, 2015); St. Charles, Missouri (September 10, 2015); Pittsburgh, Pennsylvania (September 10, 2015); Big Stone Gap, Virginia (September 15, 2015); and Charleston, West Virginia (September 17, 2015). In addition to the testimony offered at the hearings and meetings, we received approximately 94,000 written or electronic comments on the proposed rule. In developing the final rule, we considered all comments that were germane to the proposed rule. In the remainder of this preamble, we summarize the comments received and discuss our disposition of those comments and how and why the final rule differs from the proposed rule.
Many commenters contended that we should have extended the time for public review and comment on the proposed rule and supporting documents. These commenters generally raised objections about the amount of material, primarily the proposed rule and its preamble, the DEIS, and the DRIA, all of which were lengthy. The commenters noted that we cited many studies, reports and supporting documents, which would take time to locate and review. Some commenters claimed that they lacked staff to review the material and provide meaningful comments within the time provided. These commenters stated that the 102 days we provided for review was too short, particularly in contrast to the time it took us to prepare and propose a rule.
As described in Part III of this preamble, the stream protection rule has been the subject of robust public involvement, starting in 2009. During that year, we published an advance notice of proposed rulemaking,
On July 16, 2015, we announced that the proposed rule, DEIS, and DRIA were available for review at
Interested parties, therefore, received a total of 102 days to review the proposed rule and supporting documents. During that time, we also held six public hearings in Colorado, Kentucky, Missouri, Pennsylvania, Virginia, and West Virginia. We received approximately 95,000 comments from all sources on the proposed rule, DEIS, and DRIA.
The proposed rule, DEIS, and DRIA included citations to references that we relied upon in developing the documents. These reference citations were available from the time of publication of the proposed rule, DEIS, and the DRIA in the
The comment period we provided fully complies with the Administrative Procedure Act, 5 U.S.C. 553, which does not set a minimum public comment period for a proposed rule. We also exceeded the 60-day minimum comment period recommended by Section 6(a)(1) of Executive Order 12866 for meaningful public participation. This time is comparable to the comment periods for similar regulations that we have issued in the past. For example, the now-vacated 2008 stream buffer zone rule was subject to a 90-day comment period,
It is also noteworthy that many commenters, primarily environmental groups, opposed our 30-day extension of the comment period. They maintained that 60 days was sufficient to review the materials and provide meaningful comment. These and other commenters, including state regulatory authorities, were able to provide extensive, detailed, meaningful comments on the proposed rule in the comment period provided.
Most state and industry commenters urged us to refrain from finalizing the proposed rule at this time. Instead, these commenters requested that we engage in additional meaningful collaboration with the state regulatory authorities. Many of these commenters stated that we could benefit further from the insight, experience, and practices of the state regulatory authorities when developing the regulatory text, final EIS, and final RIA. According to the commenters, we did not provide the regulatory authorities and other state agencies that had agreed to be cooperating agencies in the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (NEPA) process with the opportunity for meaningful engagement. The commenters expressed their belief that we had not acted in accordance with the terms of the memoranda of understanding describing the roles and responsibilities for the effort. The commenters noted that, as a consequence, all but one of those regulatory authorities had terminated their cooperating agency status.
We have substantially engaged with stakeholders, including the regulatory authorities. The rulemaking process began with an advance notice of proposed rulemaking, 15 stakeholder outreach meetings, nine public scoping meetings, and two public comment periods on the scoping for the DEIS. The scoping process generated over 20,500 comments, including input from the states. A number of state agencies, including state SMCRA regulatory authorities, participated as cooperating agencies in the early development of the DEIS for the stream protection rule. As of November, 2010, we had sent Chapters 1, 2, 3 and 4 of the DEIS to all cooperating agencies. Chapters 1-4 are the heart of an EIS. Those chapters include the statement of purpose and need, a description of the alternatives considered, a description of the affected environment, and an analysis of the environmental consequences of the alternatives. The cooperating agencies provided meaningful input and comments. We used this information to prepare the DEIS. In response to this and other feedback, we revised the DEIS over the next several years. Shortly before we announced the availability of the DEIS for public comment, all but one of the state regulatory authorities voluntarily terminated their role as cooperating agencies.
We made the DEIS available on July 16, 2015, to all cooperating agencies and the public to review and provide input on during the public comment period. We subsequently extended the public comment period to provide interested parties, including the states, more time to review and comment on the DEIS. We conducted six public hearings in Colorado, Kentucky, Missouri, Pennsylvania, Virginia and West Virginia during the public comment period. Although not required to do so, in a letter dated October 7, 2015, prior to the close of the public comment period on October 26, 2015, we invited the former cooperating state agencies to re-engage as cooperating agencies under NEPA. None accepted this invitation. Ultimately, OSMRE received approximately 95,000 comments, including hundreds of pages of comments from state SMCRA regulatory authorities, on the DEIS, DRIA, and the proposed stream protection rule. We considered these comments in developing this final rule, the final EIS, and the final RIA.
The Department's Assistant Secretary for Land and Minerals Management, the Director of OSMRE, and other OSMRE officials continued to meet with representatives of states after the close of the comment period, consistent with congressional direction in a report accompanying the Consolidated Appropriations Act of 2016, Public Law 114-113. In addition to meetings with state SMCRA regulatory authorities in conjunction with Interstate Mining Compact Commission meetings, Department of the Interior and OSMRE representatives have either met with or held telephone or video conferences with 14 different state regulatory authorities since the proposed rule was published. We also scheduled meetings of OSMRE and state technical personnel to discuss the scientific studies and other reference documents on two dates (April 14 and 21, 2016). The meetings were held simultaneously in Denver, Colorado; Alton, Illinois; and Pittsburgh, Pennsylvania. Staff from six state regulatory authorities participated in the meeting on April 14, 2016, and staff from five state regulatory authorities participated in the meeting on April 21, 2016. Notice of the Final Environmental Impact Statement was published in the
We understand the state regulatory authorities wanted more input, not only in the EIS, but also in the rule and the RIA. However, through this extensive outreach we have met our obligations as set forth in the Administrative Procedure Act, NEPA, and the pertinent executive orders and have sought the input from state regulatory authorities at crucial junctures in the development of the rule—early in the rulemaking process and after publication of the proposed rule. These are the points where their insights could best shape the proposal and refine the final rule without impinging on our deliberative process and our ability to craft a rule to meet our purpose and need. The final regulations that we are publishing today have been shaped by this direct input as well as by the information we have gleaned through our oversight of the state programs.
According to numerous commenters, the proposed rule impinges on the concepts of cooperative federalism and state primacy in SMCRA. Because of this alleged impingement on states' rights under SMCRA, many of these commenters asserted that the proposed rule exceeds our statutory authority and contravenes the Tenth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution. They also charged that it “flips the central SMCRA mandate of state primacy on its heads.”
We disagree with these commenters. While it is true that primacy states play a key role in enforcing SMCRA, it is also true that we maintain a role in the implementation and oversight of SMCRA.
We have clear authority to issue regulations such as this rule to establish federal minimum standards. Section 102 of SMCRA sets forth thirteen purposes of the Act.
Contrary to the contention of some commenters, we are not abrogating primacy. Nor are we creating a rigid one-size-fits-all rule. Primacy states can and should tailor their state laws and regulations implementing this rule to local conditions as long as they meet minimum federal standards and are no less effective than the federal rules in meeting the requirements of SMCRA. In addition, the final rule provides discretion to the regulatory authority in certain areas, including, but not limited to, the following examples:
• Final § 773.15(j): Compliance with the Endangered Species Act. Provides the permit applicant and the regulatory authority with several options for demonstrating compliance with the Endangered Species Act of 1973.
• Final § 780.16(d): Potential Enhancement Measures. The regulatory authority has the discretion to determine the type, scope, and location of fish and wildlife enhancement measures.
• Final § 780.19(a): Information on Hydrology, Geology, and Aquatic Biology, Baseline Information. The regulatory authority has the discretion to determine what constitutes “sufficient detail” with respect to the information required in this section, including the location and number of monitoring locations.
• Final § 780.19(b)(6)(ii): Groundwater Information. The regulatory authority has the discretion to determine the baseline groundwater quality and quantity sampling protocol and subsequent analyses of these data.
• Final § 780.19(c)(5): Precipitation Measurements. The regulatory authority has the flexibility to determine whether the permit applicant must prepare a hydrologic model of the proposed mine site.
• Final § 780.19(c)(6)(vii): Assessing the biological condition of intermittent and perennial streams. The regulatory authority has the flexibility to choose from available scientifically defensible protocols, including indices of biological integrity, to determine the biological condition of streams.
• Final § 780.21(b)(7): Evaluation Thresholds. The regulatory authority has the flexibility to determine the parameters it will use as evaluation thresholds.
• Final § 780.27(b)(2): What Permitting Requirements Apply to Proposed Activities in or Through Ephemeral Streams? The regulatory authority has the flexibility to approve a drainage pattern that differs from the premining pattern based upon a variety of site specific conditions.
• Final § 780.28(c)(2): Proposed Activities In, Through, or Adjacent to Perennial and Intermittent Streams. The regulatory authority has the flexibility to approve a drainage pattern or stream-channel configuration that differs from the premining pattern based upon a variety of site-specific conditions.
• Final § 780.28(e)(2): Conversion of Streams. The regulatory authority has the flexibility to approve limited stream flow regime conversions on a case-by-case basis as long as certain criteria are satisfied.
• Final § 780.28(g)(1): Standards for the Restoration of Ecological Function to Perennial or Intermittent Streams. The regulatory authority has discretion to establish objective criteria for determining the standards for restoring the ecological function of a reconstructed perennial or intermittent stream.
The underground mining counterparts to these surface mining provisions offer the same flexibilities to the regulatory authority.
Many commenters stated that we have neither provided sufficient rationale for the development of this rule nor any evidence to support what many commenters consider a complete rewrite of the federal regulations implementing SMCRA. A number of commenters also raised concerns about whether the proposed rule articulated a legally
Our primary purpose in adopting this final rule is to strike a better balance between “protection of the environment and agricultural productivity and the Nation's need for coal as an essential source of energy,” which section 102(f) of SMCRA
The final rule published today reflects advances in science and technology, updates 30-year-old regulations, and addresses important stream protection and related issues in a manner consistent with SMCRA, while providing regulatory certainty to operators. State and industry practices helped shape this rule. Many commenters supported the proposed rule and encouraged us to proceed with a final rule.
SMCRA recognizes the importance of nationwide minimum standards for the hydrologic balance by not limiting the provisions related to the hydrologic balance to any particular types of mining or areas of the country as it did with other provisions.
As stated in our analysis in the final EIS, the need for this final rule is to improve implementation of SMCRA, ensure protection of the hydrologic balance, and reduce impacts of surface coal mining operations on streams, fish, wildlife, and related environmental values. The final rule will provide major benefits to water resources, not just in the Appalachian Basin, but also in the Illinois Basin. In addition, this rule will provide moderate benefits to water resources in three other regions—the Colorado Plateau, the Gulf Coast, and the Northern Rocky Mountains and Great Plains.
As we set forth in the proposed rule and in documents in support of the proposed rule, SMCRA provides us with the authority to protect the hydrologic balance from coal mining operations nationwide. Despite that fact and the benefits that could be realized nationwide, some commenters cite data contained in our annual evaluation reports of state regulatory programs in an attempt to show that there is no nationwide problem. According to these commenters, our annual evaluation reports “show that 90 percent of operations were free of any offsite impacts” and “routinely include highly positive narrative reviews of each state's SMCRA program.”
While it is true that our annual evaluation reports routinely do not indicate problems with the states' implementation of their programs, we disagree with the conclusion the commenters attempt to draw from this information,
Several commenters requested that we limit the rule to the effects of surface mining operations and not the effects of underground operations. These commenters often questioned the adequacy of our support for extending stream protections to the areas overlying underground mine workings. According to the commenters, the rule would make some methods of underground mining operations impractical and would effectively prohibit underground mining using longwall technology.
Part IV.K. of this preamble summarizes the principal provisions of this rule that directly impact underground mining. The final rule does not preclude any specific method of underground mining either directly (
Numerous commenters expressed concern that the proposed rule would impose significant additional costs on the industry and state regulatory authorities. Many of these commenters alleged that the costs of the proposed rule were grossly understated in the DRIA. Appendix I of the final RIA provides responses to all specific comments on the DRIA.
In response to comments received on the DRIA, as well as in response to recent changes in the coal market, we revised the DRIA to ensure that the final RIA better reflects current circumstances. These changes include:
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In summary, compared with the DRIA, the final RIA forecasts lower baseline coal production and increased industry compliance costs. Lower baseline coal production means that the final rule will have fewer adverse impacts to production-related employment and fewer benefits to streams and forests.
The final rule also differs from the proposed rule in several ways that should reduce costs and the regulatory burden on state regulatory authorities and on the industry. The following list provides examples of cost-saving or potentially cost-saving provisions:
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Section 816.42 in our previous regulations required that discharges of water from areas disturbed by surface mining activities be made in compliance with all applicable state and federal water quality laws and regulations and with the effluent limitations for coal mining operations set forth in 40 CFR part 434. Proposed § 816.42 contained five paragraphs. Proposed paragraph (a) incorporated previous § 816.42 and clarified that permittees must comply with all water quality laws, including effluent limitations in the applicable NPDES permit. Proposed paragraph (b) explicitly incorporated the longstanding requirement for permittees to comply with section 404 of the Clean Water Act
In the preamble to the proposed rule, we requested comment on whether proposed § 816.42(b) should be informational or directly enforceable under SMCRA.
In contrast, other commenters considered § 816.42 to be unnecessary and duplicative of the Clean Water Act. Some commenters detailed the Clean Water Act's own “robust, but carefully tailored, enforcement scheme[,]” which includes both direct enforcement by the state Clean Water Act authority of any aspect of the Clean Water Act that it has been delegated, enforcement by the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, enforcement by the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, and enforcement by citizen suits under the Clean Water Act. These commenters noted that the Clean Water Act does not confer authority on other agencies, such as us or state SMCRA regulatory authorities, to enforce the Clean Water Act, and the SMCRA regulatory authorities are not equipped to do so. Moreover, some commenters claimed that making the provisions of the Clean Water Act directly enforceable under SMCRA would directly conflict with the Clean Water Act because it would give a state with SMCRA primacy the direct authority to enforce violations of the Clean Water Act—even where that state does not have full delegation to administer Clean Water Act programs. These commenters generally urged us to consider this paragraph as informational or to remove it altogether.
In developing the approach we adopted in the final rule about the direct enforcement of Clean Water Act provisions under SMCRA, we considered the applicable requirements of SMCRA in light of an overarching purpose of SMCRA: To protect society and the environment from the adverse effects of coal mining operations.
Section 816.42 of the final rule is the primary regulation that sets forth the duty under SMCRA for coal mining operations to comply with the Clean Water Act. This regulation is tailored to accomplish this objective while avoiding conflicts between SMCRA regulatory authorities and Clean Water Act authorities about what constitutes a Clean Water Act violation. In particular, final § 816.42(a) clarifies that neither this section of the final rule, nor any action taken pursuant to it, supersedes or modifies the authority or jurisdiction of federal, state, or tribal agencies responsible for administration, implementation, and enforcement of the Clean Water Act including decisions that those agencies make pursuant to the authority of the Clean Water Act. This includes decisions on whether a particular set of facts constitutes a violation of the Clean Water Act.
With regard to enforcement under SMCRA, final rule § 816.42(b)(1) retains our longstanding regulatory requirement that coal mining operations must comply with all applicable water quality laws and regulations, including the effluent limitations set by Clean Water Act authorities in NPDES permits under section 402 of the Clean Water Act.
With the final rule, we are changing this process slightly. In response to Federal agency comments, we have revised final § 816.42(b)(1) to require the SMCRA regulatory authority to add an additional step to the end of the process: Notification of the appropriate Clean Water Act authority of any notice of violation issued under SMCRA for a violation of an effluent limit. We also added a provision requiring the SMCRA regulatory authority to coordinate with the Clean Water Act authority whenever necessary to determine if a violation exists. This provision is intended to address those situations where there may be some uncertainty as to whether in fact a violation exists. In addition to ensuring that there is no ambiguity about the requirement for a permittee to comply with NPDES effluent limits under SMCRA, we have added paragraph (i) to final rule § 773.17, which requires the regulatory authority to condition every permit on compliance with all effluent limitations and conditions in any NDPES permit issued by the Clean Water Act authority.
With regard to enforcement of water quality standards, § 816.42(b)(2) was also added to make it clear that coal mining operations cannot cause or contribute to a violation of any applicable water quality standards. In addition, in response to comments, we
In addition § 816.42(c) of the final rule mirrors proposed paragraph (b) and provides that discharges of overburden, coal mine waste, and other materials into waters subject to the jurisdiction of the Clean Water Act, must be made in compliance with section 404 of the Clean Water Act.
In order to better ensure compliance with sections 508(a)(9), 510(b)(3), and 702(a)(3) of SMCRA and address concerns about the role of the regulatory authority in assessing violations related to water quality standards and section of the Clean Water Act, we added final rule § 816.42(d). This provision requires that the regulatory authority investigate any situation in which it has information indicating that mining activities may be causing or contributing to a violation of the water quality standards to which paragraph (b)(2) of this section refers, or to a violation of section 404 of the Clean Water Act to which paragraph (c) refers. When conducting an investigation the SMCRA regulatory authority will coordinate with the appropriate Clean Water Act authority. The purpose of the coordination is to ensure that both agencies assess the most appropriate course of corrective action to remedy any confirmed violation. However, nothing in this section precludes the SMCRA regulatory authority from initiating enforcement action independently of the Clean Water Act authority. In fact, because the SMCRA regulatory authority is statutorily obligated to take immediate enforcement action when any “permittee is in violation of any requirement of this Act, which condition, practice, or violation also creates an imminent danger to the health or safety of the public, or is causing, or can reasonably be expected to cause significant, imminent environmental harm to land, air or water resources”
Some commenters also requested that we explicitly allow citizens to enforce water quality standards through citizen suits. In our proposed rule, we did not propose any changes or ask for comment on the enforcement of water quality standards through SMCRA citizen suits. Nothing in the proposed or final rule was intended to alter or inhibit the ability to initiate citizen suits under SMCRA,
The proposed rule contained numerous regulations that refer to “existing uses” in the context of uses of groundwater and surface water. With respect to surface water, the regulations at 40 CFR 131.3(e) implementing the Clean Water Act defines “existing uses” as “those uses actually attained in a waterbody on or after November 28, 1975, whether or not they are included in the water quality standards.” We did not propose to define “existing uses” in the proposed rule, but we stated in the preamble that we interpret the term “existing uses” as meaning those uses in existence at the time of preparation of the permit application, regardless of whether those uses are designated uses under section 303(c) of the Clean Water Act.
One commenter stated that the term “existing uses” is acceptable as long as we distinguish between existing uses and designated uses. Another commenter found our de facto definition (“those uses in existence at the time of the preparation of the permit application”) to be potentially less protective than, and therefore inconsistent with, the Clean Water Act definition of “existing uses” at 40 CFR 131.3(e). The commenter asserted that, in the context of a permit application prepared in 2016 for a watershed that had no mining activity before November 28, 1975, the existing uses in 2016 likely would be more impaired than the existing uses before November 28, 1975. Preserving the “existing uses” at the time of the new 2016 mining application might simply perpetuate the existing level of impairment caused by prior mining in the same watershed. The commenter argued that our rules must provide at least the same level of protection as the Clean Water Act definition. The commenter recommended that our rules use the term “premining uses” and that we interpret that term as meaning all uses in existence at the time of the enactment of SMCRA. According to the commenter, the statutory mandate to prevent material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area means that the rule must extend protection to all water sources impaired by mining since SMCRA was enacted in 1977.
Our rule implements SMCRA, not the Clean Water Act, so we are under no obligation to adopt the same definition of “existing uses” that has been adopted under the Clean Water Act, especially when our definition pertains to a term (material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area) that does not appear in the Clean Water Act. We also have not discovered any support for the commenter's assertion that Congress intended that we look back to the baseline conditions on the date of enactment of SMCRA (August 3, 1977) to determine whether an operation is preventing material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area. In addition to the practical difficulty of determining the baseline condition of water bodies on a date almost four decades ago, there is no statutory support for viewing the date that SMCRA was enacted as the baseline for determining whether an operation will prevent material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area. To the contrary, SMCRA indicates that such a finding should be made at the time of permit application. For instance, section 510(b)(3) of SMCRA
To avoid confusion with the term “existing uses” as employed under the Clean Water Act, however, we have decided to replace the term “existing uses” with “premining uses.” We intend no change in practical effect by this change in terminology because “premining uses” are the uses in existence at the time of preparation of the permit application or, in other words, the conditions in existence before the proposed or current operation. There are some places in the regulations, primarily related to approximate original contour, where we address conditions in existence before any mining activities. In those instances, we do not use the term premining. Instead, we refer to conditions “prior to any mining” or “before any mining”. For consistency in terminology, we are making these changes with respect to both groundwater and surface water.
Several commenters asserted that the proposed rule was inconsistent with SMCRA and would conflict with or duplicate the requirements of other federal laws—primarily the Clean Water Act. As support, many of these commenters cited Section 702 of SMCRA, which provides that “[n]othing in this Act shall be construed as superseding, amending, modifying, or repealing . . . any of the following Acts or with any rule or regulation promulgated thereunder, including, but not limited to . . . [t]he Federal Water Pollution Control Act, as amended, the State laws enacted pursuant thereto, or other Federal laws relating to the preservation of water quality.”
These commenters typically failed to appreciate the significance of the court's further holding in that case: “where the [Clean Water Act] and its underlying regulatory scheme are silent so as to constitute an `absence of regulation' or a `regulatory gap',
Several commenters argued that this rule was not, in fact, filling regulatory gaps, but instead was creating a regime that would be inconsistent with the Clean Water Act and associated water quality laws and would improperly require SMCRA regulatory authorities to set water quality standards and enforce the Clean Water Act. We disagree. The Clean Water Act is designed to cover many industries and activities. SMCRA, by contrast, is designed to regulate the environmental impacts of one specific industry. This distinction is significant because the later-enacted statute, SMCRA, unlike the Clean Water Act, provides for the regulation of the environmental impacts, including the hydrologic impacts, of all phases of mining operations—design, operation, and reclamation. Absent SMCRA, coal mining operations that impact waters outside the permit area would be subject only to the limited regulation authorized by the Clean Water Act. By including requirements in SMCRA to regulate the effects of coal mining on water and hydrologic balance,
Although nothing in the proposed rule conflicts with the Clean Water Act, because of commenters' concerns and to better effectuate our intent to improve coordination with Clean Water Act authorities, we modified the proposed rule in several key respects. We discuss these changes in more detail in the section-by-section analysis of the final rule.
Some commenters alleged that our proposed rule would conflict with the Clean Water Act because it does not afford the same degree of flexibility that the statute does. However, our rule does not reduce the flexibilities afforded to operators under the Clean Water Act. Under our final rule, mining operations may not preclude attainment of any designated uses under the Clean Water Act, if such uses have been established. Precluding such designated uses would constitute material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area under SMCRA. However, if no designated use exists, the standard becomes whether the operation is precluding any premining use of surface water outside the permit area.
One commenter asserted that designated uses under the Clean Water Act are “aspirational and cannot be met due to ambient values or nonpoint sources” and requested that we better explain what should occur in such situations. Another commenter raised similar concerns about how this proposed rule would account for the “flexible and adaptive implementation” of Clean Water Act standards. This commenter cited use attainability analysis, variances, and compliance
Multiple commenters alleged that the proposed rule gave the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (FWS) “veto power” over issuance of SMCRA permits. Specifically, the commenters expressed concern that proposed §§ 779.20(d)(2)(iv) and 780.16(e)(2)(iv), would subordinate state permitting authority to the FWS because those provisions specified that the regulatory authority may not approve a permit application until all issues related to the Endangered Species Act of 1973
In the final rule, we replaced proposed §§ 779.20(d)(2)(iv) and 780.16(e)(2)(iv) with a single consolidated provision in § 780.16(b)(2). That provision specifies that the regulatory authority may not approve a permit application before it finds that there is a demonstration of compliance with the Endangered Species Act through one of the mechanisms listed in § 773.15(j) of the final rule.
Nothing in SMCRA supersedes the Endangered Species Act or exempts surface coal mining operations from compliance with applicable provisions of that law and the implementing regulations. Sections 7(a)(1), (2) and (4) of the Endangered Species Act of 1973 provide authority for adoption of the regulations referenced above, which are intended to ensure that surface coal mining and reclamation operations conducted under approved state and federal SMCRA regulatory programs avoid violations of the Endangered Species Act. Section 7(a)(1) of the Endangered Species Act
Section 4 of the Endangered Species Act directs the Secretary of the Interior, through the FWS, to list threatened or endangered species of fish and wildlife or plants and to designate critical habitat for those species.
The Endangered Species Act provides several routes by which applicants may demonstrate compliance. An applicant may demonstrate that the proposed actions would have no effect on listed species. If the proposed action may affect a listed species or destroy or cause adverse modifications to designated critical habitat, the applicant must consult with the FWS under section 7
Paragraphs (j)(1) through (4) of final § 773.15 list four pathways by which the applicant and the regulatory authority may document compliance with the Endangered Species Act for surface coal mining and reclamation operations conducted under a SMCRA regulatory program. Paragraph (j)(1) applies when the applicant can document that the proposed surface coal mining and reclamation operations would have no effect on species listed or proposed for listing as threatened or endangered or on designated or proposed critical habitat. The joint U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service and National Marine Fisheries Service “Final Endangered Species Act Section 7 Consultation Handbook” (March 1998) states that the term “effect” means any impact, regardless of the severity or whether the impact is positive or negative.
Paragraphs (j)(2) through (4) apply when the proposed surface coal mining and reclamation operations may have an effect on species listed or proposed for listing as threatened or endangered or on designated or proposed critical habitat for those species. Paragraph (j)(2) allows an applicant to obtain protection against liability for incidental take of a threatened or endangered species by documenting compliance with a valid biological opinion that covers issuance of permits for surface coal mining operations and the conduct of those operations under the applicable regulatory program. Through the process of completing a section 7 consultation on the continuation of existing permits and the approval and conduct of future surface coal mining and reclamation operations under both state and federal regulatory programs adopted pursuant to SMCRA, as modified by this rule, OSMRE and the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service entered into a Memorandum of Understanding to improve interagency coordination and cooperation to ensure that proposed, threatened, and endangered species and proposed and designated critical habitat are adequately protected for all surface coal mining and reclamation permitting actions, including exploration operations, initial permit issuance, renewals, and significant revisions. The MOU complements the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service's 2016 programmatic Biological Opinion. Thus, compliance with the terms of that biological opinion and the MOU would satisfy final paragraph (j)(2).
Final paragraph (j)(3) applies where we are the regulatory authority or where a mining plan is required under part 746 of our regulations to mine leased federal coal. This provision specifies that the applicant may provide documentation that interagency consultation under section 7 of the Endangered Species Act has been completed for the proposed operation. The provision may also apply in the case where other federal permits are required for the proposed operation, depending upon the scope of the formal consultation. Paragraph (j)(4) provides an alternative that applies where a state regulatory authority is responsible for permitting actions and the proposed operation does not involve leased federal coal, and the operator does not utilize paragraph (j)(2) or (j)(3), where applicable. It specifies that the applicant may provide documentation that the proposed operation is covered under a permit issued pursuant to section 10 of the Endangered Species Act of 1973.
Section 701.5 contains definitions of both “material damage” and “material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area.” Many commenters asked that we make revisions to better distinguish between the definitions and clarify how they apply to underground mining operations. These commenters correctly note that section 510(b)(3) of SMCRA requires mine operators to prevent “material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area” but section 516(b)(1) of SMCRA requires prevention of “material damage” caused by subsidence from underground operations to the extent technologically and economically feasible.
As finalized, the definition of the term “material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area” applies generally to “an adverse impact . . . resulting from surface coal mining and reclamation operations, underground mining activities, or subsidence associated with underground mining activities.” These two definitions are intended to ensure that all provisions of SMCRA are given effect—material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area is prevented while material damage caused by subsidence is minimized to the extent technologically and economically feasible.
Numerous commenters expressed concern about the potential implications of applying the term “material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area” to underground mining activities and subsidence. These commenters objected to application of the definition of “material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area” to areas overlying the underground workings, which are part of the “adjacent area” as defined in § 701.5. They indicated that subsidence can cause a range of different impacts on water quantity and quality, including loss of flow through surface fracturing of the stream bed, loss of recharge due to a drop in the groundwater table below the stream bed elevation, loss of water supply sources like springs and seeps, and increased pollutant loadings;
We find that many of the concerns raised in the comments are overstated.
As noted previously, section 510(b)(3) of SMCRA
We have clarified and revised language in the final rule to ensure that longwall mining and other underground mining methods that use planned subsidence would not be prohibited, and that temporary impacts are allowed so long as they do not rise to the level of material damage to the hydrologic impacts outside of the permit area. SMCRA is clear that the regulatory authority may not approve any permit application for a surface coal mining operation, including one that involves underground mining activities, unless the application affirmatively demonstrates, consistent with final rule § 773.15, and the regulatory authority finds, in writing, that the proposed operation has been designed to prevent material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area.
We have also addressed comments about the effects of subsidence on land and waters overlying underground mine workings by revising our proposed definition of “material damage” and our subsidence control provisions at § 784.30 (previously located at § 784.20), and § 817.121. In addition to addressing concerns raised by commenters about the magnitude and longevity of subsidence-related impacts to streams, these changes will help reduce the confusion identified by one commenter regarding the application of material damage to certain features in the subsidence context.
The definition of “material damage” in § 701.5 of the final rule applies only in the context of the subsidence control provisions of §§ 784.30 and 817.121. Among other things, the definition as adopted in this final rule specifies that material damage includes “[a]ny functional impairment of surface lands, features (including wetlands, streams, and bodies of water), structures, or facilities.” Under § 784.30(c), mining may still occur when those features exist or may be materially damaged, provided that the applicant submits a subsidence control plan and the regulatory authority approves that plan. Among other requirements, the subsidence control plan must describe the anticipated effects of planned subsidence on wetlands, streams, and water bodies and the measures to be taken to mitigate or remedy any subsidence-related material damage to those features.
These revisions are consistent with our longstanding position about subsidence-related material damage. For instance, in our final rule addressing the subsidence provisions of the Energy Policy Act of 1992,
The term material damage, in the context of §§ 784.20 and 817.121 of this chapter, means any functional impairment of surface lands, features, structures or facilities. The material damage threshold includes any physical change that has a significant adverse impact on the affected land's capability to support any current or reasonably foreseeable uses, or that causes significant loss in production or income, or any significant change in the condition, appearance or utility of any structure or facility from its pre-subsidence condition. It would also include any situation in which an imminent danger to a person would be created.
Nothing in this final rule alters the meaning of the term “functional impairment” in the context of subsidence-related material damage. In addition, the preamble to the 1995 rules states that “[t]he definition of `material damage' covers damage to the surface and to surface features, such as wetlands, streams, and bodies of water, and to structures or facilities.”
The final rule includes language that requires the regulatory authority, when reviewing the determination of the probable hydrologic consequences of the operation in accordance with § 784.20 and the hydrologic reclamation plan in accordance with § 784.22, to (i) make a reasonable effort to assess the potential effects of subsidence from the proposed underground mining activities on streams and (ii) include remedial measures for any predicted diminution of streamflow as a result of subsidence. In summary, the final rule allows
A commenter suggested that we provide guidance on the location of the point of compliance for determining material damage to the hydrologic balance. Section 510(b)(3) of SMCRA
The areas outside the permit area that may be impacted by mining activities are within the “adjacent area” as that term is defined in § 701.5. Generally, paragraph (1) of the definition of “adjacent area” includes the area outside the proposed or actual permit area within which there is a reasonable probability of adverse impacts from surface coal mining operations or underground mining activities. Moreover, the area comprised within this term will vary with the context in which a regulation uses this term. For example, the nature of the resource or resources addressed by a regulation in which the term “adjacent area” appears will determine the size and other dimensions of the adjacent area for purposes of that regulation.
For underground mines, paragraph (2) of the definition specifies that the adjacent area includes, “at a minimum, the area overlying the underground workings plus the area within a reasonable angle of dewatering from the perimeter of the underground workings.” Thus, surface water and groundwater outside the permit area, but within the adjacent area, must be protected from material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area. We discuss other issues pertaining to the term “material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area” in the preamble to the definition of that term.
Section 510(b)(3) of SMCRA
The regulatory authority prepares the CHIA after technical review of the permit application is complete, using both the information in the application and other available data about the cumulative impact area. The application components most critical to preparation of the CHIA are the baseline data on surface water and groundwater; the “determination of the probable hydrologic consequences of the mining and reclamation operations, both on and off the mine site,” required by section 507(b)(11) of SMCRA;
Section 780.21(b)(6) of this final rule provides that the regulatory authority must identify site-specific numeric or narrative material damage thresholds for each permit as part of the CHIA and include those thresholds as a condition
In developing thresholds to define when material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area would occur in connection with a particular permit, final § 780.21(b)(6)(i) specifies that the regulatory authority will, in consultation with the Clean Water Act authority, as appropriate, undertake a comprehensive evaluation that considers the baseline data collected under § 780.19 of the final rule, the probable hydrologic consequences determination prepared under § 780.20 of the final rule, applicable water quality standards adopted under the authority of section 303(c) of the Clean Water Act,
Final § 780.21(b)(6)(iii) requires that the regulatory authority identify the portion of the cumulative impact area to which each material damage threshold applies. This provision recognizes that the parameters selected and material damage threshold levels may vary within the cumulative impact area when appropriate, based upon differences in watershed characteristics and variations in the geology, hydrology, and biology of the cumulative impact area. For instance, if the operation would create point-source or nonpoint-source discharges to more than one receiving stream, material damage thresholds for surface water may vary from one watershed within the cumulative impact area to another, taking into consideration differences in watershed characteristics. Similarly, material damage thresholds for groundwater may vary from one part of the cumulative impact area to another to reflect variations in the geology or subsurface hydrology of the cumulative impact area. Regulatory authorities should closely coordinate with the relevant state agencies in identifying appropriate material damage thresholds for groundwater.
Material damage thresholds apply at all points outside the permit area. Final § 780.21(b)(6)(iv), therefore, provides that in the CHIA, the regulatory authority, must identify the points within the cumulative impact area at which the permittee will monitor the impacts of the operation on surface water and groundwater outside the permit area and explain how those locations will facilitate timely detection of the impacts of the operation on surface water and groundwater outside the permit area.
In the preamble to the proposed rule,
However, the final rule uses the term “evaluation thresholds” rather than “corrective action thresholds” because exceedance of this type of threshold does not necessarily require initiation of corrective action. Instead, an evaluation threshold identifies the point at which the regulatory authority must investigate the cause of an adverse trend in water quality or quantity outside the permit area. If the investigation finds that the mining operation is responsible for the adverse trend and that the adverse trend is likely to continue in the absence of corrective action, § 780.21(b)(7)(ii) of the final rule requires that the regulatory authority issue a permit revision order under § 774.10. That order must require that the permittee reassess the adequacy of the PHC determination prepared under § 780.20 and the hydrologic reclamation plan approved under § 780.20 and develop appropriate measures to minimize the possibility that the operation could cause material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area in the future. The purpose of setting evaluation thresholds and establishing monitoring points is to detect impacts and provide an early warning system to alert both the permittee and the regulatory authority of adverse trends that, left uncorrected, would result in material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area if the trajectory of the trend remains unaltered. Early detection of adverse trends and timely implementation of corrective measures benefits both the environment and the permittee by preventing the development of water quality or quantity problems that may be difficult, expensive, or impossible to correct. Use of evaluation thresholds also may assist in avoiding SMCRA permit violations.
Section 780.21(b)(7) of the final rule requires that the regulatory authority identify evaluation thresholds for critical water quality and quantity parameters. These critical parameters are characterized as those that could rise to the level of material damage. We expect that the regulatory authority will use best professional judgment in determining which parameters are critical. The final rule does not dictate how the regulatory authority must identify appropriate evaluation thresholds for critical parameters, which means that the regulatory authority has considerable flexibility. For example, the regulatory authority may decide to apply an across-the-board percentage reduction from the corresponding material damage thresholds or it may decide to determine evaluation thresholds on a case-by-case basis.
An exceedance of an evaluation threshold is not itself a violation under SMCRA or the SMCRA permit because evaluation thresholds are not incorporated as a condition of the permit and do not constitute enforceable standards. Moreover, exceedances of evaluation thresholds may not necessarily be the result of the mining operation. For that reason, an exceedance of an evaluation threshold only triggers a requirement under final § 780.21(b)(7) that the regulatory authority determine the cause of the exceedance in consultation with the Clean Water Act authority, as appropriate. If the mining operation is
We encourage the permittee to identify any exceedance of an evaluation threshold as part of its review of water monitoring records and notify the regulatory authority, which will then determine how to proceed with determining the cause of the exceedance. Additionally, the SMCRA inspector will, as part of each complete inspection conducted on a quarterly basis, review water monitoring records to determine if an evaluation threshold has been exceeded. If the inspector identifies an exceedance, the regulatory authority, in consultation with the Clean Water Act authority, as appropriate, will then determine the cause of the exceedance and, if necessary, issue an order requiring that the permittee submit a permit revision application, as discussed above. In addition, § 780.21(c)(2) of the final rule provides that the regulatory authority must reevaluate the CHIA at intervals not to exceed three years to determine whether the CHIA remains accurate and whether the material damage and evaluation thresholds in the CHIA and the permit are adequate to ensure that material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area will not occur. This review must consider all biological and water monitoring data from all surface coal mining and reclamation operations within the cumulative impact area.
We are the regulatory authority in Tennessee. We have used evaluation thresholds successfully in our Knoxville Field Office (KFO) for many years, resulting in cost-effective and practical improvements to water quality. For example, KFO routinely uses an evaluation threshold of 1.0 mg/l for iron in a receiving stream. Water monitoring data for a site subsequently documented an exceedance of that threshold after the surface mining operation disturbed flooded abandoned underground mine workings. The permittee had attempted to divert the flow from those workings to a pond for treatment. However, the diversion was not fully successful, and some of the water entered the receiving stream without treatment. KFO required the permittee to construct a three-cell wetland treatment system and divert all water from the underground workings to that system, which is successfully treating the water. This corrective action prevented material damage to the hydrologic balance from occurring. KFO conducted the investigation jointly with the Tennessee Clean Water Act permitting authority.
Final rule § 780.23(a) and (b) require that each permit application include plans to monitor both surface water and groundwater. Those paragraphs also provide that the plans must be adequate to evaluate the impacts of the mining operation on surface water and groundwater in the proposed permit and adjacent areas and to determine in a timely manner whether corrective action is needed to prevent the operation from causing material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area. Among other things, the final rule requires that the plans include monitoring points at the locations specified in the CHIA prepared by the regulatory authority under § 780.21(b)(6)(iv) of the final rule.
Paragraphs (a)(1)(iii) and (b)(1)(iv) of final § 780.23 require that the permittee establish a sufficient number of appropriate monitoring locations to evaluate the accuracy of the findings in the PHC determination, to identify adverse trends, and to determine, in a timely fashion, whether corrective action is needed to prevent material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area. Under final § 780.23(b)(1)(iv)(B), the surface water monitoring plan must include upgradient and downgradient monitoring locations in each perennial and intermittent stream within the proposed permit and adjacent areas, with the exception that no upgradient monitoring location is needed for a stream when the operation will mine through the headwaters of that stream. Similarly, under final § 780.23(a)(1)(iii)(A), the groundwater monitoring plan must include monitoring wells or equivalent monitoring points located upgradient and downgradient of the proposed operation. That requirement applies to each aquifer above or immediately below the lowest coal seam to be mined.
Paragraphs (a)(2)(i) and (b)(2)(i) of final § 780.23 specify that, at a minimum, the surface water and groundwater monitoring plans must provide for the monitoring of those parameters for which evaluation thresholds exist under § 780.21(b)(7). In addition, paragraphs (a)(2)(ii) and (b)(2)(ii) of final § 780.23 require analysis of each sample for the baseline parameters listed in § 780.19(a)(2) and for all parameters for which evaluation thresholds exist under § 780.21(b)(7).
Final § 816.35(a)(2) requires that the permittee conduct groundwater monitoring through mining, reclamation, and the applicable revegetation responsibility period under § 816.115 of the final rule for the monitored area. The permittee must continue to monitor groundwater beyond that date for any additional time needed for monitoring results to demonstrate that the criteria of § 816.35(d)(1) and (2) have been met, as determined by the regulatory authority. Paragraphs (d)(1) and (2) of § 816.35 establish the conditions under which the regulatory authority may approve modification of the groundwater monitoring requirements, including the parameters monitored and the sampling frequency. For example, the regulatory authority may reduce the frequency of groundwater monitoring from quarterly to annual if it determines that the reduced frequency will be adequate to detect adverse trends in a timely manner, based on the rate of groundwater movement.
Specifically, paragraphs (d)(1) and (2) of final § 816.35 provide that the permittee may request, and the regulatory authority may approve, modification of the groundwater monitoring plan based on a demonstration that, with respect to the parameter or parameters affected by the proposed modification, future adverse changes in groundwater quantity or quality are unlikely to occur and the operation has—
• Minimized disturbance to the hydrologic balance in the permit and adjacent areas;
• Prevented material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area;
• Preserved or restored the biological condition of perennial and intermittent streams within the permit and adjacent areas for which baseline biological condition data was collected under § 780.19(c)(6)(vi) when groundwater from the permit area provides all or part of the base flow of those streams;
• Maintained or restored the availability and quality of groundwater to the extent necessary to support the approved postmining land uses within the permit area; and
• Protected or replaced the water rights of other users.
Nothing in § 816.35(d)(1) and (2) authorize complete discontinuance of monitoring at any monitoring location (except as approved under § 784.40 for certain underground mines) or discontinuance of monitoring of all parameters for the entire operation before expiration of the applicable revegetation responsibility period under § 816.115 for the monitored area. Given the typically slow rate of groundwater movement and the length of time needed to reestablish the water table in the backfilled area, discontinuance of monitoring before expiration of the applicable revegetation responsibility period under § 816.115 likely would result in discontinuance of groundwater monitoring before groundwater within the reclaimed permit area has reached equilibrium with groundwater in the adjacent area. That result would negate the purposes of the monitoring program, one of which is to evaluate whether the operation has caused material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area.
Final § 816.36 contains identical requirements for surface water monitoring, with the exception that paragraph (a)(2) requires that surface water monitoring continue through mining and during reclamation until the regulatory authority releases the entire bond amount for the monitored area under §§ 800.40 through 800.43. This difference reflects the fact that surface water monitoring, unlike groundwater monitoring, does not involve wells that the permittee must seal or transfer under § 816.13 of the final rule before applying for final bond release. In addition, final § 816.36(d)(2) contains one additional requirement for modification of the surface water monitoring plan for a permit: The permittee must demonstrate that the operation has not precluded attainment of any designated use of surface water under section 303(c) of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1313(c).
Paragraph (c) of final section 780.23 further requires that the permit application include a plan for monitoring the biological condition of each perennial and intermittent stream within the proposed permit and adjacent areas for which baseline biological condition data was collected under § 780.19(c)(6)(vi). The plan must be adequate to evaluate the impacts of the mining operation on the biological condition of those streams and to determine in a timely manner whether corrective action is needed to prevent the operation from causing material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area.
Each Clean Water Act authority is required to conduct an assessment of each stream within state borders to determine if the water is meeting all state and federal water quality criteria. If a stream is not meeting all state and federal water quality criteria, it is considered to be impaired. Under section 303(d) of the Clean Water Act, each state is required to submit a list of these impaired waters to the Environmental Protection Agency “from time to time” (but at least every three years). Section 303(d) of the Clean Water Act also requires each state to prioritize the waters on the impaired waters list and develop a plan to rehabilitate the stream so that it is able to meet all state and federal water quality criteria. This plan involves estimating the total maximum daily load (TMDL) of various water quality parameters from all known and reasonably foreseeable sources (point and non-point sources) that an impaired stream is expected to contain while moving along its flow path. The plan's objective is to decrease the pollutant load and enable the stream to meet all state and federal water quality standards. These TMDLs serve as a blueprint to ensure that an impaired stream meets all state and federal water quality criteria and achieves its highest designated use.
TMDLs can be calculated to implement a narrative stream condition or to focus on a specific parameter.
Both the applicant and the regulatory authority need to carefully consider the impact of a proposed operation on the impaired hydrologic conditions in a watershed with a 303(d)-listed water. Under section 510(b)(3) of SMCRA and § 773.15(e) of this final rule, the SMCRA regulatory authority may not approve a permit application unless the applicant demonstrates, and the regulatory authority finds, that the proposed operation has been designed to prevent material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area. Before making this finding, the SMCRA regulatory authority must prepare a cumulative hydrologic impact analysis (CHIA) that identifies and analyzes the cumulative impacts of all anticipated mining, including the proposed operation, on the hydrologic balance in the cumulative impact area, including impacts on the water quality and biology of the receiving stream.
Scientific studies completed since the enactment of SMCRA and the adoption of our existing rules have documented the importance of headwater streams in maintaining the ecological health and function of streams down gradient of headwater streams. Headwater streams include all first-order and second-order streams without regard to whether those streams are perennial, intermittent, or ephemeral. In 2015, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency published a report summarizing the findings of peer-reviewed studies of headwater streams and wetlands and the impact they have on the physical, chemical, and biological integrity of downstream
The report identifies five principal contributions of ephemeral streams: (1) Providing streamflow to larger streams; (2) conveying water into local storage compartments such as ponds, shallow aquifers, or streambanks that are important sources of water for maintenance of the baseflow in larger streams; (3) transporting sediment, woody debris, and nutrients; (4) providing the biological connectivity that is necessary either to support the life cycle of some invertebrates or to facilitate the transport of terrestrial invertebrates that serve as food resources in downstream communities; and (5) influencing fundamental biogeochemical processes such as the assimilation and transformation of nitrogen that may otherwise have detrimental impacts on downstream communities. In addition, headwater streams, including ephemeral and intermittent streams, shape downstream channels by accumulating and gradually or episodically releasing stored materials such as sediment and large woody debris.
Our previous rules included no protections for ephemeral streams. Consistent with the findings of the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency report and other studies, our proposed rule included some protections for ephemeral streams, tailored to their hydrologic and ecological functions. We also invited comment on whether we should extend equal protection to all streams, without regard to whether the stream is perennial, intermittent, or ephemeral.
We received numerous comments from environmental groups advocating that ephemeral streams be protected in the same manner as perennial and intermittent streams. One commenter stated: “OSMRE's analysis should start from a presumptive rule of equal protection for all streams, and any assertion of countervailing business impacts should be considered only if it is backed by evidence included in the administrative record.” Many environmental commenters asserted that a strong stream protection rule must include protection of ephemeral streams because they are an essential element of the hydrologic balance.
In contrast, industry commenters opposed affording ephemeral streams the same protections as intermittent and perennial streams. This paragraph summarizes some of those arguments:
• The U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, an agency with considerable expertise on the subject of streams, rarely requires returning all ephemeral features to the postmining landscape.
• Some ephemeral streams are the result of anthropogenic activities and may be undesirable.
• Many ephemeral streams will find their own way back onto the landscape, depending on many factors including the final configuration of the reclamation. Restoring these lesser drainages is a waste of effort when nature will do it better.
• Disallowing the placement of sediment ponds in ephemeral drainages would result in logistically difficult or impossible situations or at least a greatly increased disturbance from additional ditching and a larger number of ponds.
• It makes no sense and is counterproductive to reconstruct erosional features when reclamation provides the opportunity to reshape the landscape to reduce erosion.
• Ephemeral streams have minimal if any biological components.
• In Wyoming's Powder River Basin, extending protection to ephemeral streams could result in 2,800 tons of coal per foot of channel being left unmined. This equates to 15 million tons of coal sterilized for every mile of channel that could not be mined. Surface coal mines in Wyoming can have upwards of 100 miles of ephemeral channels within the permit boundary. If all of the channels were to become unmineable, approximately 1.5 billion tons of coal for each mine would be sterilized.
• Typical mining techniques in the Powder River Basin utilize draglines and truck shovels. Efficient dragline operations require long linear pits. If ephemeral streams become unmineable, these types of operations will no longer be economic or efficient because of the number of ephemeral channels that bisect these pits.
• The Bureau of Land Management requires that a bonus bid be paid at the time a federal coal lease is awarded. To date, coal underlying ephemeral stream channels has been considered recoverable, which means that companies have paid bonus bids ranging from $0.85 to $1.35 per ton for coal underlying ephemeral streams in leases awarded during the past 5 years. If ephemeral channels are considered unmineable, this will create a significant economic hardship for the mining companies. Federal and state governments also will experience a loss of revenue.
Many commenters thought that the term “ephemeral stream” included all conveyances that were not either perennial or intermittent streams. However, the definition of “ephemeral stream” that we are adopting in § 701.5 as part of this final rule addresses this issue by providing that ephemeral streams include only those conveyances with channels that display both a bed-and-bank configuration and an ordinary high water mark.
After evaluating the comments, reviewing the scientific literature, and weighing potential costs and benefits, we decided not to extend the same protections to ephemeral streams that we do to intermittent and perennial streams.
However, as part of this final rule, we adopted most of the added protections for ephemeral streams that we included in our proposed rule. The final rule will protect the important role that ephemeral streams perform within watersheds including providing
Proposed §§ 780.19(c)(6) and 784.19(c)(6) required that the permit applicant identify and map all ephemeral streams within the proposed permit and adjacent areas. Those proposed rules also required that the applicant describe the physical and hydrologic characteristics of those streams in detail, as well as any associated vegetation in the riparian zone if one exists. In addition, they required that the applicant assess the biological condition of a representative sample of those ephemeral streams. The final rule applies these proposed requirements only to ephemeral streams within the proposed permit area because those are the only ephemeral streams that the proposed operation would disturb and for which the operation would incur reclamation requirements. Requiring this information for ephemeral streams within the adjacent area would be costly and time-consuming and would not assist the regulatory authority in reviewing the permit application because no performance standards apply to ephemeral streams in the adjacent area. In addition, the final rule does not include the proposed requirement for baseline information on the biological condition of ephemeral streams because no scientifically defensible protocol currently exists for use in ephemeral streams for that purpose.
Proposed §§ 780.20, 780.21, 784.20, and 784.21 required that the determination of the probable hydrologic consequences of mining (PHC determination) and the cumulative hydrologic impact assessment (CHIA) include consideration of impacts on the biological condition of ephemeral streams. Those sections of the final rule do not include this proposed requirement because established and scientifically defensible protocols do not currently exist for use in determining the biological condition of ephemeral streams.
Proposed §§ 780.19(c)(3), 780.20(a)(5)(iv), 784.19(c)(3), and 784.20(a)(5)(iv) included peak flow baseline data collection and analysis requirements for ephemeral streams within the proposed permit and adjacent areas. The final rule does not include these requirements because this information is unnecessary for the analysis of the proposed operation's impacts on flooding that the PHC determination must contain. The baseline precipitation data required by final §§ 780.19(c)(5) and 784.19(c)(5) in combination with the description of the general stream-channel configuration of ephemeral streams within the proposed permit area required by final §§ 780.19(c)(6) and 784.19(c)(6) will provide all necessary information needed for that analysis, given that ephemeral streams flow only in direct response to precipitation events.
Proposed §§ 780.12(d)(1) and 784.12(d)(1) required that the backfilling and grading plan in the reclamation plan include contour maps, cross-sections, or models that show in detail the anticipated final surface configuration, including drainage patterns, of the proposed permit area. The final rule adopts those provisions as proposed. Final §§ 780.12(b)(3) and 784.12(b)(3) also provide that the reclamation timetable must include establishment of the surface drainage pattern and stream-channel configuration approved in the permit, including construction of appropriately-designed perennial, intermittent, and ephemeral stream channels to replace those removed by mining. Proposed §§ 780.28(c)(1) and 784.28(c)(1) required that the postmining drainage pattern, including ephemeral streams, be similar to the premining drainage pattern, with limited exceptions. Sections 780.27(b) and 784.27(b) of the final rule adopt these provisions in revised form for ephemeral streams. They allow variances from the premining drainage pattern when the regulatory authority finds that a different pattern or configuration is necessary or appropriate to ensure stability; prevent or minimize downcutting or widening of reconstructed stream channels and control meander migration; promote enhancement of fish and wildlife habitat; accommodate any anticipated temporary or permanent increase in surface runoff as a result of mining and reclamation; accommodate the construction of excess spoil fills, coal mine waste refuse piles, or coal mine waste impounding structures; replace a stream that was channelized or otherwise severely altered prior to submittal of the permit application with a more natural, relatively stable, and ecologically sound drainage pattern or stream-channel configuration; or reclaim a previously mined area.
Proposed §§ 780.28(b)(3) and 784.28(b)(3) provided that, after mining through an ephemeral stream, the permittee must plant native species within a 100-foot corridor on both sides of the reconstructed stream. Sections 780.27(c), 784.27(c), 816.57(d), and 817.57(d) of the final rule adopt this requirement with some revisions. The streamside vegetative corridor must be consistent with natural vegetation patterns. The streamside vegetative corridor requirement would not apply to prime farmland or when establishment of a corridor comprised of native species would be incompatible with an approved postmining land use that is implemented before final bond release. Establishment of a streamside vegetative corridor is critical to ensuring restoration of the nutrient and organic matter transport functions of ephemeral streams.
Proposed §§ 780.19(e)(2) and 784.19(e)(2) would have required the use of multimetric bioassessment protocols to assess the baseline ecological function of perennial, intermittent, and ephemeral streams and to establish stream restoration criteria (
We received comments both in support of and in opposition to the use of macroinvertebrate sampling and associated indexes for those purposes.
As discussed in Part IV, section O of this preamble, several commenters criticized our proposal to treat ephemeral streams in the same manner as intermittent and perennial streams. These commenters strongly encouraged us to remove requirements to assess the baseline condition of ephemeral streams using bioassessment protocols that sample macroinvertebrate populations within ephemeral streams. They claimed it would yield no valid data for assessing the baseline condition of SMCRA-related activities and would be unduly costly. We agree. The final rule does not include assessment of biological condition requirements related to ephemeral streams.
In addition, commenters suggested that there are other scientifically valid protocols that should be included as options for baseline stream assessment and monitoring. According to these commenters, these other protocols are also robust, scientifically defensible methods developed and applied by states, territories, and tribes. They include predictive and discriminant modeling approaches. We agree and have added these as acceptable methods in the final rule.
In light of the comments received, we identified and analyzed other options that commenters suggested for assessing the baseline condition of and monitoring streams: The Rapid Bioassessment Protocol III (RBPIII), which is set out in the 1989 EPA Publication, “Rapid Bioassessment Protocols for Use in Streams and Rivers;” the Before-After-Control-Impact design (BACI); and hydrogeomorphic sampling protocols. We also considered using IBIs that were designed for perennial streams to assess the baseline condition of and monitor intermittent and ephemeral streams (as is occasionally done by Clean Water Act authorities).
Our analysis identified some positive attributes of the RBPIII protocol. It would provide a more thorough baseline assessment of the ecological function and biological condition of the premining site than some other methods. It would demonstrate with greater certainty whether or not the permittee had minimized the adverse effects of coal mining on upstream and downstream waters. It is based on sound scientific principles (quantitative or semi-quantitative designs that can be analyzed statistically). Finally the RBPIII is relatively easy to use and can be rapidly deployed. However, the RBPIII also has significant drawbacks. It would require the regulatory authority or the permittee to establish, assess, and monitor a set of reference streams on a permit-by-permit basis. This in turn would pose an issue of statistical validity: The variability between the relatively small number of reference streams and the streams potentially affected by the permitted operation could be great enough to mask significant impacts that mining might have on the affected streams. Differences in methodology (
Our analysis also showed positive and negative aspects to using the BACI protocols. On the positive side, BACI analysis would be specific to each permit area or even each particular stream and would allow the regulatory authority to tailor monitoring and baseline assessment to each permit. This could allow for variances from the kind of state or regional standard that an IBI or other larger-scale protocols might impose. BACI analysis could be less costly than some other approaches because the regulatory authority can perform one analysis that evaluates multiple streams, including every stream in the permit area. Under this kind of analysis one premining sampling event and additional postmining samplings would result in a statistically valid analysis. On the negative side, the BACI analysis requires use of control sites. This could create a number of problems in the context of SMCRA permits. First, if the control site is not selected correctly, it could result in a skewed analysis or a situation in which an analysis may not be possible after mining is complete. Second, under this kind of analysis, the control sites must remain in their original condition for the duration of the mining operation. This may not be practicable because those sites might be beyond the permittee's control. They also could be affected by activities other than mining, such as industrialization, logging, or urbanization within the watershed. Third, while the BACI protocol may be cheaper than some alternatives, permittees still would incur additional costs for sampling not only baseline and impacted streams but the control streams. Fourth, additional control streams might have to be incorporated into the permit area if enough suitable control streams are not present in the initially designed permit area. This could lead to additional costs and permitting delays. Fifth, control sites would have to be identified and monitored for each individual permit. This would increase costs and might lead to permitting delays. Finally, one of the greatest drawbacks of the BACI analysis is that, although it can assess large changes to biological condition and ecological function, it may miss smaller changes. Indeed, this kind of analysis might not be any more protective than the previous regulations.
We found no benefit to using hydrogeomorphic protocols. Although they are easy to implement, they do not require macroinvertebrate sampling. In general, they provide no greater benefit than the types of analysis that have been used in connection with our previous regulations.
Finally we determined that it is not currently appropriate to use protocols
In sum, after consideration of these other methods, as provided in final §§ 780.19(c)(6)(vii) and 784.19(c)(6)(vii), we determined that the best technology currently available for baseline assessment and monitoring purposes for perennial streams is the use of IBIs or other equally scientifically defensible stream assessment protocols developed and applied by states, territories, and tribes. These other scientifically defensible stream assessment protocols would include predictive and discriminant modeling approaches, such as those in place in many western states. The final rule requires use of these methods and protocols for all perennial streams within and adjacent to the proposed permit area. Some states and regions have developed indices of biotic integrity or bioassessment protocols for intermittent streams. In those instances, final §§ 780.28(g)(3)(iii) and 780.19(c)(6)(vii) and their counterparts in §§ 784.28 and 784.19 require use of those protocols to assess the baseline condition of and to monitor intermittent streams. Requiring these types of baseline assessments and monitoring protocols instead of the RBPIII, BACI, hydrogeomorphic protocols, and instead of using perennial stream indices for intermittent and ephemeral streams will encourage the further development of scientifically defensible methods and protocols.
We realize, however, that at present few scientifically defensible protocols have been established for bioassessments of intermittent streams. In the final rule, we do not require that SMCRA regulatory authorities develop new protocols for this purpose, but we do require them to reevaluate the best technology currently available for intermittent streams every 5 years and make any appropriate adjustments to account for new protocols that may have been developed.
Many commenters argued that there is no scientific support, in the form of published peer-reviewed studies, for the proposition that reconstructed streams can effectively replace streams that existed before mining, especially in regard to ecological function and premining biology. In a similar vein, some commenters urged us to prohibit mining activities within areas in which streams occur because stream restoration is unattainable. For example, one commenter stated: “[T]he unproven ability to fully restore the functions and uses of streams damaged by subsidence necessitates that the rule require avoidance of such damage as a primary consideration.” According to commenters, we did not provide sufficient evidence that the ecological condition of streams could be restored with the available technology and science. They alleged that our rule created an impossible standard of reclamation, a standard that had not been demonstrated to be achievable by operators or enforceable by regulatory authorities.
Some industry commenters agreed that full restoration of perennial and intermittent streams is not attainable. According to those commenters, we should not adopt a rule that establishes an unattainable standard.
We agree that full restoration of the biology and ecological function of mined-through streams is not always possible and that restoration of those streams has often fallen short of goals. However, our experience indicates that restoration of impaired streams is possible after mining. Streams that were not attaining their designated aquatic life use have been shown to improve enough, through restoration techniques, to be removed from the section 303(d)
In addition, standards to assess and monitor ecological function are both established and currently in use to regulate activities within streams and reclamation projects across the United States. When consistent with SMCRA, we incorporated those standards into the final rule. In addition, we analyzed the shortcomings of past efforts to restore streams to determine how this rule could improve the results. Recent literature advocates a watershed approach to determining the restoration capacity of degraded, or potentially degraded, streams.
Derek B. Booth, et al.,
Eric R. Merriam & J. Todd Petty,
Moritz Leps et al., 2016.
Jennifer J. Follstad Shah et al., 2007.
S.W. Miller et al., 2010.
This final rule improves our stream assessment and restoration requirements and analyzes these resources listed in the above paragraph, beginning at the application process. Upstream habitat and water quantity and quality will be assessed as part of the baseline data required in a permit application. Under the final rule, streambank and buffer zone vegetation will receive greater protection or restoration, including using native species (
This final rule is intended to increase protection or restoration of perennial and intermittent streams and related environmental resources, as well as to ensure that permittees and regulatory authorities make use of advances in science and technology. The final rule provides that restoration of ecological function does not mean that the restored stream must precisely mirror the premining condition. For example, as section 780.28(g)(3)(ii)(A) of our final rule states, a demonstration of ecological function does not require that the reconstructed stream have precisely the same biological condition or biota as the stream segment did before mining. This is consistent with current, scientifically defensible bioassessment protocols used throughout a wide range of regulatory arenas, which allow for a natural range in variation of reference sites to which the assessments are compared.
We recognize that stream restoration and creation is an emerging area of scientific study and that in some cases the reconstruction of functional stream channels on mined land can be difficult. It may be impossible in some cases to precisely mirror the ecological function that was there before mining. However, as we have just discussed, that is not what our rule requires. We also note, however, that one of the purposes of SMCRA is to ensure that “surface mining operations are not conducted where reclamation as required by this Act is not feasible” and that SMCRA therefore requires a permit applicant to demonstrate that “reclamation as required [by SMCRA] and the State or Federal program can be accomplished under the reclamation plan contained in the permit application[.]” If analysis of the baseline data and other information in the application indicates restoration of a stream cannot be accomplished through use of conventional mining and reclamation technology, the applicant will need to adjust the proposed operation and reclamation plan to either avoid that stream or take other measures (
Numerous commenters urged us to promulgate a rule consistent with their interpretation of the 1983 stream buffer zone rule as prohibiting all mining activities in or within 100 feet of a perennial or intermittent stream. They argued that the proposed rule weakens this interpretation of the 1983 rule by “placing more emphases on mitigation of impacts on streams than on protection and prevention.” They claim that the lack of science on successful restoration of stream form and function renders the proposed rule less protective than their interpretation of the 1983 rule and allows for the continued destruction of streams. Other commenters maintain that the proposed rule is inconsistent with section 515(b)(24) of SMCRA,
The preamble to our proposed rule discusses the history of the 1983 stream buffer zone rule in significant detail (
While we have not adopted a strict prohibition standard for mining activities within the stream buffer zone, we have in our final rule required that certain conditions be met in order for the regulatory authority to authorize such activities. The final rule allows mining activities in or within 100 feet of an intermittent or perennial stream only if the permit applicant makes certain demonstrations and the regulatory authority makes certain findings. When the applicant proposes to mine through a perennial or an intermittent stream, these required findings include the ability of the permittee to actually restore the form, hydrologic function, and ecological function of the stream as part of the reclamation process. We intend these requirements to ensure that the reconstructed stream will actually have sufficient base flow, water quality, and an aquatic community similar to that which existed prior to mining. As discussed more comprehensively in
The final rule allows burial of intermittent or perennial streams with excess spoil or coal mine waste only if the permit applicant demonstrates and the regulatory authority finds that the loss of resources associated with the burial of a stream will be offset through fish and wildlife enhancement measures commensurate with the magnitude of the adverse impacts from burial of the stream. In addition, the area where proposed enhancement activities are to occur must be incorporated into the permit and bonded for reclamation. In approving a plan that provides for the appropriate level of enhancement, the regulatory authority also must establish standards for determining when reclamation bonds can be released for such areas. This regulatory approach ensures that the desired results are actually achieved, and, if they are not, the regulatory authority will be in a position to use the proceeds from forfeiture of the reclamation bonds to accomplish the desired objective of the approved reclamation plan.
The final rule includes organizational changes for clarity. Those changes serve several purposes, including—
• Breaking up overly long sections and paragraphs into multiple shorter sections and paragraphs for ease of reference and improved comprehension.
• Renumbering sections in the underground mining rules to align their numbering with the corresponding sections in the surface mining rules. This change improves ease of reference and the user-friendliness of our rules.
• Moving permitting requirements from subchapter K (performance standards) to subchapter G to consolidate permitting requirements in subchapter G.
• Restructuring subchapter G to better distinguish between baseline information requirements and reclamation plan requirements.
• Removing redundant, suspended, and obsolete provisions.
In general, we drafted the final rule using plain language principles, consistent with section 501(b) of SMCRA, 30 U.S.C. 1251(a), which provides that regulations must be “concise and written in plain, understandable language,” and Executive Order 13563, which provides that our regulatory system “must ensure that regulations are accessible, consistent, written in plain language, and easy to understand.”
Plain language requirements vary from one document to another, depending on the intended audience. Plain language documents have logical organization and easy-to-read design features like short sections, short sentences, tables, and lots of white space. They use common everyday words (except for necessary technical terms), pronouns, the active voice, and a question-and-answer format when feasible.
The final rule text and preamble use the pronouns “we,” “us,” and “our” to refer to OSMRE, and the pronouns “I,” “you,” and “your” to refer to a permit applicant or permittee. We avoid use of the word “shall” in the rule text and preamble, except in quoted material. Instead, we use “must” to indicate an obligation, “will” to identify a future event, and “may not” to convey a prohibition.
Except as otherwise discussed in the preamble to this final rule, we are adopting the regulations as proposed on July 27, 2015, for the reasons set forth in the preamble to the proposed rule. In this portion of the preamble to the final rule, we explain our responses to the comments that we received on the text of the proposed regulations. We also discuss how we revised the proposed regulations in response to those comments and other considerations. However, in general, we do not discuss syntax improvements, plain language changes, and other revisions of a minor nature.
This discussion refers to previous, existing, proposed, and final rules and regulations. In general, we use “previous” when we refer to regulations that will no longer exist once this final rule is effective. We use “existing” to describe regulations that are unaffected by this rulemaking. “Proposed” regulations are the regulations set forth in our July 27, 2015, proposed rule. The term “final” refers to the regulations that we are adopting today, including existing regulations that are redesignated in this rulemaking.
We proposed to revise § 700.11(d) to add clarity to the regulations, to conform them with proposed revisions to 30 CFR part 800 concerning financial assurances for treatment of long-term discharges, and to add provisions consistent with a court decision that resulted from a previous rulemaking. The rationale for the proposed revisions is set forth at 80 FR 44436, 44466-44467 (Jul. 27, 2015). We received no comments specific to proposed paragraphs (d)(1) and (4), so they are not discussed below.
One commenter expressed concern that replacement of the term “increment” with “portion” in the introductory language of paragraph (d)(2) implies that a permittee may apply for bond release on a portion of a permit that has not been separately bonded as an increment. According to the commenter, bonds and jurisdiction apply to the entire permit or to the permit increment for which bond is posted. The commenter stated that our permitting, bonding, and termination of jurisdiction regulations need to use the same terminology so that regulators and the public can easily discern which sections of a mine are active or in reclamation and which sections are eligible for release and eventual termination of jurisdiction.
Our regulations restrict termination of jurisdiction to those areas for which bond has been fully released, but otherwise, we do not agree that our permitting, bonding, and termination of jurisdiction regulations must use the same terminology or that the boundaries of each original permit increment must remain inviolate. Under § 800.13(b),
One commenter opposed the proposed revisions to this paragraph because, in the commenter's opinion, they would require that, even in primacy states, bond release and termination of jurisdiction be based upon 30 CFR part 800 rather than the provisions of the applicable regulatory program. That was not the intent of our proposed revisions. To avoid this misinterpretation, final paragraph (d)(2)(ii) provides for termination of jurisdiction whenever the regulatory authority has made a final decision to fully release the performance bond or financial assurance in accordance with the applicable regulatory program. The revised language is similar to the language of paragraph (d)(2)(i) in this respect.
The commenter also alleged that proposed paragraph (d)(2)(ii)(B), which concerns sites with postmining discharges requiring long-term treatment, provided confirmation that we intend to retain jurisdiction in perpetuity. That was not the intent of the proposed provision, but we understand how it could be misinterpreted. We have determined that proposed paragraph (d)(2)(ii)(B) is unnecessary because it essentially duplicates § 800.18(i) and because proposed paragraph (d)(2)(ii)(A) refers to financial assurances as well as performance bonds. Therefore, we are not adopting proposed paragraph (d)(2)(ii)(B). Final paragraph (d)(2)(ii) includes only proposed paragraph (d)(2)(ii)(A) and is renumbered to accommodate the removal of proposed paragraph (d)(2)(ii)(A).
Several commenters opposed this paragraph as unreasonable. Others alleged that it was illegal because it would apply retroactively. Others alleged that it would be inconsistent with SMCRA because it would result in the permittee having an eternal possibility of reassertion of jurisdiction. Several commenters asserted that SMCRA provides no authority for the assertion of jurisdiction over mining operations that have obtained bond release.
These comments reflect a perspective on the principle of reassertion of jurisdiction under SMCRA, which is now a matter of settled law. In 1991, the U.S. Court of Appeals for the District of Columbia Circuit upheld the 1988 termination of jurisdiction rules at 30 CFR 700.11(d), which include a similar provision requiring reassertion of jurisdiction under specified circumstances.
The question is whether the effect of the regulation comports with the statutory scheme. We believe that it does in light of the language of the regulation and the interpretation provided in both the preamble and the Secretary's brief here.
The preamble adopts an objective standard, stating that jurisdiction must be re-asserted whenever “any reasonable person could determine” that fraud, collusion or misrepresentation had occurred. [53 FR 44359] (1988). The Secretary's brief not only adopts this standard but also clarifies its scope:
Brief for the Secretary at 27 n.11. This is a reasonable way of implementing the Act's condition “[t]hat no bond shall be fully released until all reclamation requirements of this chapter are fully met.” 30 U.S.C.[] 1269(c)(3). The condition implies that after reclamation requirements are met, the bond may be “fully released.”
However, final paragraph (d)(3) differs somewhat from the proposed rule in that we added paragraphs (d)(3)(i) and (ii) and placed most of proposed paragraph (d)(3) in paragraph (d)(3)(iii). Under the final rule, reassertion of jurisdiction is required only if all three factual situations identified in paragraphs (d)(3)(i) through (iii) exist. Paragraph (d)(3)(i) specifies that the conditions that develop after termination of jurisdiction must constitute a violation of the reclamation requirements of the applicable regulatory program. Paragraph (d)(3)(ii) specifies that the conditions that develop after termination of jurisdiction must be the result of surface coal mining operations for which jurisdiction was terminated. The addition of paragraphs (d)(3)(i) and (ii) is consistent with the preamble to the 1988 rules, which provides that “it would not be appropriate for the regulatory authority to reassert jurisdiction under the approved program” if “the problem was not caused by the permittee's violation of the regulatory program.”
Several commenters asserted that paragraph (d)(3) would require reassertion of jurisdiction on sites where third-party disturbances created the conditions resulting in the need for reassertion of jurisdiction. The rule does not require reassertion of jurisdiction when the impact is a result of a third-party disturbance. Instead, the rule applies only to impacts resulting from the mining operation. We have added language at paragraph (d)(3)(ii) that clarifies this point.
One commenter opposed the rule because it provides no discretion to the regulatory authority in deciding whether to reassert jurisdiction and does not provide an endpoint for reassertion of jurisdiction. The final rule that we are adopting today, like the proposed rule and the 1988 rule, does not provide discretion to the regulatory authority or an endpoint (equivalent to a statute of limitations) because neither is appropriate if bond release and termination of jurisdiction were based upon fraud, collusion, or misrepresentation of a material fact.
One commenter alleged that adding “intentional or unintentional” as an adjective modifying “material misrepresentation of a material fact” would increase long-term liability and result in additional litigation by nongovernmental organizations, as would the provision requiring reassertion of jurisdiction for postmining discharges requiring treatment. Neither of the added provisions represents a substantive change in policy or regulation. Therefore, we find no basis for the commenter's allegation. Another commenter opposed adding “intentional or unintentional” as a modifier for
Several commenters alleged that adoption of the provisions discussed in the preceding paragraph would mean that a permittee would never have the certainty that it has fulfilled all obligations for a permitted site. According to the commenters, this result would infringe upon the permittee's ability to conduct business and could adversely impact the availability of surety bonds. As discussed in the preceding paragraph, neither of the added provisions represents a substantive change in policy or regulation. Therefore, we have no reason to anticipate that the outcome feared by the commenter will develop. Even if it did, that outcome would not justify allowing a termination of jurisdiction based on fraud, collusion, or misrepresentation of a material fact to stand if the mining operation has resulted in a situation that constitutes a violation of SMCRA or the applicable regulatory program.
One commenter opined that the rule would penalize successful operators because operators exiting the coal business would not be subject to this rule. Both the 1988 rule and this final rule apply to the permittee in existence at the time of termination of jurisdiction. If reassertion of jurisdiction is necessary, the regulatory authority must require that the permittee implement corrective measures regardless of whether the permittee has exited the coal business.
Similarly, another commenter expressed concern that the regulatory authority might be held responsible if the permittee could not be located or was no longer a viable business entity. Nothing in the proposed or final rules would support this outcome.
One commenter asserted that the proposed rule is unworkable because it is not clear how it will be enforced. The final rule will be implemented in the same manner as the 1988 rules. The preamble to the 1988 rules provides the following explanation of how the regulatory authority may become aware of a situation involving fraud, collusion, or the intentional or unintentional misrepresentation of a material fact:
Liability under the approved program for a failure of reclamation, however, may be the subject of a Secretarial or regulatory authority inquiry or a civil suit in the courts pursuant to section 520 of the Act. Such liability would depend upon whether the reclamation failure was caused by a violation by the operator of the regulatory program.
One commenter asked whether the permittee or the regulatory authority would be required to conduct water sampling on sites for which bond has been fully released. The answer is no. There is no authority under SMCRA to impose such a requirement. In addition, it would defeat one of the purposes of termination of jurisdiction;
One commenter implied that the rule should specify that the need for reassertion of jurisdiction will be determined using only the bond release standards in effect at the time of termination of jurisdiction. We find that no such provision is necessary because the rule already provides that reassertion of jurisdiction is required only if the regulatory authority becomes aware that the bond release was based upon fraud, collusion, or the intentional or unintentional misrepresentation of a material fact. This sentence refers to decisions in which the regulatory authority released bond fully but would not have done so if the information provided by the permittee had not been tainted by the fraud, collusion, or misrepresentation of a material fact at that time. Paragraph (d)(3) neither mentions nor provides a basis for reasserting jurisdiction whenever the regulatory authority adopts revised bond release criteria. Unless otherwise specified in the rulemaking adopting those criteria, the revised criteria would apply only prospectively. In any event, they could not be used to reassert jurisdiction over permits with bond released before the effective date of the revised criteria because the adoption of revised bond release criteria would not be considered fraud, collusion, or misrepresentation of a material fact.
Several commenters opposed paragraph (d)(3) because, in their view, it would require reassertion of jurisdiction for any error or mistake in a document submitted as part of the bond release process, no matter how minor the error or mistake. We disagree. Both the 1988 rule and final paragraph (d)(3) require reassertion of jurisdiction only for fraud, collusion, or misrepresentation of a material fact. Clerical errors and other minor mistakes would not meet this threshold because they would not be considered misrepresentation of a material fact. The adjective “material” means the fact must be critical to the decision to release bond. In other words, misrepresentation of a material fact refers to a situation in which, in the absence of the misrepresentation, the regulatory authority would not have released the bond. However, in response to these and other comments, we have added paragraphs (d)(3)(i) and (ii) to specify that reassertion of jurisdiction is required only when conditions exist that would constitute a violation of the reclamation requirements of the applicable regulatory program and those conditions are the result of surface coal mining operations for which jurisdiction was terminated. This limitation is consistent with the preamble to the 1988 rules, which provides that “it would not be appropriate for the regulatory authority to reassert jurisdiction under the approved program” if “the problem was not caused by the permittee's violation of the regulatory program.”
Two commenters asserted that the rule is unnecessary because some states have a fund to address post-bond release problems. We find that this comment is not germane because, in 1988, we determined that there was a need for a rule providing for both termination of jurisdiction and reassertion of jurisdiction. The proposed rule did not propose to alter that determination nor did we request comment on that possibility.
One commenter suggested that, in lieu of adopting this rule, we establish a fund similar to the Abandoned Mine Reclamation Fund that would cover problems that arise after termination of jurisdiction. We have no authority to establish such a fund or assess the fees that would be required to operate it.
One commenter took issue with the statement in the preamble to the proposed rule at 80 FR 44436, 44467 that the intentional or unintentional misrepresentation of a material fact includes the “subsequent discovery of a discharge requiring treatment.” The commenter noted that this language differs slightly from the proposed text of the regulation, which did not use the term “subsequent”. According to the commenter, reassertion of jurisdiction for a discharge that was undiscoverable at the time of the application for bond release would be inconsistent with
We do not agree. Nothing in the court decision says that the discharge must be discoverable at the time of bond release to be considered a misrepresentation of a material fact. Instead, the court decision focuses on section 519(c)(3) of SMCRA,
One commenter opposed our proposed addition of the sentence establishing discovery of a discharge requiring treatment of parameters of concern after termination of jurisdiction as a misrepresentation of material fact. According to the commenter, addition of this sentence would be inconsistent with the preamble to the 1988 rule, which states that the discovery of an acid seep subsequent to bond release would not automatically require reassertion of jurisdiction:
[T]he occurrence of an acid seep subsequent to bond release does not, by itself, establish the cause of the seep, whether reclamation had been completed, whether intervening events occurred, or the circumstances surrounding bond release.
There is a distinct difference between the situation described in the 1988 preamble and the sentence that we proposed to add to our rules and that we are adopting in revised form as part of this final rule. The sentence in our proposed and final rules applies to a discharge for which a treatment need has already been established, while the seep cited in the 1988 preamble is a newly discovered seep for which there has been no determination whether the seep is a discharge that will require treatment or whether it is the result of the surface coal mining operations for which jurisdiction was terminated. As noted in the preamble, these factual questions need to be answered before a determination can be made on reassertion of jurisdiction. Although not expressly stated in the preamble, we would anticipate that reassertion of jurisdiction would be required under the 1988 rule if the questions are answered in the affirmative. Therefore, we find no inconsistency between the 1988 preamble and our final rule. For added clarity, as discussed below, we have revised the pertinent sentence in the proposed rule by adding a proviso that reassertion of jurisdiction is required only if the conditions creating the need for treatment of the discharge are the result of the mining operation.
In final paragraph (d)(3)(iii), we removed the phrase “if it is demonstrated that” found in (d)(3) in the proposed rule. The language in the proposed rule is somewhat confusing because it did not address what a demonstration must include or who must make the demonstration. The preamble to the proposed rule describes proposed paragraph (d)(3) as meaning that “the regulatory authority must reassert jurisdiction if the termination was based upon fraud, collusion, or misrepresentation of a material fact.”
In paragraph (d)(3)(iii), we also revised the language in proposed paragraph (d)(3) pertaining to the discovery of discharges requiring treatment by deleting the reference to mining-related parameters of concern and by adding a proviso that the conditions creating the need for treatment must be the result of the mining operation. The revised language focuses simply on whether the discharge requires treatment and whether the need for treatment is a result of the mining operation. There is no need for use of the new term “parameters of concern” in this context.
We received a few comments in response to our statement in the preamble to the proposed rule that we intended to correct an oversight in the 1988 final rule text by applying the termination of jurisdiction provisions to coal exploration and surface coal mining and reclamation operations, not just surface coal mining and reclamation operations. The comments that we did receive generally opposed this extension. One commenter alleged that including coal exploration in the termination of jurisdiction rules would impose an undue burden on operators and regulatory authorities and would discourage future exploration. Another commenter noted that SMCRA provides only minimal requirements for coal exploration and that it neither mandates inspections nor notification of citizens or opportunity for citizens to comment upon or appeal critical regulatory decisions on coal exploration. According to the commenter, the issue of when SMCRA jurisdiction terminates in the context of coal exploration rarely arises. The commenter suggested that it might be appropriate to leave this issue to the discretion of individual regulatory programs.
After evaluating the comments, we have decided not to proceed with our proposal to revise § 700.11(d) to apply to coal exploration. Our regulations at Part 772 do not require a permit or regulatory authority approval for coal exploration unless the exploration involves the removal of more than 250 tons of coal or will take place on lands designated as unsuitable for surface coal mining operations. Therefore, there are no permit boundaries or defined endpoints. In the absence of a permit, there is no bond, so bond release cannot be used as a determinant for termination of jurisdiction. As one commenter suggested, we will rely upon the discretion of each regulatory authority to determine when termination of jurisdiction is appropriate for coal exploration.
A commenter asserted that normal rainfall can have a pH of less than 6.0 as a result of the presence of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. In addition, the commenter claimed that, historically, some of the lowest pH in rainfall occurs over the Appalachian Region, where, in 2012, pH reported in proximity to the intersection of West Virginia, Pennsylvania, and Ohio, was approximately 4.5 based on National Trends Network trend maps between 1986 and 2012. The commenter also opined that assigning a pH level of less than 6.0 was arbitrary and could result in a situation where acid rainfall in some regions could cause an operator to be in violation of the rule. We reject the
As discussed in the preamble to the proposed rule, we proposed to modify our existing definition of “adjacent area”.
First, we proposed to revise the basic definition of “adjacent area” to encompass the area outside the proposed or actual permit area when there is a reasonable “possibility” of adverse impacts from surface coal mining operations or underground mining activities, as determined by the regulatory authority. This portion of the proposed definition was substantively identical to the existing definition except that the existing definition included only the area in which impacts are reasonably “probable” rather than the area in which impacts are reasonably possible. Several commenters objected to the proposed change as overly expansive. After evaluating those comments, we have decided not to make the proposed change. We agree that collection of baseline data from the area in which impacts are reasonably probable will provide sufficient basis for evaluation of the permit application and design of the proposed operation. Similarly, we agree with the commenters that limiting monitoring outside the permit area to the area in which impacts are reasonably probable will provide sufficient data to detect and evaluate the impacts of mining and reclamation in a timely manner. Expanding baseline data collection and monitoring to areas in which impacts are reasonably possible, but not reasonably probable, would increase cost with little benefit.
As we explained in the preamble to the proposed rule, the definition of “adjacent area” depends on the nature of the resource and the context in which the regulations use the term.
We have also made a change to paragraph (b) of the proposed definition of “adjacent area,” now final paragraph (2). This paragraph clarifies the previous definition by specifying that the adjacent area includes the area of probable impacts from underground workings. We proposed to revise the definition to state that the adjacent area includes the area overlying the underground workings plus the area encompassed by a reasonable angle of draw from the perimeter of the underground workings. Several commenters questioned the application of the phrase “reasonable angle of draw” in paragraph (b) of the proposed rule, and noted that it should instead be based on the hydrologic regime. As pointed out by several commenters, the angle of draw is a term more appropriate for defining the limits of surface subsidence impacts that could occur adjacent to an area of high extraction mining. Commenters pointed out that hydrologic impacts to surface water and groundwater related to dewatering caused by high extraction mining may extend significantly beyond the limits of direct subsidence impacts as measured by the angle of draw. Therefore, these commenters suggested we adopt a term that more accurately addresses the potential limits of dewatering. We acknowledge that dewatering impacts may extend beyond the limits defined by the angle of draw; therefore, we are replacing the term “angle of draw” with the term “angle of dewatering”. As the commenters recognized, the actual zone of hydrologic impacts to surface water and groundwater caused by subsidence induced dewatering will be highly site specific depending of lithology, depth of coal seam, aquifer characteristics and the extent to which groundwater contributes to surface flow of streams. Due to the variability of these impacts and the site specific nature of the data needed to accurately determine the angle of dewatering we are not placing a specific limits on this area; instead, we are defining the term “angle of dewatering” to mean, “the angle created from a vertical line drawn from the outer edge or boundary of high-extraction underground mining workings and an oblique line drawn from terminus of the vertical line at the mine floor to the farthest expected extent that the mining will cause dewatering of groundwater or surface water.” This definition,
We also received several comments on this proposed definition that we are not adopting. A couple of commenters expressed concern regarding the potential inability to access the “adjacent area” because of a lack of landowner consent. We acknowledge that lack of landowner consent may restrict data collection. However, the regulatory authority needs sufficient data about the adjacent area to properly evaluate the permit application and
Additionally, several commenters opined that the proposed definition of “adjacent area” would result in an expanded permit area to secure access and result in increased costs. In some cases the permit area may coincide with the extent of probable impacts; however, that is the exception. Most of the time the permit area is smaller than the “adjacent area”; therefore, we do not believe this definition will impact the size of the permit area.
One commenter proposed adoption of the adjacent area definition used by the Wyoming Department of Land Quality. That definition provides that “[a]djacent area means land located outside the permit area upon which air, surface water, groundwater, fish, wildlife, or other resources protected by the Act may reasonably be expected to be adversely impacted by mining or reclamation operations. Unless otherwise specified by the Administrator, this area shall be presumptively limited to lands within (one-half mile) of the proposed permit area.” This suggestion was not accepted because of the one-size-fits-all minimum application of “one-half mile.” We have no indication that this size limitation would ensure the inclusion of all areas where there is the reasonable probability of adverse impacts.
One commenter alleged that the proposed rule inappropriately assumes that adjacent waters are inextricably linked to, what the commenter referred to as, “the core/jurisdictional waters.” This commenter explains that adjacent waters may have little, if any, biological connection to “the core/jurisdictional waters;” they may contain two distinct, functionally independent communities that may only interact slightly. We disagree that the rule assumes a biological connection between two adjacent water bodies. The rule at section 780.19 requires the operator to collect geologic, hydrologic, and biologic data in the permit area and adjacent area. To the extent that distinct, functionally independent communities exist in adjacent areas, the baseline data collection will document that fact. This information will then assist the operator and the regulatory authority to better understand the potential cumulative impact on the hydrologic and biologic environment in the permit and adjacent areas from the proposed operation.
Paragraph (c)
In conjunction with the comments listed above, both commenters recommended, that if proposed paragraph (c), now final paragraph (3), is retained, that we replace the words “might be affected” in the final rule language. One commenter suggested replacing the words “might be affected” with “may realize physical or hydrological adverse impacts.” This phrase does not afford the regulatory authority sufficient flexibility in making determinations about areas that may be affected by dewatering. The other commenter suggested we replace “might be affected” with “could reasonably be significantly affected, based on the professional judgment of a professional hydrologist within the regulatory authority.” This phrase is too vague and subjective, particularly since the commenter does not explain what the term “reasonably be significantly affected” means. Therefore, we are retaining the words “might be affected” in the final rule text within final paragraph (3) and adopting paragraph (c), as proposed, with the exception of renumbering it as final paragraph (3).
In the preamble to the proposed rule, we invited comment on whether the definition of “adjacent area” should prescribe the Hydrologic Unit Code (HUC) 12 watershed or a more appropriate minimum watershed size for the adjacent area for surface water resources. Several commenters supported inclusion of at least the next higher order drainage area for baseline surface water characterization where dewatering of streams by longwall or other high-extraction mining may occur as a mechanism to define adjacent area. In contrast, another commenter strongly opposed an approach of using the next higher order drainage area to determine “adjacent area”. That commenter stated that using the definition of “adjacent area” as the drainage area of the operation and at least the next higher order drainage area could result in several thousand acres and associated stream lengths being added to the stream mapping and monitoring requirements. We agree with this commenter and have not changed the definition for two reasons. Changing the definition to include a specific watershed would create fixed boundaries for the “adjacent area” and may not be adequate to capture all areas with probable impacts on resources. In addition, the fixed area may be larger than necessary, which may result in collection of data with little or no value for evaluation of the impacts of mining and reclamation.
In response to numerous comments, we are adding the definition of “angle of dewatering” to the final rule. As we discussed in the definition of “adjacent area” we are defining the term “angle of dewatering” to mean, “the angle created from a vertical line drawn from the outer edge or boundary of high-extraction underground mining workings and an oblique line drawn from the terminus of the vertical line at the mine floor to the farthest expected extent that the mining will cause dewatering of groundwater or surface water.” This definition,
We proposed to revise the definition of “approximate original contour” to clarify that the term refers to the general land configuration within the permit area as it existed before any mining and not to a configuration immediately prior to the current mining. As the preamble explained,
Numerous commenters took exception to the addition of the word “any” in front of the word “mining” in the definition of approximate original contour. One commenter contended that the current definition is clear and should not be changed and that the proposed change would conflict with the statutory definition at section 701(2) of SMCRA.
Other commenters stated that it was not appropriate to require current mining operations to repair the damage caused by pre-law mine operations. Another commenter asked us to clarify when the new definition might be applied on previously mined areas permitted before or after the effective date of the new rule, as it could have major impact on staff resources to re-review previously approved plans. As mentioned above, the clarification that pre-SMCRA abandoned mine land features may not provide the basis for approximate original contour is not a new requirement. Therefore, all SMCRA permits should already contain reclamation plans that ensure that the land will be reclaimed to the general surface configuration of the land prior to mining, regardless of this rulemaking. Furthermore, as discussed below, it is common practice for remining operations to repair the damage caused by pre-law mine operations. While SMCRA does not limit operations to only remining operations, and does not require operators to reclaim abandoned mine land features outside of a permit disturbance boundary, any previously mined areas that are re-disturbed during the course of remining must be reclaimed according to all of the requirements of SMCRA. No changes were made as a result of these comments.
Other commenters not only objected to the addition of the word “any” before the word “mining” in the definition of approximate original contour at § 701.5, the commenters questioned our legal authority to make this modification to our regulations. These commenters contend that requiring operations to ensure that the reclaimed area closely resembles the general surface configuration prior to any mining, instead of the general surface configuration just prior to permit issuance, would impose an unachievable standard. However, the requirement that operations ensure that the reclaimed area closely resemble the general surface configuration prior to any mining is not a new requirement. In fact, SMCRA's legislative history shows that, except in limited circumstances, it was commonly understood that previously mined areas could and should be remined and reclaimed to achieve original contours. When testifying about Pennsylvania's surface coal mining law, the basis for SMCRA, Pennsylvania's Governor Milton J. Shapp testified that:
Since our strip mining laws have been in effect, many coal operators have come back in the same area and are now digging the second seam; and, of course, as they do that, they are restoring the original contour, so that a large percentage of the scars of western Pennsylvania, where we has [sic] this double seam, have already been corrected . . . .
In support of their contention that we lack the legal authority to insert the word “any” into the definition of approximate original contour, commenters made three main arguments. First, commenters rely on two recent decisions from the Departmental Cases Hearings Division in the Department's Office of Hearings and Appeals, in which an administrative law judge allowed a mining company to model postmining surface configurations on pre-SMCRA abandoned mine land features. However, decisions of administrative law judges are not Departmental precedents and are not binding on the Interior Board of Land Appeals, other administrative law judges, the Office of Surface Mining, or Article III Courts.
Second, commenters stated that it was incorrect for us to reference the postmining land use and backfilling and grading performance standards at Sections 515(b)(2) and (b)(3) of SMCRA in support of its clarification that postmining surface configuration should be based on contours prior to any mining. These commenters instead insist that we should only consider the statutory definition of approximate original contour at section 701(2)
Third, a few commenters questioned whether requiring that approximate original contour be based on the condition of the land prior to any mining would preclude the beneficial practice of remining. We agree that section 102(h) of SMCRA
One commenter expressed concern that the proposed changes could be interpreted to alter the core elements of approximate original contour. While this comment did not request a change to the definition, we can confirm that the changes do not alter the requirement that the reclaimed area must closely resemble the general surface configuration prior to any mining, must blend into and complement the drainage pattern of the surrounding terrains, and must contain no highwalls or spoil piles. These requirements apply, regardless of the presence or absence of abandoned mine land features, unless a separate exception applies.
Another commenter expressed concern that returning land to its approximate original contour would limit certain types of postmining land uses. Commenters did not provide any examples of situations where removal of pre-SMCRA abandoned mine land features would preclude any postmining land uses. We do not share the concern expressed by this commenter. In our experience, ensuring the elimination of pre-SMCRA abandoned mine land features only enhances the land's capability to support a wider variety of postmining land uses. Therefore, we do not believe that there is any need to make changes to the definition of approximate original contour based on these comments.
Several commenters stated that approximate original contour conditions before any mining might be difficult to determine because some sites may have been mined before the publication of United States Geological Survey quadrangle maps or were mined centuries ago. We do not believe that the lack of detailed USGS topographic maps or other information for very old pre-SMCRA mined areas should inhibit the ability to comply with this requirement. Considering the remining of previously mined sites requires an approximate restoration and not an exact restoration of contours, before any mining, general knowledge of the natural topography typical of the local area should be sufficient. We made no changes as a result of this comment.
Similarly, one commenter expressed concern that the changes in the language of the definition somehow altered the standard for requiring the restoration of land configuration from “approximate” to “exact” original contours. It is not our intent to require reclamation to achieve the “exact” original contour. The final rule reflects that changes in the surface configuration after mining compared to the land's configuration before any mining are allowed as long as the premining configuration closely resembles the post-mine configuration. Another commenter requested that we explain the meaning of the term “approximate” or “closely resembles” as it relates to the definition of approximate original contour. Such a discussion is not necessary as the use of these terms within the definition have not been proposed for change and maintain the same meaning as they had before this revised definition.
Some commenters expressed concern that the revised definition implies that soil resources from previously mined areas must be restored, and argued that soil resources at many pre-law sites were not protected and it would be unreasonable to impose such a requirement to fully reclaim them. We disagree that the revised definition of approximate original contour implies, or could reasonably require, permittees and mine operators to recreate soil resources that have been permanently lost. We fully recognize that previously mined areas commonly have significant limitations. At the same time, these limitations should not be used as an excuse to not make improvements, such as elimination of highwalls and spoil piles, and remediation of hazardous and environmentally degraded conditions. We also reject the comment that grading
Others commented that the changes to the approximate original contour definition appear to focus mainly on problems in Appalachia, where remining, thick overburden, and mountaintop removal are prevalent. While we agree that these conditions may be prevalent in Appalachia, sites with previously mined areas exist throughout the coal regions. For example, we noted problems with achieving approximate original contour in Oklahoma in a 2010 National Priority Review of approximate original contour. The clarifications provided in this final rule are applicable nationwide and will ensure that, unless an operation qualifies for an exemption from the requirement to achieve approximate original contour, such as the exemption for previously mined areas with insufficient spoil to completely reclaim the highwall under § 816.106, the reclamation will be based on contours present prior to any mining.
Several commenters advocated expanding the definition of approximate original contour to include the restoration of topography damaged by surface subsidence from underground mining, specifically longwall mining. Other commenters expressed opposition to the inclusion of such language and instead urged that subsidence from underground mining be specifically excluded from the definition of approximate original contour. After consideration of both positions, we have determined that these changes are not necessary because approximate original contour is not applicable to surface subsidence for underground mining. Pursuant to section 701(2) of SMCRA, the requirement to achieve approximate original contour is applicable to “reclaimed areas, including any terracing or access roads,” that are subject to “backfilling and grading of the mined area.”
One commenter alleged that the post mining configuration should only have to resemble the areas surrounding the permits and that the proposed addition of the phrase “within the permit area” to the definition of approximate original contour is unlawful and contrary to SMCRA. The commenter based this contention on one portion of the statutory definition of approximate original contour that references “the surrounding terrain”. We did not adopt this comment as it does not fully reflect the definition as it appears in SMCRA. The full statutory definition reads “ `approximate original contour' means that surface configuration achieved by backfilling and grading of the mined area so that the reclaimed area . . . closely resembles the general surface configuration of the land prior to mining and blends into and complements the drainage pattern of the surrounding terrain. . . .”
Commenters alleged that our proposed change does not adequately consider the effects of swell or bulking factors on grading and that an unintended consequence of our proposed change might be the construction of more excess spoil fills. While the commenters did not clearly explain why they believed that changes to the approximate original contour definition would have this result, other commenters mistakenly believed that our changes were intended to require the sites to be returned to the “exact” premining contours, which would limit the amount of spoil that could be returned to the mined out area and increase the need for excess spoil fills. However, as we explained above, our rule change does not require a return to the exact premining contours and therefore we do not anticipate an increased demand for excess spoil fills. Therefore, we have not made any change to this definition in response to these commenters.
One commenter asserted that the proposed definition deletes the reference in the statutory definition to permanent water impoundments. That is not the case. The final definition, like the proposed definition, provides that the requirement to eliminate all highwalls and spoil piles does not prohibit “the approval of permanent water impoundments that comply with §§ 816.49, 816.55, and 780.24(b) or §§ 817.49, 817.55, and 784.24(b) of this chapter.” That provision is substantively identical to the previous definition in § 701.5.
Other commenters stated they were unclear as to whether the rule would allow the creation and approval of the type of impoundments frequently referred to as final-cut impoundments or final-cut lakes. Some of these commenters pointed out that impoundments can serve as an aquatic resource for fish and wildlife habitat and are often requested by landowners. We agree that permanent water impoundments, including properly constructed final-cut lakes, can provide valuable fish and wildlife habitat, recreational facilities, or water resource features. For that reason, our definition of “land use” in section 701.5 includes “developed water resources” as a specific land use category. As previously noted, the final definition of
A commenter approved of the clarification in the proposed rule
We received no comments on this proposed definition, which we are adopting as proposed.
We proposed to define “Bankfull” as the “water level, or stage, at which a stream, river, or lake is at the top of its banks and any further rise would result in water moving into the flood plain.”
One commenter argued that the definition of “bankfull” should include a storm frequency interval to make the definition applicable to altered watersheds or systems that have experienced downcutting and are disconnected from floodplains. It was never our intent to except altered watersheds or systems that are disconnected from floodplains from this definition. We agree that streams, such as those with steep-sloped areas, that may be entrenched and lack a floodplain should be addressed by the definition because entrenched streams are commonly found within all of the coal regions of the United States. In consideration of this comment, we are adding the term “stage” to the term “bankfull” and revising the definition to include entrenched streams, rivers and lakes. The term “bankfull stage” is appropriate because experts generally use the term “bankfull stage” when describing high water events in streams, rivers, or lakes that have active flood plains or are entrenched. For entrenched streams, rivers, or lakes, experts define “bankfull stage” as the highest scour line, bench, or top of the point bar.
Another commenter alleged that the proposed definition of “bankfull” is inconsistent with the definitions of leading experts such as Rosgen, the United States Geological Survey, and North Carolina University. The commenter argued that multiple other factors in the proposed rule—such as bankfull width, depth, and flood prone area—rely on a properly assessed “bankfull stage” and that an incorrect definition would lead to inaccurate data, which in turn would lead to improperly designed projects. In place of the “bankfull” definition, the commenter argued for consistent and clear terminology, such as the definition relied on by leading experts, to ensure that appropriate and accurate data are collected. Additionally, the commenter argued that the definition and proposed rule increased confusion because the agency did not provide guidance for the calculation of flood prone areas or include references to methods such as hydrologic modeling, Federal Emergency Management Agency flood maps, a standard distance from top of banks, or Rosgen's 2X maximum bankfull depth method. Calculation of flood prone areas is not germane to the definition of “bankfull stage”; however we would expect that standard engineering practices would be used to calculate the flood prone areas. Our rule uses “bankfull stage” only for the purpose of determining the point from which the stream buffer zone must be measured and describing stream channel profiles. As we discuss above, we have revised the term from “bankfull” to “bankfull stage” and have more consistently aligned our proposed definition to the definition relied on by leading experts.
One commenter argued that a definition of “bankfull” is not necessary because most ephemeral streams do not have banks. We disagree. For the reasons explained later in this preamble, we modified the definition of “ephemeral stream” in the final rule to “include[ ] only those conveyances with channels that display both a bed-and-bank configuration and an ordinary high water mark, and that have streambeds located above the water table year-round.” Thus, if a conveyance lacks a bank, we would not classify the conveyance as a stream. As such, a definition of “bankfull stage” remains necessary to establish the boundaries of the streamside vegetative corridor for all stream types.
In the final rule, “bankfull stage” means the water level at which a stream, river, or lake begins to overflow its natural banks and enter the active floodplain or if the stream, river, or lake is entrenched, bankfull stage is identified as the highest scour line, bench, or top of the point bar. This term and definition applies to all streams, rivers, and lakes.
We proposed to define “biological condition” as a measure of the ecological health of a stream or segment of a stream as determined by the type, diversity, distribution, abundance, and physiological state of aquatic organisms and communities found in the stream or stream segment. Some commenters expressed support for the proposed definition. Some commenters questioned how this term differed from another new term that we proposed to define, “ecological function”. In response, we revised the definition of “biological condition” by deleting the statement that biological condition is a measure of the ecological health of a stream or segment of a stream. The final
Several commenters requested we remove the term “physiological state” from the definition of biological condition because it refers to a condition that is difficult to measure and also implies that any change in this condition would prevent mining. We agree with this assessment. “Physiological state” may be unmeasurable and our concerns are effectively addressed by the rest of the definition of “biological condition” when it refers to the type, diversity, distribution, and abundance of aquatic organisms and communities found in a stream, stream segment, or other waters. Therefore, we have deleted “physiological state” in the definition of “biological condition” within the final draft rule.
One commenter expressed concern that the definition of “biological condition” coupled with the definition of “parameters of concern” would impose new and burdensome requirements. We disagree. We define “parameters of concern” as those chemical or physical characteristics and properties of surface water or groundwater that could be altered by surface or underground coal mining activities, including discharges associated with those activities, in a manner that would adversely impact the quality of groundwater or surface water, including adverse impacts on aquatic life. The definition of “parameters of concern” clarifies that these parameters may be of import because of potential impacts on biological conditions. Neither the definition of “parameters of concern” nor “biological condition” prescribe additional biological data collection beyond the requirements expressly defined elsewhere in the final rule.
Some commenters noted that gathering data on “biological condition” of streams would increase permitting and monitoring costs on the part of the operator and the burden of the regulatory authority to review the resulting data. We agree with the commenters and have made several changes to these requirements in relationship to ephemeral and intermittent streams. These changes can be found within final rule §§ 780.19(c)(6) and 784.19(c)(6), related to underground mining, formerly §§ 780.19(e) and 784.19(e) of the proposed rule. These changes will reduce the cost and time commitment of the operator and regulatory authority. However, as further described in the preamble discussion of final rule §§ 780.19(c)(6) and 784.19(c)(6), below, some of this information is necessary to adequately determine the condition of the stream premining, during mining, and after mining because these inventories and assessments provide crucial information on the function of these streams.
One commenter requested that we exclude ephemeral streams from the definition of “biological condition” because assessment of the biological condition of ephemeral streams is impractical and unreasonable due to inconsistent flows. We agree with the commenter's statement about the impracticality of assessing the biological condition of ephemeral streams. However, instead of revising the definition of biological condition, as explained above, we have revised our baseline data requirements. This revision to final § 780.19(c)(6)(vi), includes the elimination of the requirement that permit applications include baseline data on the biological condition of ephemeral streams.
We also revised the definition of “biological condition” by adding the phrase “found in surface water bodies, including streams” because biological condition assessments are not inherently limited to streams. This change was made to better tailor the definition to the manner in which the term is explained and used in a final report from the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency Practitioners Guide
We are adopting the definition of “cumulative impact area” as proposed with the following exceptions. We have altered the nomenclature of this definition by modifying the paragraphs to conform to the rest of the rule. Instead of using (a) through (c) to designate paragraphs, as we did in the proposed rule, we use (1) through (3) to designate paragraphs in the final rule.
One commenter requested that, at a minimum, the eight or six digit hydrologic unit code be used to delineate the cumulative impact area to ensure the inclusion of all impacts from active, closed, and expired mines on downstream water quality. We are not modifying the final rule to accommodate this request. Regulatory authorities are required to assess the probable cumulative impacts of all anticipated mining in a given area, regardless of a specified hydrologic unit code (HUC), to assure the proposed operation has been designed to prevent material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area. Therefore, the region that needs to be included in an area may be larger or smaller than a HUC 6 or 8.
Numerous commenters asked us to consider deleting the requirement within the proposed rule of using a HUC-12 watershed size in delineating the “cumulative impact area”. The commenters stressed that a HUC-12 watershed may be appropriate in some cases but would result in areas that are too broad or too restrictive in others. The commenters requested the proposed rule be revised to allow the regulatory authority flexibility in requiring a more suitably-sized watershed approach based on the permit area under consideration, existing and anticipated coal mining operations, and site and regional characteristics. We agree with the commenters and have revised the proposed definition to allow the use of a HUC-12 or a different-sized watershed deemed appropriate for purposes of preparation of the cumulative hydrologic impact assessment. This change will allow the regulatory authority to use a watershed size that is more appropriate to the area under evaluation.
In addition to this change we altered the definition of “cumulative impact area” within the final rule by renumbering the paragraphs and removing proposed paragraph (c)(6). Proposed paragraph (c)(6) specified that anticipated underground mining includes all areas of contiguous coal reserves adjacent to an existing or proposed underground mine that are owned or controlled by the applicant. This proposal was included because, barring significant changes in economic or regulatory conditions, the mine would reasonably be expected to extend into those reserves in the future. We received numerous comments requesting that we not adopt the proposed requirement that the cumulative impact area include all areas of contiguous coal reserves adjacent to an existing or proposed underground mine when the applicant owns or controls those reserves. Commenters stated that the requirement was too broad and unworkable and could result in an increased burden on industry and the regulatory authority. Commenters also stated that the information related
When neither baseline data nor analyses have been supplied by the applicant or permittee, a commenter claimed that it may not be technically feasible to assess the impacts of anticipated mining upon water resources during mining and reclamation and after final bond release. We agree that evaluation of potential impacts from areas of existing or anticipated mining on surface water and groundwater resources are not technically feasible in the absence of baseline or other data. This rule sets forth requirements for the collection and analysis of premining data about the site of the proposed mining operation and adjacent areas adequate to establish a comprehensive baseline that will facilitate evaluation of the effects of the proposed operation. If sufficient data is not available on areas of anticipated mining to allow for a meaningful analysis of potential impacts, the regulatory authority cannot approve the permit application in accordance with § 780.21 of this rule. In addition, the commenter continued that we should provide guidance on incorporating anticipated mining areas into the cumulative hydrologic impact assessment. We disagree. The concept of including anticipated mining as part of the cumulative impact area is not new and has been an integral component of the cumulative impact area since the early 1980s. Sections 507(b)(11) and 510(b)(3) of SMCRA
Several commenters stated there was no justification for a requirement to analyze the anticipated impacts after final bond release and that any requirement to do so was beyond SMCRA authority. In response, we have decided that it is neither feasible nor practical to attempt to predict anticipated cumulative impacts following final bond release. The final definition that we are adopting does not require this analysis of potential impacts after final bond release.
One commenter disagreed with the inclusion of any proposed surface or underground coal mining operation for which a request for an authorization, certification, or permit has been submitted under the Clean Water Act as anticipated mining. We disagree with this comment. Inclusion of proposed operations in situations where the Clean Water Act authorization process has begun will result in preparation of a more comprehensive analysis by the permit applicant or permittee and the regulatory authority. Those operations are within the realm of anticipated mining because the permitting process for those mines has begun, albeit under the Clean Water Act rather than SMCRA. Nothing in section 507(b)(11) of SMCRA
We proposed to define the “ecological function” of a stream as the role that the stream plays in dissipating energy and transporting water, sediment, organic matter, and nutrients downstream. The proposed definition included the ability of the stream ecosystem to retain and transform inorganic materials needed for biological processes into organic forms and to oxidize organic molecules back into elemental forms through respiration and decomposition. It further stated that the term includes the role that the stream plays in the life cycles of plants, insects, amphibians, reptiles, fish, birds, and mammals that either reside in the stream or depend upon it for habitat, reproduction, food, water, or protection from predators. Finally, the proposed definition stated that the biological condition of a stream can be used as one measure to infer the status of the stream's ecological function.
Various commenters found the definition to be overly broad, too vague, unclear, or lacking the specificity needed to establish standards for the restoration of ecological function. Other commenters opposed the definition based on the opinion that the definition relied too heavily on research in Appalachia and upon the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers guidance
We designed the final definition to better support the various ways in which regulatory authorities throughout the United States will actually have to assess and monitor ecological function in the context of sampling organisms. Some commenters objected to including factors within the definition of “ecological function” that have no direct role in demonstrating the success of reclamation under SMCRA. For example, the commenters noted that the ecological role that a stream plays in transporting nutrients downstream, known as nutrient cycling, is included within the definition, but is not a criterion used in determining eligibility for bond release. Another commenter noted that there is no agreement on objective standards for many facets of the definition. In response to these comments, the final definition eliminates references to physical and chemical processes such as dissipating energy; transporting water, sediment, organic matter, and nutrients downstream; transforming inorganic materials needed for biological processes into organic forms; and oxidizing organic molecules back into elemental forms. We also removed the specific reference to salamanders because that reference could be considered regionally biased and is unnecessary, as salamanders are not part of the ecology of all streams.
Because we are requiring the reestablishment of ecological function as a condition for bond release, we have an obligation to both the permittees and the SMCRA regulatory authorities to provide enough information within the definition to allow for the creation of clear standards for purposes of bond release. This necessitates a definition that gives clear guidance to regulatory authorities on the meaning of ecological function but is still broad enough to allow them to assess and monitor organisms that these regulations do not specifically address. The final rule provides the regulatory authority with a practical definition of “ecological function” that will enable them to create specific standards for assessing ecological function in their various regions. The final definition does not mandate specific metrics, although it does specify that the biological condition of a stream is one way to describe its ecological function. Under this definition, regulatory authorities are free to develop specific standards related to various types of organisms or populations including the use of indirect ways to measure those organisms or populations, such as through leaf litter breakdown.
Some commenters opposed the proposed definition because of a fear that we (or a third party, pursuant to the citizen suit provisions of section 520 of SMCRA)
Finally, some commenters found our proposed definition to be overreaching and academic in nature and noted that methodology for measuring ecological function is still a matter of scientific debate. While we agree that science will continue to evolve on this topic, we disagree that this continued evolution precludes us from defining ecological function as we have done in the final rule. The final definition of “ecological function” merely clarifies our intended meaning of the term. It is not a metric in and of itself and standards for implementing this definition can be adapted, updated, and adjusted as the methodology evolves.
As discussed in the preamble to the proposed rule, we proposed to redefine “ephemeral stream” in a manner that is substantively identical to the manner in which the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers defines that term in Part F of the 2012 reissuance of the nationwide permits under section 404 of the Clean Water Act.
One commenter strongly advised us to make no reference to the term “swale” as a stream. The commenter stated that in the western United States the term “swale” is commonly used to describe topographic features that are often not waters of the United States under the Clean Water Act because these features lack an ordinary high water mark. The term “swale” was not used in the proposed rule or the final rule. To minimize any confusion concerning what is or what is not a stream, we have revised the stream definitions for “ephemeral stream”, intermittent stream”, and “perennial stream” to include a requirement that any topographic feature to be considered a stream must have both a bed-and-bank and an ordinary high water mark, in addition to the other requirements outlined in the specific definitions.
One commenter stated that the proposed definition of “excess spoil” was awkwardly worded. The commenter explained that the concept of “excess spoil” is complicated by the goal of minimizing “excess spoil” to reduce burial of streams. To address this and related comments expressing confusion regarding the term, we added to the definition of “excess spoil” a list of the types of spoil that do not constitute “excess spoil”. This list excludes from the definition of “excess spoil”: Spoil required to restore the approximate original contour of the mined-out area; spoil used to blend the final configuration of the mined-out area with the surrounding terrain in non-steep slope areas; spoil placed outside the mined-out area as part of a remining operation; spoil placed within the mined-out area in accordance with the thick overburden provisions of § 816.105(b)(1) of the final rule, except spoil material placed on the mined-out area as part of an excess spoil fill with a toe located outside the mined-out area; and any temporary stockpile of material that will be subsequently transported to another location.
Other commenters stated that the proposed definition might be misinterpreted to apply to topsoil or to temporary spoil piles. We agree and have revised the final rule to specify that “excess spoil” means spoil material
Another commenter noted that the proposed definition of “excess spoil” could, perhaps, inadvertently, designate material placed in an existing bench to be classified as “excess spoil”. This commenter explained that spoil material placed on an existing bench above the approximate original contour would be subject to the more stringent proposed requirements for excess spoil disposal. According to the commenter, this would result in an increased burden to both industry and regulatory authorities while not providing additional stability or stream protection. Interpretation of the commenter's term “existing bench” could be viewed in two ways. One interpretation is that the “existing bench” is actually a previously mined bench. The other interpretation is that the “existing bench” is new construction as part of an active operation. If the first interpretation of the commenter's term is accepted—considering a bench on a previously mined area—we note that spoil placement on previously mined benches is preferable to construction of “excess spoil” on unmined land because it is more environmentally sound. In response, we revised the definition to exclude spoil material placed outside the mined-out area as part of a remining operation as explained within § 816.106 or § 817.106 of the final rule. Next, we considered the second potential interpretation—that the commenter's term “existing bench” pertains to construction as part of a current operation. The commenter is concerned that the classification of “excess spoil” includes spoil material placed in a manner that the lower portion of that spoil extends onto an open bench, most likely a bench developed along a lower coal seam mined, and the spoil material is placed at an elevation that is above the original elevation line. For the purposes of responding to this comment, we consider the commenter's reference to “original elevation line” to mean the approved approximate original contour surface. In the scenario that the commenter describes, the spoil material is placed on a newly created bench that is within the mined area and is therefore not considered “excess spoil”. To further address the commenter's concern, we direct the commenter to § 780.35(b)(3) of the final rule that discusses the minimization and disposal of excess spoil. This section of the rule allows the placement of what would otherwise be “excess spoil” on the mined-out area to heights in excess of the approved approximate original contour surface. The purpose of § 780.35(b)(3) is to avoid or minimize construction of excess spoil fills on undisturbed lands. When considering the definition of excess spoil and the provisions of § 780.35(b)(3), spoil placed above the approved approximate original contour as described in the commenter's scenario is not considered “excess spoil.”
One commenter stated that the proposed changes to the “excess spoil” definition are primarily focused on mountaintop removal and thick overburden mines and have little relevance outside Appalachia, and that they should therefore be limited to Appalachia. We acknowledge that “excess spoil” is primarily generated in central and southern Appalachia where both thick overburden and steep slopes are prevalent. However, mines in other regions also generate “excess spoil”. For example, Alaska has a permit that generates excess spoil. Further, by definition, excess spoil is only applicable to those areas where it is generated, so, by default, if an area does not generate excess spoil then the rule provisions that pertain to excess spoil would not apply on that location.
One commenter indicated that the proposed preamble discussion implies that box cut spoil placed outside of the pit is not excess spoil for non-steep slope mining. We agree, noting that, by definition, the creation of box cut spoil on non-steep sloped areas does not automatically qualify this material as excess spoil, as this spoil is available for placement within the mined area and outside of the mined area when used to blend with the surrounding terrain.
We received no comments on this proposed definition, which we are adopting as proposed.
Within §§ 780.28, 784.28, 800.42, 816.57, and 817.57 of the proposed rule, relating to activities in through, or adjacent to perennial and intermittent streams, we made reference to the restoration of the “form” of a stream. Specifically, the proposed rule required applicants desiring to mine through or divert a perennial or intermittent stream to “demonstrate that [they could] restore the form . . . of the affected stream.
Despite this explanation in the preamble, several commenters questioned the meaning of the term “form” and how this term related to the term “function” that was also discussed in the proposed rule. Similarly, many commenters questioned the application of and relationship to the term “form” to the bond release provisions of § 800.42(b)(1) of the proposed rule and references to bond release within proposed §§ 780.28, 784.28, 800.42, 816.57, and 817.57. After consideration of these comments, we agree that the use of the term “form” and the similar term “hydrological form” within the proposed rule could be confusing. Therefore, we have eliminated any reference to “hydrological form” and included in § 701.5 a definition of the term “form”. The term “form” as used in the proposed rule in § 816.57(b)(2)(i) and in the final rule definition was drafted based on the criteria established in “Applied River Morphology” by Rosgen.
The addition of the definition of “form” will also provide clarity regarding the requirements for achieving Phase I bond release when mining through or permanently diverting a perennial or intermittent stream as discussed and explained more thoroughly throughout the applicable sections of the final rule preamble discussion.
The term “form,” as used in §§ 780.28(e)(1)(viii), 784.28(e)(1)(viii), 800.42(b)(1), 816.57(e), and 817.57(e), means the physical characteristics, pattern, profile, and dimensions of a stream channel. It is necessary to define the “form” of a stream because it greatly influences a stream's “hydrologic function,” which is also a term we are incorporating into the final rule for clarity. As contained in the final rule, the term “form” includes, but is not limited to, the flood-prone area to bankfull width ratio (entrenchment), channel width to depth ratio, channel slope, sinuosity, bankfull depth, dominant in-stream substrate particle size, and capacity for riffles and pools.
Specific to the definition of “form,” entrenchment defines the extent of flood prone area relative to channel size and, therefore, the areas in which hydrophilic and hydrophytic plant species are most adaptable. Channel width-to-depth ratio, in conjunction with channel slope, determines the discharge that, over time, transports most sediment downstream. Sinuosity directly influences channel slope. The dominant in-stream substrate particle size is dependent on discharge at bankfull stage and channel slope, and determines the nature of in-stream habitat and the types of biota that will dominate given appropriate water quality and nutrient availability. Additionally, in a natural or properly restored stream these components of “form” reach equilibrium such that they all remain relatively constant, even as the dynamic stream exists in a constant state of flux, with meanders migrating downstream, and the stream channel at any given location moving back and forth across the flood prone area. All of these features are integral to restoring “form” and ultimately to achieving successful stream restoration. Establishment of “form” is a prerequisite to achieving “hydrologic function.”
We proposed to remove this definition because it defines a term that we no longer use in our regulations.
We proposed to revise the definition of groundwater to provide clarity and to replace the words “ground water” with the single word “groundwater” throughout our regulations for internal consistency. Specifically, our proposed definition was adapted from a publication entitled “The ABCs of Aquifers”
We received comments from a regulatory authority that suggested that we define groundwater as “any water that is beneath the ground surface.” We do not concur. It would not be appropriate to define groundwater in those terms because the definition proposed by the commenter is not used by the scientific community. Another commenter said that the term “fully” was not necessary in our definition. Although we agree with the commenter that the term “fully” may be superfluous in some instances, we retained the definition based upon our review of scientific literature including Freeze and Cherry.
Another commenter concerned about restoring perched aquifers within the permit area opined that perched aquifers are often difficult to differentiate from temporary saturation of the soil horizon as a result of precipitation events. We disagree. A perched aquifer has distinct properties, such as saturated permeable sediments overlying discontinuous impermeable sediments that are not found in soil horizons. The geologic information the permittee is required to collect as part of the permit application process under final rule
Another commenter asserted that the proposed definition for “groundwater” included water in regional and perched aquifers. The same commenter was also concerned with the inclusion of “perched aquifers” in the definition of groundwater. The commenter was concerned that mining through a perched aquifer within the permit area would no longer be allowed because it would be considered impacts to groundwater, constituting material
Another commenter suggested that we mention in the definition of groundwater that the terms “aquifer” and “water table” are sometimes used to mean the same thing in our regulations. The terms do not mean the same thing and we have used the terms consistently and correctly throughout the preamble and final rule. Aquifer means a zone, stratum, or group of strata that can store and transmit water in specific quantities for a specific use.
We received another comment stating that the definition of groundwater did not need to be changed from the existing regulations. However, as stated in the preamble to the proposed rule,
We received no comments on our proposed removal of this definition, which we are removing as proposed.
We proposed to revise our definition of “hydrologic balance” in § 701.5 to include more emphasis on water quality by specifying that the definition encompasses “interactions that result in changes in the chemical composition or physical characteristics of groundwater and surface water, which may in turn affect the biological condition of streams and other water bodies.” Several commenters either questioned the rationale for inclusion of the latter phrase or erroneously interpreted it as incorporating biological condition into the definition. The commenters opposed the proposed addition, asserting that the definition of “hydrologic balance” should focus on water quality and quantity and not the aquatic community.
We never intended for biological condition to be part of the definition of “hydrologic balance” which we agree should be limited to water quality, quantity, movement, and storage. Therefore, the definition that we are adopting as part of this final rule does not include the phrase “which may in turn affect the biological condition of streams and other water bodies.” However, that phrase is an accurate statement in that interactions that result in changes in the chemical composition or physical characteristics of groundwater and surface water may indeed affect the biological condition of streams and other water bodies, which is one of the reasons that the impact of mining and reclamation on the hydrologic balance is a primary focus of SMCRA and the permitting process.
One commenter stated that the definition should be limited to the flow, quantity, and physical form of water. According to the commenter, the definition should not include any mention of water quality. We disagree. SMCRA quite clearly includes water quality as a component of the hydrologic balance. For example, section 515(b)(10)
Within §§ 780.28, 784.28, 800.42, 816.57, and 817.57 of the proposed rule, relating to activities in through, or adjacent to perennial or intermittent streams, we made reference to the restoration of the “form” of a stream. Specifically, the proposed rule required applicants desiring to mine through or divert a perennial or intermittent stream to “demonstrate that [they could] restore the form . . . of the affected stream . . . .”
The addition of the definition of “hydrologic function” will also provide clarity regarding the requirements for achieving Phase II bond release when mining through or permanently
The term “hydrologic function”, as used in §§ 780.28(e), 784.28(e), 800.42(b)(2), 816.57(f), and 817.57(f), refers to the role that streams play in transport of water and flow of water within the stream channel and floodplain. As contained in the final rule, the term “hydrologic function” includes total flow volume, seasonal variations in streamflow and base flow, and provisions of the water needed to maintain floodplains and wetlands associated with the stream. Establishment of “hydrologic function” occurs after achieving “form.” The “form” of the stream has a significant impact on hydrologic function.
As discussed in the preamble to the proposed rule,
We received comments requesting that we add runoff from snowmelt events to the definition. For the same reasons explained in the preamble to the “ephemeral stream” definition, we are adding reference to “snowmelt” within the definition of “intermittent stream.”
One commenter suggested the definition should be tied to the number of months in each year that snowmelt normally contributes to the baseflow in the stream. This comment was not accepted because the “intermittent stream” definition recognizes that snowmelt provides supplemental flow and that supplemental flow may only occur during certain times of the year.
Another commenter pointed out that the proposed definition of “intermittent stream” did not explicitly mention the relationship the stream has to the water table. The commenter thought this was problematic because we included the relationship in the proposed definition of “perennial stream”. For the purposes of consistency and clarity we added a statement in the final rule definition that describes the relationship between the water table and an intermittent stream.
One commenter opined that the definition of “intermittent stream” should address whether a stream's function is impaired by change in flow and potential change in frequency, duration, magnitude, rate of change, and timing of flows. We did not accept this comment because functional impairment from water quantity changes is more appropriately addressed by the definition of “material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area” found at § 701.5, and explained in this preamble.
Although we specified within the proposed definition that an “intermittent stream” means “a stream or part of a stream that has flowing water during certain times of the year when groundwater provides water for streamflow” several commenters questioned the extent to which groundwater should be considered in the definition of “intermittent stream.” Some commenters requested that the definition of “intermittent stream” specify that the groundwater contribution is from an aquifer and not a result of man-made features such as upstream reservoirs, groundwater pumped to the surface, or irrigation return flows. In addition, several commenters recommended the definition require that there be a contribution from groundwater and not strictly surface water runoff. Another commenter requested clarification that the mere occurrence of snowmelt in spring would not automatically make a stream “intermittent” rather than “ephemeral.” In consideration of these comments, we clarified the definition of “intermittent stream.” Within the final rule the definition of “intermittent stream” now includes the clarifying statement: “[t]he water table is located above the streambed for only part of the year, which means that intermittent streams may not have flowing water during dry periods.” Additionally, we agree with commenters that snowmelt should be considered a supplemental source of water for streamflow. Therefore, we have incorporated “snowmelt” into the final rule definition.
A commenter asserted that based on the proposed definition of “intermittent stream” and the prohibition of the placement of sedimentation control structures in a perennial or intermittent stream, coal mining would be severely and negatively impacted in the western region. The commenter implies that because intermittent streams with nominally, low-yield base flow from spring discharges are common in the western region, the proposed definition would change the stream classification. We disagree. Neither the proposed definition nor the definition within the final rule has any effect on the steam designation because both definitions require contribution of groundwater flow to the stream during parts of the year. In addition, the commenter opined that there should be an allowance for sediment control systems for other mining areas in relationship to intermittent streams similar to the exceptions allowed for excess spoil fills and steep-slope areas as provided in proposed paragraph (c) of § 816.57 and discussed within the preamble to the proposed rule.
Similar to the explanations within the definitions of “ephemeral” and “perennial” streams and to address commenters' confusion concerning what is or what is not a stream, we have revised the definition of “intermittent stream” to clarify that an “intermittent stream” only includes those conveyances with channels that display both a bed-and-bank configuration and an ordinary high water mark. The addition is consistent with the preamble discussions of the “ephemeral stream” and “perennial stream” definitions.
One commenter opined that linking the SMCRA definitions of ephemeral
Some commenters requested the final rule include definitions of “invasive species,” “non-invasive species,” and “native species.” Other commenters requested that we allow the regulatory authority to have latitude to define these terms. In response, we are adding two definitions to the final rule. We are defining “invasive species” and “native species” in the final rule. In the preamble to the proposed rule at § 780.12(g)
In response to the commenters that suggested that we allow the regulatory authority latitude to define these terms, we do not agree. It is important to have uniform definitions of these terms, and these definitions, adapted from the 1999 and 2016 Executive Orders, accomplish that objective. These final definitions of “invasive species” and “native species” satisfy the purposes of SMCRA, are appropriate, will provide sufficient guidance to regulatory authorities, and are generally consistent with the applicable Executive Orders. For example, although our definition of “invasive species” contains the term “alien species” and the definition in Executive Order 13751 does not, our use of that term is consistent with that Executive Order's new definition of “alien species.” In response to the request to define “non-invasive species,” we decline because those species that are not defined as invasive species will be classified as non-invasive species.
One commenter stated that we should use or recognize international definitions of “land use” such as the definitions from the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development because these definitions are more practical when recognizing economic and cultural activities associated with human use of the land. The commenter further stated that we should explain the meaning of “support facilities” and “integral part of the use” included within the definition of “land use.” The existing definition of “land use” is sufficient. Moreover, as these terms were included in the previous version of the definition of “land use” and not otherwise proposed for change, we see no need to further explain their meaning or to use other definitions as suggested by the commenter. Our reason for changing this definition to include the sentence, “[e]ach land use category includes land used for facilities that support the land use” is to ensure the definition is aligned with our corresponding changes to §§ 780.24 and 784.24. The alterations of this section allow for modification of postmining land uses from premining without requiring approval of higher and better use if the land that existed before mining was already capable of supporting that use in its existing condition. We did not receive any comments on this aspect of definition change.
This definition discusses “material damage” in the context of the subsidence control provisions of §§ 784.30 and 817.121, which we have clarified in this final rule. Several commenters raised concerns about the effects of subsidence on the land and waters overlying the underground mining activities. Commenters also raised concerns about the applicability of the definition of “material damage” (in the context of underground mine subsidence) to hydrologic features and recommended that subsidence damage to surface waters be more specifically regulated. Many of these concerns are discussed in Part IV.K. of the preamble which discusses material damage from subsidence and in the preamble discussion to our definition of material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit areas in § 701.5 of this preamble. Other comments are discussed in the sections of the preamble that address the changes we have made to our subsidence control plan provisions at § 784.30 (previously § 784.20), or that explain the measures to prevent, control, or correct damage resulting from subsidence at § 817.121. Notably, as explained more fully in our preamble discussion at Part IV.K., we are revising the definition of “material damage” in the context of the subsidence control provisions of §§ 784.30 and 817.121 to specifically include wetlands, streams, and bodies of water. Adding these features to the definition clarifies that not only subsidence damage to surface lands but also subsidence damage resulting in functional impairment of wetlands, streams, and bodies of water, must be repaired pursuant to the subsidence repair provisions of § 817.121(c). As previously explained, we have required operators to address impacts and correct subsidence damages to land and water features since 1995 when we published the final rule addressing the subsidence provisions of the Energy Policy Act of 1992. Thus, by adding “wetlands, streams, and bodies of water” to the definition of “material damage” in the subsidence context, we are merely reinforcing our longstanding position.
Some commenters requested that the final rule specifically address material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area from longwall mining that adversely impacts the productivity of prime farmland. Longwall mining is a method of underground mining that results in planned subsidence. The commenters suggested revisions to several provisions of our regulations, including the definition of “material damage” in the context of subsidence in § 701.5, our subsidence control regulations in § 784.30 (previously § 784.20), and our prime farmland restoration regulations in § 785.17.
We decline to adopt the recommended revisions. We do not interpret SMCRA as authorizing protection of prime farmland from the impacts of subsidence from longwall mining operations beyond the degree of protection afforded by § 817.121(c) of our final rule. Section 516(b)(1) of SMCRA
We received numerous general and specific comments on various aspects of our proposed definition for “material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area.” Several commenters requested that we refrain from finalizing a definition and continue to allow regulatory authorities the flexibility to define the term for their jurisdictions in order to best reflect local conditions. These commenters often focused on the diversity of the country and objected to the perceived “one-size-fits-all” approach of the proposed definition. Some commenters noted that some states, such as West Virginia and Montana, already have definitions of the term. Other states define “material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area” on a case-by-case basis. Similarly, some commenters suggested that, instead of a uniform federal definition of “material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area”, we could better address the concerns that we raised in the preamble to the proposed rule by providing technical support to the regulatory authorities so that they could be equipped to define “material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area” in their own states.
We agree with these commenters in part—states do need the flexibility to define “material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area” to account for local and regional differences in geology, hydrology, mining, and reclamation. However, a federal definition is necessary to provide guidance and clarity to the regulatory authorities as they define the term for their own jurisdictions. As discussed in more detail in the preamble to the proposed rule, our previous rules did not contain a definition of “material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area,” and, in the more than 30 years since SMCRA's enactment, very few states have adopted a definition.
To help clarify the regulation and to comply with the requirements of the Office of the Federal Register, we have revised and re-designated proposed paragraphs (a) and (b) of the definition into three paragraphs (1), (2), and (3).
The basic definition now provides that “material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area” is an adverse impact, from surface coal mining and reclamation operations, underground mining activities, or subsidence associated with underground mining activities, on the quality or quantity of surface water or groundwater, or on the biological condition of a perennial or intermittent stream.” What constitutes an adverse impact for determining material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area is now based on consideration of certain types of reasonably anticipated or actual effects of the operation, such as effects that (1) cause or contribute to a violation of applicable state or tribal water quality standards or a state or federal water quality standard established for a surface water outside the permit area under section 303(c) of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1313(c), or, for a surface water for which no water quality standard has been established, effects that cause or contribute to non-attainment of any premining use of surface water outside the permit area; (2) preclude a premining use of groundwater outside the permit area; or (3) result in a violation of the Endangered Species Act of 1973, 16 U.S.C. 1531
The combination of the basic definition and procedures for considering the types of effects that constitute material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area in paragraphs (1) through (3) is substantively similar to the proposed definition, with several exceptions. First, we deleted the references in the proposed definition to reasonably foreseeable uses based on comments from the public, state regulatory authorities, and other federal agencies. Among other things, the term “reasonably foreseeable uses” is too speculative for purposes of this definition. Second, we also deleted references to “existing use,” because, as some commenters noted, it could create confusion because the regulations implementing the Clean Water Act define that term in the context of that law. To avoid any possible confusion, as some commenters suggested, we replaced “existing” with “premining” in paragraph (2) and added a definition of that term in § 701.5. That definition provides that “premining” refers to the conditions and features that exist on a site at the time of application for a permit to conduct surface coal mining operations.
This revised definition also removes the proposed definition's direct reference to designated uses. We made this change for two reasons. First, the concept of water quality standards under the Clean Water Act, includes, but is ultimately broader than using just designated use. Designated uses are part of the water quality standards, along with water quality criteria, antidegradation provisions, and other
Second, we wanted to emphasize the relationship between the requirements of SMCRA and Clean Water Act as it relates to surface water affected by coal mining operations. Thus, the final definition of material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area better reconciles the requirement of SMCRA to perform a cumulative hydrologic impact assessment with the jurisdiction given to the Clean Water Act authority for the Nation's waters. It also highlights the need for coordination between the regulatory authority and the appropriate Clean Water Act authorities to develop the CHIA and to make the appropriate findings that the operation has been designed to prevent material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area.
In order to effectively implement this definition, the regulatory authority and appropriate Clean Water Act authorities should coordinate during the permit application process consistent with the requirements of the final rule. After permit issuance, they should also jointly investigate potential water quality violations related to coal mining operations, as appropriate. At both of these stages, this coordination focuses on exchanging project specific information to provide the regulatory authority with information to better assess the effects of the operation on the cumulative impact area. This process should focus on the pertinent water quality standards in force for the specific site and any applicable state or tribal polices governing low flow, mixing zones, and/or any variances in play to ensure an appropriate evaluation of what constitutes material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area, where it should be measured, and what material damage and evaluation thresholds are applicable for each situation. This process should enhance regulatory certainty for permit applicants and operators because it will minimize or eliminate conflicts between the agencies concerning impacts to receiving water bodies and identify measures that should be adopted to comply with the requirements of both statutes.
A commenter expressed concern that the proposed definition was impossible to interpret and evaluate in regard to compliance with SMCRA. We disagree; interpretation and compliance with this definition is possible for several reasons. For the first time since SMCRA was enacted, a federal definition of material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area describes levels of unacceptable changes to the hydrologic balance that result from a SMCRA operation. These unacceptable impacts include precluding the attainment of Clean Water Act water quality standards, not maintaining premining use for groundwater, and effects that result in a violation of the Endangered Species Act. As previously stated, post-SMCRA mining has impaired receiving streams, which is an unacceptable effect of current mining practices under the Act. If the concept of material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area had been more clearly understood or defined, these impacts should have been prevented.
Commenters have generally cited two situations in which it will be impossible for regulatory authorities to apply the proposed definition. First, they claim that a one-time or temporary occurrence should not constitute material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area. As discussed in more detail below, we generally agree, as long as the temporary occurrence does not affect the stream to the extent that, for example, the stream fails to satisfy applicable water quality standards or violate the SMCRA material damage thresholds set for the site. However, over the years, regulatory authorities, including us, have witnessed single or temporary events of large magnitude that have risen to the level of “material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area”. These events clearly violated the Clean Water Act water quality standards of the streams affected. Second, these commenters contend that the definition does not allow natural and non-mining conditions to be factored into whether a stream maintains its applicable water quality standards. As discussed below, we disagree. The definition allows natural, non-mining, and mining-caused stream variations as long as the stream maintains its applicable water quality standards. The definition simply provides a common framework from which to assess impacts to receiving bodies of water. Latitude exists within this definition for regulatory authorities to tailor the specific meaning of “material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area” to suit their particular state and situations encountered at specific mines. In addition, if the designated use is inaccurate or unattainable for natural or other reasons, the Clean Water Act authority has the flexibility under the Clean Water Act and the implementing regulations at 40 CFR part 131 to revise the designated use to more accurately reflect the highest attainable designated use.
A commenter also asserted that the definition, as proposed would result in denial of all future permit applications. We disagree. As previously stated, material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area only occurs when a mining operation causes a stream not to satisfy its applicable Clean Water Act water quality standards or an aquifer to not meet its premining use. Variations in water quality, quantity, biological condition, and/or aquatic habitat can occur as long as the stream satisfies is applicable Clean Water Act water quality standards or an aquifer meets its premining use. A mining operation can have an adverse effect on a receiving stream as long as the stream still satisfies its applicable water quality standards, an aquifer meets its premining use as determined by the SMCRA regulatory authority, and no violations of the Endangered Species Act are occurring. For example, a reduction in a stream's index of biotic integrity score would not constitute “material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area” if the stream is satisfying its applicable Clean Water Act water quality standards and not in violation of the Endangered Species Act. Similarly, a reduction in an aquifer's water quality parameter concentrations is not “material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area” as long as the aquifer is meeting its premining use and it is not preventing an adjacent receiving stream from satisfying its applicable Clean Water Act water quality standards or if no designated use is defined, its premining use outside the permit area. The concept of Clean Water Act water quality standards has always existed in both the Clean Water Act and has been relevant in SMCRA analyses since the inception of both statutes,
A commenter objected to our statement in the proposed rule that because the Clean Water Act does not apply to groundwater, the regulatory authority would need to use “best judgment” to establish “material damage to the hydrologic balance” criteria to protect existing and
Several commenters implied that material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area should arise any time a partial degradation to surface water or groundwater occurred. Specifically, they suggested that as part of the definition, we should require that material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area include impacts that “partially or significantly degrade” or “partially, completely eliminate, or significantly degrade” any designated use under sections 101(a) or 303(c) of the Clean Water Act or any existing or reasonably foreseeable use of surface water or groundwater outside the permit area. We disagree that material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area occurs every time a stream or groundwater is partially degraded, or in some circumstances significantly degraded, because the terms “partially” and “significantly” are subjective, do not convey a sense of magnitude, and are open to interpretation and abuse. Both the Clean Water Act and SMCRA allow some variation in water quality. For instance, the Clean Water Act recognizes that in some situations water quality may vary while still being protective of the designated use. However, if the ambient quality is on the verge of the ambient water quality criterion level, then any amount of degradation could impair the designated use. In addition, section 515(b)(10) of SMCRA
Some commenters expressed concern that the definition as proposed would prohibit any adverse impacts at all and would, for example, consider temporary or minor impacts to be “material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area.” As explained above, we disagree that the definition prohibits “any impact” outside the permit area. The concept of water quality standards has inherent flexibility within the standards that allow temporary and minor impacts outside the permit area as long as the magnitude of those impacts does not violate applicable Clean Water Act water quality standards for the surface water under review. This change, when read in context of the entire definition, supports the intent of SMCRA, which allows some change in baseline conditions provided that those changes are not of such magnitude that a stream is incapable of attaining its applicable Clean Water Act water quality standards.
In the underground mining context, one commenter opined that the rule should specifically mention that a regulatory authority cannot approve a permit application unless it determines that the proposed operation is not predicted to cause subsidence that would result in the dewatering of any perennial or intermittent stream. Our final rule defines material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area to encompass an adverse impact from subsidence that would dewater or impair an intermittent or perennial stream to the extent that applicable Clean Water Act water quality standards are or would not be met or, if no designated use is assigned, the actual premining use would be precluded, or the Endangered Species Act violated. However, as discussed above, material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area will not occur if the surface water or groundwater can be repaired so that it still attains applicable Clean Water Act water quality standards, or, if no designated use exists, its actual premining use. As discussed in more depth above, in Part IV.K., as long as these regulations are followed, subsidence damage from an underground mining operation that does not rise to the level of material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area may be allowed.
Similarly, several commenters suggested a single exceedance of a water quality standard should not be considered material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area as it may not impact the stream hydrology to the degree that the designated uses are impaired. We agree with this comment. Similar to what we said in our discussion of temporary impacts, under our definition, a simple exceedance of a water quality standard would not necessarily constitute material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area. If stream metrics indicate the stream is maintaining its applicable Clean Water Act water quality standards after exceedance events, then material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area has not occurred. However, there could be situations where the SMCRA regulatory authority determines a single exceedance does constitute material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area: if the stream metrics indicate that the exceedance would violate applicable Clean Water Act water quality standards or one of the other criteria listed in paragraphs (2) through (3). As we explained above, the
It is also possible to cause material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area while satisfying all effluent limitations established in the NPDES permit. SMCRA permits require in-stream monitoring for parameters that are not limited or required to be monitored by the corresponding NPDES permits. Therefore, required monitoring under the SMCRA permit may indicate that a parameter that was not expected to have the potential to exceed a numeric or narrative water quality criteria in the receiving stream but does in fact exceed the established criteria. This situation could also occur if numerous individually compliant discharges cumulatively create a situation that violates a stream's applicable Clean Water Act water quality standards or would cause a violation of the Endangered Species Act.
One commenter asserted that the definition of material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area should apply to all streams and stream segments, and that the assessment of material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area must not be restricted to only those streams for which the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, during the Clean Water Act section 404 process, makes jurisdictional determinations. We agree that material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area is not restricted to only those streams for which there is a Clean Water Act jurisdictional determination issued by the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers.
In addition, final rule § 780.19(c)(6)(i)(C) simplifies the process of delineating stream transitions by requiring that the SMCRA regulatory authority default to any jurisdictional stream determinations made by the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers to delineate stream transitions. If the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers has not determined the location of a transition point, the regulatory authority must set one. There are a number of available resources that may be helpful including the state Clean Water Act authority. The regulatory authority is encouraged to coordinate with the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers and other partners in identification of stream transition points.
Several commenters suggested that linking the definition of material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area with designated use could be problematic in situations where designated uses have not been identified or are not instructive, not accurate, and/or not attainable. The Clean Water Act provides a variety of policies to allow sufficient time to attain the designated uses, such as water quality standards variances, permit compliance schedules, or designated use changes. Several commenters noted that a use attainability analysis may be required to establish or change a designated use and that the use attainability analysis may be time-consuming and expensive. In such cases, the regional U.S. Environmental Protection Agency offices and relevant state Clean Water Act agencies can provide support and may suggest other approaches appropriate for the situation. As noted above, we are retaining the link to attainment of designated uses in the broader water quality standards approach; however, we are also making a clarifying change to address some of these concerns. As proposed, the definition accounts for situations where no designated use has been identified for a particular stream. In those situations, the proposed rule would have required that the “existing use” be maintained in a receiving stream. In the final rule, to prevent confusion with the Clean Water Act definition of existing uses and prevent abuses related to impaired streams, we have made revisions to further clarify this concept. Our intent is to maintain the actual use of surface water prior to the proposed mining operation. We are also concerned that the baseline standard for material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area and/or stream restoration standards for an impaired stream, with or without a designated use, may be mistakenly considered as an existing, impaired condition rather than its actual or potential designated use. To remove any confusion and add clarity, we removed the phrase “existing use” from the definition and added “actual use” to signify uses that existed prior to submission of a coal mine permit application. Thus, paragraph (1) now specifically states that if no designated use has been established under the Clean Water Act, a mining operation cannot preclude attainment of any actual premining use of surface water outside the permit area.
One commenter suggested we only consider “existing uses” and that we define “existing uses” as any uses in existence as of August 3, 1977, which is the date SMCRA was enacted. We have not adopted this suggestion because we removed the phrase “existing uses” from the definition as it relates to surface waters and replaced it with “any premining use.” We did not replace it with “any actual use as of the enactment of SMCRA” because that change could raise potential conflicts with the Clean Water Act if the stream's designated uses have changed since the enactment of SMCRA.
Another commenter suggested we revise the regulation to provide a hierarchy of stream use categories that would provide consistency in determining material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area (
Proposed paragraph (a) defined material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area as any adverse impact that would preclude any reasonably foreseeable use of surface water or groundwater outside the permit area. Several commenters objected to the use of the term “reasonably foreseeable uses”. Several commenters suggested using alternate terms such as
Another commenter suggested that linking material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area with the concept of reasonably foreseeable uses will create conflicts between the Clean Water Act and SMCRA agencies about what is a foreseeable use. For the reasons explained above, we did not accept this comment.
A commenter expressed concern about how the Clean Water Act concept of anti-degradation would relate to variability in a stream designated use caused by SMCRA mining impacts. We clarified the definition by directly linking to the concept of Clean Water Act water quality standards, which includes provisions for impaired streams and antidegradation. To establish material damage in situations involving impaired streams, the SMCRA regulatory authority should consult with the Clean Water Act authority to ensure a thorough understanding of the water quality standards applicable to the stream and specific situation under review.
In the proposed rule, groundwater was included with paragraph (a). One commenter specifically suggested we define material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area so that it applies to groundwater. Although groundwater was included in the proposed definition, we have decided to include paragraph (2) in the final rule to specifically state that operators must maintain premining uses associated with groundwater. This change clarifies that material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area protects groundwater resources that may not have uses assigned to them. In particular, this paragraph states that “material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area” would include those adverse impacts that preclude attainment of any premining use of groundwater outside the permit area. In addition, paragraphs (1) and (2) of the definition would preclude the discharge of contaminated groundwater into a receiving stream if that discharge caused the stream to not satisfy its applicable Clean Water Act water quality standards. Thus, groundwater protections are included in this final definition.
A commenter suggested we revise the definition to ensure it adequately protects listed species or designated critical habitats. The commenter further elaborated that the definition should not be linked to the Endangered Species Act's jeopardy analysis. We agree that the definition of material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area should adequately protect listed species and designated critical habitat, whether aquatic or terrestrial. Paragraph (b) of the proposed rule was included to prevent impacts to threatened or endangered species or adverse effects on designated critical habitat outside the permit area in violation of the Endangered Species Act of 1973, 16 U.S.C. 1531
One commenter, citing section 702,
Many commenters raised concerns with a statement in the preamble to the proposed rule that stated: A “SMCRA regulatory authority may need to establish numerical material damage criteria for parameters of concern for which there are no numerical water quality standards or water quality criteria under the Clean Water Act.”
One commenter also suggested that inclusion of the term biological condition and ecological function into this definition is a duplication of the Clean Water Act sections 401 and 404 processes. We disagree. First, the term “ecological function” is not found in the definition of material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area nor is it a required element to be assessed when setting criteria to asses if material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit has occurred (section 780.21). Second, to the extent that any Clean Water Act section 401 or 404 processes also apply, the final rule allows any information obtained in these processes to be used to inform and support analyses conducted under SMCRA. It is vital to link water quality changes with aquatic impacts that may result from SMCRA sites in order to determine whether material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area has been prevented. This linkage is necessary to evaluate the overall impact of the mining operation on the receiving stream and its aquatic community and to assess unacceptable changes in either designated use, actual, or premining use when a designated use
Many commenters speculated as to how coal mining impacts to receiving streams would be assessed in light of the proposed definition. Several commenters questioned the use of the phrase “adverse impacts” and were concerned that the phrase could be interpreted to mean any impact to a receiving stream. We disagree with this interpretation. The definition of “material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area” needs to be read, understood, and applied in its entirety. As discussed above, an adverse impact does not necessarily constitute material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area. The definition includes only those adverse impacts that, either individually or cumulatively, would preclude a receiving stream from attaining its applicable Clean Water Act water quality standards, or if no designated use exists, the premining use.
Several commenters proposed their own definitions of material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area. Most of these suggested definitions tied material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area to permanent impacts after mitigation attempts have failed. We decline to adopt the term “permanent” because impacts can materially damage the hydrologic balance outside the permit area yet not be considered permanent. There are many examples over the last 30 years of impacts that were not permanent but that clearly rose to the level of material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area. Some examples include the Martin County, Kentucky slurry breach, impacts to Tug Fork River that killed all aquatic life in Coldwater Fork and Wolf Creeks, and a mine release of very high conductivity water released from the Blacksville No. 2 Mine into Dunkard Fork in Greene County, Pennsylvania that created a golden algae bloom that caused a massive fish kill in 40 miles of stream. These events have all been mitigated and would not be considered permanent even though they clearly constituted material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area which should have been prevented. Thus, singular, nonpermanent events can rise to the magnitude of material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area.
A commenter recommended that the rule specify that a SMCRA regulatory authority should not consider noncompliant discharges other than those that rise to the level of precluding designated or existing uses because those noncompliant discharges, according to the commenter, remain solely within the purview of the Clean Water Act authority. We disagree. SMCRA gives jurisdictional authority to its regulatory authorities over aspects of water quality resulting from coal mining
Several commenters expressed concern that extraneous, non-mining related impacts, including natural conditions, would be included in assessment of material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area and urged us to limit the scope of assessment to only those impacts directly attributable to the surface coal mining and reclamation operation. We agree with the commenters that many surface coal mining and reclamation operations are located in areas with multiple land uses and that water quality can be impacted from these other non-coal mining sources and natural conditions. The regulations require permit applicants to acquire water samples to help assess the baseline water quality in all streams overlying and adjacent to the proposed operation and for groundwater. Impacts to the water from other existing upstream land uses, including non-coal mining sources, will be reflected in the baseline data. The baseline data will form the basis of the cumulative hydrologic impact assessment developed by the regulatory authority. That assessment evaluates the capacity of the receiving stream to assimilate the expected water quality emanating from the proposed mining operation, and from all other mining-related activities, known and anticipated, within an area known as the cumulative impact area. The cumulative hydrologic impact assessment, therefore, provides the regulatory authority with sufficient information to assess whether the proposed mining operation, in combination with other existing and reasonably anticipated mining activities, will materially damage the hydrologic balance outside the permit area. For example, if a stream's assimilative capacity for a certain parameter is already consumed by other activities or if the proposed operation would exacerbate natural conditions to the point where the stream might fail to attain its applicable Clean Water Act water quality standards, the regulatory authority would either need to modify the permit so that material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area does not occur or disapprove the permit.
Several commenters suggested mining operations should not be required to improve a stream's biological condition beyond the premining condition. We do not agree with this assertion for previously impaired streams. We agree that if a stream is attaining its applicable Clean Water Act water quality standards, there is no requirement under SMCRA for the operation to implement measures, for example, to attain higher designated use categories. That is not the case for mining operations affecting previously degraded streams. Section 515(b)(24) of SMCRA specifically requires the enhancement of fish, wildlife, and related environmental values where practicable and section 508(a)(9) of SMCRA
One commenter also suggested the rule should grant discretion to the regulatory authority when applying bioassessment standards for material damage to the hydrologic balance
One commenter indicated that the definition of material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area has been expanded to include quality and quantity impacts to surface water and ground water but also includes adverse impacts to the biological condition of a stream. They further stated that the definition expanded the hydrologic impact review to the adjacent area and/or shadow area of underground mines. In addition, the commenter suggested that inclusion of subsidence damage within the definition of material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area contradicted the Energy Policy Act.
Moreover, our definition does not conflict with the Energy Policy Act. Section 2504 of Energy Policy Act requires operators to repair or compensate for subsidence impacts they cause to surface structures and requires replacement of water supplies adversely impacted by coal mine subsidence. The water replacement provisions of the Energy Policy Act are incorporated into our regulations at section 817.40 and are still in effect. These regulations provide additional protections for individual well owners. A change to an individual well that would trigger the replacement provision of section 817.40 would not necessarily constitute material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area unless that damage was the result of wholesale adverse changes to an aquifer that the regulatory authority determines rose to the level of material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area.
The commenter further suggested that inclusion of the term biological condition in the introductory text of the definition would result in a “massive” amount of new information for the regulatory agency to review. We agree that new information will be received on biological condition, but this information is not anticipated to be “massive” or otherwise overburden the regulatory authority. Experience in the Tennessee federal program indicates collection and submission of permit specific biological condition information does not substantially increase the volume of information submitted for a coal mine permit application. Biological condition is a critical component of determining the impact from the mining operation not only on water quality and quantity of the receiving stream but on impact to the aquatic environment. This information needs to be evaluated to ensure mining and reclamation operations do not cause material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area.
Some commenters expressed concern that the proposed definition of “mountaintop removal mining” conflicts with section 515(c)(2) of SMCRA
As we explained in the preamble to the proposed rule, we added a definition of “mountaintop removal mining” to § 701.5 by consolidating the descriptions of mountaintop removal mining operations in previous §§ 785.14(b) and 824.11(a)(2) and (3).
As discussed within the explanation of the definition of “invasive species”, some commenters requested that the final rule include definitions of “invasive species,” “non-invasive species,” and “native species.” Other commenters requested that we allow the regulatory authority to have latitude to define these terms. In response, we are adding two definitions to the final rule. We are defining “invasive species” and “native species” in the final rule. In the preamble to the proposed rule at section 780.12(g)
In response to the commenters that suggested that we allow the regulatory authority latitude to define the terms “invasive species” and “native species”, we do not agree because it is important to have uniform definitions of these terms and the definitions, adapted from the 1999 and 2016 Executive Orders in a manner that focuses on the specific goals of SMCRA, are appropriate.
We received no comments on our proposed revisions to this definition, which we are adopting as proposed.
One commenter stated that we should use the ordinary high water mark (OHWM) instead of the bankfull elevation when measuring distances from streambanks because the OHWM is both more common for that purpose and more easily determined. We adopted the commenter's suggestion, which meant that we needed a definition of OHWM. To promote consistency between SMCRA and the Clean Water Act, we settled on the definition in regulation 33 CFR 328.3(e).
We made only one change—replacing “shore” with “bank” in our definition because “bank” is more commonly understood and used in the context of the streams affected by coal mining.
Measuring from the OHWM as opposed to the bankfull elevation, which is the point at which the streambanks can hold no more water before spilling flow onto the floodplain, could result in a slightly narrower buffer zone or streamside vegetated corridor, but, in most cases, the difference would be minimal.
We proposed to add the definition of “parameters of concern” because we used the term extensively in the proposed rule. Under the proposed definition, “parameters of concern” consists of those chemical or physical characteristics or properties of surface water or groundwater that could be altered by mining activities in a manner that would adversely impact the quality of surface water or groundwater or the biological condition of a stream. We continue to use the definition of “parameters of concern” within the final rule and adopt it as proposed, with one exception. Within the definition, we have replaced “biological condition of a stream” with “including adverse impacts on aquatic life.”
One commenter expressed concern that the definition of “biological condition” coupled with the definition of “parameters of concern” would impose new and burdensome requirements. The definition of “parameters of concern” was used to clarify that these parameters may be of concern because of potential impacts on aquatic life. Including “biological condition” in the context of this definition does not, in and of itself, require additional biological data beyond the requirements expressly defined elsewhere in the regulation; however, we agree that the use of term did not provide sufficient clarity and have replaced “biological condition of a stream” with “including adverse impacts on aquatic life”.
We also received a variety of comments on the definition of “parameters of concern.” A few commenters asked us to delete this proposed definition altogether. These commenters alleged that the definition conflicts with the Clean Water Act and exceeds our authority. We disagree. The Clean Water Act established a national goal to restore or maintain the chemical, physical, and biological integrity of the Nation's water.
Nothing in this Act shall be construed as superseding, amending, modifying, or repealing the * * * [t]he Federal Water Pollution Control Act [Clean Water Act] [
Another commenter requested the definition be revised to state that the “parameters of concern” will be determined by the approved regulatory authority. While we agree that the regulatory authority should identify local “parameters of concern,” if applicable, and include them in the required baseline monitoring data, we are not modifying the definition. Instead, we have clarified §§ 780.19, 784.19, and 780.23 of the rule to state that groundwater and surface water quality descriptions include all “parameters of concern” as identified by the regulatory authority. With these clarifications, any “parameters of concern” identified by the regulatory authority will more accurately reflect those constituents that could potentially impact water resources during coal mining and reclamation activities in their specific region of the country.
One commenter requested we adopt the term “pollutants” instead of “parameters of concern.” We disagree because the term “pollutant” is narrower than “parameters of concern.” We intend the term “parameters of concern” to cover all of the chemical or physical characteristics that are currently present in surface water or groundwater, or that could be released as a result of coal mining and reclamation activities or from the natural environment during such activities, and that could be present in sufficient concentrations to result in material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area. In addition, using “parameters of concern” instead of “pollutant” in our regulations avoids confusion with the term “pollutant” as defined in section 502(6) of the Clean Water Act.
In consideration of these comments, we are not making any additional modifications to the final rule. As
As discussed in the preamble to the proposed rule,
In our revised definition, “perennial stream” means a stream or part of a stream that has flowing water year-round during a typical year. One commenter stated that the term “typical year” is too vague. Another commenter requested clarification on the length of time meant by “most of the year.” Our final definition of “perennial stream” is substantively identical to the corresponding U.S. Army Corps of Engineers' definition. Both definitions recognize that perennial streams or segments of those streams may cease flowing during periods of sustained, below-normal precipitation. Thus, a cessation in flow during those periods would not result in the reclassification of the stream as intermittent. To the extent a SMCRA regulatory authority needs additional clarification of the terms “typical year” and “most of the year,” we recommend that they coordinate with the Clean Water Act authority.
One commenter asserted that the regulations pertaining to a “perennial stream” should allow regulatory authorities to adopt and apply regulations that could better protect perennial streams. Similarly, another commenter requested the addition of language recognizing that state protections for all stream types may exceed the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers' requirements and compel regulatory authorities to adopt more stringent protections within the permit conditions. States have the ability to adopt more stringent rules when they are revising their regulations governing surface coal mines and underground mines to satisfy the requirements set forth in the final rule. States can adopt more stringent rules that afford greater protections to ephemeral, intermittent, and perennial streams. Because states already have the authority under section 505(b) of SMCRA
In response to requests from several commenters, we are adding a definition of “premining” to § 701.5 of the final rule. The definition provides that “premining” refers to the conditions and features that exist on a site at the time of application for a permit to conduct surface coal mining operations. Some of our regulations refer to conditions or features in existence before any mining occurred on the site, not the conditions or features in existence at the time of preparation of the permit application. In those instances, we typically use the terms “prior to any mining” or “before any mining” instead of “premining.”
As we explained in the preamble, we proposed to revise the definition of “reclamation” to fully implement SMCRA by expanding the definition to include the entire disturbed area, to encompass all actions taken to restore land and water to the conditions required by SMCRA, and to clarify that the reclaimed land must be capable of supporting the uses it was capable of supporting prior to any mining or, subject to certain restrictions, higher or better uses.
Several commenters requested explanation of the terms “capable of” and “higher or better” as referenced in the proposed definition. We did not propose to revise the definition of “higher or better uses” in this rulemaking. Section 701.5 defines this term as meaning the “postmining land uses that have a higher economic value or nonmonetary benefit to the landowner to the community than the premining land uses.” The phrase “capable of” was added to the definition of “reclamation” because the previous definition could have been misconstrued to require the implementation of the postmining land use, exceeding section 515(b)(2)'s requirement that the disturbed land be restored “to a condition capable of supporting the uses which it was capable of supporting prior to any mining, or higher or better uses. . . .”
One commenter urged us to include within the definition of “reclamation” a reference to the restoration of streams damaged by subsidence. We are not incorporating this recommendation into the final rule because we have specifically addressed this issue within § 784.30, relating to preparation of a “subsidence control plan and what information must that plan include” and § 817.121, relating to what measures must be taken to “prevent, control, or correct damage resulting from subsidence” within the final rule and discussed more thoroughly within those sections.
Several commenters combined their comments on this definition within their discussion of the definition of “reclamation.” Therefore, we addressed the comments regarding “reclamation plan” in the same manner as explained in the definition of “reclamation.” We received no additional comments on our proposed revisions to this definition; therefore, we are adopting the definition as proposed.
We proposed to define “renewable resource lands” as “aquifers, aquifer recharge areas, recharge areas for other subsurface and surface water, areas of agricultural or silvicultural production of food and fiber, and grazing lands.” The only substantive difference from the previous definition, which we adopted on March 13, 1979, was the addition of recharge areas for surface water.
One commenter expressed concern that the inclusion of recharge areas for surface water could have the effect of classifying all lands within watersheds that drain to a stream or reservoir used for a public drinking water supply as renewable resource lands and thus open the door to challenges seeking to ban all coal mining in those watersheds. According to the commenter, this outcome would be inconsistent with the statement in the DRIA that the proposed rule would not strand or sterilize any reserves;
We do not agree with the commenter that the outcome described above represents a change from the status quo. The outcome described by the commenter is consistent with the baseline conditions upon which the DRIA was based. Section 522(a)(3)(C) of SMCRA
However, we agree that the scope of the proposed definition is too broad in that it would include the watersheds of all surface waters, not just surface water bodies that serve as water supplies. Therefore, we decided not to adopt the proposed revision to the definition to the extent that it would include “recharge areas for other subsurface and surface water.” Instead, we revised the definition to include “recharge areas for other subsurface water,” which is consistent with the previous definition's inclusion of areas for the recharge of other underground waters. We also revised the definition to include “surface water bodies that function as a water supply.” The latter revision more closely tracks the language of section 522(a)(3)(C) of SMCRA.
One commenter supported the proposed modification of the definition to include recharge areas for surface waters. The commenter recommended that we revise the proposed definition to explicitly identify examples of surface waters by adding “(such as lakes, ponds, and wetlands)” after “surface water.” We decline to adopt this recommendation because our revision of the definition to include “watersheds for surface water bodies that function as a water supply” provides sufficient specificity without being under inclusive or over inclusive.
A commenter noted that the preamble to the proposed definition stated that the definition would include recharge areas for wetlands.
We received no comments on our proposed revisions to this definition, which we are adopting as proposed.
One commenter expressed concern that the proposed definition of “temporary diversion” includes no specific time for “temporary.” The commenter noted that, under the proposed definition, a temporary diversion could remain in place until the end of mining and reclamation activities, which may be measured in decades, and therefore is not consistent with the common usage of the word “temporary.” The commenter recommended that, with respect to stream diversions, the word “temporary” be subdivided into a “short-term temporary” period no more than two years in duration and a “long-term temporary” period two years or longer in duration that can extend until the end of mining and reclamation activities.
The commenter correctly points out that proposed §§ 780.28 and 784.28 would establish different standards for a temporary stream channel diversion in place for more than two years as compared to one in place for less than two years. However, we do not agree that the revision suggested by the commenter is necessary or would improve clarity. We define a “temporary diversion” as a “channel constructed to convey streamflow or overland flow” and specify that the term “includes only those channels not approved by the
Relative to the commenter's assertion that the definition should be clarified, we did make changes to § 816.43 in the final rule to establish three categories of diversions (diversion ditches, stream diversions, and conveyances or channels within the disturbed area) and we specify the requirements that apply to each category.
Another commenter stated that the word “conveyance” in the definition of a temporary diversion should be removed or, at a minimum, modified so that if the conveyances fail, they will be limited to discharges “out of the pit.” The commenter further asserted that “in pit” conveyance structures that fail do not pose a risk to the public or the environment. Therefore, according to the commenter, they should not be regulated under SMCRA or the Clean Water Act. We did not alter the final rule in response to this comment because many of these conveyances may be quite lengthy, often thousands of feet in length, and a failure along such a conveyance may result in water flowing away for the pit, not always into the pit as suggested by the commenter, which may potentially result in discharges off site. We did however add language to the final definition to include channels that convey flows to a siltation structure or other treatment facility. Thus, diversions can be constructed within the permit area to convey water to a siltation structure or, as the commenter suggested, to the mine pit.
We proposed to define the term “waters of the United States” in the same manner it is defined within 40 CFR 230.3(s), which is part of the section 404(b)(1) guidelines under the Clean Water Act.
We did not propose to add a definition of “wetlands.” However, a few commenters requested that we define “wetlands” or, preferably, clarify that the term “wetlands” as used in our final rule corresponds to the existing definition within the regulations promulgated pursuant to the Clean Water Act. We find that a unique definition in the final rule is unnecessary. Instead, we will defer to the definition of “wetlands” as promulgated by the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers and U.S. Environmental Protection Agency. Additionally, these commenters stated that we should specify in the final rule that wetlands must be delineated using field techniques according to the most recent requirements from the Clean Water Act regulatory authority. One commenter suggested that the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers should delineate, document, map, and field confirm wetlands. This commenter also suggested that we adopt a definition of “wetlands” that includes an explanation that “wetlands are one subset of the Waters of the United States and are subject to the requirements of the Clean Water Act, just as are streams and other regulated bodies.”
We decline to adopt the commenters' recommendations. We are not aware of any instances in which the lack of a definition of “wetlands” under SMCRA has created a problem. For regulatory purposes, the term “wetlands” is commonly understood to mean wetlands as determined using the diagnostic techniques in the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers Wetlands Delineation Manual, Technical Report Y-87-1, as published in January 1987 and subsequently modified. Paragraph 26 in Part II of that manual summarizes the fundamental characteristics of wetlands. Section 702(a) of SMCRA
Our proposed rule did not include regulatory text clarifying how the rule would affect existing permits and permit applications. A number of commenters emphasized that the final rule needed to include such a provision, both for clarity and to ensure preservation of the rights of existing permit holders. Some commenters noted that many of the requirements of the stream protection rule, such as expanded baseline data collection and permit application requirements and related performance standards and bond release requirements, would be impossible for existing operations to meet because the site has already been disturbed. According to the commenters, the final rule should apply only to new operations or to additions to existing operations, not to existing permitted lands and reclaimed areas. Others emphasized the general legal principle that regulations should be prospective in nature, not retroactive.
One commenter observed that it is not clear which parts of the proposed rule would apply to existing permits. The commenter noted that the DRIA stated that, for purposes of that analysis, §§ 774.15, 800.18, 800.40, 816.35,
We agree that, in general, the final rule that we are publishing today should be prospective, not retroactive. Therefore, we have added § 701.16 to clarify the applicability of the rule. Section 701.16 applies only to the revisions to Parts 701 through 827, which paragraph (a) characterizes as the “stream protection rule.” Section 701.16 does not affect the revisions to our termination of jurisdiction rules in § 700.11(d) because those revisions merely codify longstanding court decisions and legal representations concerning the applicability of the rules governing the termination and reassertion of jurisdiction. Paragraphs (a)(1) through (5) of § 701.16 establish minimum applicability standards for those stream protection rule provisions that do not contain their own specific applicability provisions.
Section 701.16 supersedes the statement in the DRIA that identifies §§ 774.15, 800.18, 800.40, 816.35, 816.36, 816.41, 817.35, 817.36, and 817.41 as applying to existing permits. Under § 701.16, the stream protection rule would not apply to existing permits unless the permittee applies for certain types of permit revisions. Therefore, there is no need for this rule to establish interim requirements or a compliance schedule for existing permits. Of course, it would not be inconsistent with SMCRA for a regulatory authority to, in its discretion, apply some or all provisions of the stream protection rule to part or all of a permit or application not listed in paragraph (a) of this section.
Paragraph (a)(1) of § 701.16 provides that the stream protection rule applies to any application for a new permit submitted to the regulatory authority after the effective date of the stream protection rule under the applicable regulatory program. One commenter argued that the final rule should apply only to new leases or lands acquired after the effective date of the rule because adoption of the proposed rule would significantly increase the cost of mining large tracts of lands and coal reserves in which companies have already made significant investments. We do not agree. Persons who acquire leases, lands, or interests in land do so subject to future regulatory restrictions on use of those leases, lands, or interests in land. To the extent a property right exists to mine coal in a particular location using a particular method that right does not vest until issuance of a SMCRA permit. Even then, the regulatory authority has the right to require reasonable revision of the permit to ensure compliance with the Act and applicable regulatory program.
Paragraph (a)(2) of § 701.16 provides that the stream protection rule applies to any application for a new permit pending a decision by the regulatory authority as of the effective date of the stream protection rule under the applicable regulatory program, unless the regulatory authority has determined the application to be administratively complete under § 777.15 or its state program counterpart before the effective date of the stream protection rule under the applicable regulatory program. Exempting administratively complete applications would protect permit applicants who invested time and money in developing a good-faith application under the existing rules.
Paragraph (a)(3) of § 701.16 provides that the stream protection rule applies to any application for the addition of acreage to an existing permit submitted to the regulatory authority after the effective date of the stream protection rule under the applicable regulatory program, with the exception of applications for incidental boundary revisions that do not propose to add acreage for coal removal. Under section 511(a)(3) of SMCRA
Paragraph (a)(4) of § 701.16 provides that the stream protection rule applies to any application for the addition of acreage to an existing permit pending a decision by the regulatory authority as of the effective date of the stream protection rule under the applicable regulatory program, with two exceptions. First, the stream protection rule would not apply to applications for incidental boundary revisions that do not propose to add acreage for coal removal. Second, the stream protection rule would not apply to applications that the regulatory authority has determined to be administratively complete before the effective date of the stream protection rule under the applicable regulatory program. The rationale for this paragraph is consistent with the rationale contained in paragraphs (a)(2) and (3).
Paragraph (a)(5) of section 701.16 provides that the stream protection rule applies to any application for a permit revision submitted on or after the effective date of the stream protection rule under the applicable regulatory program, or pending a decision by the regulatory authority as of that date, that proposes a new excess spoil fill, coal mine waste refuse pile, or coal mine waste slurry impoundment or that proposes to move or expand the location of an approved excess spoil fill or coal mine waste facility. Many of the studies cited in Part II of the preamble mention that excess spoil fills are especially detrimental to streams, both because they often cover stream segments and because of the adverse impacts of drainage from and through the fill on aquatic life in streams downstream of the fill. Coal mine waste refuse piles and slurry impoundments have similar characteristics in that they sometimes cover stream segments and because drainage from and through the refuse pile or slurry impoundment could adversely impact aquatic life in receiving streams.
Paragraph (a)(5) protects the rights and investment of existing permittees and persons with administratively complete applications, while limiting that protection to the locations and dimensions approved in the permit or contained in an administratively complete permit revision. Allowing a permittee to revise the permit to add new excess spoil fills or coal mine waste facilities, or to alter the location or size of those fills or coal mine waste facilities, without complying with the provisions of this final rule would be inconsistent with the principal purpose of the stream protection rule;
We are finalizing § 773.5 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
We are finalizing § 773.7 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
We are adopting § 773.15 as proposed with the exception of paragraphs (e), (j), and (n). One commenter urged us to revise paragraph (e)(2) to provide that a regulatory authority may not approve a permit application unless it determines that the proposed operation is not predicted to cause subsidence that would result in the dewatering of any perennial or intermittent stream. Proposed paragraph (e)(2), like section 510(b)(3) of SMCRA,
Proposed paragraph (e)(3) would have required that the regulatory authority include in the permit site-specific criteria for material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area. Proposed paragraph (e)(3) would have required that the criteria be expressed in numerical terms for each parameter of concern. Several commenters opposed this proposed provision, alleging that requiring the regulatory authority to set numerical criteria would supersede the Clean Water Act, which would violate section 702 of SMCRA.
Proposed § 773.15(j) would have required that the regulatory authority find that the operation is not likely to jeopardize the continued existence of species listed or proposed for listing as threatened or endangered under the Endangered Species Act of 1973, 16 U.S.C. 1531
Our final § 773.15(j) provides applicants and regulatory authorities with four pathways to demonstrate that the operation will be conducted in compliance with the Endangered Species Act.
Section 773.15(j)(1) applies when the applicant provides documentation that the proposed surface coal mining and reclamation operations would have no effect on species listed or proposed for listing as threatened or endangered under the Endangered Species Act of 1973, 16 U.S.C. 1531
Paragraph (j)(2) applies when the applicant and the regulatory authority document compliance with a valid
Paragraph (j)(3) is an option when we are the regulatory authority or there is another federal nexus to the proposed operation. Under this option, the applicant must provide documentation that interagency consultation under section 7 of the Endangered Species Act of 1973, 16 U.S.C. 1536, has been completed for the proposed operation. Paragraph (j)(4) is an option when a state regulatory authority is responsible for permitting actions, and another option under this paragraph is either unavailable or is not utilized. Under this option, the applicant must provide documentation that the proposed operation is covered under a permit issued pursuant to section 10 of the Endangered Species Act of 1973, 16 U.S.C. 1539.
Some commenters requested that we revise proposed § 773.15(j) because, as initially proposed, they believed this section required the regulatory authority to make a finding that the operation was “not likely to jeopardize the continued existence of species listed or proposed for listing” under the Endangered Species Act. The commenters alleged that it was the responsibility of the Service(s) to make a “jeopardy” determination and that the regulatory authorities do not have the expertise to make this type of finding. We agree and have clarified the final regulation. As explained above, we revised this section to require the that the regulatory authority make a finding that the permit will comply with the Endangered Species Act, either because the proposed operation will have no effect upon any species listed or proposed for listing as threatened or endangered under the Endangered Species Act of 1973, or on designated or proposed critical habitat under that law or because the applicant and the regulatory authority have documented compliance with one of the mechanisms described in paragraphs (j)(2) through (4).
Many commenters also alleged that imposing a requirement that an operation must not jeopardize the continued existence of species proposed for listing as threatened or endangered under the Endangered Species Act is beyond our authority under SMCRA. Some commenters alleged that we do not have authority to enforce the requirements of the Endangered Species Act. We do not agree with either comment. As we noted in the preamble to the proposed rule, both SMCRA and the Endangered Species Act provide authority to protect species that have been proposed for listing.
Moreover, three different provisions of the Endangered Species Act apply to the Department of the Interior in connection with the implementation of SMCRA. First, section 7(a)(1) of the Endangered Species Act
Regarding paragraph (k), a commenter requested that we include language within paragraph (k) and in other provisions of the rule that relate to the National Historic Preservation Act
Under section 522(e) of SMCRA, the regulatory authority (and OSMRE for permits it issues) must protect publicly and privately owned properties listed on the National Register of Historic Places. There is no obligation under section 522(e)(3) to protect properties that are eligible for, but not listed on, the National Register. However, this finding requires the regulatory authority to consider such resources when making
Proposed paragraph (n)(1) would have required that the applicant demonstrate that the proposed operation has been designed to prevent the formation of discharges with levels of parameters of concern that would require long-term treatment after mining has been completed. Proposed paragraph (n)(2) would have required that the applicant demonstrate that there is no credible evidence that the design of the proposed operation will not work as intended to prevent the formation of discharges with levels of parameters of concern that would require long-term treatment after mining has been completed.
A commenter supported proposed paragraph (n), noting that it ensures advances in predicting the formation of mine drainage will be employed to prevent water pollution. However, other commenters expressed concern that the “no credible evidence” standard would create uncertainty and result in unjustified permit denials by regulators fearful of approving any permit application in areas where acid-forming or toxic-forming materials are present. In response, we modified paragraph (n)(2) to delete the “no credible evidence” standard and replace it with a requirement that the demonstration and finding be based on a thorough analysis of all available evidence. Final paragraph (n)(2) also requires that the applicant explain why a study or other evidence that supports a contrary conclusion is not credible or applicable to the proposed operation.
Final paragraph (n) requires not only a demonstration by the applicant, but also concurrence by the regulatory authority. The requirement for concurrence by the regulatory authority provides an additional safeguard against the approval of applications that ultimately create long-term discharges in need of treatment.
Unlike the proposed rule, final paragraphs (n)(1) and (2) do not refer to “parameters of concern” because the purpose of this finding is to prevent the formation of any long-term discharges that require treatment, regardless of whether the parameter that creates the need for treatment is a parameter of concern. In final paragraph (n)(1), we replaced “parameters of concern” with the term “toxic mine drainage,” which is both more appropriate and more encompassing. There is no need for a replacement term in final paragraph (n)(2).
Several commenters suggested that proposed paragraph (n) should be revised to explain what the term “long-term treatment” means, how a determination of a need for long-term treatment is made, and the ramifications if the findings incorrectly determine the need for long-term treatment. We do not agree that there is a need for additional specificity in the text of the rule. “Long-term” refers to a discharge that continues to require treatment for more than a short time after the completion of land reclamation. The ramifications of making a demonstration and finding that ultimately prove inaccurate will vary with the circumstances resulting in the discharge, the nature of the discharge, and the timing of the discovery. Possible outcomes include issuance of a permit revision order, enforcement action, or initiation of action to rescind the permit under section 773.20 of this rule. In all cases, the permittee will need to treat the discharge and post appropriate final assurance or bond to cover treatment costs.
A commenter expressed concern that proposed paragraph (n) would shift the burden of monitoring and accountability for everything that happens to water quality in the watershed to the coal industry. We disagree with the commenter. Final paragraph (n)(1) requires that the applicant demonstrate, and the regulatory authority concur, that the proposed operation has been designed to prevent toxic mine drainage that would require long-term treatment after mining has been completed. Final paragraph (n)(2) requires that the applicant demonstrate, and the regulatory authority concur, that a thorough analysis of all available evidence supports a conclusion that the design of the proposed operation will work as intended to prevent the formation of discharges that would require long-term treatment after mining has been completed. Final paragraph (n)(2) also provides that, if a study or other evidence supports a contrary conclusion, the applicant must explain why that study or other evidence is not credible or applicable to the proposed operation. Nothing in final paragraph (n) assigns accountability for all water quality issues in the watershed to the permittee and the monitoring requirements of this final rule are directed toward identifying mining-related impacts on water quality and quantity so that those impacts can be distinguished from nonmining-related impacts.
One commenter asserted that by incorporating paragraph (n) we were improperly attempting to adopt and incorporate by reference a flawed policy document entitled, “Hydrologic Balance Protection: Policy Goals and Objectives on Correcting, Preventing, and Controlling Acid/Toxic Mine Drainage” that we issued on March 31, 1997. In that policy and accompanying documents, we explain that approval of a permit that would result in the creation of a discharge requiring long-term treatment would be inconsistent with SMCRA. We do not agree that the policy is flawed because it is fully justified by SMCRA.
We received many comments supporting proposed section (o), which required that the regulatory authority find that, to the extent possible using the best technology currently available, the proposed operation has been designed to minimize disturbances and adverse impacts on fish, wildlife, and related environmental values, as identified in §§ 779.20 or 783.20, and to enhance those resources where practicable, as required under § 780.16 or § 784.16. This language is similar to sections 515(b)(24) and 516(b)(11) of SMCRA
We proposed to revise paragraph (e) of this section by adding paragraph (e)(4) to require that the permittee notify the regulatory authority and other appropriate state and federal regulatory agencies of any noncompliance with a term or condition of the permit. Notification would allow those agencies to take any necessary action to minimize the impacts of the noncompliance on the environment or public health or safety, consistent with the purpose
One commenter generally supported proposed § 773.17(e) but expressed concern that the provision would unnecessarily limit the notification requirement to situations caused by the operator's noncompliance with terms and conditions of the permit. The commenter recommended broadening the requirement in proposed paragraph (e)(4) to include notification to the appropriate regulatory authorities anytime the operator's monitoring reveals the potential for environmental harm, regardless of whether it is caused by the operator's noncompliance. We decline to revise this section as the commenter suggests. As required in final rule § 780.23, an operator must monitor water resources located both within the proposed permit area, as well as adjacent areas. This monitoring must include locations that are situated upgradient and downgradient for groundwater and upstream and downstream for surface water of the mining operations. Samples obtained from the upgradient and upstream monitoring sites are representative of conditions existing in the waters prior to any potential influence of the mining and reclamation activities. Those samples collected from the downgradient and downstream sites are used to evaluate the effect of the operations on water resources once compared to the upgradient/upstream samples. Therefore, any condition detected in the samples, even in those collected in waters prior to entering the mine site indicating an off-site source, that could result in an imminent danger to the health or safety of the public or that could cause or reasonably be expected to cause significant, imminent, environmental harm will be reported as part of the ongoing monitoring requirements regardless of whether or not a noncompliance exists.
Another commenter alleged that the proposed rule language lacked clarity on when the notification was required, what information needed to be included in the notice, and the timing required for the notification. In response to these comments, the language of the final rule has been modified. We have added language in paragraph (e)(4) specifying that the operator must notify the regulatory authority and other appropriate state and federal regulatory agencies whenever conditions within the permit area result in an imminent danger to the health or safety of the public or cause or could be reasonable expected to cause significant, imminent environmental harm to land, air, or water resources, regardless of whether a noncompliance exists. We note, however, that this requirement for immediate notification is only applicable to situations that could result in an imminent danger to public health or safety or significant, imminent environmental harm. For all other situations, as required by § 840.11(a) and (b), the regulatory authority will be at the site for inspections at least monthly and, as required by §§ 816.35(b)(1) and 816.36(b)(1), will review all monitoring data quarterly. Thus, the regulatory authority will have the tools to detect changes that do not rise to the level of imminent harm.
Another commenter objected to the provision in paragraph (e)(4) that would require notice be provided to “other appropriate state and federal regulatory agencies.” According to the commenter, the SMCRA regulatory authority is the only agency with jurisdiction over compliance with SMCRA permits. We agree with commenter that the SMCRA regulatory authority has jurisdiction concerning SMCRA permit issues; however, coal mine operations are subject to other state and federal permitting actions. We have, however, limited the scope of paragraph (e)(4) only to those situations that would require the issuance of a cessation order for imminent danger or environmental harm under § 843.11(a). That approach should minimize the reporting burden on the permittee, while ensuring that the regulatory authority and other appropriate agencies receive notice of situations that require immediate attention to protect the public or prevent significant environmental harm from occurring.
We also proposed to add a new permit condition in paragraph (h) of this section, which would require the permittee obtain all necessary authorizations, certifications, and permits in accordance with Clean Water Act requirements before conducting any activities that require approval or authorization under the Clean Water Act. Several commenters objected to this proposed addition. A couple of commenters stated that requiring Clean Water Act permits before mining contradicted section 702 of SMCRA.
These same commenters also questioned why we would single out the Clean Water Act as opposed to other state and federal permits for inclusion as permit conditions. After evaluating these comments, we have decided to expand the scope of paragraph (h) to require that the permittee obtain all necessary authorizations, certifications, and permits in accordance with “other applicable federal, state, and tribal laws before conducting any activities that require authorization, certification, or a permit under those laws.” Within the proposed rule, we limited the scope of this provision to the Clean Water Act because that is the primary federal statute applicable to water quality and given the focus of this rule it satisfied our purpose to highlight the need for compliance with the Clean Water Act and to enhance coordination with the Clean Water Act authorities.
As discussed in Part IV, above, in response to general comments about direct enforcement of water quality standards we have added paragraph (i) to final rule
Under proposed § 780.19(k), a permit issued on the basis of what the regulatory authority later determines to be substantially inaccurate baseline information would be void from the date of issuance and have no legal effect. Proposed paragraph (k) also would have required that the permittee cease mining-related activities and immediately begin to reclaim the disturbed area upon notification by the regulatory authority that the permit is void.
Some commenters opposed proposed § 780.19(k) on the basis that it deprived permittees of their rights without due process and that the phrase “substantially inaccurate” was too subjective, vague, poorly defined, essentially unlimited in scope, and difficult to enforce. One commenter alleged that proposed paragraph (k) was unreasonable because it did not consider whether the inaccuracy was intentional or had any material impact. Another commenter characterized the proposed paragraph as an unauthorized punitive provision that lacks any statutory support. According to that commenter, section 521(a)(4) of SMCRA
The commenter further alleged that the explanation in the preamble that proposed § 780.19(k) is necessary to avoid or minimize the environmental harm that could result from initiation or continuation of an operation approved on the basis of inaccurate baseline information constitutes flawed reasoning because proposed paragraph (k) does not require any connection between the inaccurate baseline information and environmental harm—it merely presumes harm without a sufficient foundation. According to the commenter, the sanction (permit nullification) is disproportionately harsh compared to the lesser sanctions and penalties that section 521 of SMCRA
Several commenters expressed concern that adoption of proposed § 780.19(k) would create uncertainty as to the validity of the bond posted for the permit. One commenter suggested that the rule should be revised to specify that the permit would be revoked rather than voided, a change that the commenter indicated would resolve uncertainty about the status of the bond. Several commenters also expressed concern that because the permit would be considered null and void from the date of issuance, the former permittee theoretically could be subject to enforcement action for mining without a permit during the time between permit issuance and permit nullification.
One commenter thought that we had already addressed this issue in the regulations at §§ 773.21 through 773.23 governing improvidently issued permits. That is not the case, however, because those regulations apply only to the permit eligibility criteria of the applicable regulations implementing section 510(c) of SMCRA;
After evaluating the comments received, we have decided not to adopt proposed § 780.19(k). Instead, as suggested by one commenter, we are replacing the permit nullification provisions of that paragraph with procedures and requirements analogous to those that apply to improvidently issued permits under §§ 773.21 through 773.23. This approach will afford the permittee ample due process, as urged by numerous commenters. Consistent with the new approach, we are codifying the replacement provisions in section 773.20 rather than section 780.19 because Part 773 contains the requirements for permit processing. However, we do not agree with those commenters who suggested that these regulations should apply only when information has been falsified or when the applicant intentionally submits inaccurate or incomplete data. The purpose of final § 773.20 is to minimize both the possibility that mining conducted under permits approved on the basis of inaccurate information could result in environmental harm and the extent of that harm. The reason for the inaccuracy of the information is not relevant to attainment of this purpose. Thus, limiting § 773.20 to situations in which permit application information was intentionally falsified would be counterproductive and inconsistent with the purpose of this section.
We also disagree with the comment that section 521(a)(4) of SMCRA provides the sole circumstances under which a SMCRA permit may be revoked. As discussed in the preamble to the rule concerning improvidently issued permits,
While it is true that section 510(c) does not expressly provide for suspension or rescission of existing permits, the IFR [interim final rule] rescission and suspension provisions reflect a permissible exercise of OSM's statutory duty, pursuant to section 201(c)(1) of SMCRA, to “order the suspension, revocation, or withholding of any permit for failure to comply with any of the provisions of this chapter or any rules and regulations adopted pursuant thereto.” 30 U.S.C.[ ] 1211(c). The IIP [improvidently issued permit] provisions simply implement the Congress's general directive to authorize suspension and rescission of a permit “for failure to comply with” a specific provision of SMCRA—namely, section 510(c)'s permit eligibility condition. In addition, apart from the express authorization in section 1211(c), OSM retains “implied” authority to suspend or rescind improvidently provided permits
The same rationale applies to final § 773.20 because it authorizes suspension or rescission of a permit for failure to comply with a specific provision of SMCRA;
We further disagree with the comment that described the proposed paragraph as duplicative and unnecessary because states already have effective administrative processes in place to scrutinize data and address issues. We applaud the administrative processes that states have put in place as safeguards against the approval of permit applications with inaccurate baseline information. However, no process is perfect. Final § 773.20 provides a mechanism to address defective permits that slip through those safeguards.
Paragraph (a) of § 773.20 provides that the regulatory authority must initiate action that could lead to suspension or rescission of the permit whenever the regulatory authority discovers that the permit was issued on the basis of what later turns out to be inaccurate baseline information. In response to commenters' concerns that the “substantially inaccurate” threshold in proposed § 780.19(k) was too subjective and too broad in scope, we added a proviso that § 773.20(a) applies only if the information is inaccurate to the extent that it would invalidate one or more of the findings required for permit application approval under § 773.15 or other provisions of the regulatory program.
Paragraphs (b) through (d) of § 773.20 are a streamlined version of the requirements and procedures in 30 CFR 773.21 through 773.23 pertaining to improvidently issued permits. We have adapted those requirements and procedures as appropriate, discarding provisions that are unique to improvidently issued permits. We have replaced the references to the administrative review procedures of 43 CFR 4.1370 through 4.1377, which apply only to improvidently issued permits, with references to 30 CFR part 775, which contains administrative and judicial review provisions pertinent to decisions on permits. In addition, we established a uniform 60-day notice period for proposed suspensions and rescissions, rather than adopting the 60-day notice period for proposed suspensions and 120-day notice period for proposed rescissions set forth in § 773.22(b) and (c). We find that there is no purpose or need for the longer notice period for proposed rescissions, particularly when the purpose of § 773.20 is to minimize any environmental harm that may result from the issuance of permits on the basis of inaccurate information. Finally, in 30 CFR 773.20 (c) and (d), we provide a mechanism through which the permittee can avoid permit suspension or rescission by providing updated information and submitting an application to revise the permit as needed to correct the deficiency. We are adopting this mechanism in part because of comments urging us to allow the permittee to take corrective action instead of requiring nullification of the permit. As the commenters noted, permit nullification would be disproportionately harsh compared to the sanctions and penalties that SMCRA and the regulations impose for performance standard violations. Providing an alternative to permit suspension or rescission also is responsive to a comment that we should allow use of the permit revision procedures of section 511 of SMCRA to remedy the deficiency.
Paragraph (e) of § 773.20 sets forth the actions that the permittee must take if a permit is suspended or rescinded. Paragraph (e) is similar to, and based upon 30 CFR 843.13(c), which specifies the actions that the permittee must take if a permit is suspended or revoked for a pattern of violations. Paragraph (e)(1) provides that, if the permit is suspended, the permittee must cease all surface coal mining operations under the permit and complete all affirmative obligations specified in the suspension order within the time established in that order. It also specifies that the regulatory authority must rescind the permit if the permittee does not complete those obligations within the time specified. Paragraph (e)(2) provides that, if the permit is rescinded, the permittee must cease all surface coal mining operations under the permit and complete reclamation within the time specified in the rescission order.
Paragraph (f) of § 773.20 addresses commenter concerns about the impact on bond coverage. Paragraph (f)(1) provides that, if the regulatory authority suspends or rescinds a permit, the bond posted for the permit will remain in effect until the permittee completes all reclamation obligations under the reclamation plan approved in the permit and obtains bond release under §§ 800.40 through 800.44. Paragraph (f)(2) provides that the regulatory authority must initiate bond forfeiture proceedings under § 800.50 if the permittee does not complete all reclamation obligations within the time specified in the permit rescission order.
Section 774.9 pertains to compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act, 44 U.S.C. 3501,
We are adopting § 774.10 as proposed, with the exception that we are reorganizing paragraph (a) and adding a new paragraph (a)(2), which replaces proposed § 780.16(c)(5). In the final rule, we are re-designating the introductory text of proposed § 774.10(a) as paragraph (a)(1). In concert with this change, we are re-designating proposed paragraphs (a)(1) through (4) as paragraphs (a)(3) through (6).
Proposed § 780.16(c)(5) required that the permittee periodically evaluate the impacts of the operation on fish, wildlife, and related environmental values in the permit and adjacent areas and then use that information to modify the operations to avoid or minimize adverse effects. Several commenters requested that we provide guidance or specify the frequency and rigor of the mandated periodic evaluation of an operation's impact on fish and wildlife. Additionally, commenters requested clarification as to whose responsibility it would be to complete this evaluation. Some commenters opposed this paragraph because it could be interpreted as requiring that the permittee modify operations even when the adverse effects on wildlife are beyond the control of the permittee.
We proposed within paragraph (b)(2)(vii), relative to application requirements and procedures, to require an analysis of the monitoring results under §§ 816.35 through 816.37 or §§ 817.35 through 817.37, relating to groundwater, surface water, and biological condition of streams and an evaluation of the accuracy and adequacy of the determination of the probable hydrologic consequences of mining prepared under § 780.20 or § 784.20 of this chapter. We also proposed at paragraph (b)(2)(viii) to require an update of the determination of the probable hydrologic consequences of mining prepared under § 780.20 or § 784.20, if needed, or documentation that the findings in the existing determination are still valid.
In addition, proposed paragraph (c)(1), relating to the approval process, provided that a complete and accurate renewal application will be approved unless certain findings are made. We proposed one such finding at (c)(1)(viii), which would allow a regulatory authority to disapprove an application for renewal if the regulatory authority determined, based on an analysis of the monitoring results or the updated determination of the probable hydrologic consequences of mining, that the finding it originally made under § 773.15(e)—the operation is designed to prevent material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area—is no longer accurate.
Several commenters objected to proposed requirements at (b)(2)(vii), (b)(2)(viii), and (c)(1)(viii). These commenters expressed concern that the proposed requirements would compromise the right of successive renewal and recommended the deletion of these regulations. The commenters also stated that there are existing opportunities to review data as it relates to the probable hydrologic consequences, and it is unnecessary to couple a data review requirement with permit renewal. After reviewing the comments, we agree with the commenters and have deleted the proposed requirements at (b)(2)(vii), (b)(2)(viii), and (c)(1)(viii) from the final rule.
We are finalizing § 777.1 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
Proposed paragraph (a)(3) of this section would have required that all permit applications be filed in an electronic format prescribed by the regulatory authority unless the regulatory authority grants an exception for good cause. One commenter supported this proposal because it would facilitate the acquisition and transfer of permit files by coalfield residents via the internet and avoid the need for those residents to make a lengthy trip to the office of the regulatory authority and copy sometimes unwieldy documents. However, other commenters alleged that adoption of this provision would require major changes in state regulatory programs at great expense for both the regulatory authority and the applicant. Several commenters characterized the proposed requirement as an unfunded mandate on the states unless we are prepared to award grants to states to fully fund the infrastructure needed for electronic permitting. One commenter acknowledged that a fully implemented electronic permitting system may facilitate transfer of application documents, thus avoiding copying and mailing costs. However, the commenter noted, these savings may be illusory as the regulatory authority likely also would request multiple hard copies. Some commenters argued that decisions on electronic permitting should be left to the state regulatory authorities. Another commenter alleged that SMCRA provides no authority for us to prescribe the format of permit applications.
For the reasons set forth in the preamble to the proposed rule,
Several commenters provided suggestions on how large map files, professional certifications, and verification of submittals could be submitted electronically. One commenter recommended that all systems include a common system component, which could allow a company to use a central system that can easily be transferred to a common file type for delivery across multiple states. Another commenter urged that digital permit files be available for download on a document-by-document
In paragraph (a)(1), we proposed to add requirements for the submission of certain data, such as metadata and field sampling sheets associated with the technical data submitted in the permit application. Several commenters asserted that requiring materials submitted to the regulatory authority (including technical data, maps, plans and cross sections) to be accompanied by metadata, where appropriate, was a good idea and provided valuable information to the regulatory authority. However, several regulatory authorities opined that the requirements under § 777.13, including providing metadata would create an undue hardship for the regulatory authority by requiring additional funds and personnel to log, track, and review the data. We are aware that we will be requiring the operator to collect additional data and submit that data to the regulatory authority, but the data is necessary to establish quality, comprehensive baseline data, along with mining and post-mining data that will help ensure there are no adverse impacts from coal mining operation that would cause material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area. As explained further in the proposed rule, metadata, which consists of data describing the contents and context of data files, greatly increases the usefulness of the original data by providing information about how, where, when, and by whom the data were collected and analyzed.
Several commenters opined that the requirement within proposed paragraph (a) about submitting the results of the laboratory quality assurance and quality control procedures to the regulatory authority was vague and did not include the relevant information necessary to determine the level of quality assurance and quality control (level I, II, III, or IV). In addition, the commenters claimed the requirement for electronically submitted data including the identification of any data transformations would require significant effort by the laboratories that perform this work. The commenters opined the transformed data are typically identified by the laboratory through the use of flags within the final laboratory report and because these flags are generated by the laboratory the flags are likely to differ from lab to lab. Our intent with this requirement is to ensure the quality assurance and quality control data, regardless of the level, is submitted to the regulatory authority so that they can review the data. Furthermore, transformed data should be noted by the laboratory. However, we are not requiring the codes used to denote the transformed data to be the same for all laboratories. Therefore, based on these comments, we did not make any changes to proposed paragraph (a), pertaining to the submission of laboratory quality assurance and quality control data, in the final rule.
However, for the purpose of clarification, we added additional language to the final rule about water quality field sampling sheets that are required to be submitted to the regulatory authority. In the proposed rule, we required field sheets for water quality samples from wells.
In paragraph (b) we proposed to add a requirement that sampling and analyses of surface water and groundwater be conducted according to the methodology in 40 CFR parts 136 and 434. Several commenters asserted that some of the methodology in 40 CFR parts 136 and 434 is not applicable to the type of sampling and analysis conducted at coal mines and the operator should be allowed to use a scientifically-valid methodology acceptable to the regulatory authority. We agree. To address this comment, we revised paragraph (b) to clarify that all sampling and analyses of groundwater and surface water be performed to satisfy all the requirements of this subchapter and that they are conducted according to the methodology in 40 CFR parts 136 and 434; or scientifically-defensible methodology acceptable to the regulatory authority, in coordination with any agency responsible for administering or implementing a program under the Clean Water Act that requires water sampling and analysis. The addition of (b)(2) takes a reasonable approach to sampling and analyses of surface water and groundwater requirements of this subchapter.
Additionally, we received several comments from industry and regulatory authorities recommending that we remove the requirements to provide surface water and groundwater sampling field sheets to the regulatory authority. Instead, these commenters suggested that the regulatory authorities should be able to use their discretion to request them as needed. We disagree. Surface water and groundwater sampling field sheets contain the metadata regarding field parameter measurements and methods used in the collection of water quality samples of both surface water and groundwater. Meta data contained on sampling field sheets, such as, calibration information for instruments used to measure field parameters and information concerning the sampling methods used to collect water quality samples are necessary to accurately assess the water quality data. Further, several commenters suggested that sending groundwater sampling field sheets to the regulatory authority does not enhance the review process because applicants already provide boring logs and well construction diagrams which include information concerning the depth of the well screens for all monitoring wells included as a part of the permit application. In addition, the commenters asserted that descriptions
We received one comment about proposed paragraph (c). The commenter opined that by requiring all geologic sampling and analysis to be conducted using a scientifically valid mythology, it would result in increases in costs and time for permit preparation and approval. We agree that increases in costs and time for permit preparation and approval may occur; however any cost increase is outweighed by the added benefit of better permitting decisions using comprehensive and high quality geologic data. Therefore, we made no changes to paragraph (c) in response to this comment. However, in response to a federal agency comment, in the final rule we use the term “scientifically-defensible methodology,” instead of the term “scientifically-valid methodology,” as proposed.
A few commenters requested an explanation for our alleged aversion to the use of models to characterize baseline hydrologic condition within § 777.13(d) when elsewhere in the rule we allow models to evaluate ecological function of streams through the use of bioassessment protocols. These commenters assert that this alleged disparity creates regulatory inconsistency and should be addressed for clarity. These commenters mischaracterize our position. In final paragraph (d), we allow for the use of models as long as they incorporate site specific data to calibrate each model. Contrary to commenters' assertions, we also require site specific data for our evaluation of ecological function; therefore our regulations are consistent.
We also proposed to modify the existing provisions by adding paragraph (d)(2), which would require that all models be calibrated using actual, site-specific data and that they be validated for the region and ecosystem in which they will be used. By adding these additional requirements we intend to improve the accuracy and validity of models and promote better data collection and analysis procedures to ensure more informed permitting decisions. Several commenters from industry and regulatory authorities recommended that we provide regulatory authorities sufficient discretion to allow for professional judgment concerning the necessity for site-specific data and the data requirements to process models. Also, several commenters opined that using site-specific data for calibration may not be possible because it may be costly and the regulatory authority does not have control of activities outside of coal mining permit, thus making it difficult to include that site specific data. We disagree because it is important to use actual site-specific data to calibrate the models. A model that is calibrated using site-specific data is more likely to provide better modeling results.
Therefore, the final rule adopts § 777.13 as proposed, with minor changes as explained herein to paragraphs (a), (b), and (d).
We revised § 777.14 from the proposed section by making editorial revisions to clearly distinguish between requirements that apply to maps and plans for all operations and those that apply only to maps and plans for operations in existence before the effective date of a permanent regulatory program for the state in which the operation is located. Specifically, paragraph (a) applies to maps and plans for all operations, while paragraph (b) applies only to maps and plans for operations in existence before the effective date of a permanent regulatory program for the state in which the operation is located. This distinction is consistent with the preamble to this rule as originally promulgated, which states that “[t]he concept of delineation of phases of mining on application maps relates to key dates in the interim [initial] and permanent regulatory programs establishing different periods and levels of regulation under the Act.”
In the final rule, we removed the first sentence of previous paragraph (b) because it is poorly worded, unnecessary, duplicative of the remainder of paragraph (b), and could erroneously be interpreted as applying to maps and plans for all operations, not just maps and plans for operations in existence before the effective date of a permanent regulatory program for the state in which the operation is located. We also revised paragraph (b) to clarify that its provisions apply only when applicable;
Previous paragraph (b)(4) required that maps and plans show those portions of the operation where surface coal mining operations occurred after the estimated date of issuance of a permit under the approved regulatory program. This paragraph is unnecessary because the map of the proposed permit area identifies the lands upon which surface coal mining and reclamation operations will take place after issuance of the permit. Furthermore, previous paragraph (b)(4) inappropriately refers to surface coal mining operations that occurred after the estimated date of permit issuance. This language is inconsistent with section 506(a) of SMCRA,
We are finalizing § 777.15 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
With the exception of altering the title of this section for clarity, we are
We are finalizing § 779.2 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
We are finalizing § 779.4 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
Section 779.10 pertains to compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act, 44 U.S.C. 3501,
We have removed and reserved previous § 779.11 for the reasons discussed in the preamble to the proposed rule.
We have removed and reserved previous § 779.11 for the reasons discussed in the preamble to the proposed rule.
We are finalizing § 779.4 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
One commenter requested that we add language requiring climate data and analysis to this section. We did not add this requirement because a requirement to include a statement of the climatic factors, including average seasonal precipitation, direction and velocity of winds, and temperature ranges, is already required under final rule §§ 779.18 and 783.18 and additional information under this section would not add meaningful information.
Several commenters, including the U.S. Forest Service and other federal agencies, expressed support for the proposed changes to this section. In particular, these commenters voiced strong support for the use of native species rather than introduced species because the use of native species would minimize adverse effects on fish and wildlife.
Other commenters opposed the proposed revisions to § 779.19 as unnecessary and excessively burdensome. These commenters urged us not to adopt the proposed revisions and instead simply reaffirm the regulatory authority's discretion to require vegetation information as needed. We disagree that the previous regulations were adequate. The previous regulations provided the regulatory authority with complete discretion in deciding whether to require submission of vegetation information as part of the permit application. In view of other changes to our regulations to generally require revegetation with native species and reestablishment of native plant communities (with certain exceptions), discretionary submission of premining vegetation information is no longer appropriate. The vegetation information required by final section 779.19 is essential to fully implement the revegetation requirements of section 515(b)(19) of SMCRA,
In response to comments that the proposed rule was unnecessary and excessively burdensome, we reevaluated each element of the proposed rule and narrowed the requirements down to those that we determined to be necessary to ensure revegetation and reclamation of mine sites in accordance with SMCRA. We also reorganized and restructured the rule to improve clarity.
Proposed paragraph (a)(1) would have required that the applicant identify, describe, and map existing vegetation types and plant communities on the proposed permit and adjacent areas and within any proposed reference areas. Several commenters asserted that we lack the authority under SMCRA to require vegetation information for the adjacent area. While we do not agree with that assertion, we determined that vegetation information for the adjacent area typically would not be useful either to the applicant in preparing the reclamation and revegetation plans for the permit or to the regulatory authority in reviewing and processing the permit application. Therefore, final paragraph (a) does not require vegetation information for the adjacent area. The regulatory authority, however, may use its discretion to require vegetation information for the adjacent area.
Several commenters questioned the value of the vegetation information requirements in situations where reestablishment of native plant communities would be inconsistent with the postmining land use. We did not provide a waiver under these circumstances for several reasons. First, this rule is intended to more fully implement section 508(a)(2) of SMCRA,
A commenter on proposed paragraph (a) asked that we specify how an applicant should select appropriate reference areas. Other commenters interpreted the proposed rule as always requiring use of reference areas and objected to this alleged requirement. We did not intend to require use of a reference area. We worded final paragraph (a) in a manner that clarifies that an applicant may use a reference area for purposes of determining revegetation success under § 816.116, but that use of a reference area is not required. We find it unnecessary to provide further regulatory instruction on selecting reference areas because selecting reference areas is a common scientific practice. Furthermore, selection of a reference area depends upon site-specific factors and the regulatory authority is the best resource for further guidance on that matter.
Paragraph (b)(2) of the final rule, which we proposed as paragraph (a)(1), requires that the description and map of vegetation types and plant communities be adequate to evaluate whether the vegetation provides important habitat for fish and wildlife and whether the proposed permit area contains native plant communities of local or regional significance. Some commenters requested additional clarification about what would constitute a native plant community of “local or regional significance,” while another commenter asked us to define “plant community.” We did not revise the rule in the manner that the commenters requested because “plant community” is a commonly understood scientific term and because the regulatory authority should have the latitude to determine what constitutes a plant community of local or regional significance. We encourage the regulatory authority to confer with state and federal agencies with responsibilities for fish and wildlife in making this determination. One potential resource for identifying native plant communities of local or regional significance is the Natural Heritage Network, a network of state programs that gather and disseminate biological information on species of conservation concern and natural plant communities.
Several commenters expressed concern that the dominance of non-native species of grasses and forbs and the presence of invasive or noxious species would make reestablishment of native plant communities challenging, if not impossible. As an example, one commenter provided results from the latest Natural Resources Conservation Service's National Resource Inventory survey showing that over 50 percent of the non-federal native grassland in North Dakota is impacted by non-native species and that non-native species cover at least 25 percent of the soil surface. The Natural Resources Conservation Service concluded that it is impossible to return a site to its historic plant community if Kentucky bluegrass comprises more than 30 percent of the vegetation at the site.
Commenters requested that we clarify the permissible amount of invasive species after the completion of reclamation, especially when invasive species are present prior to mining. In response, we added paragraph (b)(3) to the final rule. That paragraph requires the applicant to identify areas with significant populations of invasive or noxious species. Final paragraph (b)(3) provides the regulatory authority with the information necessary to determine whether there is a potential problem with non-native or noxious species and to decide on the appropriate steps to take, such as authorizing unique handling of the soil materials as described in § 816.22(f)(1)(ii) of the final rule. Section 780.12(g)(1)(xi) of the final rule requires that the proposed revegetation plan describe measures that will be taken to avoid the establishment of invasive species on reclaimed areas and to control invasive species if they are established. The allowable amount of invasive species at the time of bond release will depend on multiple factors, which we discuss in the performance standards related to revegetation success in §§ 816.111 through 816.116 of the final rule.
In response to a comment from the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers to revise the rule to provide better protection for wetlands, we added paragraph (b)(4) to the final rule. That paragraph requires that the applicant delineate all wetlands and areas bordering streams that support, or are capable of supporting, hydrophytic or hydrophilic vegetation or vegetation typical of floodplains. Hydrophytic vegetation consists of plants that grow either partly or totally submerged in water, while hydrophilic vegetation consists of water-loving plants that grow along the margins and banks of rivers and streams. This vegetation is indicative of wetlands, which means that vegetation information of this nature will proved baseline data to assist in the identification and protection of wetlands. This provision also will facilitate implementation of § 816.97(e) of the final rule, which requires use of the best technology currently available to avoid, restore, or replace wetlands and to enhance wetlands where practicable. Protection or restoration of wetlands is difficult in the absence of information about where those wetlands were originally located and what type of vegetation they supported. The requirement for information about vegetation bordering streams also will facilitate implementation of our stream assessment requirements in § 780.19(c)(6) and our streamside vegetative corridor requirements of § 816.57(d)(2)(iii).
Commenters requested that we specify a timeframe for the requirement in proposed § 779.19(a)(2) that the permit applicant identify the plant communities that would exist on the proposed permit area under conditions of natural succession. Some commenters requested that we specify whether the permit applicant must do this for each of the particular stages of succession or whether the requirement applies only to the climax community. One commenter noted that, given the various intensive land uses over the last 200 years and the presence of many non-native species, it could be very difficult to know what qualifies as “natural succession” and urged us to remove this requirement. As an example, the commenter questioned whether tallgrass prairie would be the
Proposed § 779.19(b) would have required that the vegetation descriptions in the permit application adhere to the National Vegetation Classification Standard, while proposed paragraph (c) would have allowed use of other generally-accepted vegetation classification systems in lieu of the National Vegetation Classification Standard. In the preamble to the proposed rule, we invited comment on what other classification systems may exist.
Some commenters opined that the National Vegetation Classification Standard is not the best method for classifying vegetation and that the decision as to what method to use should be left to the discretion of the regulatory authority. Another commenter opined that the regulation or preamble should provide direction as to what level of hierarchy in the National Vegetation Classification Standard is appropriate for applications for coal mining operations. Other commenters questioned why proposed paragraph (b) required use of the National Vegetation Classification Standard when proposed paragraph (c) allowed the regulatory authority to approve other classification systems. One commenter suggested revising proposed paragraph (c) by adding “provided that the alternative classification is accepted in the scientific community suitable for that state or region in which the proposed operation is located” to reduce the potential for abuse of the discretion given here to the regulatory authority. Another commenter noted that some long-term mining operations may have existing, longstanding vegetation data systems and that it would be impractical to substitute a new system when the final rule comes into effect.
After evaluating the comments received, we decided not to adopt proposed paragraphs (b) and (c). Instead, final paragraph (b)(1) provides that the description and map of vegetation types and plant communities required under paragraph (a) must be in sufficient detail to assist in preparation of the revegetation plan under § 780.12(g) and to provide a baseline for comparison with postmining vegetation. The regulatory authority will determine which classification system best meets the requirements of paragraph (b)(1), other provisions of final § 779.19, and the revegetation requirements of §§ 780.12(g) and 816.111 through 816.116. Furthermore, it is not clear that the National Vegetation Classification Standard is readily adaptable to preparation of descriptions of vegetation types and plant communities for purposes of SMCRA. In addition, we agree with those commenters who questioned the value of proposed paragraph (b) when proposed paragraph (c) would have allowed use of other classification systems.
Proposed paragraph (d) would have required that the permit application include a discussion of the potential for reestablishing both the premining plant communities and the plant communities that would exist on the proposed permit area under conditions of natural succession. Some commenters alleged that proposed paragraph (d) would serve no purpose, at least in the Midwest where agricultural postmining land uses predominate. Because this final rule contains numerous requirements for use of native species in revegetation and for reestablishment of native plant communities, we do not agree that proposed paragraph (d) would serve no purpose. However, proposed paragraph (d) is not appropriate for § 779.19, which merely requires baseline information on premining vegetation and historical plant communities. Nor is it necessary because determination of the potential for reestablishment of native plant communities currently or formerly found in the area is an implicit element of the revegetation plan required under § 780.12(g) of this rule. Therefore, we are not adopting proposed paragraph (d) as part of this final rule.
Section 779.20 is intended to ensure that the permit applicant has the information needed to design the proposed mining operation in a manner that meets the fish and wildlife protection and enhancement requirements of the regulatory program. The regulatory authority also needs this information to evaluate the probable impacts of the proposed mining operation on fish, wildlife, and related environmental values for the proposed permit and adjacent areas and to determine whether the scope of the proposed fish and wildlife protection and enhancement plan is sufficient. Except as discussed below, we have adopted § 779.20 as proposed, with minor editorial revisions for clarity and consistency.
Several commenters expressed concern that changes to the fish and wildlife resource information requirements might increase the amount of time it takes to review and process permits, resulting in a need for regulatory authorities to hire additional staff. The proposed and final rules are similar to the fish and wildlife resource information requirements in previous § 780.16(a). They require very little additional information. Therefore, we do not anticipate that final § 779.20 will have a significant impact on regulatory authority resource needs.
Proposed paragraph (a), like previous § 780.16(a), provided that the permit application must include information on fish and wildlife resources for the proposed permit and adjacent areas. The Department of Justice requested that we revise this provision to clarify that the term “fish and wildlife resources” includes all species of fish, wildlife, plants and other life forms listed or proposed for listing under the Endangered Species Act of 1973, 30 U.S.C. 1531,
As proposed, § 779.20(b) provided that the regulatory authority would determine the scope and level of detail for this information in coordination with state and federal agencies that have responsibilities for fish and wildlife. It also specified that the scope and level
Proposed paragraph (c) sets forth requirements for site-specific fish and wildlife resource information. At the request of a federal agency, we revised proposed paragraph (c)(1), which pertains to species listed or proposed for listing under the Endangered Species Act of 1973, by replacing the phrase “fish and wildlife or plants” with “species” and the phrase “state or private” with “non-federal” to be consistent with terminology used in connection with the Endangered Species Act. The phrase “state or private” might inadvertently exclude activities of local and tribal governments and quasi-governmental agencies.
Some commenters suggested that we revise paragraph (c)(1) to require that the applicant identify cumulative impacts on federally-listed species. Final paragraph (c)(1) provides that “the site-specific resource information must include a description of the effects of future non-federal activities that are reasonably certain to occur within the proposed permit and adjacent areas.” That provision is the functional equivalent of an analysis of cumulative impacts. Therefore, no rule change is necessary. Other commenters asserted that we lack authority to require that applicants submit this information to a state regulatory authority or to require that a state regulatory authority conduct a cumulative effects analysis. According to the commenters, the Endangered Species Act only requires such an analysis for federal actions. We disagree. As discussed in the preamble for final § 773.15(j), section 7(a)(1) of the Endangered Species Act provides that “[t]he Secretary shall review other programs administered by him and utilize such programs in furtherance of the purposes of this Act.”
Another commenter recommended that we delete all of proposed paragraph (c)(1), as the proposed language would place a significant burden on permit applicants, requiring them to know the affairs and plans of all private surface landowners in a given area and convey those plans as part of a permit application. We disagree and decline to delete this paragraph. This requirement to analyze the possible effects of action by private surface landowners is similar in terminology to a portion of the definition of “Cumulative Impacts” used in the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service and the National Marine Fisheries Service regulations implementing the Endangered Species Act
Another commenter suggested that we define “reasonably certain to occur.” We do not agree. That term, which mirrors the terminology used in the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service and the National Marine Fisheries Service regulations implementing the Endangered Species Act.
One commenter urged us to require that the application include information on habitat for species listed as threatened or endangered. Another commenter requested that the rule specifically require information about biological communities that do not contain species of special concern. According to the commenter, those communities are still of interest because they may provide habitat to species that are valuable in other ways. Final § 779.19(a)(1) requires that the permit application identify, describe, and map existing vegetation types and plant communities within the proposed permit area in a manner that is adequate to evaluate whether the vegetation provides important habitat for fish and wildlife. In addition, final § 779.20(b) provides that the regulatory authority must determine the scope and level of detail for the fish and wildlife resource information required in coordination with state and agencies with responsibilities for fish and wildlife. Also, final section 780.16 requires additional action if the information required by final § 779.20(b) indicates that the proposed permit area or the adjacent area contains species listed or proposed for listing as threatened or endangered species under the Endangered Species Act or that are designated as critical habitat. As one commenter noted, one potential resource for identifying this information is the Natural Heritage Program, a network of state programs that gather and disseminate biological information on species of conservation concern and on natural plant communities. Each state Natural Heritage Program would also be an appropriate entity to assist the regulatory authority to identify native plant communities of local or regional significance. The combination of these requirements should ensure that the site-specific resource information includes information on habitat under the circumstances described by the first commenter and in all other situations in which information on habitat is important.
A commenter requested that we include specific reference to the Natural Heritage Program throughout the final rule, and specifically within final §§ 779.20 and 783.20, when providing information about threatened, endangered, and rare species of plants and animals at the state and federal level. The commenter also suggested that evidence of any coordination with the Natural Heritage Program or other resource agencies be attached to the permit application. While we agree that coordination with each states' National Heritage Program can be an important step in obtaining information about threatened, endangered, and rare species of plants and animals, we decline to require this and any evidence of coordination with any National Heritage Program be included within the permit application. These requirements are more appropriately
A commenter requested that we define the term “endemic species” in proposed paragraph (c)(3). Another commenter recommended that we clarify that habitat for endemic species should be based on actual habitat boundaries rather than state or other jurisdictional boundaries that are less relevant from a biological perspective. Final paragraph (c)(3) does not include a definition of “endemic species” both because that term has a commonly understood meaning and because the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service's published glossary of terms related to endangered species already defines “endemic species” as “[a] species native and confined to a certain region; generally used for species with comparatively restricted distribution.”
Proposed § 779.20(d) contained provisions regarding U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service review of the fish and wildlife resource information in the permit application. Proposed § 780.16(e) contained substantively identical provisions for U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service review of the fish and wildlife protection and enhancement plan in the permit application. This final rule consolidates proposed §§ 779.20(d) and 780.16(e) into final § 780.16(e), both to streamline the regulations and in response to a comment noting that the Service reviews baseline fish and wildlife resource information together with the fish and wildlife protection and enhancement plan, not separately. The preamble to final § 780.16(e) discusses the comments that we received on the provisions of proposed §§ 779.20(d) and 780.16(e) and how we revised the rule in response to those comments and discussions with the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service.
Proposed § 779.20(d)(2)(iv) provided that the regulatory authority may not approve the permit application until all issues pertaining to threatened and endangered species are resolved and the regulatory authority receives written documentation from the Service that all issues have been resolved. Proposed § 780.16(e)(2)(iv) contained a substantively identical provision. The final rule consolidates both of those proposed rules into final § 780.16(b)(2) in revised form. Many commenters characterized this provision of the proposed rules as a U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service veto over the SMCRA permit. We discuss that comment in Part IV.J., above. The preamble to final § 780.16(b)(2) discusses other comments that we received on proposed §§ 779.20(d)(2)(iv) and 780.16(e)(2)(iv) and the revisions that we made in response to those comments and discussions with the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service.
Proposed § 779.20(e) would have provided that the regulatory authority, in its discretion, may use the resource information collected under § 779.20 and information gathered from other agencies to determine whether, based on scientific principles and analyses, any stream segments, wildlife habitats, or watersheds in the proposed permit area or the adjacent area are of such exceptional environmental value that any adverse mining-related impacts must be prohibited.
We received comments both opposing and supporting proposed paragraph (e). Many commenters who supported this provision urged us to revise it to categorically prohibit mining in those areas rather than to afford discretion to the regulatory authority to do so. However, section 522 of SMCRA
Commenters opposing proposed paragraph (e) challenged our authority under SMCRA to adopt such a provision. They also alleged that it could result in a compensable taking of mineral interests, that it provides too much power to state and federal fish and wildlife agencies, and that it could be enormously disruptive and economically costly because potential permit applicants would not have reasonable certainty as to which portions of the proposed permit area they would be allowed to mine. Other commenters noted that section 515(b)(24) of SMCRA,
The counterargument is that section 515(b)(23) of SMCRA provides that surface coal mining and reclamation operations must “meet such other criteria as are necessary to achieve reclamation in accordance with the purposes of this Act, taking into consideration the physical, climatological, and other characteristics of the site.”
Other commenters wanted us to define or otherwise clarify the terms, “exceptional environmental value,” “coordination between agencies, “scientific principles and analysis”, and “consultation” in proposed paragraph (e). They requested clarification on how this provision would be applied to regulatory decisions made prior to the final rule. They also sought an opportunity for further public comment on the meaning of “exceptional environmental value” and on how this provision would be applied. We also received comments criticizing the lack of a definition of “adverse impacts,” and inquiring whether this term extended to impacts that were short-term or temporary or that imposed no permanent change on biota or the ecosystem.
After evaluating the comments that we received, we decided not to adopt proposed § 779.20(e) because avoiding disturbances to habitats of unusually high value for fish and wildlife, as described in final § 779.20(c)(3), is one of the options provided in final § 816.97(f). Therefore, there is no need to further discuss or address the comments that we received on proposed § 779.20(e). While we are not adopting proposed paragraph (e), we encourage states to consider doing so under section 505 of SMCRA,
In the proposed rule,
Regarding paragraph (a), other commenters indicated that, given the predominant land use in some areas of prime farmland and the Natural Resources Conservation Service's extensive mapping, a “reconnaissance inspection” is not necessary to make a determination regarding whether prime farmland exists in the permit area. Similarly, other commenters expressed concern about the requirement for “a soils reconnaissance inspection” to determine the presence of prime farmland without further guidance regarding what the reconnaissance inspection would entail. However, paragraph (a) does not contain any new requirements regarding these issues; it merely includes and cross-references existing prime farmland regulations within § 785.17 and reiterated at § 779.21(e) of the final rule.
In paragraph (b), we require the permit applicant to include soil surveys completed by the Natural Resources Conservation Service. A commenter suggested that this information is frequently unavailable on federal, state, or tribal lands, and, in situations where such soil survey information is available, it is frequently provided as an Order 4 soil survey and is not sufficiently detailed to be useful without substantial interpolation. The commenter recommended that we allow Order 2 soil surveys to address reclamation plan needs. For non-prime farmland an applicant need only submit soil survey information that exists; therefore, if, as the commenter suggests, this soil survey information does not exist it would not be required. In the event Order 4 soil surveys are the only data set available those should be submitted; conducting an Order 2 soil survey would not be required if such a survey for the proposed permit area does not exist. The purpose of this section, and others related to establishing soil condition, is to ascertain as much information as possible about the capability and productivity of the land prior to mining in order to develop a reclamation plan that restores the premining land use capabilities.
Some commenters opined that proposed paragraph (c) is problematic. The commenter stated that relying on descriptions of soil depths taken from soil mapping completed by the Natural Resources Conservation Service is not reliable because these maps may not accurately reflect on-site conditions. Final § 816.22(a)(1)(i) requires mine operators to remove and salvage all topsoil and other soil materials. Therefore, regardless of whether or not the Natural Resources Conservation Service maps are exactly accurate is of secondary consequence because the mine operator must remove and salvage these materials as they exist at the permit site. For example, if the map indicates that a certain soil type contains eight inches of topsoil, but the on-site conditions reveal twelve inches of topsoil exist, the mine operator is required to remove and salvage all twelve inches of topsoil, not merely the eight inches indicated on the map.
Some commenters also questioned proposed paragraph (f), which affords the regulatory authority the opportunity to require whatever information it may need to determine land use capability. These commenters opined that this paragraph requires applicants to prepare the reclamation plan with no guidance regarding what is necessary to satisfy this requirement. The commenters misinterpret this regulation; it merely states the inherent authority of the regulatory authority to determine, on a case-by-case basis, what additional information is necessary to assess the land use capability. This provision is discretionary with the regulatory authority and provides a regulatory authority with the ability to use its best professional judgment to require information that may be needed for local conditions or circumstances. However, we have modified final rule § 779.21(f) to clarify that any other information “on soils” that the regulatory authority finds necessary to
A commenter requested that we require more detailed soil descriptions because, in the commenter's opinion, more detailed soil descriptions are needed to differentiate between the soil horizons (O, A, E, B, C, and R) so that they can be properly characterized and segregated. Other commenters suggested that we require the retention of physical soil core samples and photographs because mischaracterization of soil horizons could allow improper mixing of higher quality soils with poor soils. We disagree with these comments because the minimum requirements as established in our final rule are sufficient to develop adequate reclamation plans for the salvage and storage of topsoil and other soil horizons as needed to reconstruct a soil medium that will support the approved postmining land use. As discussed previously, § 779.21(f) allows the regulatory authority to require a greater level of detail, if deemed necessary, which could include the information suggested by the commenters.
Another commenter questioned the rationale of expanding the requirements for soil information, stating that the proposed rule is not supported by science. This commenter did not provide any specific information in support of the assertion that this requirement is not supported by science. Not only do we disagree with the commenter we note that all of the final rule requirements, including soil mapping and available surveys, soil depth and quality, are collectively necessary to effectively determine the premining capability and productivity of the land and to establish the soil salvage, soil substitute, and soil replacement requirements to ensure restoration of these capabilities and successful establishment of native vegetation. Moreover, these requirements are not only consistent with the Act they are essential to fulfilling the requirements of the Act.
Commenters expressed concern that proposed paragraph (a)(2), which would require a description of the historic use of the land, contains no time limitation, is unfair and impractical, and creates an impossible standard. Similarly, commenters also noted that it was sometimes difficult to determine with precision all of the land uses within the five-year standard included in the existing regulations at 30 CFR 780.23(a) and that the longer timeframe detailed in paragraph (a)(2) would make it even more difficult. We do not intend this requirement to be unfair, impractical, or create an impossible standard, and for clarity are adding a statement to the end to (a)(2); “to the extent that this information is readily available or can be inferred from the uses of other lands in the vicinity.” In most cases, it would be sufficient for the applicant to provide historical land use information similar to that required for a Phase I Environmental Site Assessment under the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation and Liability Act (CERCLA).
A regulatory authority commenter objected to the placement of the phrase “capability of the land prior to any mining” in proposed rule § 779.22(b)(1). Although this phrase is taken directly from section 508 of SMCRA,
We received many comments regarding the proposed requirement at § 779.22(b)(3), which would have required the permit applicant to provide a narrative analysis of productivity of the proposed permit area for fish and wildlife before mining. Many commenters supported this requirement, expressing that productivity information was essential to establishing a baseline on which impacts to fish and wildlife can be
Paragraph (c) allows the regulatory authority the flexibility to require other information deemed necessary to determine the condition, capability, and productivity of the land within the proposed permit area. In the preamble, we noted that this additional information may include data about a site's carbon absorption and storage capability. Commenters claimed that it is not within the purview of SMCRA authority to evaluate the carbon footprint of the proposed operation. We disagree. SMCRA clearly allows regulatory authorities to consider the effects of the proposed operation on the condition of the land, which includes the land's capability prior to any mining.
We proposed to consolidate existing §§ 779.24 and 779.25 into § 779.24 and add a new paragraph (c) to clarify that the regulatory authority may require that the applicant submit all materials in a digital format that includes all necessary metadata.
Section 779, pertains to the minimum requirements for information on environmental resources and conditions for surface coal mining applications. In § 779.24(a)(2), the text mistakenly referred to underground mining activities when we meant surface mining activities; hence, we replaced the word “underground” with the word “surface” in the final rule text.
Several commenters requested we revise paragraph (a)(9) to include that streams and wetlands within the jurisdiction of the Clean Water Act be field delineated, documented, mapped, and then field confirmed by the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers. We are not adopting this recommendation because we cannot place responsibilities on the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers through SMCRA rulemaking. However, as revised, our final rule at § 773.5(a) requires that each SMCRA regulatory program provide for coordination of review of permit applications and issuance of permits for surface coal mining operations with the federal and state agencies responsible for permitting and related actions under, among other laws, the Clean Water Act. This provision will ensure that the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers has an opportunity to participate in the SMCRA permitting process to the degree that it deems appropriate.
Commenters expressed concern about the confidentiality of information provided to the regulatory authority within proposed paragraph (a)(11). In response to these comments, we revised § 779.24(a)(11), to ensure that this information is kept confidential when necessary for safety and security reasons and to protect the integrity of the public water supply.
Another commenter requested clarity about the extent of “water supplies” that must be mapped as required in this section. As stated in proposed paragraph (a)(11), any public water supply and associated wellhead protection zone located within one-half mile, measured horizontally, of the proposed permit area must be included in maps and, when appropriate, in plans and cross sections included in the permit application. This section of the rule does not intend for the origin of the source waters to be included, but rather the location of the public water supply itself. The scale of the map must be sufficient to include all pertinent features as required in final rule
Proposed paragraph (a)(13) requires that the location of any discharge, including, but not limited to, a mine-water treatment or pumping facility, into or from an active, inactive, or abandoned underground mine that is hydrologically connected to the proposed permit area or that is located within one-half mile, measured horizontally, of the proposed permit area be shown on a map or cross-section and included in the permit application. In the final rule, we have revised the phrase “hydrologically connected to the proposed permit area” to “hydrologically connected to the site of the proposed operation” for consistency with final rule § 783.24(a)(13), which describes what maps, plans, and cross-sections the operator must submit with a permit application for an underground mine. The type of information required in this section aids the applicant in preparing the determination of the probable hydrologic consequences of mining required by section 507(b)(11) of SMCRA
Proposed paragraphs (a)(18) and (20) included a requirement to submit geographic coordinates of test borings, core samplings, and monitoring stations. One commenter stated that these requirements would require field surveying which would add significant costs to the application process and that coordinates derived through the use of appropriate software could provide greater accuracy than hand-held field devices. Proposed paragraphs (a)(18) and (20) do not specify the means that must be used to obtain the geographic coordinates, only that the coordinates need to be included in the permit application. The use of hand-held global positioning system field devices is acceptable, but the use of appropriate geospatial software and publicly available imagery is also acceptable and provides accurate data. We have not modified the final rule in response to this comment.
Proposed paragraph (a)(19) expands upon the requirement in existing section 779.25(a)(6), which requires maps showing the location and extent of subsurface water, if encountered. The expanded application requirements of the proposed rule would also require all mining applications for both surface and underground mines to identify aquifers; this requirement is currently only applicable to underground mines under existing § 783.25(a)(6). We also proposed to require that the application include the areal and vertical distribution of aquifers and a portrayal of seasonal variations in hydraulic head in different aquifers. In addition, proposed paragraph (a)(19) includes a requirement for the estimated elevation of the water table required by section 507(b)(14) of SMCRA.
To provide clarity, we further revised paragraph (a)(19) of the final rule to replace “portrayal of seasonal variations” with “maximum and minimum variations.” The modification clarifies it is the range in variations in hydraulic head that is needed to provide meaningful information relative to individual water level measurements. We also omitted the word “estimated” concerning the elevation of the water table in the aquifers to clarify that the elevations must be based on groundwater data collected from the site rather than on an estimation of the levels based on other sources. Finally, we revised “location and extent of subsurface water, if encountered” to “location and extent of any subsurface water encountered” to clarify that the intent is to record the presence of any subsurface water encountered within the proposed permit and adjacent areas.
In paragraph (a)(21), we proposed to add a requirement that any coal or rider seams located above the coal seam to be mined also be identified in this section. However, this requirement was removed from the final rule due to a redundancy with requirements in § 780.19(e)(3). Likewise, the requirement in paragraph (a)(23) to identify the location and extent of known workings of underground mines underlying the proposed permit and adjacent areas are removed in the final rule due to redundancy with § 783.24(a)(23).
In paragraph (a)(27), we proposed to add a requirement that the application identify all directional or horizontal drilling for hydrocarbon extraction operations, including those using hydraulic fracturing methods, within or underlying, the proposed permit and adjacent areas. A few commenters objected to the addition of this requirement. These commenters pointed to the difficulty in obtaining the information as it is often proprietary information or would otherwise be time consuming to acquire. The commenters also noted that, at least in western states, this type of drilling generally occurs in zones well below the depth of coal mines and potable water aquifers. Some commenters suggested that the regulatory authority should have the flexibility in determining if this information is necessary. We agree to an extent. We have removed any specific references to directional or horizontal drilling as this requirement applies to all oil and gas wells regardless of whether they are conventional or unconventional. In addition, we included a requirement that the lateral extent of the well bores must be provided unless that information is confidential under state law. However, as required in previous § 779.25(a)(10), some information related to oil and gas wells is necessary for both the applicant and the regulatory authority to fully evaluate the impacts of the potential mining and reclamation activities with regard to the existence of these types of wells within the proposed and adjacent areas. Mining and reclamation activities must be planned appropriately to accommodate the presence of these structures; therefore, the locations of the wells, and in many instances the depths, must be known prior to the development of the mining plan. In recognition that the well completion information may be confidential, the final rule includes the qualifier, “if available,” relative to the depth information and we have required the lateral extent of the well bores to be provided unless that information is confidential under state law.
With regard to paragraph (c)—the new paragraph we proposed related to digital submittal of information—we invited comment on whether the digital format option should be mandatory to facilitate review by both the public and the regulatory authority instead of allowing the regulatory authority discretion in determining the format that the operator is required to submit their data. One commenter suggested that we require all regulatory authorities to post online all mine permit applications and associated
We have removed and reserved previous § 779.25 for the reasons discussed in the final rule.
With the exception of altering the title of this section for clarity, we are finalizing section 780.1 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
We are finalizing § 780.2 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
We are finalizing § 780.4 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
Section 780.10 pertains to compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act, 44 U.S.C. 3501,
We are finalizing § 780.11 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
Section 780.12 sets forth requirements for the reclamation plan which must be included within a permit application. Several commenters stated that the new requirements for describing, in detail and in writing, the plans for all activities, including planned animal husbandry practices, reclamation timetables, and plans for minimizing the establishment and spread of invasive species, were too onerous for the applicant to provide, too difficult to establish with any accuracy before a mining operation begins, and too lengthy for the regulatory authority to analyze and approve. We disagree. These new permit description requirements are necessary to fulfill statutory requirements, particularly the requirement to use “the best technology currently available” to “minimize disturbances and adverse impacts of the operation on fish, wildlife, and related environmental values, and achieve enhancement of those resources where practicable” within section 515(b)(24) of SMCRA.
One commenter stated that the whole section implies that these programs have not been successful in returning lands to approximate original contour and in repairing lands and waters damaged by pre-SMCRA mining. We disagree. Reclamation has been successfully accomplished in many instances. However, reclamation techniques can be improved as the regulatory authorities, mine operators, and the scientific community learns more about successful reclamation. For instance, the Forestry Reclamation Approach of planting shrubs and trees in soil that is not compacted has thoroughly changed how this industry returns forests to mine sites. Additionally, eliminating or limiting the use of non-native, invasive grasses has improved native reclamation in arid areas. The rule that we are adopting today promotes the use of these and other best practices in the field of reclamation and will benefit native species, communities, and ecosystems both within and beyond the permitted site.
Section 780.12(b) contains a requirement that applicants submit a timetable for reclamation activities which constitute major steps in the reclamation process, including, but not limited to: The planting of all vegetation in accordance with the revegetation plan approved in the permit (including establishing appropriate vegetation bordering perennial, intermittent, and ephemeral streams); demonstrating revegetation success and the restoration of the ecological function of all reconstructed perennial and intermittent stream segment; and applying for each phase of bond release under section 800.42.
Several commenters expressed concern that these new requirements will place operators in a position to fail or force them into noncompliance, if, despite their best efforts, they do not meet the proposed timetables for demonstration of revegetation success, restoration of the ecological function of all reconstructed perennial and intermittent stream segments, or application for each phase of bond release. In addition, these commenters claim that establishing a timetable for completion of these activities, including the return of ecological function to streams, is unrealistic and that these new requirements would remove the discretion from regulatory authorities to require items they determine are important on a case-by-case basis. We disagree. The current rules already require “a detailed timetable for the completion of each major step in the reclamation plan” within § 780.18(b)(1). This section now lists the major steps that, at a minimum, must be included in the timetable. The rule provides the regulatory authority with flexibility to require additional steps at its discretion. Moreover, these minimum standards help implement various provisions of SMCRA including, but not limited to: section 507(d) of SMCRA, which provides that “[e]ach applicant for a permit shall be required to submit to the regulatory authority as part of the permit application a reclamation plan which shall meet the requirements of this Act”;
We made changes to paragraphs (b)(3), (b)(5), and (b)(7) to clarify that establishment of the surface drainage pattern and stream-channel configuration; the planting of appropriate vegetation along the banks of perennial, intermittent, and ephemeral streams; and the restoration of the “form” of all perennial and intermittent stream segments are major steps which must be included in the reclamation plan. As proposed, paragraph (b)(3) added to the list of milestones in the reclamation timetable a requirement for establishing “[r]estoration of the form of all perennial and intermittent stream segments through which you mine, either in their original location or as permanent stream-channel diversions.” The requirement described at proposed paragraph (b)(5) was, “planting,” and proposed paragraph (b)(7) provided for the “[r]estoration of ecological function of all reconstructed perennial and intermittent stream segments either in their original location or as permanent stream channel diversions.” As discussed in more detail below, these changes were made in order to clarify the previous regulation at § 780.18(b)(1) by identifying these requirements as “major steps in the reclamation process” and to conform § 780.12(b) of the proposed rule to the proposed rule at §§ 780.28 and 816.57, which related to activities, in, through, or adjacent to streams and the restoration of ecological function, and to proposed rule §§ 816.111 and 816.116, which related to revegetation. It is necessary to document these milestones to ensure that successful reclamation is accomplished and to provide the regulatory authority with assurance that these activities have been given sufficient consideration. Moreover, as previously discussed, the inclusion in the reclamation plan of a “detailed estimated timetable for the accomplishment of each major step in the reclamation plan” is consistent with section 508(a)(7) of SMCRA.
Several commenters objected to the inclusion of proposed paragraphs (b)(3) and (b)(7), deeming them unnecessary but not providing justification for this assertion. We disagree. As discussed throughout this preamble and specifically within §§ 780.28, 816.56, and 816.57, stream reconstruction is essential to achieving reclamation. Moreover, section 508(a)(13) of SMCRA specifically requires “a detailed description of the measures to be taken during the mining and reclamation process to assure the protection of . . . the quality of surface and ground water systems. . . .”
This modification reflects the different requirements for restoration of “form” of perennial and intermittent streams that must occur prior to Phase I bond release, discussed in the preamble of §§ 800.42(b) and 816.57(e) and the postmining surface drainage pattern and stream-channel configuration requirements related to ephemeral streams discussed in §§ 800.42(b) and 816.56(b), that also must occur prior to Phase I bond release.
We have also modified paragraph (b)(5). As proposed, this paragraph merely required “planting.” Some commenters alleged that this was nebulous. We agree with these commenters and have revised the paragraph to clarify that the establishment of appropriate vegetation includes the establishment of 100-foot wide, streamside, vegetative corridors when required by § 816.56(c), which relates to ephemeral streams, and § 816.57(d), which relates to perennial and intermittent streams and to clarify that the reclamation plan must include a timetable for the planting of all vegetation including vegetation along the banks of streams. Furthermore, this requirement, as revised, complements the requirements of § 800.42(c), which relates to Phase II bond release.
We also modified proposed (b)(7) for clarity and consistency with final rule §§ 816.57(g) and 800.42, which relate to the requirements and timing of achieving restoration of ecological function of all reconstructed perennial and intermittent stream segments. At paragraph § 780.12(b)(7), we have clarified that applicants must include as part of their timetable a “demonstration” that restoration of ecological function will be achieved. This is a change from the proposed rule, which required “restoration of the ecological function,” and could have been interpreted as referring to the performance of reclamation work rather than to the time when that work must be completed. Actual restoration, as required in the performance standard of § 816.57(g), must occur prior to Phase III bond release. Our intent here is that the timetable establishes a point at which the permittee must demonstrate that ecological function has been restored.
Several commenters requested that we require a qualified biologist or ecologist to provide written attestation to any stream restoration plans and any bond release that includes a restored stream. We did not modify the final rule in response to these comments. Our final rule incorporates sufficient scientific expertise and success standards. For instance, final rule § 780.12(g)(6) now includes the requirement that a qualified, experienced biologist, soil scientist, forester, or agronomist must prepare or approve the revegetation plan, which includes the vegetation found within the streamside vegetative corridor. Similarly, all reclamation plans described within final § 780.13(b) must be prepared by, or under the direction of, and certified by a qualified registered professional engineer, a professional geologist, or, in any state that authorizes land surveyors to prepare and certify maps, plans, and cross-sections, a qualified registered professional land surveyor, with assistance from experts in related fields such as landscape architecture. These requirements ensure the use of experts in establishing the plans for reclamation. Within §§ 816.111(b) and 817.111(b), we require these plans to be followed, and within §§ 816.116(d) and 817.116(d), we require a scientifically derived success standard for all revegetation. In addition, regulatory authorities have the expertise and protocols necessary to analyze permit documents and bond release evidence, including those in place within §§ 780.12(b) and 800.42(b)(4). Therefore, this final rule incorporates sufficient scientific expertise and success standards and requiring a qualified biologist or ecologist to provide written attestation of any stream restoration plans and any bond release is not
As proposed, § 780.12(b)(7) added a requirement to demonstrate restoration of ecological function of all reconstructed perennial and intermittent streams to the list of major steps in the reclamation process. This is consistent with final paragraph (b) that requires each permit application to include a detailed timetable for completion of each major step in the reclamation process. Several commenters opposed the addition of proposed paragraph (b)(7) because they thought it was redundant of the permit or other authorization required under section 404 of the Clean Water Act.
Commenters alleged that by only requiring the reclamation to include the standardized construction cost estimation methods and equipment cost guides, the proposed rule did not adequately address all the factors and costs involved in completing reclamation. Many of these commenters use actual cost methods which take in more local factors, conditions, and circumstances. After consideration of this comment, we have added language to the final rule to allow applicants to use “up-to-date actual contracting costs incurred by the regulatory authority for similar activities” in lieu of more broad-based standardized construction costs.
A commenter also questioned the lack of definitions of “direct” and “indirect” costs. We do not believe that “direct and indirect” costs need to be defined within the regulatory text because they are relatively common terms. Another commenter stated that indirect costs should not be included as they are irrelevant to the cost of reclamation and the calculation of bonds. Indirect cost amounts are relevant to bond calculations, as those costs are related to administration and overhead. In the event that the regulatory authority must forfeit bonds for the purpose of carrying out reclamation plans in lieu of the mine operator, costs of a third-party contractor to implement the plan, including overhead cost and profit must be included. Therefore, we determine that the inclusion of indirect costs is essential to an adequate bond calculation. We have made no changes based on these comments.
This section of the final rule adds greater specificity to the backfilling and grading plan, requiring a description of how the operator will compact spoil to reduce infiltration, minimize leaching and discharges of parameters of concern, limit the compaction of topsoil and soil materials in the root zone to the minimum necessary to achieve stability, and identify measures that will be used to alleviate soil compaction if necessary. The final rule also requires, if acid-forming and toxic-forming materials are present, a description of how the operator will handle these materials to protect groundwater and surface water in accordance with § 816.38 of this chapter.
Some commenters argued that implementation of the Forestry Reclamation Approach by itself would not reduce elevated conductivity levels resulting from mountaintop removal mining operations to the point at which those levels would no longer damage aquatic life. We acknowledge that the comment is correct. However, as discussed in the preamble to the proposed rule, there is evidence that the use of the Forestry Reclamation Approach will reduce levels of conductivity progressively over time.
Proposed paragraph (d)(1) included a sentence stating, “You must limit compaction to the minimum necessary to achieve stability requirements unless additional compaction is needed to reduce infiltration to minimize leaching and discharges of parameters of concern.” However, we have concluded that this sentence does not properly reflect our intent, which was to minimize compaction of soil materials in the root zone, while still requiring compaction of spoil in order to minimize conductivity levels in leachate and runoff from the mine. Therefore, the final rule replaces that sentence with paragraphs (d)(2)(i) and (ii). Paragraph (d)(2)(i) requires that the backfilling and grading plan describe in detail how spoil will be compacted in order to reduce infiltration to minimize leaching and discharges of parameters of concern. Paragraph (d)(2)(ii) requires that the backfilling and grading plan limit compaction of topsoil and soil materials in the root zone to the minimum extent necessary to achieve stability. The plan also must identify measures that the permittee will use to alleviate soil compaction if it nonetheless occurs. These changes better reflect our intent to minimize both compaction and conductivity levels.
Some commenters alleged that there was an apparent contradiction between our emphasis on using compaction to ensure stability and reduce leaching and our attempts to limit compaction that impedes revegetation. Moreover, some commenters opined that our requirements related to compaction are impractical as proposed. These commenters stated that our standards for limiting compaction are not supported by scientific evidence and will require a significant engineering analysis by the regulatory authority to determine what the compaction standard should be on various portions of the permit. Additionally, one commenter in particular stated that the language in this paragraph requiring that compaction of backfills be minimized, except as needed to reduce infiltration and minimize leaching and discharges, is inconsistent with the requirements of § 816.38(a), which requires compaction to prevent acid-forming materials from leaching into the soil. In response to these comments, we have made changes to the final rule at § 780.12(d)(1) and (2) to clarify when compaction must be used to minimize infiltration, leaching, and related discharges and when compaction is problematic because it impedes revegetation. However, we disagree with the commenters who stated that the requirement to minimize compaction within the root zone is not supported by scientific evidence. In reclamation projects across the nation, limiting compaction resulted in increased reclamation success (
One commenter alleged that in § 780.12(d) we did not provide a rationale for our proposal to increase requirements for backfilling and grading plans. The commenter alleged that we did not cite specific problems or deficiencies with state regulatory programs under the existing language. Specifically, the commenter alleged that we inappropriately added a performance standard requiring that applicants limit compaction to the minimum necessary to achieve stability. The purpose of these provisions is to address the widespread and well known water quality issues that have been traced to mineralization of infiltrated water, the well-known stream health deficiencies that have been traced to inadequate forest cover of streams in previously forested areas,
Another commenter alleged that the requirement to limit compaction to the minimum extent necessary to achieve stability was ambiguous and, as a result, it would be difficult for the regulatory authority to evaluate and monitor compliance in the field due to contradictory compaction requirements. We recognize that permit requirements about under-compaction and over-compaction were combined in the proposed rule, possibly leading to confusion. For clarity, they have been separated into paragraphs (d)(2)(i) and (d)(2)(ii) in the final rule.
Commenters asserted that the submission of contour maps in paragraph (d)(1) as part of the backfilling and grading plan is of limited use and would need to be continually adjusted to reflect changes in market conditions, in geology, or in other on-site factors. These commenters allege that cross-sections are a better tool for making adjustments to the final surface configuration, including drainage patterns, compared to typical cross-sections, which the commenters claim, have worked best. We are not making any changes to the final rule in response to these comments. Compliance with goals of protecting streams and achieving the approximate original contour can best be judged through the use of contour maps, which offer more detail than a two dimensional cross-section alone. While not every change in a reclamation plan would require a new contour map, at a certain point, using only cross sections to document revised reclamation plans could cause both regulatory authorities and operators to miss potentially significant changes in the configuration of the reclaimed land's surface, changes that, cumulatively or individually, could significantly impact the achievement of approximate original contour and the restoration of streams. As an example, poorly located two dimensional cross-sections could mask problems with the location and shape of the streams that are supposed to be restored, a problem that would not occur with a three dimensional contour map. Regulatory authorities need to use the best tool for determining whether streams are being appropriately restored to form and whether approximate original contour is being addressed as changes are made to the approved reclamation plan. Contour maps are essential to making those determinations. However, we do not allege that cross-sections are unnecessary. Contour maps and cross sections are complementary tools and regulators should use both to evaluate changes to reclamation plans and to monitor compliance.
We proposed in paragraph (e)(1)(i) to require that the soil handling plan include a schedule for removal, storage, and redistribution of topsoil, subsoil or other materials including the use of organic matter. Numerous commenters weighed in on aspects of this proposed requirement. Several commenters stated that leaving certain organic materials, such as duff and root wads, in replaced topsoil is not beneficial for agricultural lands and may result in difficulty establishing the vegetation and plant crops that are necessary to prove productivity for bond release. Other commenters expressed concern that the use of organic material could elevate total suspended solids and total dissolved solids, slow reclamation and revegetation, and disrupt surface owner priorities and postmining land use plans. Still other commenters claimed that the proposed rule did not allow regulatory authorities the flexibility to waive these requirements. We agree with the commenters that it would be counterproductive to mandate the use of organic materials on land where those materials would interfere with the success of the approved postmining land use. Instead of making changes to this section, however, we have revised § 816.22(f) to incorporate flexibility into the performance standards related to the salvage, storage, and redistribution of organic material. Specifically, the language we added to § 816.22(f)(3) clarifies that the use of organic materials in certain agricultural areas is not required. Because the use of organic materials in reclamation substantially outweighs the disadvantages, however, we have not made revisions to other regulations that govern the use of these materials.
Another commenter alleges that the preamble to the proposed rule contains conflicting statements. The commenter alleges that in the discussion of organic matter we state that these materials are necessary to establish pre-existing plant species to restore land use, but this is in conflict with our statement that vegetative cover has nothing to do with land use capability. The commenter misinterprets the proposed rule preamble discussion because there is no
One commenter opined that requiring storage and redistribution of organic matter exceeds our authority because, according to the commenter, SMCRA limits our authority to the removal and replacement of topsoil. We disagree. As we explained in the preamble to our proposed rule,
Regarding the proposed requirement to salvage topsoil and organic materials, we received comments asserting that topsoil is often too thin to salvage. Other commenters stated that because thin topsoil is often closely integrated with organic matter, it would be difficult to separate thin topsoil from organic matter. We also received comments alleging that handling of organic materials as prescribed will significantly increase the cost of reclamation due to increased hauling and storage costs. Other commenters supported the salvage of all topsoil and use of organic matter.
Historically, organic matter has almost universally been either burned, which adds to air pollution and the release of greenhouse gases, or buried. In either case, the organic matter is not available to enhance reclamation of mine sites even though postmining soil environments are often highly deficient in organic matter.
Some commenters discussed potential unintended consequences of the proposal to require salvage and storage of organic materials. In general, the commenters state these requirements are too prescriptive and create more problems than they resolve. More specifically, several commenters contended that this requirement would lead to additional transportation and storage of organics. Some commenters contended that the need for extra storage acres appeared to be at cross-purposes with one of the purposes of the proposed rule—to minimize surface disturbance when possible. Other commenters expressed concern that saving organic material in steep slope areas is challenging and may be an unsafe practice which may put workers at risk. Commenters also argued that the regulatory authorities should have discretion to determine what is best for these materials, given the terrain.
If it is feasible to mine in steep sloped areas, operators should also be capable of safely excavating and salvaging these materials. While we recognize that the handling of organic matter has some potential for requiring some additional surface disturbance, as previously cited, the benefit gained by utilizing organic matter as part of reclamation far outweighs negative impacts associated with disturbing additional acres. Because of these benefits, we are retaining the requirement to salvage, store, and redistribute the organic material. We added language to the final rule to ensure that the requirements which govern the placement of organic matter do not conflict with certain agricultural or other postmining land uses. Additionally, in locations where significant populations of invasive plant species are documented, those organic materials may be buried, but not burned, as provided for in §§ 816.22(f)(3)(iii) and 816.22(f)(4).
We proposed to require that three soil horizons, topsoil, B horizon, and C horizon, be removed, segregated, stockpiled, and redistributed to achieve the optimal rooting depth as a final growing medium. We received many comments on this proposal. Several commenters argued that this requirement would place an unnecessary burden on state regulatory authorities because the regulatory authorities would expend more time reviewing the soil handling plan and significantly more time inspecting the operation to ensure the proper removal and replacement of all three horizons. One commenter asserted that successful soil restoration has been achieved in instances where soil horizons were mixed. Another commenter referenced circumstances where some soil horizons, including some topsoil, can demonstrate characteristics adverse to soil reconstruction and reestablishing vegetation. Specifically, the commenter referenced soils with unfavorable sodium content and some topsoil that is salt-affected, and advocated that these should not be salvaged or spread again. Another commenter noted that this portion of the proposed rule appeared to be based upon achieving reforestation on Appalachian mines and may not be appropriate in other parts of the country. Some commenters opposed proposed paragraph (e)(1)(ii), which specified that the reclamation plan must require the removal, segregation, stockpiling, and redistribution of the B and C soil horizons and materials other than topsoil in order to achieve the optimal rooting depths required to restore premining land use capability and to comply with revegetation requirements. They alleged that the proposed rule is inconsistent with paragraphs (b)(5) through (7) of section
In addition, paragraph (e)(1)(ii) includes the addition of certain exceptions in recognition of circumstances when the segregation of the B and C soil horizons and other underlying strata is not required. We made this change in response to comments urging us to allow blending of soil horizons when experience has demonstrated that doing so results in a superior growing medium. As a further response to these comments, we added an exception at paragraph (e)(1)(iv, which allows blending of the B horizon, C horizon, and other underlying strata, or portions thereof, to the extent that research or prior experience under similar conditions has demonstrated that blending will not adversely affect site productivity. Finally, we added an exception at paragraph (e)(1)(iii in response to comments objecting to use of the B and C horizons when one or both of those horizons have physical or chemical characteristics that make them inferior to other overburden materials in creating a medium conducive to plant growth. Paragraph (e)(1)(iii) specifies that the soil handling plan need not require salvage of the B and C soil horizons if the applicant demonstrates that those horizons are inferior to other overburden materials as a plant growth medium, provided that the applicant complies with the soil substitute requirements of paragraph (e)(2). We also note that, while several of the reference materials we cite relate to issues of Appalachia reforestation,
Additional commenters also asserted that the regulatory authority should have the discretion to make case-by-case determinations about the redistribution of soil materials and the depths at which those materials must be buried. These commenters noted that each state already has an acceptable method to demonstrate compliance with the soil redistribution requirements. These commenters cite the many years of successful bond releases as evidence that the current process for making determinations related to soil materials is adequate. We agree that determinations on the redistribution of soil materials should be based on site-specific information and the experience of local experts, and this rule does not depart from this perspective. Although this rule requires the regulatory authority to make additional determinations, the regulatory authority remains the ultimate decision-maker on the handling and replacement of soils, and its decisions will be based on local, site-specific conditions. This rule is necessary to align our regulations with the specific requirements of SMCRA sections 508(a)(2)(B)
Several commenters objected to the proposed requirement to develop, as part of the reclamation plan, a soil handling plan that will restore the land to premining capability. These commenters indicated that it would be better to design a soil handling plan to accommodate the approved postmining land use provided for in § 816.111 of our regulations because the regulatory authority measures the success of the reclamation by achievement of that use. Commenters further alleged that the proposed rule would lead to confusion because, prior to this rule, reclamation success has always been determined by the ability to achieve the approved postmining land use.
We disagree. Section 515(b)(2) of SMCRA
While existing regulations allow the use of materials as topsoil substitutes and supplements if those materials are “equal to or better than” the topsoil, the proposed rule would allow the approval of topsoil and subsoil substitutes and supplements only if those materials would create a better growing medium than the original topsoil or subsoil. Commenters opined that the existing regulations work well, that a change is not needed, and that we have not satisfactorily explained why we proposed to make this change. Other commenters stated that if we intend to require the use of better materials, that requirement should be limited to substitute topsoil and not extended to subsoil as well. We disagree. As explained in the preamble to the proposed rule,
Commenters further stated that the proposal to require the “best materials” available is unnecessarily restrictive, places an unnecessary burden on regulatory authority resources, and requires more monitoring with little benefit. We disagree. The use of the best materials available will ensure better reclamation. Additionally, while we have raised the threshold on what materials may be considered as an acceptable substitute for subsoil, the process for using substitutes is essentially the same and should place no greater burden on regulatory staff. As such, we are not altering the final rule in response to these comments.
Several commenters questioned the criteria permitting the use of soil supplement and substitution materials. These commenters alleged that the proposed regulations are not consistent with section 515(b)(5) of SMCRA,
Several commenters stated that the inclusion of a number of characteristics for consideration, such as total depth, texture, and pH of soil horizons and overburden material in paragraph (e)(2)(iii)(B), are unnecessary and costly to test and compare. Commenters specifically objected to the inclusion of “thermal toxicity,” which they indicated is a term that is generally used relating to water, not soil. These commenters were uncertain about what that parameter required. In response to these comments, we have eliminated the term “thermal toxicity” from the final rule. While this term is applicable to soil, the commenter is correct in stating that it is more commonly used in association with water and aquatic organisms' tolerance to temperature. On reconsideration we have decided the added value of including this characteristic as it relates to soil substitute materials is limited and will not be required. However, the other characteristics listed in proposed § 780.12(e)(2)(iii)(B) are all essential to conducting a comprehensive analysis of whether a material is an acceptable substitute. Moreover, with the exception of “thermal toxicity,” which we did not include in the final rule, all of the soil characteristics included in final paragraph (e)(2)(iii)(B) were included in previous § 780.18(b)(4). Additionally, any one of these characteristics individually, if sufficiently adverse, could impact the success of revegetation. For example, a potential substitute material may have an excessively low pH. This factor alone could render it unacceptable as a substitute material. The final rule requires the regulatory authority to examine these factors in a thorough and comprehensive fashion.
We received comments alleging that it is unnecessarily duplicative to require the testing of substitute soil materials twice—once to prove they are suitable and then again after they have been placed. We disagree. Testing of substitute materials before placement is necessary because the testing serves as a baseline for the substitution plan, while testing after placement is needed to ensure that the substitution plan has been properly implemented.
A commenter stated that expansion of the soils-related regulations requires soil science expertise that many regulatory authorities lack. Any soil science expertise and costs related to address that need, if currently unavailable within a regulatory program, would certainly be a legitimate program cost, and, subject to appropriation, states would be eligible to receive matching grant funding to assist with these expenses.
Several commenters considered this paragraph to be a new permitting requirement. They generally contend that there is no value in this addition and claim that it was proposed without justification. In addition, some commenters asserted that proposed paragraph (f) should be removed because it is duplicative of other non-SMCRA related requirements governing the content of a mine's air quality
Final paragraph (g) is substantively identical to proposed paragraph (g), except as discussed below.
Proposed paragraph (g)(1)(v) provided that the revegetation plan must include the species to be planted and the seeding and stocking rates and planting arrangements to be used to achieve or complement the postmining land use and to enhance fish and wildlife habitat. Final paragraph (g)(1)(v) adds a requirement that the revegetation plan include the species to be planted and the seeding and stocking rates and planting arrangements to be used to achieve the streamside vegetative corridor provisions of final §§ 816.56(c) and 816.57(d), when applicable. We added this requirement to emphasize the critical nature of streamside vegetative corridors in achieving restoration of streams that are mined through.
One commenter requested that we implement, to the maximum extent practicable, measures to support pollinators with respect to native plants, consistent with the Presidential Memorandum dated June 20, 2014, “Creating a Federal Strategy to Promote the Health of Honey Bees and Other Pollinators.” In response to this comment, we added paragraph (g)(1)(v)(B) to the final rule. That paragraph provides that, to the extent practicable and consistent with other revegetation and regulatory program requirements, the species mix must include native pollinator-friendly plants and the planting arrangements must promote the establishment of pollinator-friendly habitat.
In response to a comment, we revised § 780.12(g)(1)(ix), regarding normal husbandry practices, to correctly cross-reference § 816.115(d).
Commenters recommended that we revise paragraph (g) to require that the selection of revegetation material take into account habitats for the wildlife species with the greatest conservation need, as determined by the state wildlife agency, the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, and regional or national wildlife conservation initiatives. According to the commenters, species of concern, which include many grassland birds, may benefit by replacing premining forested lands with grassland habitat.
Revisions of the nature advocated by the commenters may exceed our authority under SMCRA. In particular, adoption of a rule promoting the establishment of grasslands in place of the forests that would naturally exist on those sites would be inconsistent with section 515(b)(19) of SMCRA, which requires that the permittee “establish on the regraded areas, and all other lands affected, a diverse, effective, and permanent vegetative cover of the same seasonal variety native to the area of land to be affected and capable of self-regeneration and plant succession at least equal in extent of cover to the natural vegetation of the area.”
Many commenters supported proposed paragraph (g)(1)(xi), which required that the applicant describe the process for monitoring and controlling invasive species. Other commenters requested an explanation of how the rule would apply to naturalized invasive or non-native species or when invasive or non-native species drift from adjacent lands and establish themselves on the mine site. The final rule does not distinguish between naturalized non-native species and non-native species that are not naturalized. Nor does it differentiate on the basis of how non-native species arrive on the mine site. Instead, it differentiates on the basis of whether the volunteer non-native species are invasive. In all cases, final paragraph (g)(1)(xi) requires that the revegetation plan identify the measures that the permittee will take to avoid the establishment of invasive species on reclaimed areas or to control those species if they do become established. We recognize that it may not be possible to completely avoid the presence of some invasive species. The bottom line is that invasive species must not be present in quantities that would prevent attainment of the revegetation success standards established in accordance with final § 816.116.
At least one commenter suggested that we move proposed paragraphs (g)(2) and (3) to part 816 and make them performance standards. We declined to make this change. The revegetation plan, which is submitted and approved as part of the permit, is a critical component of the planning stage. After the permit, which includes the revegetation plan, is approved, the permittee then is obligated to comply with the terms and conditions of the approved permit. However, in reviewing the structure of proposed paragraphs (g)(2) and (3) in response to this comment, we determined that the requirement in proposed paragraph (g)(2) that the species and planting rates and arrangements selected as part of the revegetation plan meet the requirements of paragraphs (a) and (b) of § 816.116 is not appropriate. Paragraph (a) of § 816.116 requires that the regulatory authority select standards for revegetation success and statistically valid sampling techniques. Paragraph (b) of § 816.116 requires that the revegetation success standards reflect the revegetation plan requirements of § 780.12(g). Nothing in those two paragraphs would impact development of the revegetation plan. Therefore, final paragraph (g)(2) does not include the provision in proposed paragraph (g)(2) that would have required that the revegetation plan meet the requirements of paragraphs (a) and (b) of § 816.116.
Final paragraph (g)(3)(vii) differs from proposed paragraph (g)(3)(vii) in that the final rule does not include mention of state and federal poisonous plant laws. We made this change because we are not aware of any state or federal poisonous plant laws.
Some commenters requested the rule include more specific information on the meaning of native plant communities and the natural succession process. Final paragraph (g)(3)(iv) differs slightly from its counterpart in the proposed rule in that we added a clarification that the species in the revegetation plan must be consistent with the appropriate stage of natural succession in the native plant communities described in § 779.19 of
Several commenters stated that the standards for revegetation are not clear and asked whether sites are to be returned to the vegetation that existed prior to human influence. If this is the case, the commenters stated, this requirement would be impossible to meet in situations where non-native vegetation constitutes a significant portion of the premining landscape. The final rule does not necessarily require that the site be revegetated with the species that characterized the site before it was altered by human activities. The species selected must be suitable for the postmining land use. Final paragraph (g)(3)(i) requires use of species native to the area, but it also allows use of introduced species as part of the permanent vegetative cover for the site if the introduced species are both non-invasive and necessary to achieve the postmining land use, planting of native species would be inconsistent with the approved postmining land use, and the approved postmining land use is implemented before the entire bond amount for the area has been fully released under §§ 800.40 through 800.43. Final paragraph (g)(3)(i) is consistent with section 515(b)(19) of SMCRA,
Many commenters supported the requirement to reclaim lands using predominantly native species. Other commenters considered the proposed requirement too stringent; they recommended fewer restrictions on the use of non-native species and more flexibility for the regulatory authority to approve vegetation plans based on local conditions. As previously explained, our final regulations allow for the appropriate use of introduced species for reclamation, as long as they are not invasive. Requirements to use native species (and, where appropriate, introduced, non-invasive species) for reclamation allow the regulatory authority to approve vegetation plans based on local conditions. They also minimize the risk of allowing non-native species to be introduced when they are not the best choice for long-term reclamation.
We also received comments that alleged that the requirement to use native vegetation conflicted with the requirement to achieve a condition in which the site will support a productive postmining land use and the requirement for use of species capable of self-regeneration and natural succession. The commenters alleged that the proposed requirements were neither sufficient nor the most productive way to achieve the postmining land use. These commenters noted that many non-native species might prove better candidates for achieving productivity, self-regeneration, and natural succession. Similarly, some commenters expressed concern that use of native species is not always suitable or best for a particular postmining land use, and that restoring the premining vegetation may conflict with fish and wildlife postmining land uses that involve elk and other game species.
Nothing in our rules prohibits revegetation of sites with a fish and wildlife postmining land use with species appropriate for the wildlife for which the site will be managed. Furthermore, final § 780.12(g)(3)(i), which incorporates the provisions of proposed paragraph (g)(6), allows the applicant to propose, and the regulatory authority to approve, use of introduced species to achieve a particular postmining land use, provided certain conditions are met. Final paragraphs (g)(3)(i) and (g)(4) allow the use of introduced species if (1) the introduced species are needed to achieve a quick-growing, temporary, stabilizing cover on disturbed and regraded areas, and the species selected to achieve this purpose will not impede the establishment of permanent vegetation; (2) the postmining land use requires the use of introduced, non-invasive species, and (3) the postmining land use will be implemented before the entire bond amount for the area has been fully released. These provisions provide the flexibility needed to allow the use of introduced species for agricultural postmining land uses. Therefore, final paragraph (g)(5) does not include the provision in proposed paragraph (g)(5) that would have allowed the regulatory authority to exempt lands with long-term, intensive agricultural postmining land uses from the requirements of paragraph (g)(3)(i).
Some commenters requested that we include a definition of “resembles” within § 780.12(g)(3)(ii), which requires “a permanent vegetative cover that resembles native plant communities in the area.” We find it unnecessary to define this term. The final rule allows the regulatory authority the flexibility to approve a native, non-invasive vegetative cover that would allow for natural succession specific to that site. To the extent that more explanation is needed, section 515(b)(19) of SMCRA requires that the permittee “establish on the regraded areas, and all other lands affected, a diverse, effective, and permanent vegetative cover of the same seasonal variety native to the area of land to be affected and capable of self-regeneration and plant succession at least equal in extent of cover to the natural vegetation of the area. . . .”
We updated proposed paragraph (g)(4) in the final rule to more clearly reflect our intent to allow the regulatory authority to approve the use of introduced species when controlling erosion, but only if such use does not impede establishment of the permanent vegetation needed to meet revegetation success standards. We made this change is in response to commenters who asked for clarity about natural succession and the establishment of permanent native vegetation.
We also made a change to paragraph (g)(6) of the final rule. The proposed rule required that a professional forester or ecologist develop and certify any revegetation plan that includes trees or shrubs. Many commenters expressed concern over this requirement and noted that many other experienced professionals have the expertise to design and certify these plans. Some commenters observed that states may not professionally recognize or certify ecologists, and in those states that do certify ecologists, it may be rare to find an ecologist with sufficient experience to develop and certify revegetation plans for coal mining operations. We agree and have modified the final rule to address these concerns. Under the
Another commenter suggested that we replace all references to “introduced” species with “invasive” species. We did not make this change. These terms are not synonyms (
Other commenters expressed opposition to the proposed rule because they considered the previous regulations sufficient and not in need of any updates. We disagree. While it is true that under SMCRA, voluntary best practices have advanced to minimize the effect of introduced, invasive species on the natural processes and capability of reclaimed land, (as examples: the elimination in most instances of using crested wheatgrass,
Commenters also opined that these new regulations may not accommodate landowner desires. We agree that this statement may sometimes be true, but section 515(b)(19) of SMCRA requires the establishment of “a diverse, effective, and permanent vegetative cover of the same seasonal variety native to the area of land to be affected and capable of self-regeneration and plant succession at least equal in extent of cover to the natural vegetation of the area.” Landowners may replant the site with other species if they wish after final bond release, which terminates jurisdiction under SMCRA.
Other commenters claimed that the proposed rule's emphasis on native species is flawed due to concerns about the availability and survivability of native species, as well as their additional cost. We agree that these native species requirements could increase short-term reclamation costs, but they are not cost-prohibitive. The use of native species is the best technology currently available, and in the long-term, this requirement could also lower maintenance costs. We disagree that the availability and survivability of native species should prohibit our requirement to use them to reclaim SMCRA permitted disturbances. Native species are currently in wide use as best practices in SMCRA and non-SMCRA reclamation across the United States, and substantial progress continues to be made in the availability and diversity of native species. Best practices include contracting with growers to produce seed from the premining vegetation or from adjacent (and appropriate) areas for use in reclamation. This enhances the establishment and the survivability of the native species that are used.
Commenters also expressed concern that the proposed regulations would effectively eliminate postmining land use options other than forest. We disagree. As explained in the preamble discussion at section 701.5 within the “land use” definition, there are several acceptable postmining land uses, and forest is only one potential postmining land use. In addition, the revegetation plan set forth in this paragraph only requires the proposed vegetative cover to be consistent with both the approved postmining land use and the establishment of the plant communities described in the permit application, as required by § 779.19. Only those portions of the proposed permit area that are forested at the time of permit application or that would revert to forest under conditions of natural succession must be revegetated using native tree and understory species. This requirement would not apply when a postmining land use other than forestry has been approved, provided reforestation is inconsistent with the land use and provided that the approved postmining land use is implemented before final bond release.
A commenter expressed concern that the steps in this plan would be inflexible and result in inappropriate enforcement actions that do not take into account the time required for restoration and recovery of natural stream functions. The commenter stated that § 780.12(h) implies that it is possible to predict when biological stream functions might be restored, a characterization with which the commenter disagrees. We do not agree that the regulation is inflexible or that it would result in inappropriate enforcement actions. We recognize that once a permittee completes construction of the stream channel and plants of the streamside vegetative corridor, there are few, if any, measures that may be taken to speed ecological restoration. The rule does not anticipate any enforcement action for failure to achieve restoration of ecological function within any specific time. However, it requires that final bond release be delayed until that requirement is accomplished.
A commenter stated that the use of the term “restoration” relating to streams should be changed to “reclamation” because the term “restoration” is not included in the definitions section of SMCRA. We have not made this change. The absence of the term in SMCRA does not prohibit its use, where appropriate, in our regulations. Moreover, section 508(a)(9) of SMCRA requires the permittee to include in the reclamation plan a statement of “the steps to be taken to comply with the . . . water quality laws and regulations.”
A commenter opined that because the Clean Water Act requires stream restoration plans, there is no need for a SMCRA review and approval of proposals to mine through a perennial or intermittent stream. Therefore, according to the commenter, we should simply reference the Clean Water Act
We disagree with the commenter's assertion that this requirement supersedes the Clean Water Act. In Part IV.I., above, we further discuss the relationship between SMCRA and Clean Water Act. While Clean Water Act stream restoration plans may serve as the basis for the restoration plan required by our final rule, (which is further justification for coordination with the Clean Water Act authority in the development of such plans), the regulations referenced in our final rule address the need for a plan that restores stream form, hydrologic function and ecological function. The completion of these various phases of a stream restoration plan are all tied to bond release; therefore it is critical that any plan utilized be incorporated into the SMCRA permit. In addition, the Clean Water Act authority may not always require a stream restoration plan, but may instead require mitigation in accordance with Clean Water Act provisions. It is not uncommon for mitigation to consist of in-lieu fee payments to a “mitigation bank” which negates the obligation to actually restore the lost stream functions required by the final rule. Our regulations require a demonstration that intermittent and perennial streams can be restored hydrologically and ecologically, otherwise the regulatory authority may not approve of a request to mine through such steams. Therefore we cannot rely on provisions within the Clean Water Act to satisfy this requirement.
This section requires that the reclamation plan describe the steps to comply with the requirements of the Clean Air Act,
One commenter urged us to not to adopt the requirements under paragraph (m) because a mine operator already must comply with any state and local land use plans and programs and these requirements are beyond the authority of the SMCRA agency. The commenter adds that neither the regulatory authority nor the mine operator can know what future plans a landowner may implement that may alter a formerly approved permit following termination of jurisdiction. As we explained in the preamble to the proposed rule,
We have added final paragraph (n) to the final rule because we determined that it was more appropriate to place the permitting requirements about how a permittee must develop an acid-forming and toxic-forming handling plan in the performance standards of proposed
As discussed in the preamble,
In § 816.38(d), now § 780.12(n)(2), we have provided for placement of acid-forming or toxic-forming materials in an excess spoil fill or coal mine waste refuse pile using the methods outlined in paragraph (1) to prevent contamination of ground or surface waters. Although we did not receive comments on proposed paragraph (d), we made nonsubstantive changes to the paragraph to conform to plain language principles and to accommodate moving the text to § 780.12.
In § 816.38(a), now § 780.12(n)(3), we address the measures that you must specify in your reclamation plan to prevent adverse hydrologic effects resulting from acid-forming or toxic-forming materials being exposed during mining, if they are present in the stratum immediately below the lowest coal seam being mined. Several commenters, including regulatory authorities and operators, recommended deleting this paragraph, arguing that it erroneously presupposes that all coal seams and the pit floor contain acid-forming and toxic-forming materials. In addition, the commenters opined that requiring an impervious layer below the coal seam could potentially cause more problems than it solves by reducing recharge to aquifers below the coal seam and by sealing unmined coal faces, thus impeding potential groundwater recharge to the backfill. The commenters were particularly concerned with the proposed requirement to cover exposed coal seams and the stratum immediately beneath the lowest coal seam mined with a layer of compacted material with a hydraulic conductivity at least two orders of magnitude lower than the hydraulic conductivity of the overlying, less-compacted spoil. The commenters asserted that this requirement is unnecessary and will result in additional cost with little benefit to water quality by imposing increased inspection frequency. Commenters also opined that this would require operators to work adjacent to the highwall for longer periods, presenting numerous safety issues. We disagree with the commenters. This rule requires the development of a plan to prevent any adverse hydrologic impacts that might result from exposure of the stratum beneath the coal seam that was exposed during the mining process. The requirement to develop a plan will apply only when the baseline geologic information collected under section § 780.19(e) indicates that the stratum immediately below the lowest coal seam to be mined contains acid-forming or toxic-forming materials. Final § 773.15(n) prohibits the regulatory authority from approving the permit application unless the applicant demonstrates, and the regulatory authority concurs, that the operation has been designed to prevent the formation of toxic mine drainage or other discharges that would require long-term treatment after mining has been completed. Therefore, the plan must be adequate to satisfy this requirement. One option the permittee may employ is placing a compacted low permeability layer over the in-place stratum immediately beneath the coal seam using the same safety measures that allowed removal of the coal.
Section 780.13 explains the additional maps, plans, and cross sections that the applicant must include in the reclamation plan. We have adopted the section as proposed with the exception of one additional requirement, a few non-substantive changes, and renumbering of paragraphs.
A few commenters expressed concern about the proposed requirement in § 780.13(a)(9) to map each feature and facility that is constructed to protect or enhance fish, wildlife, and related environmental values. Commenters stated that this is time consuming and that these features are likely to change over the course of mining operations; therefore, the commenters advocated the elimination of these requirements. We disagree. This requirement provides valuable information that will allow the regulatory authority to assess, monitor, and review the evolving operation. While this requirement may result in more time and effort at the initial permitting stage, it should save time and effort in subsequent permit reviews. Furthermore, it is important to accurately document efforts to protect or enhance fish, wildlife, and related environmental values.
As discussed within the preamble to § 816.57(d), we have added to our performance standards a requirement to
The U.S. Forest Service supported adoption of proposed paragraph (a)(15) and we received no comments opposing it. For clarity, however, we have divided the requirements of this paragraph into two separate paragraphs, numbered (a)(16) and (a)(17) because of the addition of new paragraph (a)(14) to the final rule. Final paragraph (a)(16) requires the applicant to provide the “location and geographic coordinates of each monitoring point for groundwater and surface water.” Final paragraph (a)(17) requires the applicant to provide “the location and geographic coordinates of each point at which you propose to monitor the biological condition of perennial and intermittent streams.”
Proposed paragraph (c) clarified that the regulatory authority may require an applicant to submit the materials required under this section in digital format. The U.S. Forest Service and others expressed general support for submitting data in digital format. Other commenters recommended that this paragraph be revised to encourage, but not require, the digital format option for all materials submitted for review and analysis by the public and the regulatory authority. These commenters expressed concern that requiring materials to be submitted in a digital format would be financially burdensome and that some operators or state regulatory authorities might not possess the technical ability to provide the information in a digital format. We do not agree. Proposed paragraph (c) did not require the submission of materials in a digital format but merely clarified that the regulatory authority can require digital submissions if it so chooses. Requiring permit materials to be submitted in digital format could actually save regulatory authorities a significant amount of time that might otherwise be spent digitizing materials submitted by applicants so that they will be accessible to the public and to us. Furthermore, submission of digital data is increasingly common and does not require highly specialized technology or equipment. Consequently, we have made no substantive change to the final rule.
Most changes to § 780.14 are editorial in nature. They primarily implement plain language principles and improve syntax and structure. In addition, we revised paragraph (b)(2) to eliminate the requirement for specifying the interim steps in the schedule for reconstruction of each existing structure because such a requirement would have no utility to the regulatory authority. What matters from a regulatory perspective is the starting and ending dates of the reconstruction, which revised paragraph (b)(2) continues to require. We also revised paragraph (b)(2) to apply the schedule requirement to both modification and reconstruction of existing structures, not just to reconstruction of those structures. The change makes paragraph (b)(2) consistent with the language of paragraph (b)(1). It also avoids the need for the applicant and regulatory authority to distinguish between modification and reconstruction. That distinction serves no regulatory purpose because any existing structure must be brought into compliance with applicable regulatory requirements. It makes no difference whether the effort to achieve compliance is called modification or reconstruction.
One commenter recommended that we revise the blasting regulations in relation to the impact of the use of explosives on birds. This recommendation is outside the scope of our current rulemaking because the proposed rule included no substantive revisions to the blasting regulations.
Section 780.16 is intended to ensure that a proposed surface coal mining and reclamation operation is designed in a manner that meets the fish and wildlife protection and enhancement requirements of the regulatory program. Except as discussed below, we have adopted § 780.16 as proposed, with minor editorial revisions for clarity and consistency.
Proposed paragraph (b) required the permittee to describe how the permit would comply with the Endangered Species Act, 16 U.S.C. 1531
Another commenter requested that we add “proposed species” to this section. We made the recommended revisions because, as discussed in greater detail in the preamble text for section 773.15(j) above, both SMCRA and the Endangered Species Act provide authority to protect species that have been proposed for listing.
Several commenters expressed support for proposed
Several commenters also requested that we require an applicant to demonstrate that it has complied with all applicable species-specific protection and enhancement measures. However, compliance with applicable species-specific protection and enhancement measures, while important, does not necessarily ensure compliance with the Endangered Species Act. For example, we, along with the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, and a representative group of state regulatory authorities have only developed species-specific protection and enhancement measures for a limited number of species. While this type of guidance can reduce uncertainty and streamline the permitting process, it is not possible to develop range-wide, species-specific protection and enhancement measures for every Endangered Species Act-listed species affected by coal mining operations. Further, the fact that guidance has not been produced for a particular species does not excuse an applicant from developing protection and enhancement measures specific to that species for inclusion in a permit application. Where species-specific protective measures have not been developed, an applicant will have to coordinate with the appropriate office of the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service or National Marine Fisheries Service to ensure that adequate measures are incorporated into a permit. Where species-specific protective measures have been developed, such as the range-wide Indiana Bat protection and enhancement plan guidelines finalized in 2009,
Other commenters requested that we require applicants to demonstrate that the proposed permit would not adversely impact any species listed or proposed for listing under the Endangered Species Act. Additionally, one commenter suggested that there should be a strict prohibition on any activity within 100 feet of streams because of the potential to adversely impact aquatic species. We do not agree that additional prescriptive protective measures should be required in this section or that an applicant must demonstrate that a proposed mining operation will not adversely impact any listed species. In the final rule, we have revised our previous regulations to ensure that threatened and endangered species and species proposed for listing as threatened or endangered are correctly identified and described, as explained in § 779.20; that the permit is designed to protect and enhance those species, as explained in § 780.16; and that the regulatory authority makes a finding that the permit complies with the Endangered Species Act as explained in § 773.15(j). The analysis of what protection and enhancement measures are required under paragraph (b) should be species and site-specific and should be done in close coordination with the appropriate state or federal agencies. These types of species and site-specific considerations do not lend themselves to prescriptive rules. The exact process of developing protection and enhancement plans will depend on how the applicant intends to demonstrate achievement of the finding required under final § 773.15(j). Final § 780.16(b) fits into this scheme by simply requiring that an applicant describe how it will comply with the Endangered Species Act. This description will vary depending on how the applicant intends to demonstrate compliance with the Endangered Species Act, site-specific considerations, and the number and type of listed or proposed species potentially impacted by the operation.
Other commenters expressed concern over the requirement, now located in final paragraph (b)(2), that compliance with the Endangered Species Act must be demonstrated before the regulatory authority may approve a permit. Many commenters opined that it takes a long time to obtain approval of necessary protection and enhancement measures for proposed or listed species from the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service or National Marine Fisheries Service and questioned whether it was possible to obtain a permit on the condition that no impact to listed species would occur until the coordination process was complete. We have evaluated this request and determined that, until the coordination process is complete, it would be very difficult to determine whether an operation will not impact species. However, where an operation can be reduced in size or divided into different phases to avoid proposed or listed species, there is no prohibition on pursuing a permit for that smaller area while simultaneously pursuing approval of a second, nearby permit where impacts to species may occur. This could allow an operator to begin mining on the permit that would have no impacts to species, assuming all other requirements were met, such as the requirement that phases of operations that are significantly related must be evaluated in a single impact statement pursuant to NEPA,
One commenter recommended we remove from the final rule all language that the commenter characterized as “subjective,” such as “to the maximum extent practicable” or to “minimize disturbances and effects” and instead provide specific examples of techniques and practices that would be expected to be implemented or followed. We have not revised the final rule in response to this comment. Similar language is found throughout SMCRA, and provides an appropriate level of flexibility for each regulatory authority to determine the applicability of techniques and practices on a case-by-case basis. It would be inappropriate to prescribe techniques and practices within the regulations
In response to paragraph (c)(1) of the proposed rule, many commenters opposed the requirement to time mining operations as to avoid or minimize disruption of critical life cycle events for all fish and wildlife, such as migration, nesting, breeding, calving, and spawning. These commenters criticized the paragraph as either unclear, conflicting with other requirements, or overbroad and noted that, if implemented, it could halt all mining activity because these critical lifecycle events happen throughout the year. While it may, on a species by species basis, be necessary to time certain activities to avoid or minimize impacts on certain species, we generally agree with commenters that requiring it for all species would not be appropriate. Therefore, we have deleted this paragraph and renumbered the remaining paragraphs accordingly.
Proposed paragraph (c)(2), now final paragraph (c)(1), requires a description of how the permittee will retain forest cover and other native vegetation as long as possible and time the removal of that vegetation to minimize adverse impacts on aquatic and terrestrial species. Some commenters alleged that this requirement is too difficult to comply with because timing the removal of forest cover and native vegetation for one species might conflict with the timing for another species. As an example, several commenters pointed out conflicts between cutting restrictions for endangered bats and the needs of other species. We do not agree with this concern. Paragraph (c) addresses the protection of non-listed species and related environmental values and requires applicants to minimize disturbances and adverse impacts on species “to the extent possible using the best technology currently available.” If it is not possible to time the removal of vegetation to minimize adverse impacts to a non-Endangered Species Act species because of other species considerations, such as the Endangered Species Act-listed Indiana Bat tree cutting guidelines, a description of why the vegetation must be cut at a specific time is sufficient to satisfy this requirement. We have not made any changes as a result of these comments as this paragraph provides sufficient flexibility to time the removal of forest cover and vegetation to best protect aquatic and terrestrial species, including endangered species.
We received numerous comments, ranging from highly critical to very supportive, of the requirement in proposed paragraph (c)(3) that operations must maintain, to the extent possible, an intact forested stream buffer of at least 100 feet between surface disturbances and perennial and intermittent streams. We have deleted proposed paragraph (c)(3) because we have revised final § 816.57(b) to include a prohibition on mining in or within 100 feet of a perennial or intermittent stream, subject to the exemptions contained in final § 780.28, making proposed paragraph (c)(3) of this section redundant. A discussion of all comments on the 100 foot stream buffer, including comments on proposed paragraph (c)(3), is available in the preamble discussion of §§ 780.28 and 816.57.
One commenter requested that we define or otherwise clarify the term “environmental values” as discussed in proposed paragraphs (c)(4), (5), and (d)(1) because the term is not currently defined within the proposed rule or previous regulations. We decline to define this term, because imposing a national definition for “environmental values” would be too restrictive and would not account for regional differences. The regulatory authority has the proper expertise to determine its meaning on a case-by-case basis.
Proposed paragraph (c)(5) required the operator to periodically evaluate the impacts of the operation on fish, wildlife, and related environmental values in the permit and adjacent areas and to use of that information to modify the operations to avoid or minimize adverse effects. Several commenters expressed concern that we did not provide guidance on the appropriate frequency for these “periodic evaluations”, on how rigorous the evaluation should be, and on who would be responsible for completing the evaluations. Some commenters recommended the removal of this paragraph because of concerns that operators might be required to change mining operations to offset impacts to wildlife beyond the control of the operators. We agree that the proposed rule language was ambiguous about how often the periodic review should be. In response, we are deleting this paragraph in the final rule and renumbering the remaining paragraphs. However, we have added a new requirement at final § 774.10(a)(2) that requires the regulatory authority to review the impacts of the operation on fish, wildlife, and related environmental values in the permit and adjacent areas. This review must occur not later than the middle of each permit term except that permits with a term longer than five years must be reviewed no less frequently than the permit midterm or every five years, whichever is more frequent. The regulatory authority must use that evaluation to determine whether it is necessary to order the permittee to modify operations to avoid or minimize adverse impacts on those values. The regulatory authority has the discretion to determine the rigor of these periodic reviews, which is appropriate because they have the local expertise to determine whether the operation is having the anticipated impact on fish, wildlife and related environmental values and whether revisions are necessary. For example, if unexpected drought conditions cause protection and enhancement measures to be less effective than initially anticipated, the regulatory authority review of the fish and wildlife protection and enhancement plan should evaluate whether, and to what extent, revisions should be made to the permit to effectively implement section 515(b)(24) of SMCRA.
Some commenters stated that proposed paragraph (c)(6), which we adopted as final paragraph (c)(3) and which requires the selection of non-invasive native species for revegetation, could conflict with the need to use non-native species for site stabilization, such as on steep slopes, and in situations where erosion is a problem. As support, some commenters noted that the Natural Resources Conservation Service guidelines propose the use of non-natives to control erosion. We do not view these requirements as conflicting. The final rule does not prohibit the use of non-invasive, non-native vegetation when appropriate to control erosion and when approved in the revegetation plan. However, § 780.16 focuses on the protection and enhancement of fish and wildlife resources, which typically benefit from the use of non-invasive, native species, whenever possible. In response to comments requesting the discretion to use non-native plant species in limited circumstances, we have modified this paragraph to allow for the limited use of non-native species. Specifically, we have included a reference to final § 780.12(g)(4), which allows for use of non-native species when they are necessary to achieve a quick-growing, temporary, stabilizing cover on disturbed and regraded areas, as long as the species selected to
Commenters questioned the benefits of using native vegetation in final paragraph (c)(3), alleging that non-native vegetation provides increased forage and habitat for turkey, deer, and elk. We do not agree. The best available science indicates that, on a broader ecological scale, planting native species contributes to the overall health of natural communities. Disturbances of intact ecosystems that open and fragment habitat, such as land clearing activities, increase the potential of invasion by alien species. Native plants provide important alternatives to alien species for conservation and restoration projects in these disturbed areas. Native species can satisfy many of the same land management needs that nonnative species do, but often with lower costs and maintenance requirements. Once established in an appropriate area, most native plant species are hardy and do not require watering, fertilizers, or pesticides.
Commenters also recommended that the determination of the types of vegetation to be used should be left to the discretion of the regulatory authority and should be done on a case-by-case basis because regional and site-specific conditions vary. They also stated that landowner input should be considered when determining vegetative cover. In response to these concerns, we note that final § 780.12(g)(4) gives the regulatory authority sufficient flexibility to allow the use of non-native species when necessary to achieve a quick-growing, temporary, stabilizing cover on disturbed and regraded areas, as long as the selected species will not impede the establishment of permanent vegetation. However, SMCRA clearly directs mining operations to establish “permanent vegetative cover of the same seasonal variety native to the area of land to be affected,” allowing non-native species to be used only “where desirable and necessary to achieve the approved postmining land use plan.”
Proposed paragraph (c)(7) is renumbered in the final rule as paragraph (c)(4). In the final rule we require a permittee to describe the plan for avoiding wetlands, perennial and intermittent streams, and habitat adjacent to perennial or intermittent streams. If avoidance of perennial or intermittent streams is not possible, we outline the steps to minimize impacts that must be taken in final paragraphs (c)(4)(i)(A)-(C).
In final paragraph (c)(4)(i), we have added “wetlands” to the list of important habitat features that must, if possible, be avoided during mining. This change is in response to comments from other federal agencies who expressed concern that wetlands were not specifically mentioned in this paragraph. Adding the term “wetlands” to relevant sections of final paragraph (c)(4) and its subparts will ensure that operations avoid mining through wetlands as well as perennial and intermittent streams, and habitat adjacent to perennial or intermittent streams, if possible.
One commenter expressed concern that the requirement in proposed paragraph (c)(7)(ii), final paragraph (c)(4)(i)(B), to “minimize the length of the stream mined through,” is duplicative of the Clean Water Act section 404
In response to a comment we received from a federal agency we have added paragraph (c)(4)(ii) which requires the permittee to identify the authorizations, certifications, and permits required by the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1251
Proposed paragraph (d) required that permit applicants describe how they would use the best technology currently available to enhance fish, wildlife, and related environmental values both within and outside the area to be disturbed by mining activities, where practicable. Section 515(b)(24) of SMCRA
Proposed paragraph (d)(1) also included a list of twelve potential enhancement measures. Many commenters were generally supportive of these potential enhancement measures and as discussed below, we are adopting that list in revised form as final paragraph (d)(2). Others were concerned that these potential enhancement measures were requirements, or could be construed by regulatory authorities as mandatory enhancement measures to be performed on each permitted operation. Commenters explained that mandating conservation easements and/or deed restrictions may conflict with State Trust Lands, state agency goals and objectives, and result in unlawful takings or overly burdensome requirements that private landowners or local government agencies would not be willing to accept. These concerns are
Several commenters alleged that it would be difficult to know whether an enhancement measure is “practicable” and expressed concern that a regulatory authority could force an applicant to enact all enhancement measures. However, this standard was present in our previous regulations and commenters did not identify any situations in which a regulatory authority had abused its discretion with respect to whether an enhancement measure was practicable. Therefore, we have not defined “practicable” in response to these comments.
Commenters opined that it is inappropriate to allow enhancement measures distinct from the area to be disturbed by mining activities, especially if enhancement measures would take place in a location physically unconnected to the mine site. Allowing the regulatory authority the flexibility to approve enhancement measures in locations away from the disturbance area is necessary to fully realize the mandate in section 515(b)(24) of SMCRA to achieve enhancement of fish, wildlife, and related environmental values where practicable.
Commenters expressed concern with a perceived ambiguity of the phrase “natural succession” in proposed paragraph (d)(1)(iv), which is now final paragraph (d)(2)(iv), as it relates to the establishment or description of a native plant community. Commenters alleged that the term “natural succession” is too broad in concept and needs a specific definition. The commenters requested clarification of the term “natural succession” and an explanation of why use of the term is necessary. We disagree that natural succession is an ambiguous concept. Our final rule uses the term “natural succession” in the standard ecological context of that term, which means the predictable maturation of the native vegetative community over time. The references to natural succession are not a prescriptive mandate for one particular type of plant community. Instead, we use the term “natural succession” as an outcome-based requirement aimed at ensuring that the types of plant communities that are initially established allow for the predictable maturation of the site. When a site would typically mature to forest, it would be appropriate to establish native vegetation that will not impede that process.
One commenter suggested we promote the establishment of pollinator-friendly species as described within Presidential Memorandum “Creating a Federal Strategy to Promote the Health of Honey Bees and Other Pollinators.”
Some commenters also recommended we revise § 780.16(d)(2)(iv) and (v) as we have in the proposed rule at § 780.16(c)(6), which is now final § 780.16(c)(4), to allow non-native species to be used. We disagree. Because these paragraphs describe a choice of discretionary enhancement measures, they are appropriately more limited in scope than the requirements of final § 780.16(c)(4). While the use of non-native species may, at times, be necessary, it should not be considered an enhancement measure.
Another commenter sought clarification about how native forest and other native vegetation will be reestablished “both within and outside of the permit area” as stated in proposed paragraph (d)(1)(iv), which is now final paragraph (d)(2)(iv). The commenter asserted that this paragraph needed to be revised and limited to “areas within the permit area” that have been or will be disturbed by mining activities. We do not agree. This section provides optional measures to maximize opportunities to enhance restoration of native vegetation and natural wildlife habitat. Enhancement opportunities may arise within the permit boundary. However, where disturbance from mining may remove a significant portion of native forest or other native vegetation, it may be possible to look some distance outside of the disturbance area for opportunities to reestablish native vegetative cover during mining. The resulting benefits to species could be realized while mining was ongoing, thus offsetting some of the adverse impact on species caused by mining.
This particular commenter also asserted that mining companies cannot operate outside approved permit areas; thus, according to the commenter, any regulation that requires lands not disturbed by mining activities to be affected would be contrary to SMCRA's requirement to minimize disturbances. We do not agree. Some of these measures could be implemented off-permit without adding land to the permit area if the enhancement activity would involve de minimis disturbance, as described in proposed § 780.16(d)(3) and in final § 780.16(d)(4). If reestablishment of native vegetation would involve more than a de minimis disturbance, or if excluding lands from a permit area would restrict the regulatory authority's ability to inspect and confirm completion of a permit term, then these lands could be made part of the permit area in order to implement the planned enhancement.
Commenters stated that the enhancement measure at proposed paragraph (d)(1)(v), which is now final paragraph (d)(2)(v), involving the establishment of vegetative corridors at least 100 feet wide along each bank of
Commenters voiced concern that proposed § 780.16(d)(1)(v), which is now final § 780.16(d)(2)(v), was too inflexible in requiring that, if an enhancement measure involved creating a vegetative corridor for a stream that previously lacked such a buffer, the buffer zone had to be at least 100 feet wide. We agree with this concern and have modified this paragraph to provide additional flexibility. The regulation now states a preference, but not a requirement, for a minimum 100-foot corridor for such enhancement measures. For clarity, we have also revised this requirement to describe the enhancement as the creation of a corridor where there is no such corridor before mining but where a vegetative corridor typically would exist under natural conditions.
Another commenter was concerned that in the event extra material is needed to restore the 100-foot riparian zone and is stacked at the edge of the vegetative corridor, it could disrupt the mine operator's ability to restore the permit to approximate original contour or cropland use. The commenter did not provide an explanation as to why it may be necessary to stack extra material to create a vegetative corridor. However, regardless of the size of the hypothetical stack we do not anticipate this as an impediment to achieving approximate original contour. In the commenter's scenario the stacking would be temporary. Ultimately, the reclamation plan would require the material to be placed to achieve approximate original contour, establish the vegetative corridor consistent with this final rule, and the approved postmining land use. Accordingly, we have not modified the proposed rule in response to this comment.
Proposed paragraph (d)(1)(vii), which is now final paragraph (d)(2)(vii), was modified to specify that permanently fencing off perennial and intermittent streams, as well as wetlands, from livestock was also an appropriate enhancement measure. This change was made to address federal agency concerns about inclusion of wetlands (as discussed above) and to retain consistency with other parts of the final rule about promoting the protection of wetlands.
Final paragraph (d)(3), which we proposed as paragraph (d)(2), makes the use of enhancement measures mandatory where a proposed surface mining activity would result in the temporary or permanent loss of mature native forest or other native plant communities that cannot be restored fully before final bond release under §§ 800.40 through 800.43 of this chapter or permanent loss of a segment of a perennial or intermittent stream. Final paragraph (d)(3)(ii), which we proposed as paragraph (d)(2)(ii), requires that the enhancement measures be commensurate with the magnitude of the long-term adverse impacts of the proposed operation and, ideally, be permanent.
In the preamble discussion of proposed § 780.16(d)(2), which is now final paragraph (d)(3), we explained that “long-term” means that the permittee would not be able to correct the resource loss before expiration of the period of extended revegetation responsibility as prescribed in proposed § 816.115 and identified two examples of long-term loss: the removal of significant native forest cover and the burial of a perennial or intermittent stream segment by an excess spoil fill or coal mine waste disposal facility. We invited comment on whether there are other interpretations of “long-term” that we should consider. We received two comments in support of the proposed rule's preamble description of “long-term” and were offered no alternate definitions. We did, however, receive many comments requesting that we further clarify “long-term” within this section. In response to these comments we have revised this paragraph to clarify that “long-term” adverse impacts are either the permanent loss of wetlands, or segments of perennial or intermittent streams, or the temporary or permanent loss of mature native plant or forest communities that cannot be restored before bond release.
In the preamble discussion of proposed § 780.16(d)(2), which is now final § 780.16(d)(3), we also invited comment on whether the regulatory authority may consider mitigation measures approved under the authority of the Clean Water Act as satisfying the separate SMCRA requirement for mandatory enhancement measures. We received comments in support of allowing Clean Water Act mitigation to satisfy the requirement for fish and wildlife enhancement measures under this paragraph. Mitigation required under the Clean Water Act may satisfy the fish and wildlife enhancement requirement under the final rule to the extent that mitigation under the Clean Water Act requires actual on-site enhancement activities. Payments into a general fund, as opposed to payments or activities directed to improvement or preservation of a specific stream or site, would not be acceptable because the general fund may be used to finance enhancement projects outside the coalfields and because it would not be possible to determine whether the payment into a general mitigation fund would be commensurate with the magnitude of long-term adverse impacts as required under final paragraph (d)(3)(ii).
We received comments from federal agencies that wetlands should be included in proposed paragraph (d)(2)(i), which is now final paragraph (d)(3)(i)(B). We agree with this comment and have added wetlands to this paragraph.
We also invited comment on proposed § 780.16(d)(2)(ii), which is now final paragraph (d)(3)(ii), about whether our regulations should define “commensurate” in the context of “long-term” and, if so, how we should define that term. We received two comments in support of defining “commensurate,” but neither provided an example of a definition of that term. In light of the small number of affirmative responses and the fact that neither commenter provided any suggested definition, we do not believe that a definition is warranted. Instead, we have determined that the regulatory authority should have the flexibility to determine if the enhancement measures are commensurate to the magnitude of long-term adverse impacts of the proposed operation. Therefore, we are not adding a definition of “commensurate.”
Final paragraph (d)(3)(iii)(A) provides that enhancement measures to address a proposed operation with long term effects must be implemented within the same watershed if possible. Otherwise, enhancement measures must be implemented in the closest watershed available as long as it is approved by the regulatory authority. Some commenters requested that we require the term “watershed” to be applied in accordance with the Hydrologic Unit Code to provide boundaries for the
A few commenters also requested that we identify the approach to be used in identifying suitable surrogate enhancements in adjacent watersheds and specify the criteria for determining the equivalent size and cost of enhancement. Commenters also requested that we provide a mitigation hierarchy similar to the 2008 Compensatory Mitigation for Losses of Aquatic Resources.
One commenter requested we add language to proposed § 780.16(d)(2)(iii)(A), which is now final § 780.16(d)(3)(iii)(A), to specify that, on federal lands, proposed enhancement measures would have to comply with the Federal Land Policy and Management Act,
Proposed paragraph (d)(2)(iv) provided that the regulatory authority must include a condition in the approved permit that requires the completion of the enhancement measures for operations with anticipated long-term adverse impacts. We received a comment that this language seemed circular because we were essentially requiring insertion of a permit condition requiring the applicant to comply with conditions of the permit. Upon consideration of this comment, we agree and have deleted the paragraph.
Some commenters advocated removing proposed paragraph (d)(3), which is now final paragraph (d)(4), as inconsistent with SMCRA. Specifically, these commenters alleged that achievement of the enhancement requirements described in paragraph (d)(2) would always involve more than a de minimis disturbance of the surface land outside the area to be mined, and therefore would need to be placed within the permit. We do not agree that all enhancement measures would be considered more than a de minimis disturbance. In the final paragraph (d)(2), which we proposed as paragraph (d)(1), there are examples of enhancement measures that do not rise to the level of de minimis disturbance, such as establishing conservation easements or nest boxes for birds. Therefore, we have adopted final paragraph (d)(4) because it is important to allow small enhancement measures without the added burden of including those areas within the permit boundary.
Another concern voiced by commenters is that if there is more than a de minimis disturbance to the lands associated with these enhancement measures, the revegetation standards within the permit must be met on these lands associated with the enhancement measures. We agree that if there is more than a de minimis disturbance to the land, for any reason, the area would have to be permitted under SMCRA and revegetation standards would have to be met. However, we did not revise the rule in response to this concern because there are numerous enhancement measures that can be completed that would not require adding additional land to the permit area, such as creating rock piles of value to raptors and other wildlife for nesting and shelter.
Commenters also were concerned that the term “de minimis disturbance” is subjective and open to interpretation, and some commenters requested a definition of the term. We decline to define the term. Regulatory authorities are in the best position to determine what constitutes “de minimis disturbance” in each circumstance; therefore, a definition in these regulations is not necessary.
Some of the same commenters further alleged that the enhancement measures and the terms describing the enhancement measures as prescribed by proposed § 780.16(d)(3), now § 780.16(d)(2), were inconsistent with other requirements in the proposed rule. Specifically, the commenters expressed concern that the terms “proposed operation” and “area to be mined”, are not defined in our previous regulations or the proposed rule. We are not making any changes in response to these comments. The commenters did not identify the alleged inconsistencies and the two terms, “proposed operation” and “area to be mined” are used throughout SMCRA, our previous and existing regulations, and are generally accepted terms in the mining industry.
Similarly, several commenters stated that the enhancement option allowing the reclamation of “previously mined areas located outside the area that you propose to disturb” creates confusion as to whether activities related to the enhancement measures outside the mining area are considered a mining activity. Other commenters also expressed concern about a perceived inconsistency within proposed § 780.16(d)(2)(xi) and asked the following question: “[i]s [the area] `outside the area you propose to disturb' to be included within the proposed permit area?” We agree that this was confusing. Therefore, we have revised final § 780.16(d)(2)(xi) to prescribe, “[r]eclaiming previously mined areas located outside the area that you propose to disturb for coal extraction.” This revision more clearly reflects that this area is within the permit area and related to mining activity, but is not an area of the permit that is proposed to be disturbed by coal extraction.
Proposed §§ 779.20(d) and 780.16(e) contained substantively identical provisions regarding U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service review of the fish and wildlife resource information and the fish and wildlife protection and enhancement plan, respectively. The final rule consolidates proposed §§ 779.20(d) and 780.16(e) into final § 780.16(e), both to streamline the regulations and in response to a comment noting that the Service reviews baseline fish and wildlife resource information together with the fish and wildlife protection and enhancement plan, not separately.
We have modified paragraph (e) and other provisions of the final rule to reference the National Marine Fisheries Service because that agency, along with the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, shares responsibility for administration of the Endangered Species Act. This modification is necessary for accuracy and to clarify that, where applicable, such as in situations where anadromous fish or most species within a marine environment would be impacted, the regulatory authority must provide the
Final paragraph (e)(1)(i) requires the regulatory authority to provide both the protection and enhancement plan developed under this section and the resource information required under final § 779.20 to the appropriate regional or field office of the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service or to the National Marine Fisheries Service, as applicable, when that information includes species listed as threatened or endangered under the Endangered Species Act, critical habitat designated under that law, or species proposed for listing as threatened or endangered under that law. The regulatory authority must provide both the resource information and the protection and enhancement plan to the appropriate Service(s) no later than the time that it provides written notice of the permit application to governmental agencies under existing § 773.6(a)(3)(ii).
Several commenters supported this provision because it would ensure better coordination and sharing of information among the applicant, the regulatory authority, and the applicable Service early in the permitting process. Other commenters, however, were confused by these transmittal requirements, at least as they stood in the proposed rule where we had placed them in two separate sections. Proposed § 779.20(d)(1)(i) contained the requirement to transmit resource information to the Service(s) at the time the application is filed with the regulatory authority, while proposed § 780.16(e)(1)(i) contained the requirement to transmit the protection and enhancement plan. The commenters criticized us for creating redundant requirements, asserting that the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service review of baseline wildlife information in the permit application was an unnecessary step because § 780.16 already allowed the agency to review this information in connection with the fish and wildlife enhancement plan. In response to these comments, we consolidated the two provisions in final § 780.16(e)(1)(i).
Final paragraph (e)(1)(ii) is similar to our previous regulations, which allowed the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service to request fish and wildlife resource information and the fish and wildlife protection and enhancement plan submitted as part of a permit application when the information in those applications does not include species listed as threatened or endangered under the Endangered Species Act, critical habitat designated under that law, or species proposed for listing as threatened or endangered under that law. Under both the previous regulations and the final rule, the regulatory authority must provide that information to the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service within ten days of receipt of the request.
Proposed §§ 779.20(d)(2)(ii) through (iv) and 780.16(e)(2)(ii) through (iv) prescribed how the regulatory authority must handle comments received from the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service and how any disagreements must be resolved. These provisions mirrored the 1996 Biological Opinion
We have removed and reserved previous § 780.18. As discussed in the preamble to the proposed rule we have revised many aspects of previous § 780.18 and moved it to final rule § 780.12.
This section establishes the baseline information on hydrology, geology, and aquatic biology that is required to be contained within the permit application. We received many comments both supporting and objecting to this section; these comments are addressed below.
Several commenters addressed this section in its entirety. Of these commenters, some supported the revisions within the proposed rule that would require more extensive baseline data collection and found the revisions to be both attainable and prudent. In contrast, other commenters opposed the proposed revisions and requested that they be removed from the final rule. The commenters opposing the revisions generally considered the proposed baseline collection requirements to be too costly, not beneficial, duplicative of the Clean Water Act, in violation of section 702 of SMCRA,
One commenter suggested that we should require the applicant to monitor all baseline monitoring sites for all parameters throughout the life of the permit to ensure uniformity of the water-quality data; thus enhancing the ability to detect adverse impacts from the coal mining operation. We agree with the commenter that baseline monitoring sites need to be monitored throughout mining and reclamation. However, unlike the commenter, we recognize the need for flexibility;
A commenter commended us for requiring monthly collection of baseline samples as discussed in paragraphs (b)(6)(ii)(A) and (c)(4)(ii)(A), and excluding samples collected during abnormal hydrologic events. In contrast, however, many commenters thought collecting twelve monthly, evenly spaced, samples of groundwater and surface water was not necessary to establish seasonal variation and did nothing but add time to the permitting process and substantially increase costs. We disagree with this assertion. A study by the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency in 2001
We also modified the language of the paragraphs (b) and (c) concerning the use of the Palmer Drought Severity Index as a trigger to extend baseline sampling. The proposed rule contained a “+/− 3.0” standard. Several states provided an analysis of this standard for their respective states, which concluded that long periods of time existed during which daily or weekly Palmer Drought Severity Index exceeded +/− 3.0. The result of these analyses indicate that the time required under the proposed rule to collect baseline data would be extended for multiple years in order to meet that standard. In response, we have removed the reference to the Palmer Drought Severity Index in the context of extending the baseline data collection period.
Another commenter opined that we did not conduct a frequency analysis to determine the cost of collecting and analyzing the disqualified baseline data to the industry, or the uncertainty of the cost to a mining company to obtain permits in a timely manner. The change discussed above removes the need for us to analyze costs to industry for collecting and analyzing disqualified data and for extended permit processing time.
Certain paragraphs of the final rule, however, still require that the Palmer Drought Severity Index be noted during sample collection to give a sense of magnitude to precipitation deficits or surpluses. This notation will provide important context to the baseline data collected with regard to water quality and quantity. The final rule also provides discretion to the regulatory authority to extend the baseline sampling period to ensure that the baseline data collected at the site is representative of the premining hydrology in the area if National Oceanic Atmospheric Administration, or other atmospheric databases, including the Palmer Drought Severity Index, indicate weather conditions were highly unusual during the baseline sampling period.
A commenter asserted that the proposed rule does not specify how all samples will be collected and analyzed or identify appropriate analytic methods. We have not altered the final rule in response to this comment because it is inappropriate to provide more than a framework from which to collect baseline samples due to the wide variety of standardized methods available to collect and analyze water. Commenters also claimed that we should allow the use of statistical methods and qualitative assessments to establish watershed baseline conditions. Qualitative assessments do not satisfy the intent of establishing the baseline conditions in a watershed. Instead of conducting a qualitative assessment to establish the baseline conditions in a watershed, it is important to collect actual baseline data for the permit. However, the final rule allows regulatory discretion in determining the statistical methods used to assess the baseline data collected for the permit application.
In paragraph (a)(1), we are finalizing the requirements for the baseline information on hydrology, geology, and aquatic biology that must be included within a permit application. We proposed that this information be provided in “sufficient detail” to assist the applicant in developing valid probable hydrologic consequences conclusions and to help the regulatory authority make certain hydrologic determinations. Several commenters requested that we clarify the meaning of “sufficient detail” or otherwise provide specific guidance to ensure consistency in the permitting process. A definition is unnecessary. Section 780.20, “How must I prepare the determination of the probable hydrologic consequences of my proposed operation?”, describes the objective of this part, which is to ensure that the permit applicant provides the regulatory authority with comprehensive and reliable information on how it proposes to conduct surface mining activities and reclaim the disturbed area in compliance with the Act, this chapter, and the regulatory program. Therefore, each regulatory authority is in the best position to provide guidance on what constitutes “sufficient detail” to meet that program's requirements.
One commenter alleged that we failed to define “probable” in § 780.19(a)(1) and should provide a definition or further elaborate on what is sufficient to satisfy the probable hydrologic consequences of the operation. Webster's dictionary defines probable as “likely to happen or to be true but not certain.”
Several commenters expressed concern about the ability to acquire landowner permission for sampling in the adjacent area for baseline or monitoring purposes. We are aware of this concern, but it has been an issue since SMCRA was passed and has been successfully navigated for the past 35 years. Furthermore, the regulatory authority has the latitude to modify sampling locations when landowner access is problematic.
Several commenters were opposed to proposed paragraph (a)(4), now paragraph (a)(1)(iv), which would have required baseline information in sufficient detail to assist the regulatory authority in preparing the cumulative hydrologic impact assessment. As
In response to many of the general comments outlined above, we have made changes to the baseline data collection requirements. Significantly, we have removed six parameters that we proposed to have operators collect and analyze in surface water and groundwater—ammonia, arsenic, cadmium, copper, nitrogen, and zinc.
A number of commenters suggested various parameters be added or deleted from the baseline data collection list found in proposed § 780.19.
Several commenters suggested the cation-anion balance requirement should be removed from the parameter list unless laboratory data is suspected to be inaccurate. The cation-anion ratio is a measure of the electrical neutrality of the water sample. To achieve electrical neutrality, the sum total of the negatively charged particles (anions) must equal the sum of the positively charged particles (cations). When the two are approximately equal, two things are evident—no ions with substantive concentrations are missing from the sample and the analysis is accurate. Analyzing just the major cations and anions will not usually result in exact proportions of positive and negative ions because not every ion is analyzed. When the ratio is not within approximately 10%, it indicates that either the analysis is flawed by under or over-reporting the ionic content of a particular ion or an ion constituting a significant portion of the water sample is missing. For either reason, the cation-anion balance is a quick, easy, and inexpensive method of performing quality assurance and quality control of the water sample. For these reasons, we have retained the cation-anion balance requirement. We also note that most labs report this ratio when the major cations and anions are analyzed.
A commenter suggested that the preamble discuss the differences in how variations in selenium speciation impacts aquatic life. Selenium speciation refers to the different forms of selenium (elemental, selenate, selenite, and selenide). A fact sheet from the California Resources Agency provides a concise summary, which we paraphrase here.
Despite these differences in selenium speciation, we find no need to revise the proposed rule in response to this comment. Like the proposed rule, the final rule at § 780.19(b) requires baseline data on total and dissolved selenium in surface water and the dissolved fraction in groundwater. Other provisions of § 780.19 require detailed baseline information on geology, including geochemistry. This combination should be adequate for the applicant to prepare a probable hydrologic consequences determination, as discussed in § 780.20, that predicts the impact of the proposed operation on levels of selenium and other parameters in surface water and a hydrologic reclamation plan, as discussed in § 780.22, that explains how the applicant will address adverse impacts and prevent material damage outside the permit area. The regulatory authority must independently prepare a cumulative hydrologic impact assessment of whether the proposed operation would cause material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area in conformity with § 780.21.
Several commenters suggested that we require testing for dissolved analytes instead of total analytes for groundwater. We agreed with the suggestions because under ideal conditions (proper well construction, well development, and groundwater sampling procedures) field-filtered groundwater samples (dissolved) should yield identical metal concentrations when compared to unfiltered groundwater samples;
One commenter suggested that, when evaluating stream function, more than flow data should be collected. The commenter further opined that the baseline data collection should include an evaluation of the premining hydrological regime and the material composition of stream beds, flow patterns, water chemistry, and surface water temperature. We agree, however, all of these requirements, except temperature, are addressed in the proposed rule that we are finalizing today at paragraph (c)(6)(iii)(A) and § 784.19(c)(6)(i)(A). The omission of water temperature from paragraph (c)(6)(iii)(A) and § 784.19(c)(6)(i)(A) was an oversight. It is important to require water temperature measurements for all water-quality samples because water temperature influences biological activity and water chemistry. Based on the commenter's suggestion, we have revised the parameters in paragraph (a)(2) of this section to include temperature within the baseline data collection requirements for surface water and groundwater.
Several commenters raised concerns with § 780.19(b)(2) about baseline collection requirements when an underground mine is present within the permit or adjacent area. One commenter asserted that the need for the requirement was too narrow and that this change lacked justification. Another commenter thought sampling all mine works within 500 feet of the proposed operation should be sufficient. We disagree with both of these comments. Both the regulatory authority and the applicant need to understand the spatial and temporal relationships of adjacent and/or overlying mine works. Both entities need to analyze water quality and quantity data regarding underground mine pools in areas adjacent to proposed permitting actions; especially if the mine works are hydrologically connected to the proposed permitted area. This information and data are necessary for the applicant to analyze the probable hydrologic consequences and for the regulatory authority to develop the cumulative hydrologic impact assessment. We note, however, that the applicant is not required to undertake the sampling unless the regulatory authority finds that a hydrologic connection exists between the adjacent or overlying underground mine and the proposed operation. When permitting an operation that may hydrologically impact an adjacent underground mine pool, there is no justification for ignoring that connection. Hydrologically connected underground mine pools may result in the need for treatment facilities because the water quality in those mine pools may affect the proposed operation and may also pose significant environmental and safety concerns if the new operation causes problems due to underground openings that are flooded or gas-filled.
In proposed paragraph (b)(2), we required an assessment of the characteristics of underground mine pools present in the permit area and stated that the determination of the probable hydrologic consequences required under § 780.20 must include a discussion of the effect of the proposed mining operation on “any” underground mine pools within the proposed permit and adjacent areas. One commenter objected to the unilateral treatment of underground mine pools. The commenter argued that mine pools below drainage elevation have a low chance or historic incidence of impacting surface hydrology. Thus, the commenter alleged that applying this provision to mine pools below drainage elevation would add effort and expense with limited to no environmental benefits. We decline to make modifications based on this comment for several reasons. First, all underground mine pools are part of a hydrologic system whether there classified as above drainage or below drainage.
Another commenter alleged that we provided no details on the methods that the applicant should use to assess seasonal changes in quality, quantity, and flow patterns in a given mine pool. They also asserted that we provided no information about how the applicant should demonstrate that the mine pool is or is not physically connected to the proposed operation. Details on assessing seasonal changes and associated methodology are best left to the discretion of the regulatory authority. Industry and the technical reviewers
Several commenters suggested that the “modeling” we specified for predicting mine pools has not yet been developed or validated for most mining regions and therefore is not practicable. We disagree with these comments. Modeling is a broad term and incorporates the entire range of models from simple mathematical models to complex numerical models. We are not prescribing the exact modeling methods to be used; the regulatory authority has discretion to make this determination on the level of detail required.
Related to paragraph (b)(3), “[m]onitoring wells,” several commenters suggested we remove the phrase “when necessary” from §§ 780.19(b)(3) and 784.19(b)(3) with respect to when an applicant must install monitoring wells to document seasonal groundwater variation. We agree with the commenter and have made this change because the information is necessary to determine groundwater movement of parameters to down gradient water bodies and to be able to evaluate impacts to groundwater quantity and quality as a result of the mining operation.
Several commenters suggested that groundwater quantity measurements required in paragraph (b)(5) for each coal seam and aquifer are not necessary to establish baseline characterization and did nothing but add additional cost. Another commenter asserted that installation of up and down gradient monitoring wells, as required by paragraph (b)(6), is not necessary because it adds unnecessary time and cost to the permitting process and should be left to the discretion of the regulatory authority. We disagree with these comments. Groundwater levels can change over relatively large areas as the result of surface and underground coal mining. Changes in groundwater levels can affect groundwater flow direction, travel times, and water quality, potentially resulting in adverse impacts to the hydrology within and outside the permit area. Without adequate monitoring in place, it becomes significantly harder to do the evaluation and to correct the problem before it becomes more widespread.
A commenter opined that the groundwater data that we proposed to require in paragraph (b)(5) is insufficient to establish groundwater quantity and that groundwater discharge rates or usage rates as required in this section do not represent groundwater quantity. The commenter asserted that the direction of groundwater flow (horizontally and vertically) requires elevation data, not just depth to water data. We agree and have modified the final rule text requiring elevation data for water table surfaces and potentiometric head surfaces. The same commenter asserted that to determine the quantity of groundwater, an operator would need information on the geometry of the aquifer (area times saturated thickness). The commenter suggested that we require information on the areal extent of aquifers and saturated thickness. We agree with the commenter and have revised the final rule text to require that the applicant determine the areal extent and thickness of aquifers. Although we agree with the commenter that groundwater discharge rates or usage rates do not represent groundwater quantity, we have retained the requirement for this information in the final rule because it is closely associated with groundwater quantity.
Several commenters objected to the use of the term “water bearing stratum” in proposed paragraph (b)(5). In response, we have changed the term “water bearing stratum” to “aquifer” in recognition of commenters' concern that, as proposed, this provision might have been misinterpreted to include water contained in rock units that do not sufficiently supply water in usable quantities. The term “aquifer” is used in hydrogeology to denote water bearing units with properties to yield water in economic quantities sufficient to supply domestic or public water wells. We are aware of the use of perched aquifer systems in many states, and this terminology change helps satisfy the commenter's concern and affords users of these systems the sampling, monitoring, and protections found in the revised regulations.
One commenter opposed our limits on using extrapolated measurements to determine seasonal variations in groundwater and surface water quality. Like the proposed rule, the final rule does not allow extrapolated data to be used because based on our past experience, extrapolating data is not a reliably accurate method to document and describe seasonal variations in chemical parameters. Because seasonal variations can be significant, we require collection of this data.
One commenter stated that the requirements related to the frequency and duration of data collection and requirement for the geographic distribution of wells in proposed, and now final paragraph (b)(6), are welcome additions to the groundwater characterization requirements.
Several commenters suggested that groundwater quality does not change much over the course of a month or a year; therefore, twelve monthly samples should not be required. We agree and have revised the final rule by adding paragraph (b)(6)(ii)(C), which affords the regulatory authority discretion to grant the applicant an option to collect eight samples spread over two years with certain conditions. Specifically, the regulatory authority may initiate review of the permit application after collection and analysis of the first four quarterly groundwater samples, but it may not approve the application until after receipt and analysis of the final four quarterly groundwater samples. We are allowing regulatory authority to start reviewing the application because the likelihood of the groundwater data substantially changing during the final four quarters is low due to typically slow groundwater travel times.
One commenter expressed concern with proposed paragraph (c)(2)(xix) relating to surface water quality descriptions, which would have required baseline information for any parameter added to a National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System permit. The commenter indicated that this requirement would cause unnecessary delays to the SMCRA permit review process because the National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System permit is often not obtained until later in the SMCRA permitting process, which could require the applicant to redo the baseline collection data. We agree and have revised the rule to clarify that the National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System parameter requirement would apply only when those parameters are known at the time of permit application. This change should ensure that there are no unnecessary permitting delays as a result of this requirement.
One commenter noted that the requirements in proposed paragraph (c)(3)(i) referring to ephemeral streams contradicted with the requirements in proposed paragraph (c)(4)(i). In proposed paragraph (c)(3)(i), we specified that the applicant provide
One commenter suggested that the proposed rule should be modified to continue to allow well-accepted, standardized, flow measurement methods. We agree; the final rule does allow-generally accepted methods, but does not allow visual flow estimates for the reasons discussed above. Another commenter opined that not allowing visual flow measurements would create conflict with the requirements of agencies that do allow visual flow measurements. Because visual observations are not acceptable under the final rule, there should be no conflict. Non-SMCRA agencies that accept visual flow measurements can continue to do so even if our requirements are more rigorous. Another commenter suggested we add language pertaining to peer-reviewed citations to document the flow measurement method chosen. This is not necessary because the regulatory authority can decide the generally-accepted measured flow method it prefers and require whatever documentation necessary to substantiate the flow measurement method.
A few commenters remarked that we did not fully consider the burdensome costs to industry of implementing the proposed requirements in 780.19(c)(3)(i)(A) about measuring and analyzing peak flow. We agree with the commenters that the costs of measuring and analyzing peak flow magnitude and frequency were not fully considered, but we have corrected that omission in the RIA and addressed it in the preamble discussion of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, below. However, we do not agree with the commenters that the additional costs to obtain this data would pose an unrealistic burden and thus should be eliminated. The data collected as part of final paragraph (c)(3)(i)(A) will help establish a surface water flow baseline that industry and the regulatory authority can use to better assess the impacts of mining and the effectiveness of reclamation.
One commenter claimed that the regulations are overbroad in that they require upgradient and down gradient baseline sampling points on all intermittent and perennial streams even if impacts are not probable. The regulations at paragraph (c)(4)(i)(A) require baseline characterization on all intermittent and perennial streams on and adjacent to the permitted area. This information is not overbroad because it is vital to help the applicant and regulatory authority to understand the surface water system, provide context and data for the probable hydrologic consequence determination, hydrologic reclamation plan, and cumulative hydrologic impact assessment analysis, and to protect both the operator and regulatory authority in the event of a non-mining related impact in the surface water system on or adjacent to the permitted area. The commenter also requested that we provide greater clarity to the word “potentially” in the context of monitoring on potentially affected streams. Potentially affected streams are all streams capable of receiving mine water from the permitted site and streams undermined by an underground mining operation. In underground mining operations, the regulation also requires sampling all streams within a reasonable angle of de-watering as provided in the definition at § 701.5.
With regard to paragraph (c)(4)(i)(B), a commenter suggested that we specify the number of sampling locations that qualify as a representative number when sampling ephemeral streams and other commenters requested more guidance on who determines the “representative sample of ephemeral streams.” We decline to prescribe the number of representative samples that adequately characterize ephemeral streams, hydrology, and biology and instead rely on the applicant and regulatory authority to decide the density of sampling on ephemeral streams. It is within the regulatory authority's discretion to determine what constitutes a representative sample of ephemeral streams in order to ensure the permit application contains “sufficient detail” about the hydrology, geology, and aquatic biology as required by paragraph (a). We also decline a request from a commenter to prescribe what “sufficient detail” means in this context. The regulatory authority is in the best position to determine whether a permit application contains sufficient detail about hydrology, geology, and aquatic biology for it to process the application.
Another commenter suggested ephemeral stream sampling for twelve consecutive months was not possible because ephemeral streams only flow in response to precipitation events. We agree with the comment and have added language in several places to clearly indicate a zero flow event is a valid flow observation. The commenter also recommended daily measurements of intermittent and perennial streams in the proposed and adjacent areas to separate seasonal and event-generated variations. We are declining to require daily flow measurements but sufficient discretion exists within the rule for regulatory authorities to require daily flow measurements when they deem it necessary to characterize baseline conditions.
Several commenters favored the increased monitoring requirements and went further to suggest that twenty-four months of data should be collected, analyzed, and submitted for permit application review. We decline to require twenty-four months of data because of the statistical validity offered by twelve months of evenly spaced data, as discussed above. However, the regulatory authority does have the latitude to require as much additional baseline data as necessary to adequately characterize baseline.
A commenter opined that the requirements outlined in proposed
We received many comments about the requirement in paragraph (c)(5) for self-recording devices to measure precipitation. Most commenters alleged the devices were prone to maintenance problems, that they were not practical on large mine sites, and/or that adequate measurements could be obtained from other sources. The final rule still requires these devices because variations in precipitation can occur over relatively small areas. For example at large mine sites, the operator might need more than one recording device to ensure that precipitation events are recorded adequately at the mine site. The commenters' concern over maintenance is an issue that can be addressed when the operator is choosing a self-recording device to measure precipitation. There are many types of self-recording devices to measure precipitation on the market and not all have the same issues with maintenance. Any mechanical device left in the environment is prone to some maintenance issues, but operators can minimize these issues by choosing a device that best fits their site. Similarly, a commenter asked for clarification surrounding use and validity of hydrologic models generated by precipitation records. The final rule text at paragraph (c)(5)(ii) is clear and provides the regulatory authority with discretion to determine if a hydrologic model is necessary, and, if so, the regulatory authority can decide the accuracy and validity of the model results. Another commenter suggested that the final rule should not require a precipitation recording device at each permitted area. The commenter suggested that several “permit areas” can be in very close proximity to one another resulting in redundant data collection. We agree and have added paragraph (c)(5)(iii) in the final rule to allow close proximity permitted areas to share a precipitation recording device. However, it is important to note, as we mention above, that because precipitation can vary significantly across relatively small areas, the regulatory authority should carefully consider exercising this discretion because a precipitation recording device located nearby will not always provide accurate data for the precipitation event at the mine site.
We received numerous comments, both supporting and objecting to the scope and scale of our proposed stream assessment requirements in §§ 780.19(c)(6) and 780.19(e), especially as they related to the following requirements: Sampling of macroinvertebrate populations within all streams; ephemeral stream baseline sampling; and detailed descriptions of stream channel and streamside vegetation requirements for streams in the adjacent area. Commenters asked how that information would be useful in designing the mining and reclamation plan or in the context of other SMCRA regulatory program requirements. Some commenters recommended requiring data for only a representative sample of all streams, rather than for each stream. Further, we received other comments on a variety of topics. All of these comments are addressed below.
In the final rule, we have consolidated all stream assessment requirements in § 780.19(c)(6) by merging proposed paragraphs (c)(6) and (e). Comments relevant to proposed paragraph (e) are addressed in this section. In addition to consolidating the paragraphs, we have carefully reevaluated each component of the proposed rule concerning stream assessments. The final rule retains only those components that add value to the permitting process and that have utility in the context of SMCRA regulatory programs. However, for the most part, we have not adopted the suggestion to require data only for a representative sample of streams. Each stream is unique in terms of configuration, vegetation, and aquatic life. Therefore, it is important to include data specific to each stream in the permit application. The following table summarizes how we revised the data requirements from the proposed rule to the final rule.
The language contained in the introductory text of proposed paragraph (c)(6) has been revised and is included as part of final paragraphs (c)(6)(i) and (ii). Final paragraph (c)(6)(i), now requires the applicant to map and separately identify all perennial, intermittent, and ephemeral stream segments within the proposed permit area and all perennial and intermittent stream segments within the adjacent area. In the proposed rule, these requirements would have extended to ephemeral streams adjacent to the permit area as well, but this requirement has been eliminated in the final rule because we have determined that the data collected from adjacent ephemeral streams would serve no useful purpose within a SMCRA permit as there are no performance standards or reclamation requirements pertinent to ephemeral streams in adjacent areas. That is not the case for ephemeral streams within the proposed permit area because final rule §§ 780.27 and 816.56 establish permitting and reclamation requirements that apply when mining in or through an ephemeral stream. For the purposes of clarity and continuity, proposed paragraph (c)(6)(iv) has been moved to final paragraph (c)(6)(i)(B), and proposed paragraph (c)(6)(v) has been moved to final rule (c)(6)(i)(C). In final paragraph (c)(6)(i)(C), we have also clarified that any map of streams must be consistent with any U.S. Army Corps of Engineers determination of the locations of transition points from ephemeral to intermittent and from intermittent to perennial streams, and vice versa, when applicable, to the extent such a determination exists.
In final paragraph (c)(6)(ii) we begin to explain the substantive stream assessment requirements. This paragraph was located in the proposed rule at 780.19(c)(6)(i). Some commenters opposed the proposed rule because many of the requirements were inapplicable to ephemeral streams. In response, we have divided this portion of the rule into two separate categories—perennial and intermittent streams, and ephemeral streams. For perennial and intermittent streams, final paragraph (c)(6)(ii)(A) requires the same amount of information as in the proposed rule; however, because this type of information is not easily attainable and would not be useful within these final regulations, we have now excluded ephemeral streams from these requirements. Now, in final paragraph (c)(6)(ii)(B), we require only a description of the general stream-channel configuration of ephemeral streams within the proposed permit area.
In response to comments claiming this portion of the rule was confusing when it referred to “riparian zone” vegetation, the requirements within proposed rule paragraphs (c)(6)(ii) and (vi), now final paragraphs (c)(6)(iii) and (iv), have been revised for clarity. First, final paragraph (c)(6)(iii) now specifies the types of vegetation that we were referring to when we proposed to require a description of “riparian zone vegetation”. Specifically, in the final rule, we have changed “riparian zone vegetation” to “vegetation growing along the banks of each stream” and “percentage of the riparian zone that is forested” to “[t]he extent to which streamside vegetation consists of trees and shrubs”. Second, final paragraph (c)(6)(iv) now states that “[y]ou must identify the parameters responsible for the impaired condition and the total maximum daily loads associated with those parameters, when applicable.” This language is clearer than the general reference to stressors in the proposed rule, as this has been replaced with identification of the parameters that cause the impaired condition.
We have also made a substantive change to final paragraph (c)(6)(iii) by adding an additional requirement—a scientific calculation of the species diversity of the vegetation. This addition was made in response to comments from other federal agencies that stated it will assist the regulatory authority in documenting baseline conditions with an appropriate level of detail and better ensure restoration of any streamside vegetative corridors damaged or destroyed by mining in or near streams. We agree and have modified the final rule accordingly.
Many commenters raised concerns about the data we are requiring in final paragraphs (c)(6)(ii) and (iii). Some commenters recommended that we identify specific methodologies that would be used to gather these data required in the final rule within
Final paragraph (c)(6)(v) has been modified to include a requirement for assessing the extent and quality of streamside wetlands. This requirement applies to all perennial, intermittent, and ephemeral streams within the proposed permit area and for all perennial and intermittent streams within the adjacent area, and it requires the identification of the extent of wetlands adjoining streams and a description of the quality of those wetlands. We added this paragraph in response to comments from other federal agencies that recommended additional protections for wetlands in the final rule because wetlands have vegetation not normally associated with other types of habitat. This change will assist regulatory authorities in documenting baseline conditions with an appropriate level of detail in order to better ensure restoration of any wetlands damaged or destroyed by mining in or near streams. This assessment requirement is consistent with 515(b)(19) of SMCRA
In the proposed rule, paragraph (e) contained the requirements related to the assessment of the biological condition of streams. In the final rule, we revised these requirements and moved them to paragraphs (c)(6)(vi) and (vii). As finalized, an assessment of the biological condition is required for each perennial stream within the proposed permit area and within the adjacent area that could be affected by the proposed operation. For intermittent streams, the biological condition assessment requirements apply to each intermittent stream within the proposed permit area and within the adjacent area that could be affected by the proposed operation, but only if a scientifically defensible bioassessment protocol has been established to assess intermittent streams in the state or region in which the stream is located. Under the rule finalized today, we have eliminated the requirement to assess the biological condition of all ephemeral streams and those intermittent streams in states or regions in which there are no established scientifically defensible bioassessment protocols available; these changes will be discussed in more detail below.
Many commenters opposed the proposed requirements for assessing biological condition because of the alleged limited applicability of these provisions within semi-arid and arid regions. As support, these commenters noted that the preamble to the proposed rule only discusses evidence supporting these requirements with examples from West Virginia and other areas with 26 or more inches of average precipitation per year. In addition, the proposed rule required the use of a bioassessment protocol for all stream types, which many commenters alleged would have very little value because of a lack of baseline studies to use as a reference. They also noted that natural stream conditions are highly variable in arid and semi-arid areas both aerially and from stream to stream, and this makes it difficult to determine a mine's impacts on the biological condition of streams.
We agree with these commenters in part and, as discussed below, have removed provisions requiring the determination of the biological condition of all ephemeral streams and those intermittent streams without established scientifically defensible bioassessment protocols within the state or region where the proposed mining will occur. However, we disagree with these commenters in other respects. Arid and semi-arid states across the United States have scientifically defensible bioassessment protocols for perennial streams and/or intermittent streams that have been established by Clean Water Act authorities and these protocols consider geographic and annual variation of macroinvertebrate populations. In their comments, several SMCRA regulatory authorities in the western states provided evidence of rigorous protocols for determining the biological condition of perennial streams that are already in place.
One commenter requested we remove all bioassessment protocols because streams were already being reclaimed successfully. We disagree. There are documented instances of streams adversely affected by mining across the United States. In addition, these baseline assessments are not solely designed to monitor the reclamation of streams, but also to monitor streams that are not approved for disturbance but may be impacted by the operation. Across all coal bearing regions, since the approval of state run regulatory authorities, examples of surface water impacts have been identified.
Some commenters also recommended that we eliminate the requirement for bioassessments of every perennial stream potentially affected by the proposed operation. These commenters suggested we use a representative stream sample or solely streams from adjacent areas, which they claim would suffice to assess baseline condition and monitor reclamation within the proposed permit. We disagree. First, because offsite impacts are to be avoided or minimized when they do occur, all streams within the influence of the operation need an appropriate level of knowledge specific to each stream to be able to comprehensively measure these offsite impacts (if they occur). And because these offsite impacts may encompass many different types of effects (
Another reason the commenters offered for deleting these mandatory bioassessments was that these bioassessment protocols have historically been conducted for a different purpose: As part of a suite of metrics (
One commenter requested that we address whether the biological assessments currently employed for Clean Water Act section 404
Commenters also voiced concern over the quality control that the regulatory authority would use for these bioassessments. These commenters indicated that strict quality controls to accurately determine the perennial stream condition would be difficult to execute and requested that the regulatory authority be provided discretion to either modify or eliminate bioassessment protocols. One commenter specified that the regulatory authority should be able to use its discretion to grant waivers of this requirement to protect the safety of the individuals performing the studies. We disagree that quality control for these bioassessments would be too difficult to execute. We also decline to make these bioassessments optional. These bioassessment protocols, both at the state and federal level are designed to address quality control throughout the design, data collection, and analysis phases. These protocols were developed specifically to consider the safety of those performing the protocols and we anticipate that the bioassessments will be conducted consistent with the safety of those performing the assessments. If a state protocol is not available that includes these quality and safety procedures, the “National Rivers and Streams Assessment 2013/2014 Field Operations Manual for Wadeable Streams” includes quality assurance measures in field and laboratory design and operations and statistical analysis techniques to provide comprehensive data integrity. This protocol also includes a section that describes the recommended training, communications, safety considerations, safety equipment and facilities, and safety guidelines for field operations. This protocol addresses quality assurance and quality control issues and is valid throughout the 48 conterminous states; therefore, it may be used to assess and monitor SMCRA-permitted operations. Final § 780.19(c)(6)(vii)(E) includes a requirement to describe the technical elements of the bioassessment protocol, including, but not limited to sampling methods, sampling gear, index period, sample processing and analysis, and quality assurance/quality control procedures; an appropriate, scientifically defensible bioassessment would have this information readily available.
Commenters also expressed concern with the proposed rule's reliance on the information created by the bioassessments. Specifically, they noted that the proposed rule did not account for changes in biodiversity of a perennial stream or other surface waters caused by outside sources during the life of the permit. We disagree. Final § 780.19(c)(4)(i) requires sampling upgradient and downgradient of the proposed permit area in each perennial and intermittent stream within the proposed permit and adjacent areas. This sampling array will account for potential effects from outside sources. In addition, the protocols and indices we are requiring have been established while considering natural spatial and annual variation. Determining the effects of human activity in streams involves the establishment of reference streams and conditions. This process includes the sampling of aquatic biota and the habitat (
Several commenters opposed our use of bioassessment indices as one way to describe ecological function. They noted that well-respected aquatic ecologists, including one ecologist we have cited and relied upon within the proposed rule, have not been able to agree on metrics of ecological function in stream networks, let alone on the ability to restore them. As one example, commenters referred to the Maryland Stream Restoration Association, and these commenters asserted that this association has not yet agreed on such metrics for streams in the Appalachian counties of Maryland. We attempted to corroborate the commenters' assertion, but we could not find a source for this disagreement on the metrics for the Appalachian counties of Maryland. We did, however, discover that the official Web site of the Maryland Stream Restoration Association includes at least one reference to a protocol for adequate stream restoration within the Chesapeake Bay watershed, which includes many references and examples of using biological indices to measure ecological function on restoration projects.
Several commenters stated that there are other scientifically defensible bioassessment protocols that could be
Many commenters supported biological condition assessments for all streams and other commenters supported only including them for intermittent and perennial streams. As a result of comments we received and our reanalysis of the proposed rule's biological condition requirements, we removed the provisions of proposed paragraph (e) that would have assessed the biological condition of all intermittent streams and a representative sample of ephemeral streams in those states or regions in which there are currently no established scientifically defensible bioassessment protocols available. For all intermittent and some representative number of ephemeral streams, the proposed rule would have required adherence to a multimetric bioassessment protocol.
Therefore, we did not include these requirements in the final rule. However, these intermittent and ephemeral streams represent a large proportion of the stream lengths within watersheds, especially in semi-arid and arid environments, and need to be assessed with a degree of scientific rigor. Current science provides examples of watershed management and resource protection only having limited success if non-perennial streams are excluded from assessments and reclamation activities.
In addition to the requirements of final paragraphs (c)(6)(ii) and (ii), final paragraph (c)(6)(viii) requires, at the time of application, a description of the results of a one-time sampling of the aquatic biota of each intermittent stream segment in states or regions in which there are no established bioassessment protocols available. Final paragraph (viii) requires that these one-time sampling events use a sampling method or protocol established or endorsed by an agency responsible for implementing the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1251
Other commenters requested we include an addition to the rule that requires a strict adherence to the approved bioassessment protocol (
We received support for the identification of macroinvertebrates to the genus level within proposed paragraph (e)(2)(i), now included within final paragraphs (c)(6)(vii)(A) and (c)(6)(viii)(B), along with an assessment of every stream segment potentially affected by the permit. However, one commenter wanted us to specifically mention the limitations of these methods for assessing impacts to species sensitive to water-quality degradation, including federally-listed threatened and endangered species. Several supporters of the proposed rule also requested we require more sampling. For example, commenters suggested sampling fish to the species level, bird surveys, and hyporheic zone assessments in addition to macroinvertebrate data collection. Final paragraph (c)(6) sets out the minimum sampling requirements. We decline to add other requirements. The regulatory authority always has the discretion to require additional measures as appropriate to their region or to the particular permit under consideration.
Other commenters opposed the requirement in final paragraph (c)(viii)(A) to identify macroinvertebrates to the genus level. These commenters alleged that such a requirement is unnecessary, too expensive, and family level identification is preferred and already performing adequately. We disagree. While genus-level identifications are more expensive to process than family-level identifications, they are also the best technology currently available and allow for increased specificity, or degree of detail, of the biology that exists in streams. Further, most scientifically defensible protocols now require genus-level identification in their bioassessments when possible. Also, many studies show that genus-level identification provides both a greater degree of confidence on the condition of streams and a certain degree of knowledge about what types of stressors are affecting streams if they are undergoing stress. In the vast majority of situations, these genus-level identification tools, when compared to family level identification tools, detect smaller differences in water quality and are therefore preferred, not only for assessment purposes but for monitoring
One commenter opposed our use of extrapolated measurements within the bioassessment protocols. This commenter opposed these by stating that in other sections of the proposed rule we will no longer allow extrapolated data because our past experience indicates that extrapolation is not a reliably accurate method to document and describe seasonal variation in chemical parameters; therefore this rule should be consistent and not use an extrapolated biological index value based on arbitrarily developed correlation methods to establish a standard for reclamation success. We disagree. We have experienced inaccuracies and other problems with the extrapolation of seasonal variation in chemical parameters while gathering baseline data and it is an established problem, while the extrapolation of biological condition data is a standard that has been produced and replicated within scientifically defensible bioassessment protocols.
A regulatory authority commenter indicated that the requirement in proposed paragraph (e)(2), now final paragraph (c)(6)(vii), to use a bioassessment method that is approved by the state Clean Water Act regulatory authority appears to be in direct conflict with the state's water quality laws and standards. The commenter opined that this requirement places an additional burden on the state regulatory authority to review, approve, and validate bioassessment protocols when a state may not have or use numerical bioassessment methods. We disagree. This requirement harmonizes a state's Clean Water Act bioassessment methods and the SMCRA requirements found in paragraph (c). Moreover, final paragraph (c)(6)(vii) requires applicants to use either a method approved by the state Clean Water Act authority or “other scientifically-defensible bioassessment protocols accepted by agencies responsible for implementing the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1251
The commenter also maintained that the use of bioassessments and correlation index values are not reasonable for isolated locations in streams that have highly variable flow conditions. In response, we note that requirement for biological condition data in paragraph (c)(6) only applies to (1) all perennial streams and (2) any intermittent streams in a state or region with a scientifically defensible bioassessment method. If no bioassessment methods exist for intermittent streams, then the requirements to obtain biological condition data included in paragraph (c)(6) applies only to perennial streams on the permitted and adjacent area. We are also not aware of any type of situation the commenter describes in which hydrologic conditions are limited to such a small area and to such few streams that development of biological and correlation index values is precluded.
We sought comments within the proposed rule at 780.19(e) on the effectiveness of using index scores from bioassessment protocols to ascertain impacts on existing, reasonably foreseeable, or designated uses. Many commenters supported their use while many claimed they were not effective. We also invited commenters to suggest other approaches that may be equally or more effective. We received several suggestions, including: Solely qualitative measures; yield in pounds per acre, percent groundcover, stems per acre, diameter at breast height, livestock average daily gains, and species frequency; a standard that simply says that there is no material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area if there is no change in designated use of the receiving stream as described by the Clean Water Act regulatory authority attributable to surface coal mining; Water Quality Standards and Physical Habitat scoring are both more dependable measures with replicable results that are not subject to as many variables both in the environment and sample methodology; standardized qualitative assessments for intermittent streams; premining and postmining qualitative biological and habitat assessments made at the appropriate time to determine if and where macroinvertebrates, fish, or amphibians are present in intermittent streams. Although we appreciate the suggestions, these alternatives do not adequately assess the biological functions of streams as accurately as bioassessment protocols described in the final rule and are not the best technology currently available.
A commenter from a regulatory agency suggested that we define the term “discharge.” We agree that this term could be clarified and have included the modifier “point-source” before discharge in the final rule. In this section, we also removed the requirement to obtain biological condition information because it was redundant with § 780.19(c)(6), which requires essentially the same information.
Several commenters suggested that a single, low-flow sample representing baseline for each mine discharge located over and adjacent to a mine site does not make sense in light of the requirement for twelve evenly-spaced monthly baseline samples in paragraphs (b) and (c) to characterize groundwater and surface water baseline conditions. Some commenters suggested that no sample was necessary for the discharges from previous operations due to the volume of sampling required for surface water and groundwater characterization. We understand the seeming contradiction in sampling frequency
One commenter suggested that the language pertaining to the required sampling for previous mine operations was imprecise and further questioned whether abandoned and permitted discharges were required to be sampled. The final rule language requires sampling of all discharges from abandoned mine sites found on and adjacent to a proposed mining operation that might have a hydrologic connection to the operation. This requirement provides information that both the regulatory authority and applicant will need to assess whether any adverse impacts from the discharges within and adjacent to the permitted area are a result of the current mining operation. Without this information, the operator and regulatory authority are less likely to detect any changes in water quality and/or flow from these previous mine discharges which may be linked to the proposed operation. For all of these reasons, we decline to change the final rule language regarding data requirements for pre-existing mine discharges.
A commenter opined that the extra monitoring and parameters proposed in §§ 780.19(d) and 784.19(d) are a disincentive for remining. We understand the concern with respect to remining. However, adequate baseline characterization is more important in remining situations, especially with pre-existing discharges. Section 780.28(e)(3)(i)(D) requires that, when mining through a degraded stream, the mining “[w]ill not further degrade the form, hydrological function, biological condition, or ecological function of the existing stream.” Thus, adequate baseline characterization is vital for determining if a remining operation is further degrading the form, hydrological function, biological condition, or ecological function of an existing stream segment.
Some commenters suggested that the requirement at proposed paragraph (f)(3)(iii), now paragraph (e)(3), to obtain pyritic sulfur and alkalinity information should only apply to regions where it is necessary to acquire such data to prevent acid mine drainage. Under paragraph (e)(5), the regulatory authority has the discretion to waive the pyritic sulfur and alkalinity data if information exists to support the regulatory authority's written finding. We note, however, that we are unclear how
Another commenter requested that we define “other parameters that may influence the required reclamation.” In response, we note that such factors may include the weather regime, availability of water, placement of overburden containing sulfur, and vegetation requirements because these factors can significantly affect effluent water quality from the reclaimed site.
We received a couple of comments about proposed paragraph (g),
Another commenter pointed out that proposed paragraph (g), now final paragraph (f), requires the regulatory authority to obtain all hydrologic, geologic, and biologic information necessary to perform the cumulative hydrologic impact assessment. They opined that it places an extraordinary huge burden on the regulatory authority to obtain all this data and this rule appears to require the regulatory authority to research proposed cumulative hydrologic impact assessments, when the traditional role of the regulatory authority has been to evaluate and review permit applications that contain the information. We agree with the commenter. We mistakenly stated in the proposed rule that the regulatory authority was responsible for obtaining this information. The preamble to the previous final rule contains a lengthy discussion on this topic, which makes it clear that the applicant is responsible for collecting this information.
We have also made other changes that clarify our intent and the role of the applicant and the regulatory authority. First, in paragraph (f)(1), of the final rule, to better conform to the subject of this paragraph, we changed the rule text from “probable cumulative hydrologic impacts of the proposed operation . . .” to “impacts of both the proposed operation . . .” Second, in paragraph (f)(2), we replaced the word “must” with “may” in the first sentence. This change better conforms to the sentence that followed. Third, we modified text within paragraph (f)(3) that clarifies the role of the regulatory authority and
This section establishes an exception for operations that avoid streams and specifies that the regulatory authority may waive the biological condition information requirements of paragraph (c)(6)(vi) through (viii) of this section if it is demonstrated, and if the regulatory authority finds in writing, that the operation will not: Mine through or bury a perennial or intermittent stream; create a point-source discharge to any perennial, intermittent, or ephemeral stream; or modify the base flow of any perennial or intermittent stream. Several commenters supported this proposed section. Other commenters requested that we remove the reference to ephemeral streams in § 780.19(h)(2), now § 780.19(g)(2). We disagree. Changes to the hydrology in ephemeral streams are linked to intermittent and perennial streams and must be considered when approving a potential exception for collecting baseline condition information.
Another commenter suggested that we include non-point source discharges within this paragraph because there are instances where these types of discharges can impact surface waters, potentially affecting aquatic environments. We decline to modify the final rule in response to this comment because the burden associated with monitoring all non-point source discharges into streams may be outweighed by any benefit that may be received. Moreover, the surface water monitoring requirements, as prescribed by the final rule are adequate to determine the quantity and quality of surface water. Other commenters requested more guidance on whether stormwater controls and outfalls that discharge into ephemeral, intermittent, or perennial streams are considered “point sources” under this paragraph. Consistent with section 502 of the Clean Water Act,
One commenter correctly noted that proposed paragraph (h), now paragraph (g) allows the regulatory authority to grant a waiver from the requirement to establish baseline conditions in intermittent and perennial streams for biological information. However, this commenter indicated that this waiver could conflict with the stream baseline requirements in paragraph (c) pertaining to surface water baseline sample collection. We disagree. The establishment of baseline flow and quality characteristics in paragraph (c) applies to all streams within, and adjacent to, the permitted area and cannot be waived. Proposed paragraph (h), now final paragraph (g), only allows the regulatory authority to waive the biological information required in paragraphs (c)(6)(vi) through (viii)—not the water quality and quantity information in paragraph (c).
One commenter suggested that many other non-mining related impacts occur in streams that could potentially affect the receiving stream's aquatic environment. The commenter suggested removing the exemptions proposed in paragraph (h) and instead require biological condition baseline data in all circumstances. We disagree with the suggestion to remove the three exemption clauses because it saves time and resources in situations where it is not likely to yield data to help with reclamation, and also non-mining related activities are not regulated under SMCRA. The requirements of paragraphs (c)(2) and (3) will provide sufficient data to characterize baseline conditions in most situations where mining operations avoid all activities within or near streams. If the regulatory authority chooses to require biological condition data when one of the three conditions is present, the final rule contains sufficient discretion for them to do so. For these reasons, we are retaining the exemptions within the final rule language.
We received several comments on proposed paragraph (i), now final paragraph (h), and, as a result, we have made a few revisions. First, some commenters asserted that requiring coordination with Clean Water Act agencies would not necessarily be useful if the Clean Water Act authority did not respond to coordination attempts. It is important to obtain the input from the Clean Water Act authority when considering aquatic impacts from SMCRA sites on adjacent receiving streams; the Clean Water Act authority is a valuable source of information and should be used in SMCRA permitting decisions. In response to the commenter's concerns, however, we added the phrase “make best efforts to” in the introductory text because the nature of response of the Clean Water Act authority is out of the control of the SMCRA regulatory authority. Adding “make best efforts to” also addresses other comments received on what is now final paragraph (h)(2), which provides that the regulatory authority make best efforts to “minimize differences in baseline data collection points and parameters.” These commenters also alleged that significant delays in SMCRA permitting will result if the regulatory authority must reconcile the baseline data collection points and parameters required by this rule with the Clean Water Act requirements, which are more complex and include a greater number of parameters. We understand the concern, but data collection reconciliation is important to alleviate wasted effort and to ensure consistency between the Clean Water Act authority and the SMCRA permit holders. For example, multiple but non-coordinated macroinvertebrate sampling can yield inaccurate results if conducted at a similar location and at a frequency that does not allow the site to recover sufficiently between sample events. For all of these reasons, we decline to completely remove the language requiring coordination.
One commenter suggested that we place a reasonable time limit on the agencies to respond to information needed from other agencies in order for the SMCRA regulatory authority to make a permitting decision. The commenter suggested that permit applicants would be at the mercy of other agencies to get all the information necessary for a permitting decision and suggested requiring a reasonable time limit for agency responses to information requests. We are not adopting this suggestion because we have no authority to place regulatory burdens on other agencies exercising other statutory authorities. The intent of this provision is to ensure all information is available to the SMCRA regulatory authority to make an evaluation, permitting decision, and permit findings and associated documents. In addition, the requirement to have sufficient information to make permitting decisions and develop supporting documentation is not a new requirement.
We received many comments on the requirement in proposed paragraph (j), now final paragraph (i), to corroborate a sample of the baseline information. Many commenters indicated mandatory sample corroboration was not a feasible mechanism to achieve the desired result
Some commenters inquired as to whether corroboration meant one sample or numerous samples. One commenter noted that, under the proposed provision, one sample is sufficient to meet the corroboration requirements but that such corroboration would have no validity because it has a statistical strength of zero. We understand the need for statistical certainty in some situations, but the goal of the corroboration is to evaluate gross water quality features not to achieve statistical certainty. Final paragraph (i), however, leaves the regulatory authority with the discretion to determine the number and means of sample corroboration, even if it is just one sample. The regulatory authority is in the best position to determine the number of corroboration samples due to their familiarity with the area, water quality, and labs used to general data.
Similarly, another commenter raised the possibility of safety concerns if corroboration were to occur during winter months when sites may not be readily or safely accessible. We did not revise paragraph (i) in response to this concern because we are not prescribing when the corroboration occurs; thus, the regulatory authority has the flexibility to approve corroboration at times when sites can be safely accessible.
A commenter, who supported the corroboration requirement, suggested that we revise the language to specify that the corroboration occur on a random sampling of sites with a large enough sample size to statistically represent the data reported to the state regulatory authority. For the same reasons discussed in the previous paragraphs, we decline to be more specific and prescriptive. The regulatory authority is in in the best position to determine corroboration protocol and validity for each proposed operation.
One commenter suggested we consider adopting standard quality assurance and quality control sampling procedures, such as those required by the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, that require the collection of duplicates at ten percent of stations, analyzing field blanks, and duplicate identification of benthic samples. Similarly, several regulatory authorities commented that they already have sufficient corroboration requirements in their state regulations and the requirement should be stricken from the rule. We applaud these regulatory authorities for their efforts to ensure an adequate and accurate baseline characterization, but we decline to remove this requirement and we also decline to adopt standard quality assurance and quality control sampling procedures. Not all states are as proactive as these states cited by the commenters, and corroboration is an important responsibility that should be applicable to all states. As noted above, however, we have left the provision in general terms so that each state can tailor the corroboration protocol to its unique needs.
Many commenters opined that requiring the regulatory authority to corroborate a sample was a major change from the previous applicant self-monitoring requirement and will considerably increase staff time and cost to implement. Other commenters suggested that the regulatory agency be required to conduct this assessment and should not contract with third party entities at the applicant's expense to complete the task in lieu of the regulatory authority. The final rule, as modified, emphasizes the need for accurate baseline information to be collected by the applicant. Final paragraph (i) simply establishes a quality assurance and control step in the application review process, subject to regulatory authority approval, that should not incur extraneous expense to either the regulatory authority or the applicant because of the minimal number of samples required.
As discussed in the preamble to the proposed rule, we proposed to modify § 780.20.
In general, this section relates to the preparation of the probable hydrologic consequences determination. One commenter requested that we provide a definition of a “probable hydrologic consequences determination” and provide a method for predicting the probable hydrologic consequences. Specifically, the commenter requested a defined level of probability; otherwise, the commenter opined that the concept of probable hydrologic consequences is ambiguous and the applicant has discretion to determine what probable hydrologic consequences determination means. We disagree. Section 507(b)(11) of SMCRA
Throughout this section we are substituting the term “biology” for “biological condition” for the same reasons we articulate in connection with final paragraphs (c)(6)(vi) through (viii) of § 780.19. In brief, we use the term “biology” to encompass the type of information needed to establish both the biological condition of perennial and intermittent streams, for which established protocols exist, and the biology of intermittent streams, for which established protocols are not currently in place. This recognizes that not all states have scientifically defensible protocols for assessing the biological condition of intermittent streams. For the same reasons, we have removed the requirement to evaluate, for the probable hydrologic consequences determination, the biological condition of ephemeral streams within the proposed permit and adjacent areas. For additional information on why we have made these type of changes, please refer to the preamble discussion in final paragraphs (c)(6)(vi) through (viii) of § 780.19, above.
Final paragraph (a), similar to proposed paragraph (a), revises the requirements concerning preparation of the determination of the probable hydrologic consequences of mining in previous §§ 780.21(f)(1) through (f)(3) by adding a requirement to consider the impacts of the proposed operation on
One commenter made a general statement that numerical standards and biological assessments should be included to improve probable hydrologic consequences determinations and cumulative hydrologic impact assessments. For information concerning the use of numerical standards in the final rule, please refer to the preamble discussion in § 773.15 above. For biological assessments, refer to § 780.19(c)(6)(ii) through (viii).
In response to proposed §§ 780.20(a) and 784.20(a), one commenter suggested that we should not extend the same protections to ephemeral streams as we do to intermittent and perennial streams. We did not propose to extend the same protections to ephemeral streams that we did for intermittent and perennial streams. In response to scientific literature supporting the benefits of these headwaters to essential biological and ecological functions, the final rule provides greater protections to ephemeral streams than do the existing regulations as described in Part VII of the preamble to the proposed rule.
One commenter recommended we split paragraph (a) into two subparagraphs—one related to biological consequences and one related to hydrologic consequences. The commenter also requested that any discussion of biological consequences not be contained within the cumulative impact assessment. We are not adopting this suggestion because water quality and quantity are linked to biological condition and ecological function, and, in order for the regulatory authority to have a full description of the probable hydrologic consequences, we have determined that biological, hydrological, geologic, and ecological information should be addressed within the same assessment.
Several commenters opined that proposed paragraph (a), requiring the probable hydrologic consequences determination to include surface water quality impacts from point source discharges, effectively replaces the reasonable potential analysis under the Clean Water Act and is in violation of section 702 of SMCRA.
One commenter objected to the requirement in paragraph (a) for the probable hydrologic consequences determination to include specific findings on the criteria listed in paragraphs (a)(1) through (a)(5) and further stated that SMCRA holds the regulatory authority responsible for making such findings relative to the cumulative impact. We disagree. Section 507(b)(11) of SMCRA
One commenter was concerned about proposed paragraph (a)(5)(vi) which requires that the probable hydrologic consequences determination contain a finding about the impact that any diversion of surface or subsurface flows to underground mine workings or any changes in watershed size as a result of the postmining surface configuration would have on the availability of surface water and groundwater. Commenters claimed the requirement was open ended, that evaluations of impacts starting at first order streams would be incredibly cumbersome and time consuming, and that such diversions should be addressed on a regional basis in order to properly assess impacts and costs. We disagree. Consideration of this type of data is necessary to produce a comprehensive probable hydrologic consequences determination for the proposed mining operation, as well as a thorough and inclusive cumulative hydrologic impact assessment. For example, diversions of surface or subsurface flows to underground mine workings will increase the existing volume of water which could exceed the holding capacity of the mine voids and result in an unanticipated blowout or discharge of the water to the ground surface. Diversions could also impact users of surface water or groundwater by diminishing or eliminating the availability of the water resources. We agree that it may be prudent in some instances to evaluate diversions of flows to underground mine workings on a regional basis and that should be considered by the regulatory authority while preparing the cumulative hydrologic impact assessment. However, it is the responsibility of the applicant to ensure that all activities of the proposed operation have been considered and evaluated relative to potential impacts. In addition, changes in watershed size as a result of the postmining surface configuration can
In final paragraphs (a) and (a)(5)(vii), we have exempted operations that avoid streams from the requirement to assess the impact the proposed operation will have on biology of perennial and intermittent stream. We are doing this for the same reasons we articulate above in the preamble discussion of final rule § 780.19(g), which allows the regulatory authority to waive the biological information requirements of final rule § 780.19(c)(6)(vi) through (viii), if the applicant demonstrates and the regulatory authority finds in writing that the operation will not mine through or bury a perennial or intermittent stream, create a point source discharge to any perennial, intermittent, or ephemeral stream, or modify the base flow of any perennial or intermittent stream. For additional information on why we made these types of changes, please refer to the preamble discussion above. One commenter questioned whether, during preparation of the probable hydrologic consequences determination, an operator would always be able to obtain from the regulatory authority the criteria needed to determine whether the operation may cause material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area as required in paragraph (a)(1). We anticipate that the applicant will collaborate and coordinate with the regulatory authority as necessary to ensure that the criteria for assessing the material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area are established in time to be available for the probable hydrologic consequences determination. We also anticipate that the regulatory authority will coordinate with Clean Water Act agencies in preparing these criteria.
We have revised final paragraph (a)(2) to clarify that the applicant must evaluate the potential for toxic mine drainage not only during active mining and reclamation operations but also after these activities have been completed. This provision now specifies that when making a finding on whether acid-forming or toxic-forming materials are present that could result in contamination of surface water or groundwater, the applicant must consider discharges of toxic mine drainage that could occur after the completion of land reclamation in the evaluation.
Proposed paragraph (a)(5) required that the applicant determine what impact the proposed operation will have on specific water quality parameters, including parameters for which baseline information is required under § 780.19(a)(2). We required in proposed paragraph (a)(5)(ii) the addition of any other water quality parameters in the evaluation that were identified to be of local importance.
One commenter disagreed with this addition because it required the regulatory authority to identify the water quality parameters of local importance rather than the Clean Water Act authorities, which the commenter alleged violates section 702 of SMCRA.
We also revised paragraph (a)(5)(ii) in the final rule to clarify that the proposed reference to “water quality” refers to both groundwater and surface water quality. We further revised this paragraph to reference the parameters listed § 780.19(a)(2) as those which must be addressed in the findings on the impacts of the proposed operation on groundwater and surface water. Consequently, we have deleted as redundant proposed paragraphs (5)(ii)(A) through (K) which listed those parameters.
Another commenter requested that we revise proposed paragraph (a)(5)(ii)(L), now paragraph (a)(5)(ii) in the final rule, to state that the regulatory authority would identity parameters of local importance. We agree and have made appropriate revisions to that paragraph. The regulatory authority is in the best position to identify those local parameters of concern, if applicable, and include them in the required baseline monitoring data. Therefore, we have revised §§ 780.19 and 780.23 in the final rule to specify that the regulatory authority will be the one that determines parameters to be of local importance. We anticipate that, during the development of the permit application package, the applicant will take part in this process by consulting with the regulatory authority about which, if any, additional parameters should be added to the baseline monitoring plans.
One commenter indicated that peak-flow data, as required in proposed paragraph (a)(5)(iv), may be insufficient to accurately predict trends in ephemeral streams due to the episodic nature of the flows. We agree with the commenter and have now exempted ephemeral streams from the requirement in §§ 780.19(c)(3) and 780.20(a)(5)(iv) in the final rule. Peak-flow magnitude and frequency data will be required for perennial and intermittent streams within the proposed permit and adjacent areas.
Many commenters on proposed § 780.20(a)(5)(vii) reiterated various points made in connection with proposed § 780.19(e), now § 780.19(c)(6)(ii) through (viii), such as: Support for the assessment of the effects the proposed operation will have on the biological condition of streams; requests that the regulations be revised to clarify that a qualitative evaluation of streams is sufficient in certain cases to establish findings on the biological condition of streams; and that it is not necessary to complete a new and comprehensive assessment of streams for every mine site. Our responses to these comments are set out in the preamble to final § 780.19(c)(6)(ii) through (viii) and are not repeated here.
In § 780.20(a)(5)(vii), we proposed to require an evaluation of the biological condition of the operation in streams both within the permit area and in “adjacent areas.” Several commenters expressed concern that the baseline data collection and permitting process may be difficult because the extent of the “adjacent area” may not be easy to determine and may change as data are collected and analyzed. We encourage applicants to coordinate with the regulatory authority in determining the size of the adjacent area,
As proposed, paragraph (b) was substantively identical to previous § 780.21(b)(3), with the exception that we proposed to expand the conditions under which the regulatory authority must request additional supplemental information related to the probable
We are adopting paragraph (c)(1), now final paragraph (b)(1), as proposed, which is substantively identical to previous § 780.21(f)(4), which requires that the regulatory authority determine whether a new or updated probable hydrologic consequences determination is needed as part of the process of evaluating permit revision applications. We proposed paragraph (c)(2) to clarify that the applicant must prepare a new or updated probable hydrologic consequences determination whenever a regulatory authority review finds that one is needed. Several commenters objected to the addition of proposed paragraph (c)(2). These commenters noted that a new or updated probable hydrologic consequences determination would result in increased cost and staff time to the applicant. We disagree. The requirement in proposed paragraph (c)(1), now final paragraph (b)(1), for the regulatory authority to make a determination on whether a new or updated probable hydrologic consequences determination is necessary for a permit revision is substantively the same as that in previous § 780.21(f)(4); it has always been anticipated that the applicant would submit a revised or new determination should the regulatory authority deem one necessary. Thus, as this is an existing requirement, there will not be any additional cost or staff time beyond satisfying the requirement of the previous § 780.21(f)(4). This requirement, moreover, is consistent with section 510(b)(3) of SMCRA
One commenter expressed concern that unless the regulations set forth specific criteria to determine when an updated or new probable hydrologic consequences determination is needed, an applicant could be subjected to denials or endless cycles of probable hydrologic consequences determination studies depending on the bias and preferences of the regulatory authority. Thus, this commenter and others requested that we revise this paragraph to provide objective criteria to clarify this provision and ensure consistency. We disagree with the commenter's assertion that objective criteria for defining when an updated or new probable hydrologic consequences determination must be made should be included in this section of the final rule. Section 510(b)(3) of SMCRA
Our previous regulations contained very few standards or criteria for preparation of the cumulative hydrologic impact assessment. As we stated in the preamble to the proposed rule, the lack of standards or content requirements for the cumulative hydrologic impact assessment, coupled with the lack of a definition of “material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area,” created an impediment to stream protection under SMCRA because there are no objective criteria to apply. Therefore, as discussed in the preamble to the proposed rule, we proposed to modify our regulations at § 780.21 to include content requirements for the cumulative hydrologic impact assessment, procedural requirements, and criteria for determining material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area.
Proposed paragraph (a)(2) provided that the regulatory authority would consider relevant information on file for other mining operations located within the cumulative impact area or in similar watersheds during preparation of the cumulative hydrologic impact assessment. One state regulatory authority suggested we change “will consider” to “may consider.” We reject this comment because the intent of the cumulative hydrologic impact assessment is specifically to assess the cumulative impacts of all coal mining and reclamation operations in the defined cumulative impact area. To properly assess these impacts, the regulatory authority must consider other mining operations in the defined cumulative area. Thus, we have changed “will consider” to “must consider” in order to indicate the necessity of the requirement to consider other mining operations and to clarify that this aspect of the cumulative hydrologic impact assessment cannot be overlooked during the assessment. Further, this modification reflects the plain language principles discussed in Part II of this preamble because “will consider” expresses that the activity may be completed in the future. Because the
Another commenter opined that the analysis conducted in the cumulative hydrologic impact assessment should be performed by mine operators instead of the SMCRA regulatory authority. This commenter asserted that regulatory authorities have historically been negligent in conducting thorough cumulative hydrologic impact assessments because of limited resources and that material damage findings historically often have included little supporting analysis or information. This commenter also asserted that the previous regulations do not require collection of sufficient data to prepare an adequate cumulative hydrologic impact assessment and that mine operators have information more readily available than do the regulatory authorities and this information should be utilized. Section 507(b)(11) of SMCRA
One commenter recommended that we use consistent terminology between the preamble to the proposed rule, which stated that we intended to ensure that the regulatory authority considers all available information and the proposed rule, which states that the regulatory authority “must consider” relevant information on file. We are not modifying the final rule in response to this comment. Although the regulatory authority should consider any information available to it for the assessment, paragraph (a)(2) sets a minimum standard for the regulatory authority to consider relevant coal mining information on file. We recognize that some information associated with other adjacent and underlying industries, such as oil and gas, may be proprietary or difficult to obtain. For this reason, the regulatory authority should consider all available information, but it must consider coal mining information that it has on file.
One regulatory authority commenter indicated that the proposed rule did not include a provision for proposed mine sites that may be hydrologically isolated. When preparing the cumulative hydrologic impact assessment only “relevant” information must be considered. In this context, hydrologically isolated, proposed mine sites do not have “relevant” information associated with the permit application. Therefore, we are not modifying the final rule in response to this comment.
Paragraph (a)(3) of the final rule clarifies that information required for preparation of the cumulative hydrologic impact assessment must be received and reviewed prior to approval of the permit application. The proposed rule only required receipt of the information prior to permit application approval. We made this change to ensure that the regulatory authority both received and used all the information necessary to properly develop the cumulative hydrologic impact assessment.
Proposed paragraph (b) established detailed requirements for the content of the cumulative hydrologic impact assessment to ensure that the assessment is sufficiently comprehensive to support the required finding that the proposed operation has been designed to prevent material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area. Several commenters supported the content requirements identified in proposed paragraph (b), but other commenters opposed elements of those requirements.
One commenter questioned the requirement of paragraph (b)(1)(iv) that the designated uses of surface water under section 303(c) of the Clean Water Act
As discussed earlier in this preamble, final § 780.19 requires the collection of certain baseline hydrologic information. Final paragraph (b)(3) of § 780.21 requires that the cumulative hydrologic impact assessment contain a description of the baseline hydrologic information for the proposed permit and adjacent areas that are collected under § 780.19. In response to comments about the level of detail required, final paragraph (b)(3) clarifies that the description must be both qualitative and quantitative. Both quantitative and qualitative information on water quality and quantity is needed to describe baseline hydrologic conditions adequately because qualitative descriptions often provide needed context for quantitative information.
Proposed paragraph (b)(3)(ii) would have required information about existing usage of surface water and groundwater, as well as information defining the quality of water required for each existing and reasonably foreseeable use of groundwater and surface water and each designated use of surface water under section 303(c) of the Clean Water Act.
Proposed paragraph (b)(3)(iii) would have required the inclusion of a description and map of the local and regional groundwater systems as part of the cumulative hydrologic impact assessment. One regulatory authority sought flexibility regarding the presentation and description of the local and regional aquifer system. In response to this comment, we slightly modified the requirement to allow a description or map rather than requiring submission of both a description and a map in all cases. This change provides the regulatory authority with flexibility to accept maps, descriptions, or both in order to best explain aquifer characteristics, such as hydraulic gradient.
Proposed paragraph (b)(3)(iv) required baseline information on the biological condition of all perennial, intermittent, and ephemeral streams. In response to comments, we modified final paragraph (b)(3)(iv) to be consistent with the monitoring requirements at final § 780.19(c)(6)(vi) through (viii) of this part, which no longer require monitoring of the biological condition of ephemeral streams.
One commenter questioned proposed paragraph (b)(5), which required that a quantitative assessment be conducted on how all anticipated surface and underground mining may impact the quality of surface water and groundwater in the cumulative impact area. According to the commenter, this requirement is too vague. The commenter was concerned with how these impacts would be expressed in terms of each baseline parameter identified under § 780.19. The commenter requested guidance on evaluating impacts within the cumulative impact area on a parameter-by-parameter basis. We direct the commenter to the definition of “cumulative impact area” in § 701.5, which establishes the scope and intent of the evaluations within the cumulative impact area. We decline to delve into an explanation of methods used to predict water quality on a parameter-by-parameter basis because it is beyond the scope of this document. In general, to arrive at mining-induced changes by parameter, most common methods entail some form of statistical method, with regression analysis of parameter concentration through time being the most common. Additionally, guidance documents are available through our National Library at
Proposed paragraph (b)(6) required that the cumulative hydrologic impact assessment include criteria defining material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area on a site-specific basis. Proposed paragraph (b)(6)(i) required that these criteria be established on a numerical basis for each parameter of concern. Numerous commenters argued that there is no authority under SMCRA to establish numerical criteria for material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area. Commenters also claimed that establishment of enforceable water quality criteria under SMCRA that differ from water quality standards promulgated under the Clean Water Act would violate section 702(a) of SMCRA. Section 702(a) provides, in relevant part, that “[n]othing in this Act shall be construed as superseding, amending, modifying, or repealing” the Clean Water Act “or any rule or regulation promulgated thereunder.” Part IV.I. of this preamble discusses the interrelationship between the Clean Water Act and SMCRA. Other commenters provided suggestions to refine the language of this provision. For instance, one commenter suggested replacing the phrase “numerical terms” with “be expressed in applicable state or federal water quality standards (or criteria)” to allow the use of both numerical and narrative standards. Another commenter supported the use of narrative standards, when applicable, compared to numerical standards. One state regulatory authority requested that the rule require the use of numerical and narrative standards that have defensible numeric threshold criteria.
After evaluating these and other similar comments, we decided not to adopt the proposed requirement that numerical criteria be established for each parameter of concern. Instead, final paragraph (b)(6) requires that the cumulative hydrologic impact assessment and the permit include site-specific numeric or narrative thresholds for material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area. The regulatory authority has the discretion to determine which parameters require material damage thresholds. Material damage thresholds define the point at which the operation has failed to prevent material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area.
Final paragraph (b)(6)(i) provides that, when identifying material damage thresholds in connection with a particular permit, the regulatory authority will, in consultation with the Clean Water Act authority, as appropriate, undertake a comprehensive evaluation that considers the following factors—
(1) The baseline data collected under § 780.19;
(2) The PHC determination prepared under § 780.20;
(3) Applicable water quality standards under section 303(c) of the Clean Water Act;
(4) Applicable state or tribal water quality standards for surface water and groundwater;
(5) Ambient water quality criteria developed under section 304(a) of the Clean Water Act;
(6) Biological requirements of any species listed as threatened or endangered under the Endangered Species Act of 1973, or their designated
(7) Other pertinent information and considerations to identify the parameters for which thresholds are necessary.
The factors listed above and in final paragraphs (b)(6)(i)(A) through (G) do not constitute material damage thresholds in and of themselves; they are only factors to be considered in determining which parameters require material damage thresholds and what those thresholds should be.
Final paragraph (b)(6)(ii) modifies final paragraph (b)(6)(i) slightly in that it provides that the regulatory authority, in consultation with the Clean Water Act authority, must adopt numeric material damage thresholds as appropriate, taking into consideration relevant contaminants for which there are water quality criteria under the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1251
One environmental organization recommended that we codify the following language from the preamble of the proposed rule: “SMCRA material damage criteria must be no less stringent than Clean Water Act water quality standards and criteria in all cases, but, in some situations, they may need to be more stringent to protect unique uses or to comply with the Endangered Species Act.” We did not adopt this recommendation because there may be situations in which the quoted preamble language does not apply.
An industry commenter expressed concern that we did not provide sufficient information or clear specifications for the “numerical terms for each parameter of concern. Final paragraph (b)(6) no longer includes the quoted phrase from the proposed rule. Instead, the final rule grants the regulatory authority discretion to determine which parameters require material damage thresholds and whether those thresholds should be narrative or numeric, except as provided in final paragraph (b)(6)(ii).
Proposed paragraph (b)(6)(ii) provided that, in establishing material damage criteria, which we now refer to as material damage thresholds, the regulatory authority must take into consideration the biological requirements of any species listed as threatened or endangered under the Endangered Species Act when those species or designated critical habitat are present within the cumulative impact area. The U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service requested that we revise this provision to also apply to both the habitat occupied by those species and any areas in which those species are present only for a short time but that are important to their persistence, such as migration and dispersal corridors. Final paragraph (b)(6)(i)(F) includes the recommended language as an evaluation criterion for material damage thresholds.
In the proposed rule,
After evaluating these comments and the changes that we made to paragraph (b)(6), we are adding new paragraph (b)(7) to the final rule. This paragraph requires the establishment of evaluation thresholds. We included the requirement for evaluation thresholds within the final rule because we agree with commenters that thresholds would provide a more objective method to assess the potential development of material damage outside the permit area. In addition, evaluation thresholds provide an opportunity to develop and implement corrective measures before adverse impacts rise to the level of material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area. We revised the terminology from “corrective action thresholds” to “evaluation thresholds” because the action of reaching a threshold would result in reassessment of the probable hydrologic consequences determination and cumulative hydrologic impact assessment. Corrective action may not be necessary if additional evaluation shows that the impact will not rise to the level of material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area. However, if adverse trends exist, it is incumbent upon the SMCRA regulatory authority to evaluate the causes of the adverse trends and take action to ensure that the trends do not result in material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area.
Final paragraph (b)(7) requires that evaluation thresholds be expressed as numeric values because the thresholds must be measurable in order to function as an early warning system that provides ample opportunity for the permittee and the regulatory authority to conduct the necessary evaluation and undertake any necessary measures to prevent material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area. This requirement is intended to identify and address potential water quality and quantity issues before any standards have been violated. This early intervention strategy is necessary because, once a water quality issue exists, it is often very costly or impossible to correct. Evaluation thresholds institutionalize early detection techniques, which can prevent the need for long-term treatment and other costly environmental harms through the prevention of material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area.
Under final § 773.15(e), a SMCRA regulatory authority may not approve a SMCRA permit application if the cumulative hydrologic impact assessment indicates material damage to the hydrologic balance is likely to occur outside the permit area. Material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area that occurs after permit issuance constitutes a violation of final § 816.34(a)(2). In that situation,
Evaluation thresholds are not enforceable as performance standards. They also do not amend, supersede, modify or otherwise conflict with applicable Clean Water Act requirements, including any National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System effluent limitations or applicable state or federal water quality standards. Instead, evaluation thresholds trigger an obligation for the regulatory authority, in consultation with the Clean Water Act agency, as appropriate, to evaluate the circumstances causing adverse trends and exceedance of the threshold. The purpose of the evaluation and coordination is to better ensure that material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area does not occur as a result of mining activity. If monitoring results at the locations designated under final paragraph (b)(6)(iv) document an exceedance of an evaluation threshold, the regulatory authority must determine the cause of the exceedance in consultation with the Clean Water Act authority, as appropriate. The regulatory authority must also determine the likelihood that the evaluation threshold exceedance will develop into material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area.
The regulatory authority must issue an order to revise the permit if the regulatory authority determines that the adverse trend is the result, in whole or in part, of the mining operation. For a more complete discussion of the relationship between material damage thresholds, evaluation thresholds, and water monitoring requirements please see the discussion of general comments in Part IV. M. of this preamble.
We received numerous comments on proposed paragraph (b)(8), now final paragraph (b)(9). In response to these comments and to maintain consistency with other aspects of the final rule, we revised proposed paragraph (b)(8)(i), now final paragraph (b)(9)(i), to ensure that the proposed operation will not result in violation of applicable Clean Water Act water quality standards or disrupt or preclude attainment of certain uses as identified in final paragraphs (b)(9)(i)(A), (B) and (C). For consistency with the revised definition of “material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area” in § 701.5, we deleted “reasonably foreseeable uses” from this paragraph. The final rule still protects designated and premining uses. It more closely mirrors the requirements of SMCRA, while explicitly acknowledging that isolated water quality exceedances or short-term local or temporal stream impacts may occur and may not rise to the level of material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area.
Two regulatory authority commenters suggested we replace the term “exceedance” with “long term exceedance” at proposed paragraph (b)(8)(i)(B), now paragraph (b)(9)(i). In consideration of the implications associated with words that may qualify exceedance such as “long-term” or “minor,” and concerns on how the term would be interpreted, we removed the reference to exceedance at previous paragraph (b)(8)(i)(B), now final paragraph (b)(9)(i).
An industry commenter suggested that we revise proposed (b)(8)(i)(B) to account for drought conditions, changes in human activity, and other environmental and human use changes that are unrelated to mining that could affect a watershed or streamflow regime. In response, we added language to final paragraphs (b)(9)(i) through (iv) that the proposed operation—
(1) Will not violate applicable Clean Water Act water quality standards;
(2) Preclude attainment of premining use when no water quality standards exist, or preclude attainment of premining uses for groundwater;
(3) Not result in changes in size or frequency peak flows in areas outside the permit boundary;
(4) Perennial and intermittent streams will have sufficient base flow at all times to maintain their premining flow regime; and
(5) Be designed to protect quality and quantity of aquifer units to ensure the prevailing hydrologic balance.
This revision clarifies that it is the mining operation that cannot cause the adverse impacts identified in final paragraphs (b)(9)(i) through (iv). It allows the regulatory authority to distinguish between environmental and human use changes that are related to mining from the proposed operation and those that are not. In addition, the baseline monitoring requirements in § 780.19 of the final rule will better enable the regulatory authority to distinguish between mining-related impacts and non-mining impacts.
Final paragraph (b)(9) requires the regulatory authority to, after consultation with the Clean Water Act authority, as appropriate, provide supporting data and analyses that the proposed operation has been designed to prevent material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area. To support this finding, the cumulative hydrologic impact assessment must include several determinations, with appropriate documentation, or an explanation of why the determination is not necessary or appropriate. Final paragraph (b)(9)(i) provides that one of those determinations is that, except as provided in final §§ 780.22(b) and 816.40, the proposed operation will not: (A) Cause or contribute to a violation of applicable water quality standards adopted under the authority of section 303(c) of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1313(c), or other applicable state or tribal water quality standards; (B) cause or contribute to a violation of applicable state or tribal groundwater quality standards; (C) preclude attainment of a premining use of a surface water located outside the permit area when no water quality standards have been established for that surface water; or (D) preclude attainment of a premining use of groundwater located outside the permit area.
We have also revised paragraph (b)(8), now final rule paragraph (b)(9), slightly by moving three subsections. Proposed paragraph (b)(8)(i)(A) pertained to conversion of streams from one stream type to another stream type (
Some commenters expressed concern with the proposed language at paragraph (b)(8)(ii), now paragraph (b)(9)(ii), requiring that the operation be designed to prevent an increase in damage from flooding when compared to premining conditions. One of the commenters indicated that it would be difficult to make the measurements required under this provision and that it would require an investigation of premining flood events to establish baseline for assessing damage from flooding. We agree that the proposed language could be interpreted to require an investigation of premining flood events. We have removed the phrase “damage from” within paragraph (b)(9)(ii) of the final rule in order to clarify that such a premining investigation is not required. The final rule, however, continues to require a finding that the operation has been designed to ensure that flows will not cause increased flooding outside the permit area compared to premining conditions. This revision focuses assessment upon peak flows that could result in flooding and not damage from flooding. In addition, we added the phrase “outside the permit area” to clarify that the operation must be designed to ensure that neither the mining operation nor the final configuration of the reclaimed area will result in changes in the size or frequency of peak flows from precipitation events or thaws that would cause an increase in flooding outside the permit area, when compared with premining conditions. We made this change to focus the assessment on peak flows that could result in flooding and potential damage. One commenter suggested modifying the word “changes” to “increases” to be more accurate and limiting. This modification is not necessary because the final rule at paragraph (b)(9)(ii) states that the changes would be of size or frequency to cause an increase in flooding.
Another commenter recommended that the applicant should plan for, and submit, sufficient information on the magnitude of precipitation events, especially given that the operator knows the final reclamation configuration of the site and can anticipate the magnitude of stormwater runoff resulting from the final reclamation configuration. The commenter also opined that this information was not required in the proposed rule. We do not agree with the commenter that the proposed rule did not address this issue; design criteria for postmining site configuration are found at §§ 816.102 to 816.111. These design criteria guide the design, construction, and implementation of the final site reclamation configuration and include requirements to address postmining drainage issues and stormwater management. In addition, hydrologic performance criteria exist at section 816.34 to prevent stormwater-induced flooding from SMCRA sites.
One commenter questioned the application of the term “recharge capacity” within proposed paragraph (b)(8)(iii), now paragraph (b)(9)(iii). We have removed this term from this paragraph of the final rule because the term refers to the ability of the overburden to release water to the surface water system and does not reflect the goal of maintaining baseflow in streams overlying and adjacent to a SMCRA mine site. Recharge capacity is an important consideration in the overall hydrologic balance but is not the primary objective of paragraph (b)(9)(iii). Recharge capacity is a term used to describe the movement of water through soil and rock, ultimately to discharge as surface water flow. This concept is different than the primary objective of (b)(9)(iii) which is to maintain baseflow in a stream. For this reason, we removed the term “recharge capacity” to focus the requirement on sustaining baseflow to prevent material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area.
Commenters alleged that, as proposed, paragraph (b)(8)(iii), now paragraph (b)(9)(iii), prohibited the conversion of a perennial or intermittent stream to an ephemeral stream or conversion of a perennial stream to an intermittent stream. A regulatory authority commented that, as drafted, the provision would result in the inability of mine operators to permit and mine lands because stream conversion is a common, existing occurrence during mining and reclamation. Two other commenters indicated that, in effect, this paragraph would be impossible to satisfy because streams behave differently depending upon numerous natural and man-made interdependent variables. The commenters further opined that technological and economic limitations may necessitate stream conversion in some situations. The same commenters also suggested that it should be permissible to allow a portion of a watershed to be degraded as long as the watershed as a whole remains functional. For these reasons the commenters recommended removal of the proposed provision that they interpreted as limiting or preventing stream conversions. Several of the commenter's raised concerns about conversions both inside the permit area and outside the permit area. We address commenters' concerns about conversions outside the permit area in this section of the final rule and discuss the changes to the final rule about conversions inside the permit area in the preamble discussion of final rule §§ 780.28(e) and 784.28(e), below. In consideration of the comments specific to preparation, use, and review of the cumulative hydrologic impact assessment, we have revised paragraph (b)(9)(iii) of the final rule about conversions of perennial and intermittent streams outside the permit area. We acknowledge that conversion of streams may often have beneficial effects, such as converting an ephemeral stream to an intermittent or perennial stream. Thus, we have revised the rule language to allow conversion of intermittent streams to perennial streams or conversion of an ephemeral stream to an intermittent or perennial stream outside the permit area as long as the conversion is consistent with the requirements in paragraph (b)(9)(i) and does not violate the Endangered Species Act. Allowing conversion of certain streams addresses the commenters' concern about limiting or preventing conversion while at the same time adhering to the environmental objectives of SMCRA found in sections 510(b) and 515(b).
One regulatory authority suggested that we delete proposed paragraph (b)(8)(iv), now paragraph (b)(9)(iv), related to the protection of the quantity and quality of water in “any aquifer that significantly ensures the prevailing hydrologic balance.” The commenter opined that water replacement requirements for in-use water supplies are already protected and adhered to by operators and that replacement supplies are of equal or better quantity, quality, and delivery method. We interpret this comment to mean that existing rule language in other sections provides the same protection as proposed paragraph (b)(9)(iv) and that existing water replacement provisions can be better than existing conditions. While we support the regulatory authorities' continued use and implementation of water replacement requirements, we decline to remove the provision because final paragraph (b)(9)(iv) protects more resources than the water replacement provisions found in the previous regulations. Water replacement provisions are designed to address individual water supplies on a case-by-case basis, which implies an intact
We have made a minor change to proposed paragraph (c)(1)(i), now final paragraph(c)(2). Commenters pointed out that, within this section, biological monitoring was not included in the review of monitoring data that the regulatory authority must perform. We agree that it should be included and have added the requirement to this section.
One commenter opined that proposed § 780.21(c) is not adequately conservative because it requires cumulative hydrologic impact assessments only for significant permit revisions. According to the commenter, cumulative hydrologic impact assessments should also be required for certain non-significant revisions. However, the commenter did not provide any specific examples of non-significant revisions that would have the potential to affect the analysis. We are retaining the rule as proposed in relationship to this comment. As explained in the preamble to the proposed rule
Several industry and regulatory authority commenters expressed concern that the cumulative hydrologic impact assessment review process required in paragraph (c) was linked to permit renewal. These commenters stated that section 506(d) of SMCRA
One regulatory authority commenter explained that it has been standard practice since its program was approved to update the cumulative hydrologic impact assessment whenever a change or proposed change of any aspect of the hydrologic environment warranted the update or when area is added to the permit. The commenter continued by noting that a significant update to the probable hydrologic consequences determination or the hydrologic reclamation plan would trigger a cumulative hydrologic impact assessment update. Another regulatory authority commenter indicated that cumulative hydrologic impact assessment reviews are done as a matter of course and updated as necessary. Industry commenters recognized that any data analysis may be done periodically, as determined by the regulatory authority, in the Annual Report, interim review, or other similar report or process. Commenters generally supported a requirement that allows the state regulatory authority discretion for determining when a cumulative hydrologic impact assessment needs to be updated. Although we recognize that some states do a good job with these updates, a periodic review of the cumulative hydrologic impact assessment data and conclusions must occur on a frequent basis to ensure that material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area is not occurring or is likely to occur through the life of the permit. The absence of consistent cumulative hydrologic impact assessment reviews likely results in adverse trends that may persist to a point where corrective action options become limited, costly, or impossible. Regular review will allow the operation plan to be adjusted before corrective action is needed or options become too limited to adequately protect the hydrologic balance. We selected three year intervals for this review because that time period is not linked with permit renewal or mid-term review but is frequent enough to allow for detection of necessary changes in the mining and reclamation plan and/or needed corrective action to ensure protection of the hydrologic balance outside the permit area. This ensures that permit renewal and mid-term reviews are not contingent on the cumulative hydrologic impact assessment review.
Section 780.22 describes the information the operator must include in the hydrologic reclamation plan and the information that must be provided on alternative water sources. As discussed in the preamble to the proposed rule, we proposed to modify our regulations at § 780.22.
This paragraph identifies the requirements the permit applicant must include in the hydrologic reclamation plan, including the maps and descriptions that demonstrate how the proposed operation will comply with the applicable provisions of subchapter K, that relate to protection of the hydrologic balance. We received a comment from a regulatory authority on proposed paragraphs (a)(2)(i) and (ii), requesting that we clarify the relationship between disturbances to the hydrologic balance in adjacent areas, which are allowable, and material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area, which is not allowable. The regulatory authority also suggested that we define disturbances. We have defined material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area in § 701.5 and have provided a general discussion of material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area in Part IV. L. of the preamble. Under our regulations as finalized today, any activity that adversely affects the hydrology of adjacent areas but that does not rise to the level of material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area would be considered a disturbance subject to the minimization requirements of our rule. Consequently, although we appreciate the commenter's concern, it is not necessary to define “disturbance,” and we have not made any substantive changes to these paragraphs in the final rule. Importantly, these paragraphs retain the distinctions present in sections 510(b)(3) and 515(b)(10) of SMCRA.
Several regulatory authority commenters expressed concern about proposed paragraph (b). One regulatory authority suggested that we delete the paragraph and retain the previous regulations. In particular, the regulatory authority did not like it that this provision invoked the alternative water source requirements for adverse effects to water sources “within the proposed permit . . . area[ ].” The commenter pointed out that there are always adverse impacts within the permit area. We are not accepting the suggestion to remove the entire paragraph (b) because this paragraph is necessary to clarify the water supply replacement requirements of sections 717(b) and 720(a)(2) of SMCRA.
Some of the other regulatory authority commenters asserted that in certain situations the regulatory authority already requires water supply infrastructure to be put in place in advance of mining to ensure uninterrupted service. It is good that some regulatory authorities are already ensuring that there will be no gap in the water supply as a result of mining. However, given the importance Congress has placed on protecting water supplies, this requirement should be applicable everywhere. The importance of protection water supplies was underscored in section 717(b) of SMCRA that requires that the operator of a surface coal mine replace the water supply of an owner of interest in real property who obtains all or part of his supply of water for domestic, agricultural, industrial, or other legitimate use from an underground or surface source where such supply has been affected by contamination, diminution, or interruption proximately resulting from such surface operation.
Other commenters expressed concern about the lack of regulatory authority discretion in the proposed rule to make a determination that a water supply could be adversely impacted. In addition, a commenter was concerned about the potential burden on industry, especially for underground operations, to replace all potentially impacted water supplies in advance of mining. The final rule mirrors the water replacement provisions located in previous §§ 816.41(h) and 817.41(j), which provide the regulatory authority the discretion to approve the probable hydrologic consequences determination that identifies specific water supplies that may be adversely affected and that would require an alternative source. The final rule does not require replacement of all potentially impacted supplies prior to any mining; however, the water must be replaced prior to the supply being adversely impacted. This provision guarantees that there will be no gap in the availability of water sources and that water sources remain available for use throughout the mining process. As long as this guarantee is met, the timing of when a specific alternative water source needs to be replaced is left to the discretion of the regulatory authority, as approved in the water supply replacement plan.
As discussed in the preamble to the proposed rule,
We have revised paragraph (a)(1)(i) and (b)(1)(i) to clarify that the monitoring plans for groundwater and surface water must include the locations of monitoring sites, the measurements that must be taken at each location, and a listing of the parameters to be monitored. This additional information will assist the review and analysis of the data obtained from monitoring by providing location and measurement context. Additionally, in final paragraphs (a)(1)(ii) and (b)(1)(iii), we have deleted “for each parameter” to be consistent with the changes made to final paragraphs (a)(1)(i) and (b)(1)(i).
In the second sentence of § 780.23(a)(1)(iii), we state that, at a minimum, the groundwater monitoring plan must include monitors in three types of locations. One commenter requested that we rephrase this sentence to require only that the groundwater monitoring plan “consider” the placement of monitoring wells in these three types of locations because the
Several commenters questioned the necessity of installing groundwater monitoring wells in aquifers located above and below the coal seam to be mined as proposed in paragraph (a)(1)(iii)(A), in backfilled portions of the permit area as proposed in paragraph (a)(1)(iii)(B), and in existing underground mine workings that are in direct hydrologic connection to the proposed operation as proposed in paragraph (a)(1)(iii)(C). The commenters considered monitoring above and below the coal seam unnecessary and expensive, and wells installed in the backfill and in underground mine workings to be of little value. Despite these comments, we have not removed these requirements because they are necessary to ensure that the coal mining operation, during and after mining, is not causing material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area. Data collected from upgradient monitoring wells installed in aquifers located above and below the coal seam provide information on the condition of the groundwater entering the mine site. Comparison of this upgradient information to groundwater data obtained from downgradient monitoring wells as it exits the mine site will provide the mine operator and the regulatory authority insight into the effects of the mining activities on the quality and quantity of the groundwater as compared to offsite conditions. Monitoring wells installed in the backfill area and in the underground mine pools is necessary because these areas are the most likely sources of acid mine drainage if it develops. Therefore, we are retaining these requirements in the final rule.
One commenter questioned whether the monitoring wells required under proposed § 784.23(a)(1)(iii)(C) for mine pools that result from underground mining operations would be removed before final bond release and asserted that if they are not removed, it could become a safety issue. Data from hydrologically connected mine pools will provide both the permittee and the regulatory authority with necessary information to evaluate the efficacy of the probable hydrologic consequences determination and to evaluate conditions in the mine pools prior to final bond release; thus, we are retaining the requirement. However, we agree with the commenter that a monitoring well left after final bond release could become a safety issue if it is not transferred to the property owner because no one would be responsible for maintaining the well. When no longer needed, and with approval by the regulatory authority, monitoring wells must be permanently sealed or transferred to another party consistent with §§ 816.13 and 816.39 of this part. Therefore, because appropriate transfer or sealing of monitoring wells must already occur under final §§ 816.13 and 816.39, respectively, we do not need to make any changes to final § 784.23 in response to this comment. Under paragraph (a)(1)(iv)(B), we now requiring that the monitoring data be used to determine the “biology” of the perennial and intermittent streams within the proposed permit and adjacent areas instead of the “biological condition” of those streams. We made this change for the same reasons we articulated above in connection with final § 780.19(c)(6)(vi) through (viii): “biology” encompasses the type of information needed to establish both the biological condition of perennial and intermittent streams, for which established protocols exist and the biology of intermittent streams for which established protocols do not exist. This language change recognizes that not all states have scientifically valid protocols for assessing the biological condition of intermittent streams. We also made an editorial correction, by inserting “proposed” before permit and adjacent areas. During the development of the groundwater monitoring plan, the permit has not been issued yet and is part of the permit application. By inserting the word “proposed”, final paragraph (a)(1)(iv)(B) now correctly reflects the status of the permit application process during compliance with this provision.
Under final paragraphs (a)(2)(i) and (b)(2)(i), we replaced the text “if those parameters relate to” with “to the extent needed to assess,” in order to clarify that the parameters to be monitored under final paragraphs (a)(2)(i) and (b)(2)(i) must be sufficient to evaluate the requirements of paragraphs (a)(2)(i)(A), and (B) and (b)(2)(A)-(E). Furthermore, under paragraphs (a)(2)(i)(A) and (b)(2)(i)(B), we have added “accuracy of the” to stipulate that the purpose of the monitoring is to improve accuracy of the findings and predictions of the probable hydrologic consequences determination prepared under § 780.20.
Under the final rule, we have deleted proposed paragraphs (a)(2)(i)(B) and (b)(2)(i)(D) regarding the requirement to monitor the parameters necessary to assess the biological condition of perennial or intermittent streams or other surface water bodies that receive discharges from groundwater within the proposed permit and adjacent areas. The remaining sections have been renumbered accordingly. The monitoring requirements in the deleted paragraphs were removed because the information they required was already accounted for in the monitoring requirements under final paragraphs (a)(2)(i)(A) and (b)(2)(i)(B), which require monitoring of parameters necessary to assess the accuracy of the findings and predictions in the probable hydrologic consequences determination under § 780.20. In turn, § 780.20(a)(5)(vii) states that the applicant must base the probable hydrologic consequences determination on an analysis of the baseline hydrologic, geologic,
We made several changes to final paragraphs (a)(2)(ii) and (b)(2)(ii). First, we revised the titles of these paragraphs to clarify that these sections contain the minimum requirements for sampling and analysis of groundwater and surface
We also reduced redundancies in the rule by removing the breakout of specific parameters that must be collected and analyzed every 3 months in proposed paragraphs (a)(2)(ii)(A) through (Q) and (b)(2)(ii)(B) through (S). These parameters are already listed in final § 780.19(a)(2). Instead, final paragraphs (a)(2)(ii)(A) and (b)(2)(ii)(A) simply require that the data collected include an analysis of each sample for parameters listed in § 780.19(a)(2). The remaining requirements have been re-lettered accordingly. For clarification purposes, under proposed paragraph (a)(2)(ii)(R), now final paragraph (a)(2)(ii)(B), we have added language that specifies that the reporting requirements apply to water levels for all wells and discharge rates for all springs or underground openings used for monitoring purposes. We have revised proposed paragraphs (a)(2)(ii)(S) and (b)(2)(ii)(T), now final paragraphs (a)(2)(ii)(C) and (b)(2)(ii)(C), respectively, for clarity. Final paragraphs (a)(2)(ii)(C) and (b)(2)(ii)(C) now more clearly state that the data required under this paragraph must include an analysis of all parameters detected in the baseline sampling conducted under § 780.19(d) of this part.
Proposed paragraphs (a)(2)(ii)(T) and (b)(2)(ii)(U), now final paragraphs (a)(2)(ii)(D) and (b)(2)(ii)(D), respectively, have been modified to be consistent with the revisions made to the titles of these sections. Additionally, we have replaced the phrase “parameters of local significance” with the phrase “other parameters of concern” for consistency with the definition of “parameters of concern” included in final § 701.5.
Proposed paragraphs (a)(3)(ii) and (b)(3)(ii) included the sentence: “[a]t a minimum, the plan must require monitoring of all parameters for which the regulatory has established a `material damage criteria'
Commenters noted that “water-bearing stratum,” as used in proposed paragraph (a)(4), is a new term and is not defined. In response, in final paragraph (a)(4), we have replaced the term “water-bearing stratum” with “aquifer,” a term that is defined in § 701.5. This change avoids using an undefined term but does not change the meaning of the paragraph.
Several commenters requested, that, in order to better protect groundwater resources, we rescind the exception in paragraph (a)(4) from monitoring for aquifers that have no existing or foreseeable use for agricultural or other human purposes or for fish and wildlife purposes and that do not significantly ensure the hydrologic balance within the cumulative impact area. We decline to make this change. SMCRA requires monitoring “for those surface coal mining and reclamation operations which remove or disturb strata that serve as aquifers which significantly insure the hydrologic balance of water use either on or off the mining site.”
This exception also implements section 102(f) of SMCRA
For changes made to final paragraphs (b)(1)(i), (b)(1)(iii), (b)(2)(i), (b)(2)(ii), and (b)(3)(ii), please refer to the preamble discussion above in the corresponding paragraphs in final paragraph (a).
Several commenters requested that we allow multiple permits to rely on data from a single self-recording device where the multiple permits are close enough to share data. These commenters alleged that allowing multiple operators to share the cost of a self-recording device could result in labor and equipment cost reductions. In response to these comments we have added final paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(C) to allow, at the discretion of the regulatory authority, a single self-recording device to provide precipitation monitoring data for multiple permits that are contiguous or nearly contiguous provided the device can provide adequate and accurate coverage of precipitation events occurring in that area.
We removed the phrase “for each parameter to be monitored” in paragraph (b)(1)(iii). For additional information about this change, please refer to the preamble discussion above in final paragraph (a)(1)(ii).
We revised paragraph (b)(1)(v)(B) to more thoroughly address concerns from commenters about the clarity of the proposed rule. This provision now requires the applicant to describe how the monitoring data will be used to determine the impacts of the operation “upon the biology of perennial and intermittent streams, lakes, and ponds within the proposed permit and adjacent areas.” For clarity we have substituted a reference to “lakes” and
A commenter questioned the need for the monitoring data required in proposed paragraph (b)(1)(v)(B) to determine the impacts of the operation on the biology of streams that will be mined through, alleging that this data is unnecessary. The commenter also alleged that this requirement contradicts SMCRA's requirement to minimize impacts within the permit boundary. We disagree that this data is unnecessary. The collection of data related to baseline hydrologic and biologic conditions is necessary for the operator to make a determination whether restoration of the stream is possible as required in §§ 780.12, 780.27, 780.28, 816.56, and 816.57 of this chapter. In addition, it provides information on the quality and quantity of the surface waters prior to mining which will document the baseline conditions needed for determining whether stream restoration is successful.
In final rule paragraph (b)(2)(i), we have deleted “if those parameters relate to the” and replaced it with “to the extent needed to assess the . . . .” Please see the preamble discussion at (a)(2)(i) for more discussion of this change. In the final rule, we have also deleted proposed paragraph (b)(2)(i)(D) which set out a requirement for monitoring of the biological condition of perennial or intermittent streams or other surface water bodies within the proposed permit and adjacent areas and have renumbered the remaining paragraphs accordingly. Please refer to the preamble discussion above in § 780.28(a)(2)(i)(B) for further information about this change.
In the final rule, we revised proposed paragraph (b)(2)(i)(E), now final paragraph (b)(2)(i)(D), to clarify that the surface-water monitoring plan must include monitoring of those parameters necessary to assess the suitability of the quality and quantity of surface water for all designated uses under 303(c) of the Clean Water Act.
We have revised final paragraph (b)(2)(ii) for clarity. Please refer to the preamble discussion above on paragraph (a)(2)(ii) for more information. Proposed paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(A), now final paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(B), remains essentially unchanged except that we have clarified that flow rates must be obtained from each sampling location.
We have revised proposed paragraphs (b)(2)(ii)(T) and (U), now final paragraphs (b)(2)(ii)(C) and (D) for clarity. For additional information, please refer to the preamble discussions above on final paragraphs (a)(2)(ii)(C) and (D).
One commenter requested that we include a list of parameters in § 780.23(b)(2)(iii), related to minimum requirements for point source discharges, including those parameters listed in proposed § 780.23(b)(2)(ii)(A) through (S). Conversely, another commenter did not want us to require all of the parameters referenced in § 780.23(b)(2)(ii) for point-source discharges, alleging that it would be outside of our authority under SMCRA. Monitoring requirements for point-source discharges are determined by Clean Water Act authorities under the National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System program. We do not have the authority under SMCRA to mandate what parameters must be included in National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System permits; therefore, we have made no changes to the final rule in response to these comments.
A commenter stated that we should delete proposed paragraph (b)(2)(iii)(B) which requires the surface water monitoring plan to include the measurement of flow rates for point-source discharges. The commenter alleged that this paragraph supersedes section 402 Clean Water Act requirements
We have provided additional language at the end of final paragraph (b)(2)(iv) to specify that the applicant must revise the surface-water monitoring plan to incorporate any site-specific monitoring requirements imposed by the National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System permitting or Clean Water Act authority subsequent to submission of the SMCRA permit application. We have added this provision to ensure that the applicant updates the SMCRA permit application as necessary with information that it has submitted in accordance with National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System permit requirements.
We are adopting final paragraph (b)(3)(ii) as proposed except that we are requiring that the plan include monitoring of all parameters for which the regulatory authority has established evaluation thresholds under § 780.21(b)(7) of this part. We explain this revision further at our preamble discussion for (a)(3)(ii).
Various commenters opposed the new biological condition monitoring plan requirements at proposed paragraph (c), alleging that the new requirements will be costly to comply with and do not offer clear guidance. Commenters specifically expressed uncertainty about the frequency and timing of monitoring under this paragraph. We acknowledge that the requirements at proposed paragraph (c), final paragraph (c), may contribute to increased monitoring costs. However, we have carefully evaluated the potential benefits of the information required by this provision and have determined that it is necessary to adequately determine the condition of the stream premining, during mining, and after mining. We find that the beneficial impacts of this information outweigh the costs and burdens to the operator and regulatory authority. With respect to the frequency of monitoring
Some commenters opposed the requirement for the biological condition monitoring plan as proposed in paragraph (c), because of an alleged lack of available studies demonstrating that this type of monitoring is necessary for or appropriate to streams outside of Appalachia. We have determined that these requirements are necessary for and appropriate for mining operations throughout the country. Although we cite studies about Appalachia in support of our conclusions,
L.A. Beche, et al.,
A. Boulton and P. Lake.
E. Bernhardt and M. Palmer.
C. Leigh and K. Fritz,
T. Nadeau and M. Cable Rains,
As stated in final § 780.19(c)(6)(vii), the permittee must adhere to a bioassessment protocol approved by the state or tribal agency responsible for preparing the water quality inventory required under section 305(b) of the Clean Water Act,
Many commenters supported the requirement to monitor the effects of the mining operation upon the biological condition of intermittent and perennial streams, noting that biological monitoring is necessary to assess the effects of mining operations on fish, wildlife, and related environmental resources as well as to determine whether material damage to the hydrological balance outside the permit area is occurring. Other commenters opposed monitoring the effects of the mining operation upon the biological condition of streams and recommended that we eliminate this requirement from the rule. Commenters opposing the biological condition monitoring requirement alleged that, because only one sample is taken per year, the information gathered will not be helpful in determining, in a timely manner, whether corrective actions are necessary. While these commenters are correct that this sampling is only required annually, additional samples can be taken as long as the additional sampling will not deplete the populations of species being monitored. Additionally, the information obtained from the biological condition monitoring plan should be evaluated alongside the other parts of the water monitoring requirements, such as the surface-water and groundwater monitoring requirements of paragraphs (a) and (b). Taken together, the once-a-year biological condition monitoring and the other more frequent monitoring requirements of paragraphs (a) and (b), will allow the regulatory authority to have the data necessary to identify trends that indicate that an operation is at risk of causing material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area. Therefore, we are retaining the requirement for biological condition monitoring because it is necessary to determine whether material damage to the hydrological balance outside the permit area is occurring, as well as to assess the effects of mining operations on fish, wildlife, and related environmental resources.
These commenters also asserted that biological condition monitoring does not identify the cause of the impacts and could reflect impacts not associated with the mining operations, such as logging, farming, livestock, irrigation, natural variation, or unusual flow events. We agree that in certain instances, such as those listed above, it is possible that the biological condition monitoring may show impacts that are not directly associated with the mining operations. However, as stated above, we intend for data obtained from the biological condition monitoring to be evaluated with the data obtained from surface-water and groundwater monitoring, not on a stand-alone basis. Evaluation of the data resulting from the three types of monitoring will allow the regulatory authority to determine if impacts to stream biology are related to the mining operation and if corrective action is needed to prevent the operation from causing material damage to the hydrological balance outside the permit area. This requirement provides applicants better protection against potential liability for environmental harm because the additional data will make it easier to determine whether the impact is a result of mining activities or activities unrelated to mining.
Several commenters suggested that the biological condition monitoring plans in §§ 780.23(c) and 784.23(c) should be prepared by a qualified ecologist or biologist. Because the requirements contained in final paragraph (c) and paragraphs (vi) through (viii) of final § 780.19(c)(6) contain detailed requirements about what must be monitored and which scientific protocols are acceptable, it is not necessary to also have the plans be prepared by a qualified ecologist or biologist.
We made minor clarifying revisions throughout final paragraph (c). Specifically, the phrase “for which baseline biological condition data was collected under § 780.19(c)(6)(iv) of this part” has been added to paragraphs (c)(1) and (c)(2)(ii). This addition provides greater specificity as to the monitoring locations within the proposed permit and adjacent areas that the biological condition monitoring plan must include. Additionally, we updated the citation in final paragraph (c)(2)(i) to reflect changes we made to final § 780.19.
This paragraph lists exceptions to the requirements for monitoring groundwater, surface water and the biological condition of streams during and after mining. It provides the regulatory authority with the flexibility to modify the groundwater and surface water requirements of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section and modify or waive the biological condition monitoring plan requirements of paragraph (c) of this section. As discussed below, we did not make any changes to this section in response to comments.
One commenter recommended deleting proposed paragraph (d)(1), which provides the regulatory authority the discretion to modify groundwater, surface water, and biological condition monitoring plan requirements if the proposed permit includes only land eligible for remining. This commenter expressed concern that this provision could be abused through overuse and that biological condition monitoring should be waived only when a stream contains no valuable biological community. The commenter asserted that biological communities in these remined areas will be impacted and that merely conducting a baseline assessment of a stream's biological condition would not be sufficient. Many commenters expressed concern that, in some instances, pre-SMCRA unreclaimed mines have been left undisturbed for so long that the area has naturally revegetated and that any mining would re-disturb important plant communities, despite the fact that these areas might also contain unreclaimed abandoned mine features. We agree that, in some instances, unreclaimed areas that have naturally revegetated, may qualify for the exemption under final paragraph (d)(1). However, despite naturally revegetating and supporting a biological community, these sites are often still dangerous because of unreclaimed spoil piles, highwalls, and pits. Further, reclamation funds are severely limited and remining is often the only viable method of reclaiming previously mined areas, especially those that are far away from public roads or are not actively discharging acid-mine drainage.
The exception at final paragraph (d)(1) applies only where the permit area consists solely of lands eligible for remining and the regulatory authority has determined that a less extensive monitoring plan is adequate to monitor the impacts. The applicant would also have to comply with final § 785.25. Therefore, the exception cannot be invoked for every remining operation. With this exception we are attempting to encourage the mining of already disturbed sites, which will then be reclaimed in a manner that returns the land to a premining state or another appropriate postmining land use. While additional disturbances, and the potential for water quality impacts, would occur with any mining operation, reclaiming these sites to a more natural condition is the best alternative in the long term. This exception conforms to section 102(h) of SMCRA,
Several commenters also recommended that we allow the regulatory authority to waive biological condition monitoring requirements in other circumstances. Other commenters suggested that we defer to the Clean Water Act authority to determine if biological monitoring is necessary. In support of this position, these commenters assert, without any supporting evidence, that Clean Water Act authorities allow large municipal wastewater treatment plants to eliminate biological monitoring. We do not agree that the regulatory authority should have increased discretion to waive biological condition monitoring. As discussed above and in the preamble to the proposed rule,
This paragraph is being finalized as proposed with the exception that it has been reorganized for clarity. The statement “make best efforts to” was initially applied only to minimizing differences in monitoring locations and reporting requirements and sharing data to the extent practicable and consistent with each agency's mission, statutory requirements, and implementing regulations. Several commenters noted that coordinating with Clean Water Act agencies in a timely manner can be difficult if the regulatory authority does not receive responses from the Clean Water Act agencies. We agree and, in response to this comment, moved the statement “make best efforts to” to the first sentence of the paragraph, revising the section to read that the SMCRA regulatory authority must make its best effort to consult in a timely manner with the agencies responsible for issuing permits, authorizations, and certifications under the Clean Water Act, minimize differences in monitoring locations and reporting requirements, and share data to the extent practicable and consistent with each agency's mission, statutory requirements, and implementing regulations.
One commenter opposed adoption of proposed § 780.24 because, according to the commenter, previous § 780.24 is sufficient. The commenter did not elaborate further. We disagree for the reasons discussed in the preamble to the proposed rule.
Another commenter alleged that the proposed rule confuses land use and land capability. We disagree. Whenever sections 508(a)(2) and (3) and 515(b)(2) of SMCRA
The commenter also alleged that the preamble to proposed § 780.24 assumes that a change to a higher or better land use would be a change to a higher capability. According to the commenter, a change to a higher or better postmining land use may reduce the capability of the land to support other uses that it could previously support. We agree that implementation of certain postmining land uses would reduce the capability of the land to support other uses. For example, construction of industrial or commercial facilities as part of implementation of a commercial or industrial postmining land use would reduce the capability of the land to support fish and wildlife habitat or cropland. However, this principle applies regardless of whether a higher or better use is involved. Our rules do not seek to prevent this outcome. Instead, they require that the permittee reclaim the land to a condition in which it is capable of supporting the uses that the land was capable of supporting before any mining. If the land was capable of supporting both industrial and cropland uses prior to any mining, then the permittee must reclaim the mined land to a condition capable of supporting both industrial and cropland uses after mining and reclamation. Nothing in our rules prohibits implementation of the industrial land use before bond release, even if doing so reduces or effectively eliminates the site's capability to support cropland. Our rules, like section 515(b)(2) of SMCRA,
A few commenters alleged that the proposed rule would greatly limit postmining land use options and severely complicate the ability to obtain approval of higher or better uses. According to the commenters, the proposed rule thus would place an undue burden on the landowner and restrict landowner rights. We do not agree. In reality, the final rule would ease the requirements for obtaining approval of a proposed postmining land use that differs from the actual premining use, provided that the proposed use is a use that the land was capable of supporting prior to any mining. Proposed and final paragraphs (b)(1)(iii)(E) through (G) add three new demonstration and finding requirements for approval of alternative postmining land uses;
The same commenters further alleged that adoption of the proposed rule would place a burden on state regulatory authorities by requiring significantly more time for review and inspection. We do not agree. As discussed in the preamble to the proposed rule,
Proposed paragraph (a)(2) would require that each permit application include a discussion of the utility and capability of the reclaimed land to support a variety of other uses, including the uses that the land was capable of supporting before any mining, as identified under § 779.22, regardless of the proposed postmining
The commenter further alleged that the proposed rule does not account for historical land use practices and capabilities resulting from agricultural practices. According to the commenter, the conversion of prairies to cropland and the installation of drainage ditches and drain tiles have altered the capability of the affected lands to support certain land uses. Nothing in the proposed or final rules would have the effect alleged by the commenter. Both proposed and final § 780.24(a)(2) require identification and discussion of the uses that the land was capable of supporting before any mining not at some time in the distant past before the advent of agriculture. It does not matter whether that capability is naturally occurring or the result of agriculture drainage projects or other human intervention.
The commenter also alleged that the proposed rule differs from the statutory provision that it is intended to implement because section 508(a)(2)(B) of SMCRA
We do not agree. Section 508(a)(3) of SMCRA
However, in response to these and other comments concerned about the potential burden on regulatory authorities and relevance to permitting decisions, we have made two modifications to proposed paragraph (a)(2). First, final rule § 780.24(a)(2) excludes prime farmland historically used as cropland. Under existing § 785.17(e)(1), the approved postmining land use for these prime farmlands must be cropland, so there is no discretion available in determining an appropriate postmining land use. Furthermore, lands reclaimed in accordance with prime farmland standards will be capable of supporting almost all other potential land uses by default. Second, we have limited the scope of final paragraph (a)(2) to include only the proposed postmining land use and the variety of uses that the land was capable of supporting before any mining. The proposed rule implied that the applicant had to discuss other uses in addition to these. We agree that information concerning any other potential postmining land use would not be relevant to the decision making process.
Proposed paragraph (a)(4)(i) would require that each permit application include a copy of the comments concerning the proposed postmining land use that the applicant receives from the legal or equitable owner of record of the land surface. One commenter erroneously described this provision as a requirement for the regulatory authority to consult with the landowner on all proposed postmining land uses. The commenter did not indicate whether it thought that such consultation should be required, as it is for approval of higher or better uses. However, section 508(a)(3) of SMCRA requires only that the application include “the comments of any owner of the surface.” Proposed paragraph (a)(4)(i) is consistent with this statutory requirement and we are adopting it as final without change. The fact that SMCRA requires that the landowner have an opportunity to comment on the proposed postmining land use, however, implies that the regulatory authority must consider those comments, to the extent appropriate, when deciding whether to approve the proposed postmining land use.
Proposed paragraph (a)(4)(ii) would require that each permit application include a copy of the comments concerning the proposed postmining land use that the applicant receives from state and local government agencies that would have to initiate, implement, approve, or authorize the proposed use of the land following reclamation. One commenter urged us not to apply this requirement when the premining and postmining land uses are the same. The commenter further alleged that the permit applicant would be unable to meet this requirement in states and localities that do not have planning or zoning entities.
Section 508(a)(3) of SMCRA requires that the application include the comments of “State and local governments or agencies thereof which would have to initiate, implement, approve or authorize the proposed use of the land following reclamation.” There is no exception for situations in which the premining and postmining land uses are identical. In addition, there is no guarantee that state and local governments and agencies would not have a role in initiation, implementation, approval, or authorization of the postmining land use in those circumstances. Therefore, we are adopting proposed paragraph (a)(4)(ii) without change. However, nothing in that paragraph compels those governments or agencies to submit comments. Nor does that paragraph prohibit approval of the proposed postmining land use in the absence of comments from those governments or agencies. Consequently, the commenter's statement that the applicant would be unable to meet this requirement in states and localities that do not have planning or zoning entities has no basis.
Numerous commenters opposed adoption of proposed paragraph (a)(6)(ii), which would have required that the permit applicant disclose any monetary compensation provided to the landowner in exchange for the landowner's agreement to an alternative postmining land use. Many commenters alleged that we have no authority to require disclosure of private contracts, with one commenter asserting that it would require the disclosure of proprietary and confidential business information. Other commenters asserted that the provision would be impossible to enforce. Some commenters opined that the required information is not relevant to whether the postmining land use change is likely to be achieved, nor is it information that the regulatory authority could use in reaching a decision on a request for approval of an alternative postmining land use. One commenter erroneously asserted that this provision would act as a prohibition on compensation and would illegally require the regulatory authority to adjudicate contract disputes. Another commenter urged us to respect the ability of landowners to determine how best to use their property after mining and to avoid unnecessary regulation of private real estate dealings where such regulation would provide no significant environmental or land use planning benefit.
Another commenter alleged that the proposed rule would not be effective in addressing the core issue, which is the failure of regulatory authorities to make an independent and fact-based determination that the proposed change in land use meets statutory requirements. According to the commenter, compensation for landowner agreement to a postmining land use change could easily be disguised as something else and there is no reason to believe that disclosure of compensation would improve the quality of the decision-making process. Therefore, the commenter recommended that the monetary disclosure provision be deleted and replaced with a provision specifying that landowner consent alone is insufficient basis for approval of a proposed alternative postmining land use without further demonstrations of compliance with the criteria for approval of an alternative postmining land use.
The commenter explained that, in her experience, some permittees have made payments or used other means to persuade landowners to concur with alternative postmining land uses that are not higher or better uses or for which there is no intent to implement. According to the commenter, under the previous rules, landowner consent was often given for uses that were neither higher nor better, that were improbable or impractical, and that sometimes were even undesirable for the landowner. The commenter further stated that regulators rely on landowner consent to an excessive degree to document whether the proposed postmining land use meets the statutory standards for approval as a higher or better use. The commenter cites a decision of Administrative Law Judge Harvey Sweitzer in
After considering these comments, we decided to adopt the approach recommended by the last comment discussed above. Specifically, we are not adopting proposed paragraph (a)(6)(ii). Instead, we revised proposed paragraph (b)(2)(ii) to include language clarifying that landowner consent alone is an insufficient basis for a regulatory authority finding that the applicant or permittee has made the demonstration needed for approval of a proposed alternative postmining land use. We agree with the commenter that this approach should be more effective in ensuring that both applicants and regulatory authorities consider all the criteria in paragraphs (b)(1)(i) through (iii) for approval of alternative postmining land uses rather than deferring to the professed wishes of the landowner. We also agree with the commenter that, while the regulatory authority must take the preferences of landowners into consideration when evaluating a proposed postmining land use, landowner consent is not probative of whether a proposed land use meets the criteria for approval.
One commenter asserted that we should delete proposed paragraph (b)(1) because the preamble provides only anecdotal evidence to support the proposition that the current regulations are insufficient to reliably achieve proposed higher or better land uses. However, the commenter only provided arguments concerning paragraph (b)(1)(i), so we interpret the comment as being directed at only that subparagraph. Proposed paragraph (b)(1)(i) would require that the applicant demonstrate that there is a reasonable likelihood that a proposed alternative postmining land use will be achieved after mining and reclamation, as documented by, for example, real estate and construction contracts, plans for installation of any necessary infrastructure, procurement of any necessary zoning approvals, landowner commitments, economic forecasts, and studies by land use planning agencies. According to the commenter, it is impractical to expect long-term mining operations to present evidence such as real estate and construction contracts to support the proposition that the mined area will in fact achieve the proposed postmining land use years prior to the completion of reclamation activities.
Moreover, our regulations do not require attainment of proposed alternative postmining land uses (higher or better uses) as the commenter appears to imply, but, consistent with the underlying statutory provision, they do require that the applicant demonstrate, and the regulatory authority find, that there is a reasonable likelihood that the proposed higher or better use will be achieved. Section 515(b)(2) of SMCRA
Our rules always have required a demonstration and finding that there is a reasonable likelihood of achieving a proposed alternative postmining land use, as does the statute. Proposed paragraph (b)(1)(i) differs from the previous rule only in that the proposed rule provides examples of how that demonstration and finding may be made. The list is not exhaustive, but it provides guidance on the type of documentation needed to make a good-faith demonstration and finding. If a permit applicant is unable to provide documentation of this nature, then there is no basis upon which the regulatory authority can make a finding that there is a reasonable likelihood of achieving the proposed postmining use, as the commenter implicitly acknowledges. When there is uncertainty about the reasonable likelihood of achieving a higher or better use, the applicant should propose a different postmining land use, one that the land was capable of supporting before any mining. If, at a later date, implementation of a higher or better use becomes more likely, the permittee may submit a permit revision application to change the postmining land use.
The commenter also questioned the ability of regulatory authorities to evaluate the likelihood that real estate and construction contracts will ensure implementation of the postmining land use. However, the commenter provided no explanation of why this would be the case and we have no reason to believe that regulatory authorities lack this capability.
Final paragraph (b)(1) differs slightly from proposed paragraph (b)(1) in that we replaced the phrase “use or uses” with “uses” for consistency with paragraph (a) and to emphasize that the default requirement is to restore the site to a condition in which it is capable of supporting the uses that it was capable of supporting before mining, not just the single use that existed prior to mining. The revised language is consistent with section 515(b)(2) of SMCRA,
We revised proposed paragraph (b)(1)(iii)(D) by adding the word “tribal” to the phrase “Federal, State, or local law” found in section 515(b)(2) of SMCRA. We consider this revision to be a clarification rather than a substantive change because we have always considered tribal law to be included in the statutory phrase.
We revised proposed paragraph (b)(1)(iii)(E) to refer to changes in the size or frequency of peak flows that would cause an increase in flooding rather than an increase in damage from flooding as in the proposed rule. We made this change because determination of whether there would be an increase in flooding is easier and more feasible than a determination of whether there would be an increase in damage from flooding. The latter standard would require projection of future development downstream of the proposed permit area, which could be difficult and speculative.
Final paragraphs (b)(1)(iii)(F) and (G) differ from their counterparts in the proposed rule in that we removed references to reasonably foreseeable uses of surface water and groundwater. The final rule no longer includes the term “reasonably foreseeable uses” in contexts other than protection of reasonably foreseeable surface land uses from the adverse impacts of subsidence. Our reasons for deletion of this term are twofold. First, the term appears in SMCRA only in section 516(b)(1), which requires that operators of underground mines adopt subsidence control measures to, among other things, maintain the value and reasonably foreseeable use of surface lands. Sections 717(b) and 720(a)(2) of SMCRA separately protect certain water uses. Second, numerous commenters opposed inclusion of the term “reasonably foreseeable uses” on the basis that it is too subjective, difficult to determine, and open to widely varying interpretations, which could result in inconsistent application throughout the coalfields.
Final paragraphs (b)(1)(iii)(F) and (G) also differ from their counterparts in the proposed rule in that we clarified that these paragraphs apply only outside the permit area, consistent with section 510(b)(3) of SMCRA,
One commenter expressed concern that proposed paragraph (b)(1)(iii)(F) could be an issue in the arid Southwest when the operation includes the construction of permanent impoundments that do not discharge. According to the commenter, the rule could be interpreted to mean that non-discharging impoundments are precluding downstream reaches from attaining their designated use even though the immediate downstream reaches are ephemeral. This situation could exist only if the runoff from a mine comprises a critical element of the flow necessary to support a designated use of surface water outside the permit area under section 303(c) of the Clean Water Act.
Another commenter stated that proposed paragraph (b)(2)(i) requiring the regulatory authority to consult with “the landowner or the land management agency having jurisdiction over the lands to which the use would apply” is vague and unnecessary because it does not explain what specifically the regulatory authority is to seek consultation on. The commenter opines that the regulatory authority only needs to know that the landowner has consented to the land use change. Further, the commenter states that our previous regulations require that consent be provided in writing and thus, the proposed paragraph is unnecessary. We disagree. In our experience landowners frequently discuss significant concerns about alternate postmining land uses when engaged by the regulatory authority. For this reason, consulting with the landowner is essential, particularly when assessing the “reasonable likelihood” that a change in land use will occur. Therefore, we are adopting this paragraph as proposed.
Paragraph (d) establishes restrictions on the retention of mining-related structures, other than impoundments and roads, for potential future use in support of the postmining land use. One
One commenter opposed the provisions in proposed paragraphs (d)(2) and (3) that effectively require that the land upon which a structure is sited be revegetated with native vegetation if the structure is removed because of a failure to implement the approved postmining land use during the revegetation responsibility period. According to the commenter, the land from which the structure was removed could be used for cropland or in some other manner that would not warrant planting of native vegetation. The commenter also noted that planting with native vegetation may not be consistent with the surface owner's land use intentions.
Surface owner intentions are an important consideration, but they are not the exclusive criterion for selection of the species planted on land disturbed by mining operations. Section 515(b)(19) of SMCRA
However, we determined that the proposed rule's revegetation requirement was not fully in accord with the underlying statutory provisions discussed above because it did not clearly provide for the exceptions authorized by the statute. Therefore, in final 30 CFR 780.24(d)(2) and (3), we are replacing the phrase “establishing native vegetation in accordance with § 816.111 of this chapter” in the proposed rule with “revegetating the site in accordance with the revegetation plan approved under § 780.12(g) of this part for the permit area surrounding the site upon which the structure was previously located.” Section 780.12(g) includes the exceptions allowed under paragraphs (b)(19) and (20) of SMCRA.
One commenter expressed concern that proposed paragraph (d)(3) may not allow buildings left after reclamation to be sold. Nothing in the proposed or final rules would prohibit sale of a building. If the sale occurs before expiration of the revegetation responsibility period and the building continues to be used in support of the postmining land use, the building may remain on site. If the sale occurs before expiration of the revegetation responsibility period and the building is no longer used in support of the postmining land use, but is being used for some other purpose, the permittee may apply for a change in postmining land use for the land containing the building. If the sale occurs after final bond release for the land upon the building is sited, the sale and use of the building are no longer a concern under SMCRA because the land is no longer considered to be the site of a surface coal mining and reclamation operations subject to jurisdiction under SMCRA. Under all other circumstances, the buyer must remove the building unless it is used in support of the approved postmining land use.
Several commenters noted that proposed paragraph (e) contained an erroneous cross-reference to 30 CFR 780.24(b))(1)(iv), which does not exist. One commenter alleged that adoption of proposed paragraph (e) without correction of the cross-reference would have the effect of prohibiting the regulatory authority from approving any alternative postmining land uses on previously mined land. The commenter also asserted that adoption of the proposed requirement for compliance with proposed paragraph (a) would create a significant disincentive to remining previously mined land because paragraph (a) requires restoration of the land to a condition in which it is capable of supporting the uses that it was capable of supporting before any mining. According to the commenter, compliance with this requirement is impossible if topsoil and subsoil was not salvaged prior to the initial mining.
After evaluating these comments, we find that the commenters are correct. In addition, our review disclosed that the language of proposed paragraph (e) did not match the description of that paragraph in the preamble to the proposed rule. The preamble discussion accurately describes our intent, whereas the actual language of the proviso in proposed paragraph (e) does not. Therefore, we are not adopting the language of paragraph (e) set forth in the proposed rule. Instead, the language of paragraph (e) that we are adopting as part of this final rule is consistent with the description and discussion in the preamble to proposed paragraph (e).
Section 780.25 as proposed, provides for safety enhancements related to siltation structures, impoundments, and refuse piles.
For the purposes of clarity and to be consistent with other bureaus within the Department of the Interior, final paragraph (a) includes a table representing a simplified process of hazard classification. In response to the proposed rule, a commenter considered our reliance upon the U.S. Department of Agriculture Natural Resource Conservation Service's Technical Release No. 60, misplaced. The commenter noted that, within the Department of the Interior, the Technical Release No. 60 has been superseded by the Federal Emergency Management Agency's hazard
As a result of the adoption of the hazard potential classification system for dams within paragraph (a) of the final rule, we have relocated the explanation of general plan requirements for proposed siltation structures, impoundments, and refuse piles, discussed at paragraph (a) within the proposed rule, to paragraph (b) of the final rule.
Some commenters raised concerns that this section blurs the distinction between typical sediment structures and structures that satisfy the Mine Safety and Health Administration criteria and imposes unreasonable evaluation and design criteria on sediment structures. Specifically, these commenters questioned the requirement for geotechnical evaluation, including consideration of subsidence, on a small sediment structure designed to typically contain little or no water.
We concur that extensive geotechnical evaluations as proposed in paragraph (a)(1)(iv) and now found in final paragraph (b)(4)(i), are not necessary for small structures in areas with 26.0 inches or less of average annual precipitation or for siltation structures. This is because such structures cannot impound sufficient water to pose a significant risk in the event of failure. Therefore, we have altered the final rule to grant exemptions for small structures in areas with less than 26.0 inches of annual precipitation, found at paragraph (b)(4)(ii)(A), and at paragraph (b)(4)(ii)(B), for siltation structures; as long as the structures do not meet the criteria in § 77.216(a) of this title
Some commenters also claimed that the requirements in the proposed rule at paragraph (a)(1)(iv), now paragraph (b)(5)(i) in the final rule, are focused on regional issues, such as breakthroughs into underground workings and refuse piles, which are more common in the eastern portion of nation. These commenters asserted that this provision requires a large amount of additional and unnecessary design, permitting, and construction work for the small impoundments typical in western mines that generally pose little risk of failure or danger to the public. Similar to our discussion of the exemptions within final paragraph (b)(4), we concur that extensive evaluations of breakthroughs, as required in final paragraph (b)(5)(i) would not be necessary for small structures in areas with 26.0 inches or less of average annual precipitation or for siltation structures. Again, this is because such structures cannot impound sufficient water to pose a significant risk in the event of failure. We have provided exemptions in paragraphs (b)(5)(ii)(A) for structures in areas with less than 26.0 inches of annual precipitation, and (b)(5)(ii)(B) for siltation structures; as long as the structures do not meet the criteria in 30 CFR 77.216(a) or have a “significant” or “high” hazard potential under paragraph (a) of this section.
The same commenter that generally supported the safety enhancements to § 780.25 also specifically supported the inclusion of the requirement within the proposed rule at paragraph (a)(1)(v), now paragraph(b)(5)(i), that the general plan for each impoundment include an analysis of the potential for the impoundment to drain into subjacent underground mine workings and an analysis of the impacts of such drainage. We agree that prudent planning is appropriate; therefore, we are incorporating this requirement, as proposed, into the final rule.
In paragraph (a)(1)(vi)(A) of the proposed rule, we included a requirement that the plan must include “a certification statement that includes a schedule setting forth the dates when any detailed plans for structures that are not submitted with the general plan will be submitted to the regulatory authority.” We have modified this requirement and reclassified it as paragraph (b)(6) in the final rule. We have removed the “certification statement” but required the plan include a schedule setting forth the dates when detailed design plans will be submitted to the regulatory authority.
Proposed paragraph (a)(2) applied to structures that meet the criteria for “Significant” or “High Hazard” classification in accordance with the U.S. Department of Agriculture Natural Resources Conservation Service Technical Release 60
We have reclassified proposed paragraphs (a)(2), relating to design plans for high hazard dams, significant hazard dams, and certain impounding structures to paragraph (c)(1), and (a)(3), relating to other structures, to paragraph (c)(2) within the final rule. Additionally, we have made clarifications and modifications to these sections. We have renumbered the paragraphs for clarity and to emphasize the distinctions between the two classifications.
In addition to the reclassification of proposed rule (a)(2) to (c)(1) in the final rule, we have removed the references to the U.S. Department of Agriculture's Technical Release 60, hazard classification procedure from final paragraph (c)(1) and revised it to apply to structures that would have a significant or high hazard potential under paragraph (a) of final rule and, similar to the proposed rule, would satisfy the criteria of the Mine Safety and Health Administration's regulation at 30 CFR 77.216(a).
Paragraphs (c)(1) and (c)(2) of the final rule both include requirements related to who may prepare plans. We have moved these from “general requirements” and provided separate paragraphs for each to emphasize the distinctions between the levels of associated risk and design requirements. The structures within paragraph (c)(1) of the final rule are critical structures, the failure of which could result in significant loss of human life. Therefore, we have made the design plans for these structures subject to more stringent requirements, including that they be prepared by or under the direction of a registered professional engineer; or for structures covered in paragraph (c)(2), a licensed land surveyor. However, we note that all coal mine waste structures to which §§ 816.81 through 816.84 apply, must be designed by a registered, professional engineer even if such structures do not meet the hazard classification criteria of (c)(1). In addition, we are requiring that the engineer or land surveyor certify the plans. The engineer or land surveyor must have a documented history of experience with dams and impoundments. This is a new requirement; however, due to the potential for loss of life in the event of failure it is important that designers of these structures have, in addition to appropriate credentials, a documented history of pertinent experience.
Paragraph (a)(3) of the proposed rule, now paragraph (c)(2), includes detailed design plan requirements for “other structures.” Similar to the detailed design plans for high hazard dams, significant hazard dams, and impounding structures, this paragraph details each of the requirements necessary for an adequate design plan for structures other than those enumerated in paragraph (c)(1). Additionally, within paragraph (c)(2)(i)(A), we included the requirement that the qualified registered professional engineer, or qualified registered professional land surveyor in states that allow land surveyors to design these structures, must be experienced in the design and construction of impoundments. Again, this is a new requirement. We recognize that although the hazard is inherently lower there is still a potential for loss of life. Therefore, utilizing experienced professionals is necessary. Paragraph (c)(2)(i)(B) also includes a requirement that all coal mine waste structures to which §§ 816.81 through 816.84 of this chapter apply must be certified by a qualified, registered, professional engineer to ensure proper construction.
One commenter questioned the requirement in proposed paragraph (c)(2), that the applicant submit the Mine Safety and Health Administration plan to the SMCRA regulatory authority and suggested that we delete it. This commenter alleged that this proposed requirement is unnecessarily confusing and meaningless because an incomplete plan would not be useful to the regulatory authority. The commenter suggested that the provision be either eliminated or revised to require the submission of the completed Mine Safety Health Administration impoundment plan through a permit revision. The commenter also noted that the Mine Safety and Health Administration plan is already subject to many layers of review and submitting it to the regulatory authority would be duplicative. In addition, the commenter noted that many of the procedures set out in the plan do not impact the environment and would not be relevant to a SMCRA review. We concur with the commenter and have removed the requirement within the final rule. It is not necessary for the applicant to submit plans required by the Mine Safety and Health Administration to the SMCRA regulatory authority because, even without those plans, the SMCRA regulatory authority can determine whether there are deviations from the SMCRA plans.
We have moved the requirements that detailed plans not submitted with the permit application be submitted in accordance with a provided schedule and that they be submitted and approved before construction begins from paragraph (a)(1)(vi), under “General requirements” in the proposed rule, to paragraph (c)(3) “Timing of submittal of detailed plans” in the final rule. This was done because requirements for detailed plans were provided in the two previous paragraphs in the final rule: High hazard dams, significant hazard dams, and certain impounding structures in paragraph (c)(1) and other structures in paragraph (c)(2). We decided to address the issue of scheduling immediately after requirements for those plans were presented.
For the purpose of clarity, proposed paragraph (b), relating to siltation structures, has been reclassified and is found at paragraph (d) in the final rule.
For the purposes of clarity, proposed paragraph (c), relating to “permanent and temporary impoundments,” has been modified and reclassified as paragraph (e) within the final rule. We removed the reference to the criteria for Significant Hazard Class or High Hazard Class dams in published by the U.S. Department of Agriculture, Natural Resources Conservation Service Technical Release No. 60. As discussed above, in connection with paragraph (a), we are requiring hazard classification to be done in accordance with the Federal Emergency Management Agency's hazard potential classification system.
In proposed paragraph (c)(4), now (e)(3), we proposed a requirement that permittees of impoundments that will meet the Significant Hazard Class or High Hazard Class criteria for dams
In proposed paragraph (d)(2)(iv), now paragraph (f)(2)(iv) in the final rule, we require that impoundments and siltation structures be designed to ensure that at least 90 percent of the stormwater stored in the impoundment during the design precipitation event will be removed within a 10-day period. One commenter asserted that this requirement would need to be addressed in the National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System permit as well because it could impact mixing zone limits, loading limits, and whether the operation meets numerical effluent standards. This assertion appears to be based on a belief that greater than normal (stormwater) discharges equate to greater than normal loadings of parameters. We proposed this requirement for safety reasons as it is important to restore the stormwater storage capacity as quickly as possible to prepare for the possible occurrence of another significant event. Although the rate of discharge of water is greater than normal following a significant precipitation event, parameters with numerical effluent limits commonly defined in a National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System permit tend to be at low concentrations after a significant precipitation event, due to dilution, with the exception of suspended solids. Therefore, in many cases we do not anticipate that it would be necessary to address stormwater discharged over time or that such a discharge would tend to exceed loading limits or numerical effluent standards. These are issues that should be examined during the National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System permitting process and addressed in that permit. Nothing in this section, however, exempts an operator from complying with its National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System permit as approved. Should discharges of stormwater following a precipitation event result in exceedances of effluent limitations defined in the permit, they would be addressed in the same way as any other such exceedance. In addition to potential enforcement by the Clean Water Act regulatory authority, the SMCRA regulatory authority may also have separate enforcement obligations for failure to comply with requirements of § 780.28(a).
One commenter suggested that we revise the permitting requirements to make them similar to the performance standard changes finalized in a 1983 rulemaking,
We have redesignated proposed § 780.27, and it is now § 780.26 in the final rule. With the exception of the redesignation, we are finalizing this section as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
In the preamble to the proposed rule we discussed the unique characteristics of ephemeral streams and the vital importance of headwater streams, including ephemeral streams, in maintaining the ecological health and function of streams down gradient of headwater streams.
If the proposed permit area includes waters subject to the jurisdiction of the Clean Water Act, including some ephemeral streams, the regulatory authority must condition the permit to prohibit initiation of surface mining activities in or affecting the applicable waters before you obtain all necessary authorizations, certifications, and permits under the Clean Water Act.
A similar requirement was found in proposed § 780.28(a), however, as discussed in the introduction of § 780.27, we have separated out the requirements for ephemeral streams and the requirements pertaining to them are found in final rule § 780.27. This final paragraph more closely tracks the permit condition found in final rule § 773.17(h) and the provisions of final rule § 780.16(c)(4)(ii) about protection of other species and the requirement to
Unlike the requirements for intermittent and perennial streams discussed in § 780.28, final rule paragraph (b) of this section only requires the restoration of a postmining surface drainage pattern that is similar to the premining drainage pattern, relatively stable, and in dynamic near-equilibrium and postmining stream-channel configurations that are relatively stable and similar to the premining configuration of ephemeral streams. This means that the stream flood plains maintain their alignments and widths, and although the stream channel location within the floodplain may vary, the general configuration of the stream channel remains relatively constant. To be clear, this section does not require the establishment of hydrologic or ecological function as mandated for perennial and intermittent streams. Paragraph (b)(2) also allows the regulatory authority to approve or require a drainage pattern or stream-channel configuration that differs from the premining pattern if appropriate to: Ensure stability; prevent or minimize downcutting or widening of reconstructed stream channels and control meander migration; promote enhancement of fish and wildlife habitat; accommodate any anticipated temporary or permanent increase in surface runoff as a result of mining and reclamation; accommodate the construction of excess spoil fills, coal mine waste piles, or impounding structures; replace previously channelized or severely altered streams with a more natural, relatively stable, and ecologically sound drainage pattern or configuration; or reclaim a previously mined area. Because the drainage pattern and stream-channel configuration requirements need only be similar to the premining patterns and configurations, some differences are allowable—
These requirements ensure establishment of a postmining drainage pattern that is functionally equivalent to the premining pattern, is relatively stable, and in dynamic near equilibrium, while affording the regulatory authority the discretion to alter the drainage pattern in certain situations that are likely to be better for the hydrologic balance. For example, the regulatory authority may allow a variance from the requirements in paragraph (b)(1) when onsite conditions are such that undesirable situations can be avoided by altering the drainage pattern. Examples might include situations where reconstructing the premining pattern could result in instability, downcutting or widening, or excessive erosion of the reconstructed stream channel, or when reconstruction of the premining drainage pattern would eliminate an opportunity to enhance wildlife habitat. Other examples would include cases where the premining drainage is altered to accommodate anticipated increased runoff; accommodate construction of spoil, mine waste, or impounding structures; or to replace previously channelized or severely altered streams. Another example would be the accommodation of the construction of approved structures, such as excess spoil fills or coal mine waste impounding structures, which may necessitate drainage patterns alterations. Still another example of when the regulatory authority may approve an alternate drainage pattern is when the premining drainage pattern was altered by previous activities, whether mining-related or not. As noted by commenters, in some circumstances, restoring the postmining drainage to the approximate drainage pattern before any human activity occurred may be beneficial and should be allowed. To address this concern, we added final paragraph (b)(2)(vii) because the premining surface drainage pattern and stream-channel configuration on previously mined areas may not be optimal or desirable from a land use, hydrological or ecological perspective.
As discussed previously in this preamble, throughout the final rule we have replaced the term “riparian corridor” as used in the proposed rule with “streamside vegetative corridor”; this change is also incorporated into this section. The final rule is based on the current understanding of the contributions made by streamside vegetative corridors along ephemeral streams. As discussed above, although a permittee is not required to reconstruct 100 percent of the ephemeral streams mined in or through, those ephemeral streams that are reconstructed must include streamside vegetative corridors constructed in accordance with § 816.56(c)(1) through (3) of the final rule. We note that final rule § 816.56(c)(4) provides exceptions to the requirements to establish streamside vegetative corridors. Final paragraphs (c)(4)(i) through (ii) of § 816.56 excludes prime farmland historically used for cropland or situations in which establishment of a streamside vegetative corridor comprised of native species would be incompatible with an approved post-mining land use that is implemented prior to final bond release. In response to commenters' concerns that prime farmland should not be impacted by streamside vegetative corridors, we have made clear in final rule § 780.27(c)(3) that final § 780.27(c)(1) and (2) do not apply to ephemeral streams located on prime farmland.
Several commenters objected to the requirement to establish a streamside vegetative corridor along ephemeral streams claiming that it is burdensome or unnecessary. We disagree. As noted in the preamble to the proposed rule,
One commenter expressed concern that the establishment of the riparian corridor, along ephemeral streams in particular, supersedes the Clean Water Act and is inconsistent with the land use provisions of SMCRA. Specifically, the commenter alleged that the proposed rule did not consider the actual orientation of headwater ephemeral streams where watershed breaks may fall within 100 feet of each side of the stream channel. It is not clear how the commenter concluded that this requirement supersedes the Clean Water Act. Although the Clean Water Act does not require establishment of postmining streamside vegetative corridors, it certainly does not prohibit the practice. It is also not clear how the commenter concluded that the requirement is inconsistent with SMCRA land use provisions because if the postmining land use requires reconstruction of ephemeral streams, construction of associated streamside vegetative corridors would be entirely consistent and required. In response to this comment, we also note that the natural streamside vegetative corridors contributing to the ecological condition of a stream will typically not extend beyond a watershed boundary. However, if they do and are affected by mining operations, or mining operations necessitate the reconstruction of these particular ephemeral streams, these 100-foot, streamside, vegetative buffers would also need to be part of the permitted site, including the area within an adjacent watershed. If the area within the other watershed is not affected by mining operations, this area would include the already existing vegetation and would already be in compliance of this requirement.
Other commenters suggest that the use of native species in the vegetative streamside corridor is in conflict with requirements imposed by the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers aimed at improving reclamation success by using non-native species. To eliminate this potential conflict, we added paragraph 816.57(d)(2)(i) to the final rule. That paragraph requires planting to be in accordance with the revegetation plan approved in the permit, unless the applicable Clean Water Act authority directs otherwise. Similarly, one commenter raised concerns that the requirement for streamside vegetative corridors along ephemeral streams may conflict with local government agency requirements, such as when a local government agency regulates a drain within that area. It is difficult to conceive of a situation where the scenario proffered by this commenter would occur on a mining permit or, if it did, why one of the other exceptions would not apply, such as the exception for prime farmland.
Some commenters stated that streams that have no streamside vegetation or aquatic life, such as slot canyons and desert swales, should be exempt from these requirements. Under the final rule, if baseline surveys confirm that vegetation does not exist within 100 feet of a stream, establishment of a streamside vegetative corridor is not required. However, we anticipate that these situations will be extremely rare because some vegetation almost exists.
Final § 780.28 establishes standards for the review and approval of permit applications that propose to conduct surface mining activities in, through, or adjacent to streams. We discussed the purpose of these standards in the preamble to the proposed rule.
Many commenters opined that the organization of § 780.28 made it difficult to determine which permitting requirements applied to each stream classification. Proposed § 780.28 contained the permitting requirements for perennial, intermittent, and ephemeral streams. Commenters stated that this approach was confusing because the requirements for mining through or diverting ephemeral streams differed from those for perennial or intermittent streams. In response, and as explained in the preamble to § 780.27, we have removed the requirements applicable to ephemeral streams from § 780.28 and placed them in the new § 780.27. As a result, all requirements in § 780.28 apply to perennial and intermittent streams, and we have changed the title of the section to reflect this reorganization. The final rule clearly distinguishes between the requirements that apply to perennial, intermittent, and ephemeral streams. As discussed in more detail below, we have also made a number of organizational changes to § 780.28 to improve clarity.
In Part III of the preamble to the proposed rule,
Some commenters, however, requested that we institute stronger protections than proposed and prohibit all mining in or through intermittent and perennial streams. Other commenters took the opposite position and argued that the proposed rule tipped the statutory balance between
Some commenters alleged that restrictions on mining in or through streams may have negative impacts on proven lignite reserves, leaving the reserves stranded and unable to be economically mined. The commenters suggested that we create an exception for lignite. We disagree that this rule will strand lignite reserves. The commenters did not present any support for their position, and there is nothing inherently unique about lignite reserves that would prevent a permittee from satisfying the requirements of this section to allow mining in or through streams or relocating streams in order to recover lignite. More importantly, many of the requirements that the commenters allege would strand lignite reserves would likely be inapplicable under the final rule because of changes we have made in response to public comments and the interagency process. For instance, many streams located above the lignite reserves, especially in the Gulf Coast Region, that were classified as intermittent under the previous regulations, are now categorized as ephemeral streams in the final rule. This is the case because § 701.5 of the final rule amends the definitions of intermittent and ephemeral streams. Under the previous regulations, we would have categorized a stream with a bed-and-bank configuration that is always above the water table and with flows arising solely from precipitation (and snow melt) as intermittent if it had a drainage area of at least one square mile. As discussed in the preamble to final § 701.5, we will now consider a stream with ephemeral flow characteristics (
As discussed more fully below in our discussion on final paragraph (e), we have restructured the final rule by adding a chart to explain the demonstrations a permittee must make prior to performing certain activities in or within a perennial or intermittent stream. Included in the chart are the requirements with which a permittee must comply when proposing to construct a coal mine waste facility that encroaches upon any part of a perennial or intermittent stream. Proposed paragraph (d) contained similar requirements. In response to the proposed rule, one commenter objected to the proposed permitting of coal mine waste facilities in 100-year floodplains and suggested that these facilities should require a higher level of scrutiny with greater long-term protective measures than proposed. In response, we note that, in most states, state and local authorities determine whether any facility may be constructed in a floodplain. Like any other permit applicant seeking to construct a structure in the 100-year floodplain, a permit applicant seeking to construct a coal mine waste facility in a 100-year floodplain must comply with state and local laws and regulations. We have not made any changes to the final rule in response to this comment. We defer to state or local authorities with knowledge of the applicable laws and regulations to make a determination on whether a coal mine waste facility may be appropriately placed in a 100-year floodplain.
Several commenters suggested that the final rule should allow temporary impacts to streams, such as a temporary conversion of a perennial stream to an intermittent stream. Temporary impacts to stream flow during mining and reclamation are allowed under the rule. This is consistent with SMCRA and our previous regulations.
One regulatory authority commenter requested additional explanation about the performance standards for alluvial valley floors in Western states. We did not propose any changes to the previous regulations concerning alluvial valley floors in Western states. Therefore, the final rule does not affect those performance standards.
Final paragraph (a) is similar to proposed paragraph (a). For reference, we proposed to add paragraph (a) to emphasize that a person seeking to conduct surface mining activities “in waters of the United States” must procure all necessary authorizations, certifications, and permits pursuant to the Clean Water Act
We have modified final paragraph (a) to clarify that if the proposed permit area includes waters subject to the jurisdiction of the Clean Water Act, including perennial and intermittent streams, the regulatory authority must condition the permit to prohibit initiation of any surface mining activities in or affecting those waters before you obtain all necessary authorizations, certifications, and permits under the Clean Water Act.
Final paragraph (a) more closely tracks the permit condition found in final rule § 773.17(h) and the provisions of final rule § 780.16(c)(4)(ii) about protection of other species and the requirement to explain how you will avoid or minimize mining through or discharging dredged fill material into wetlands or streams that are subject to the jurisdiction of the Clean Water Act. It differs from the proposed rule because it now conditions the initiation of surface mining activities in or affecting waters subject to the jurisdiction of the Clean Water Act upon first receiving the necessary authorizations, certifications, and permits under the Clean Water Act. This difference in when applicable surface activities can be initiated reconciles the needs of other federal agencies to consider the SMCRA permit when making decisions about granting Clean Water Act authorizations, certifications, and permits but balances the needs of the permittee to make informed decisions about the feasibility of mining in or through intermittent or perennial streams. Placing a permit condition upon the permittee will avoid unnecessary and often costly permit revisions by requiring the permittee to consult with the Clean Water Act authority at the early stages of the SMCRA permitting process, but will not delay the SMCRA permit authorization. These modifications to the final rule were based on both public comment and comments from a federal agency.
Moreover, final paragraph (a) ensures protection of streams as required by section 515(b)(10) and compliance with section 702(a) of SMCRA, which specifies that nothing in the Act should be construed as superseding, amending, modifying, or repealing, “federal laws relating to the preservation of water quality,” including the Clean Water Act and state laws enacted pursuant to the Clean Water Act.
Some commenters opposed the idea of us instituting a permit condition relative to the Clean Water Act asserting that it exceeds our authority under SMCRA, duplicates the requirements of the Clean Water Act, or inappropriately requires the SMCRA regulatory authority to determine whether the applicant obtained the appropriate Clean Water Act authorizations, certifications, or permits. We disagree. We are not exceeding our authority or duplicating the efforts of the Clean Water Act authority by requiring the regulatory authority to condition the permit to prohibit initiation of surface mining activities in or affecting waters subject to the jurisdiction of the Clean Water Act before the permittee obtains all necessary authorizations, certifications, and permits pursuant to the Clean Water Act. Permit conditions are directly enforceable under SMCRA.
Another commenter alleged that, in the rule, Clean Water Act requirements are always mentioned in the context of perennial or intermittent streams. The commenter suggested that wetlands are equally subject to the requirements of the Clean Water Act. The commenter recommended that specific mention of wetlands be added to § 780.28(a). We agree with the commenter that wetlands are equally subject to the requirements of the Clean Water Act; however, we decline to make changes to § 780.28(a) because § 780.28 specifically addresses activities in, through, or adjacent to perennial or intermittent streams. Please see the discussion of wetlands in the preamble to final rule § 780.16(c)(4).
We have made non-substantive modifications to the title of this paragraph. Like proposed paragraph (b), final paragraph (b) explains that the permit applicant must provide certain information and demonstrations whenever it proposes to conduct surface mining activities in or through a perennial or intermittent stream or on the surface of lands within 100 feet of a perennial, or intermittent stream. We have added a reference to final paragraphs (c) through (g) in order to clarify that the specific demonstrations required are found in those paragraphs. As discussed above, we have also removed references to ephemeral streams from this section.
One commenter suggested that we replace the term “bankfull” in proposed paragraph (b)(1)(ii) with the phrase “ordinary high water mark” because ordinary high water mark is both more commonly accepted and more easily determined. We agree and have revised final paragraph (b)(2) and other references to “bankfull” throughout the final rule for consistency.
As a general rule, a permittee that proposes to mine through a perennial or intermittent stream must include in its permit application a plan to restore a surface drainage pattern that is relatively stable, and in dynamic near-equilibrium and stream-channel configuration that is similar to the premining configuration and is relatively stable. Final paragraph (c)(1) prescribes this general rule, but final paragraph (c)(2) grants the regulatory authority discretion to approve or require a postmining drainage pattern or configuration that deviates from the general rule in specific circumstances. These requirements ensure the establishment of a postmining drainage pattern or stream-channel configuration that is functionally equivalent to the premining pattern, while affording the regulatory authority the discretion to approve other configurations when such configurations are likely to be better for the hydrologic balance or ecological function. We have re-designated and separated select portions of proposed paragraph (c) to create final paragraph (c) and more clearly explain the permittee's obligations. Components of final paragraph (c) were in proposed paragraph (c)(1) and we discussed them in the preamble to the proposed rule.
The general requirement in final paragraph (c)(1) to return the drainage pattern and stream-channel configuration to the functional equivalent of the premining state recognizes that the design of a stream channel is essential to stream health and that successfully restoring stream channel configuration is the first step in the process of reestablishing the “form” of the stream. As explained in its definition at final rule § 701.5, the term “form” refers to the physical characteristics, pattern, profile and dimensions of a stream channel. Reestablishment of “form” is a prerequisite for restoration of hydrologic function and ecological function and ultimately, stream restoration.
Several commenters alleged that restoring the premining drainage pattern is a significant and onerous constraint on postmining grading and backfilling plans. The commenters also asserted that replicating premining characteristics of a stream channel would be virtually impossible. In response to these comments, we note that the final rule does not require the permittee to demonstrate that the postmining drainage pattern be returned to exactly the premining state. In both the proposed and final rule paragraph (c), we require only that the postmining drainage pattern be similar to the premining pattern unless the regulatory authority grants an exception under (c)(2). Other commenters claimed, without explaining the assertion, that the requirements in proposed paragraph (c), including the requirement to restore postmining drainage patterns, are unnecessary in most states. We disagree that these requirements are unnecessary in any state. As we have previously stated in this preamble, streams are important nationwide. Further, as we explained in the preamble of the proposed rule, “in addition to [providing] ecological benefits, th[ese] requirement[s] would better implement the requirement in section 515(b)(3) of SMCRA that the permittee restore the approximate original contour of the land.”
One commenter suggested that we add specific requirements to final paragraph (c) for applicants to submit data on stream pattern and sinuosity, water depth, alluvial groundwater depth, depth to bedrock, elevation, bankfull depth, and width. The commenter asserted that the general requirements in proposed paragraph (c) were not sufficient. According to the commenter, requiring this data would allow the regulatory authority to better compare the restored drainage pattern and stream-channel configuration with what existed prior to mining. The commenter also requested a definition, guidance, or methodology for determining flood-prone areas. This commenter recommended that we require commonly accepted hydrologic modeling like the Federal Emergency Management Agency's mapping system, Rosgen's Stream Classification, and the measuring of flood-prone elevation, and that we establish a specific distance for the width of each side of the flood-prone area. In addition, the commenter suggested that we provide guidance on considering seasonality effects when conducting these measurements. Conversely, we received numerous comments specifically opposing the adoption of such changes. These commenters claimed that this approach would be too prescriptive and stated that the regulatory authority should have discretion to determine which methodologies to adopt and what kind of data to require. We agree with these latter commenters that the regulatory authority is in the best position to adopt the most appropriate approach because it is the regulatory authority that is most familiar with the unique geographic and geologic characteristics of its own jurisdiction. This will also allow the regulatory authorities additional flexibility to adapt to changing circumstances or to adopt newer techniques as they become available without waiting for an additional federal rulemaking.
However, we note that many of the parameters suggested by the commenter, including sinuosity, bankfull depth, and the flood-prone area to bankfull width ratio (entrenchment) are included in the final rule § 701.5 definition of “form” and discussed in the preamble of final rule § 816.57(e). For clarification, a stream segment cannot be successfully reconfigured unless the “form” of a stream is restored throughout the length of each stream segment. Therefore, the commenters' concerns are addressed in the performance standards of final rule § 816.57(e) and may also be considered when developing the plan to configure a stream channel as required by final rule § 780.28(c)(1)(ii). As explained in the preamble to final rule § 816.57(e), in order to achieve Phase I bond release, a permittee must demonstrate that it has successfully restored or reconstructed the “form” of the stream segment in accordance with the approved design developed in accordance with § 780.28(c)(1). A permittee successfully restores “form” under our final rule by utilizing many of the methodologies the commenter suggests. Final paragraph (c) requires a plan to construct a postmining stream channel configuration similar to the premining configuration. Although we are not
Final paragraph (c)(2) prescribes seven circumstances under which a regulatory authority may waive the general requirement to restore the premining drainage pattern and stream-channel configurations. Proposed paragraphs (c)(1)(i) through (iii) contained three of these exemptions, which we have retained in final paragraphs (c)(2)(i) through (iii). However, we have added clarity to these exemptions to ensure that the goal of final § 780.28(c) perpetuated,
In paragraph (c)(2)(iv) through (vii) of the final rule, for the purposes explained below, we have added four more exemptions to the general requirement to restore the premining drainage pattern and stream-channel configurations. The regulatory authority may now also grant exemptions when doing so is necessary or appropriate to: (1) Accommodate any anticipated temporary or permanent increase in surface runoff as a result of mining and reclamation; (2) accommodate the construction of excess spoil fills, coal mine waste refuse piles, or coal mine waste impounding structures; (3) replace a stream that was channelized or otherwise severely altered prior to submittal of the permit application with a more natural, relatively stable, or ecologically sound drainage pattern or stream-channel configuration; or (4) reclaim a previously mined area.
In response to a commenter's concern that mining may result in temporary or permanent increases in surface runoff, we have added final paragraph (c)(2)(iv). This provision accommodates situations in which watershed boundaries have been moved from premining locations. Relocating watershed boundaries may result in larger surface water flows in some watersheds and smaller surface water flows in other watersheds.
We have added final paragraph (c)(2)(v) in response to a comment suggesting that proposed paragraph (c) and proposed paragraph (d), which set out requirements to construct excess spoil fills, coal mine waste refuse piles, or coal mine waste impounding structures, conflicted with one another. The commenter opined that it would be impossible to restore the surface drainage pattern and stream-channel configuration of a stream if an excess spoil fill or coal mine waste disposal facility is constructed. We have resolved this alleged conflict by clarifying that the regulatory authority may approve a postmining surface drainage pattern or stream-channel configuration that differs from the premining pattern or configuration when it is necessary to accommodate the construction of excess spoil fills, coal mine waste refuse piles or coal mine waste impounding structures.
We have added final paragraph (c)(2)(vi) to correlate with final paragraph (e)(3), which we added to the final rule to incentivize mining techniques that result in improvements to streams that are degraded. Final paragraph (c)(2)(vi) allows an exemption to the requirement to restore premining drainage pattern and stream-channel configurations if the regulatory authority finds that a different pattern or configuration is necessary or appropriate to replace a stream that was channelized or otherwise severely altered with a more natural, relatively stable, and ecologically sound drainage pattern or stream-channel configuration.
In response to several commenters, including a federal agency commenter, we have added exception (c)(2)(vii). This exception allows for a different pattern or configuration when it is necessary to reclaim a previously mined area because the premining surface drainage pattern and stream-channel configuration on previously mined areas may not be optimal or desirable from a land use, hydrological, or ecological perspective.
Some commenters suggested that there may be additional reasons to change minor channel drainage patterns such as to accommodate coal removal, minimize the re-handling of backfill, and conduct contemporaneous reclamation. We agree that minor deviations from the premining drainage pattern are permissible. However, the additional exceptions outlined by the commenters are not necessary because the final rule only requires the restored drainage patterns be similar to the original drainage patterns. They do not have to be exactly the same. Moreover, the commenters' concerns may be addressed in the expanded list of exemptions that we have discussed above.
Another commenter alleged that the requirements contained in proposed paragraph (c) did not appear to account for special cases, such as dropped off final cuts or initial cut development. We disagree because the examples the commenter provides are not special cases. Final paragraph (c)(2) provides the regulatory authority with discretion to approve a different postmining pattern in certain circumstances, including what the commenter describes as “special cases.” For example, if any of the conditions identified in paragraphs (c)(2)(i) through (vi) apply, such as promoting enhancement of the fish and wildlife habitat, in the reclaimed area of initial cut development or in the area of final cut, the regulatory authority could allow the permittee to alter the postmining drainage pattern from that which existed premining. If the exceptions identified in paragraphs (c)(2)(i) through (vi) do not apply, the permittee must reconstruct the drainage pattern to a condition similar to the premining pattern.
We have not adopted proposed paragraph (c)(2)(iv)(A), which would have required the selective placement of low permeability materials in the backfill or fill and associated stream channels to create an aquitard that
For the reasons discussed in the final preamble to Part 800, we are not adopting proposed § 780.28(c)(2)(B), which would have required a separate bond guaranteeing the return of ecological function.
Final paragraph (d)(1) requires that any permittee proposing to conduct any surface mining activities in or through a perennial or intermittent stream or on the surface of lands within 100 feet of a perennial or intermittent stream must include in the permit application a plan to establish a vegetated streamside corridor at least 100 feet wide along each bank of the stream after the completion of surface mining activities. The streamside vegetative corridor must be consistent with natural vegetation patterns and must adhere to the streamside vegetative corridor requirements of final paragraph (d) of § 816.57. At final paragraph (d)(2) of § 780.28, we also require that the corridor width must be measured horizontally on a line perpendicular to the stream, beginning at the ordinary high water mark. We proposed similar requirements at proposed paragraph (b)(3), but we have moved them to final paragraph (d) and consequently, re-titled this paragraph. We have also made some other modifications, as discussed below.
Although we have made substantive changes to the final rule in response to comments, we have retained many of the concepts and specific provisions of the proposed rule relating to streamside corridors. For example, proposed paragraph (b)(3)(i) required the corridor width to be measured on a line perpendicular to the stream, beginning at the “bankfull elevation or, if there are no discernable banks, the centerline of the active channel.” One commenter suggested that the 100-foot wide corridor should be measured following the angle of the land rather than horizontally on a line perpendicular to the stream beginning at the bankfull elevation or, if there are no discernable banks, the center line of the active channel. We recognize that it may be easier for a person to actually measure if he or she follows the angle of the land, but this type of measurement is also likely to produce irregular results across the country due to different topographies. Moreover, the method proposed by this commenter does not account for seasonal variability and, in practice, may not uniformly preserve a full 100-foot corridor on each side of the stream. As discussed in the preamble discussion of “ordinary high water mark” in § 701.5 of the final rule, one commenter suggested that the term “ordinary high water mark” is more commonly accepted and more easily determined than the term “bankfull.” We agree and have revised references to “bankfull” throughout the final rule. Thus, we modified final paragraph (d)(2) to provide that when determining the 100-foot width of the riparian corridor along both banks of the stream, measurements should be done horizontally on a line perpendicular to the ordinary high water mark.
We have also replaced the term “riparian corridor” with the term “streamside vegetative corridor.” Proposed paragraph (b)(3)(i) required a permittee seeking to conduct mining activities in or through streams or on the surface of lands within 100 feet of streams to establish a “riparian corridor” following mining. Several commenters misinterpreted the language in the proposed rule to mean that all lands within 100 feet of a stream must be revegetated with hydrophilic vegetation. One commenter who interpreted our rule this way cited the Bureau of Land Management's definition of “riparian corridor” as “area exhibiting vegetation and physical characteristics reflective of permanent surface or subsurface water influence” and suggested that not all areas within 100 feet of a stream have riparian characteristics. We did not intend to imply that the entirety of the corridor must be planted with hydrophilic vegetation. In order to correct this potential misinterpretation, we have replaced the phrase “riparian corridor” with “streamside vegetative corridor.” Our use of the term “streamside vegetative corridor” is intended to clarify that the permittee must use appropriate native vegetation, which is not always riparian or hydrophilic in nature. Postmining streamside vegetative corridors should reflect what is determined to exist in the premining landscape and are not necessarily dependent upon the presence of surface or groundwater. Despite this change in terminology, the comments on proposed (b)(3)(i), including references to “riparian corridor”, and our responses to those comments are still pertinent to final paragraphs (d)(1) and (d)(2) and we discuss them below.
Many commenters supported the proposed corridor. Others supported the concept of a corridor, but suggested modifications to the size or implementation of the corridor. Still others opposed the proposed corridor. Many of the commenters who supported the proposed requirement for a corridor requested that we strengthen the proposal to impose a strict 100-foot buffer on each side of a stream and not allow the exceptions or variances that we proposed in paragraph (b)(3)(iii). These commenters asserted that anything less than an unequivocal 100-foot buffer on either side of all streams, even in situations where excess spoil is placed or coal mine waste disposal facilities exist, is “unreasonable” because the risk of damaging vital waterways and imperiled species poses a greater threat than the stranding of some coal reserves. Further, the commenters alleged that an already declining coal market will not suffer any significant loss if we were to impose a 100-foot “buffer” with no exceptions. Several commenters alleged that the
Upon review of these comments, we are retaining the requirement for a general rule establishing a 100-foot wide streamside vegetative corridor on each side of perennial and intermittent streams, subject to certain narrowly-tailored exceptions, because this strikes the necessary balance between environmental protection and the Nation's need for coal as an essential source of energy.
The 100 foot minimum corridor requirement, however, does not change the site-specific nature of the determination of the appropriate corridor width. While it does establish a minimum width, the provision also allows a regulatory authority, depending on the permit, to require a wider corridor. For example, a wider corridor may be preferable when species or habitats of concern are present or because of climatological and topographical characteristics of the permit and the relevant adjacent areas.
Some commenters recommended that we extend the requirement to establish a 100-foot corridor to non-forested areas. Like the proposed rule, the final rule 100-foot streamside vegetative corridor requirement applies whenever a permittee proposes to conduct surface mining on the surface of lands within 100 feet of streams, or when the permittee proposes to conduct surface mining activities in or through all streams, with the exception of diversions that will be in place less than three years and subject to the exceptions in final rule § 816.57(d)(4)(i) through (iii). Thus, the streamside vegetative corridor requirement is not limited to streams in forested areas as the commenter contends. Final rule paragraph (d) requires a permittee to populate streamside vegetative corridors consistent with natural vegetation patterns and the performance requirements of final § 816.57. Final § 816.57(d)(2) prescribes the specific requirements for planting streamside vegetative corridors. Although permittees are required to use native trees and shrubs when planting areas within the streamside corridor that were forested or may revert to forest under condition of natural succession, this requirement does not foreclose establishing streamside vegetative corridors on non-forested land. These requirements are part of the best technology currently available to minimize adverse impacts on fish, wildlife, and related environmental values and to achieve enhancement of those resources, as required by section 515(b)(24) of SMCRA.
Other commenters contend that the removal of vegetation and soil disturbance from non-forested areas could lead to sedimentation and other pollution that may cause undue harm to streams and the species that depend on them. We disagree with the commenters asserting that a streamside vegetative corridor may cause undue harm to streams because these commenters fail to consider the other requirements of our regulations that require a permittee to implement erosion and sedimentation controls, such as final rule § 780.12(f), which is designed to stabilize exposed surfaces and effectively control erosion.
Another commenter asked if a riparian corridor must be established along all streams inside a permit area including streams that will not be impacted. In general, the section applies only to streams within the permit area that are affected by mining. Any affected streams within the permit area would be adequately protected by the requirements of this section. It is possible, however, that in a single permit area a permittee may propose to mine through one stream without touching a second stream, but that the 100-foot streamside vegetative corridors could overlap. Consistent with the permitting requirements of this paragraph and final rule § 816.57(d)(1)(ii), in this scenario the permittee must “establish a vegetative corridor on any land [disturbed] within 100 feet of a perennial or intermittent stream.” Therefore, to the extent it disturbs the second stream's vegetative corridor, the permittee must establish a streamside vegetative corridor for that second stream.
Some commenters suggested that the 100-foot riparian corridor should not apply in situations where no riparian corridor existed prior to mining or where there was “human development” prior to mining. As discussed in Part III of the preamble to the proposed rule,
One commenter suggested that the establishing of a riparian corridor may degrade critical habitat for threatened, endangered, or candidate species by substituting vegetation. We intend § 780.28 to work in concert with the rest of Part 780, including § 780.16, which outlines the requirements for a valid fish and wildlife enhancement plan. As explained in the preamble discussion of § 780.16, the regulatory authority may not issue a permit until an applicant first explains how it will adhere to the Endangered Species Act and what action it will take to protect other species.
One commenter suggested that establishing a riparian corridor might impact property rights because the landowner might not want a streamside vegetative corridor as part of the postmining land use. The last sentence of final § 780.28(d) requires the corridor to be consistent with natural vegetation patterns and to adhere to the streamside
Several commenters objected to establishing a corridor along ephemeral streams. As discussed above, we are retaining the requirement to establish a streamside vegetative corridor for all streams, including ephemeral streams. However, because we have moved the permitting requirement for ephemeral streams to new § 780.27(c), we address comments specific to permit application requirements for mining in, through, or adjacent to ephemeral streams in the preamble to that paragraph.
We have moved the specific 100-foot streamside vegetative corridor standards and the exceptions to these requirements, initially placed in § 780.28(b)(3)(ii) and (iii),which prescribe permitting requirements to the performance standards of Part 816. We acknowledge that the permittee is obligated only to include a plan to establish a vegetated streamside corridor at the permitting stage. Although the sufficiency of the plan should be assessed in accordance with the requirements of final rule § 816.57(d), the adequacy of the streamside vegetative corridor is assessed after mining is complete and the corridor is constructed. The regulatory authority will assess the adequacy of the streamside vegetative corridor prior to bond release. Therefore, these requirements are more appropriately characterized as performance standards and are now in final rule paragraphs (d)(2) through (4) of § 816.57. Because of this relocation, we discuss comments specifically related to the exceptions proposed in § 780.28(b)(3)(iii) in the preamble to § 816.57(d)(4).
Similar to the proposed rule, final paragraph (e) generally prohibits mining in or near streams, but allows the permittee to conduct certain mining activities when the permittee demonstrates specific criteria. Some commenters supported this approach, emphasizing that this will protect fish and wildlife habitat and encourage “beneficial remining” techniques. Final paragraph (e) sets out the specific demonstrations that a permittee must include in a permit application if mining is proposed in or within 100 feet of a perennial or intermittent stream. In proposed paragraph (c) we explained the requirements to be satisfied when mining through or diverting a perennial, intermittent or ephemeral stream. In proposed paragraph (d), we explained the requirements to be satisfied when an applicant proposed to construct an excess spoil fill or coal mine waste disposal facility in a perennial or intermittent stream. Many commenters remarked that proposed paragraphs (c) and (d) were confusing because it was difficult to discern what demonstrations were necessary for mining through or diverting a stream and what additional demonstrations were required for constructing excess spoil fills or coal mine waste disposal facilities in a stream. Additionally, many commenters expressed confusion about mixed references to ephemeral streams, stating they could not differentiate when the demonstrations applied to perennial and intermittent streams only and when the required demonstrations applied to all streams. In consideration of these comments, we have consolidated into final paragraph (e) the demonstration requirements for intermittent and perennial streams that were in proposed paragraphs (c) and (d). To correspond with these changes, we have revised the title of this paragraph to encompass all proposed mining activities in or within 100 feet of a perennial or intermittent stream, not just the diversion of streams and placement of excess spoil fill or coal mine waste disposal facilities. In addition to the consolidation of proposed paragraphs (c) and (d) into final paragraph (e), we modified these provisions in response to comments, including comments from other federal agencies. These modifications include removal of references to ephemeral streams. As discussed above, we have consolidated the permitting requirements related to ephemeral streams and have moved them to final rule § 780.27. We also discuss other modifications to final paragraph (e) below.
One commenter considered any prohibition on mining in intermittent and perennial streams to be contrary to SMCRA. These commenters asserted that section 515(b)(10)
For clarity, we have included a table in final paragraph (e)(1) that identifies, by type of activity, the demonstrations that must be made as part of the permit application if the applicant proposed to conduct mining activities in or through a perennial or intermittent stream or on the surface of land within 100 feet of a perennial or intermittent stream. For
As discussed separately in each paragraph several exceptions exist. Generally, permits subject to approved mining programs that expressly prohibit all surface mining activities in or within 100 feet of perennial or intermittent streams, as discussed in final paragraph (i) of this section, and similarly final § 816.57(i) are exempt from final paragraph (e) because all activity is prohibited.
Within the final rule we also allow certain exceptions applicable to permanent impoundments as specified in final paragraph (e)(4) and for streams that are considered intermittent due to low flowing springs and seeps as prescribed in final rule paragraph (e)(5).
A commenter contended that the proposed rule conflicted with page ES-19 of the DEIS, which stated that the preferred alternative “would allow mining through any type of stream provided the applicant satisfactorily demonstrates to the regulatory authority” that “the hydrological form and ecological function of the affected stream segment could and would be restored using the techniques in the proposed reclamation plan.” The commenter misquotes the DEIS. The DEIS describes Alternative 8, the Preferred Alternative, at page ES-19, and describes the demonstrations prescribed by proposed paragraph (c)(2)(ii) through (iv), which set out additional requirements applicable to permittees that propose to mine through or divert a perennial or intermittent stream. However, the four demonstrations prescribed by proposed paragraph (b)(2)(i) through (iv), that were prerequisites for satisfying proposed paragraphs (c)(2)(ii) through (iv), were also explained in the DEIS at page ES-19. The chart we have added to the final rule in paragraph (e)(1) should eliminate confusion. It explains each of the demonstrations required for each type of proposed mining activity and there are no longer incorporations by reference, which may have been a source of confusion to the commenter.
The chart differentiates between three categories of mining activities: Mining through or permanently diverting a stream, identified in column 3; construction of an excess spoil fill, coal mine waste refuse pile, or impounding structure that encroaches upon any part of a stream, identified in column 4; and any activity other than the activities identified in columns 3 and 4. This third category of activities is identified in column 2. The permittee must make the demonstrations listed in column 1 if there is a “Yes” in the column for the type of activity the applicant is proposing to conduct. For example, if an applicant seeks to mine through or permanently divert a stream, it must make the following demonstrations listed in column 1, subject to the exceptions provided in the chart: (i),(ii),(iii),(iv),(v),(vii),(viii),(ix),(x). Column 2 of the chart, which governs any activity other than mining through or permanently diverting a stream and construction of an excess spoil fill, coal mine waste refuse pile, or impounding structure that encroaches upon any part of a stream, correlates to the provisions of proposed paragraph (b)(2). Column 3 of the chart about mining through or permanently diverting a stream correlates to the provisions of proposed paragraph (c). Column 4 of the chart, about construction of an excess spoil fill, coal mine waste refuse pile, or impounding structure that encroaches upon any part of a stream, correlates to proposed paragraph (d). Each of the demonstrations, identified as paragraphs (i) through (xiii), is discussed below to the extent they were modified or were the subject of comment.
Proposed paragraphs (b)(2)(i) through (iv) set forth the general demonstrations necessary when a permittee proposes to mine in or near perennial or intermittent streams. Although we have moved the paragraphs to final paragraph (e), we have retained these demonstrations with modifications. For example, in response to comments received from another federal agency we modified proposed paragraphs (b)(2)(i) and (iii), now final paragraph (e)(1)(i), to provide that any proposed activity would not cause or contribute to the violation of any applicable water quality standards adopted pursuant to section 303(c) of the Clean Water Act,
In final rule paragraph (e)(1)(ii) we retain the requirement in proposed paragraph (b)(2)(iv) that proposed operations will not “cause material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area.” Additionally, in response to a comment from another federal agency, we have added the requirement that the proposed activity also must not “upset the dynamic near equilibrium of streams outside the permit area.” As provided in the chart in column 4, the permittee must also demonstrate this requirement if proposing to construct an excess spoil fill, coal mine waste refuse pile, or impounding structure that encroaches on any part of a stream. This is consistent with our revised definition of material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area and the requirements of section 515(b)(22) of SMCRA about the placement of excess spoil.
Proposed paragraph (b)(2)(ii), required that the permittee demonstrate that the mining activity would not result in conversion of a stream segment from intermittent to ephemeral, from perennial to intermittent, or from perennial to ephemeral. This requirement did not apply to excess spoil fills or coal mine waste facilities. As discussed more comprehensively in the explanation of final paragraph (e)(2), below, we have modified this
The second finding derived from proposed (b)(2)(ii), now final paragraph (e)(1)(iv), requires that a permittee demonstrate that the proposed activity would not result in conversion of the affected stream segment from intermittent to ephemeral or from perennial to intermittent, except when the applicant proposes to construct an excess spoil fill, coal mine waste refuse pile, or impounding structure that encroaches upon any part of a stream. As set forth in Column 3, final paragraph (e)(2) does allow limited exceptions, which we explain below, in the discussion of final paragraphs (e)(2) and (e)(5).
Final paragraph (e)(1)(v) is similar to proposed paragraph (b)(2)(ii). However, we have modified the final rule to require the permittee to demonstrate that “there is no practicable alternative” that would avoid mining through or diverting a perennial or intermittent stream. The final rule deviates from the proposed rule, which required the permittee to demonstrate “that there is no reasonable alternative” that would avoid mining through or diverting a perennial or intermittent stream when the permittee proposed to mine through or divert a perennial or intermittent stream. We determined that use of the phrase “no reasonable alternative” was not sufficiently precise; therefore we replaced the term. The analysis of practicable alternatives will identify whether an alternative is capable of being accomplished. For example, an applicant's unwillingness to pursue an alternative does not render it infeasible. Similarly, increased costs do not necessarily render an alternative infeasible. In the final rule, the applicant must demonstrate, and the regulatory authority must agree, that there is no “practicable alternative” to mining through or diverting the stream. The replacement of the term “no reasonable alternative” with the term “no practicable alternative” is consistent with other demonstration standards found in the proposed and final rule, such as paragraph (d)(ii), now paragraph (e)(1)(vi). Moreover, the use of the term “practicable” more closely tracks the requirements of section 515(b)(24) of SMCRA.
As prescribed by column 3, final paragraph (e)(1)(v) does not apply to specific intermittent streams as identified in final paragraph (e)(3) because the permittee must make different demonstrations for these types of streams. We explain the exceptions for these streams in the discussion of final paragraph (e)(3).
Final paragraph (e)(1)(vi) applies when a permittee proposes to construct an excess spoil fill, coal mine waste refuse pile, or impounding structure that encroaches upon any part of perennial or intermittent stream. The permittee must evaluate “all potential upland locations, including abandoned mine lands and unreclaimed bond forfeiture sites” and demonstrate that there is no practicable alternative that would avoid placement of excess spoil or coal mine waste in a perennial or intermittent stream. Proposed paragraph (d)(2)(ii) imposed a similar requirement that we have modified in response to comment. In the final rule, we have clarified that “upland locations in the vicinity of the proposed operation” includes abandoned mine lands and unreclaimed bond forfeiture sites. The term “vicinity” will be determined by the regulatory authority on a case-by-case basis. One commenter suggested that we alter the final rule to include “abandoned underground mines” after “upland locations” to increase the likelihood of selecting an alternative that reduces excess spoil placement or coal mine waste disposal in a perennial or intermittent stream and instead places it in an already disturbed area. Selective placement may aid in reclamation of another site. We agree with the commenter's rationale and are modifying final paragraph (e)(1)(vi) to add, “including abandoned mine lands” of all types, not only “abandoned underground mines” and “unreclaimed bond forfeiture sites.” The types of sites we listed are only two examples of the kinds of sites that the permittee should consider: This list is not exhaustive. However, we caution that although using abandoned underground mines may serve as a solution for avoiding above ground placement of excess spoil or coal mine waste, this solution may not always be practicable because of additional costs and permitting requirements and the burden of satisfying the other regulatory requirements related to these practices, including section 816.41, which prescribes the requirements for discharging water and other materials into an underground mine.
Another commenter suggested that we add the phrase, “or reduce the extent of” to proposed paragraph (d)(2)(ii), now paragraph (e)(1)(vi), so that it would read: “[a]fter evaluating all potential upland locations in the vicinity of the proposed operation, there is no practicable alternative that would avoid or reduce the extent of placement of excess spoil or coal mine waste in a perennial or intermittent stream.” The commenter alleged that the additional language is necessary to effectively communicate that the demonstration must decrease the amount of placement of excess spoil or coal mine waste. The commenter opined that the proposed phrase would clarify our proposed rule and prevent the permittee from placing any portion of the material in a perennial or intermittent stream. We agree with the commenter's assertion that construction of excess spoil fills, coal mine waste refuse piles, or encroachment of impounding structures
Final paragraph (e)(1)(vii) requires the permittee to demonstrate that the proposed operation has been designed to minimize the extent to which the permittee will mine through or divert perennial and intermittent streams or cover streams by an excess spoil fill, coal mine waste refuse pile, or a coal mine waste impounding structure. The permittee must apply this minimization analysis after it makes the alternatives analysis required by final paragraph (e)(1)(v), discussed above. This demonstration is similar to the requirements in proposed paragraphs (c)(2)(iii), relating to mining through or diverting a perennial or intermittent stream, and (d)(2)(iii)(A), relating to construction of an excess spoil fill or a coal mine waste facility. Because of the format of our chart in final paragraph (e)(1) and the similarity between the requirements we have combined the demonstrations in the final rule. However, as prescribed by Column 3, this requirement does not apply to perennial or intermittent streams with a degraded form because the permittee must make different demonstrations for these types of streams. Furthermore, this final paragraph does not apply to streams that are considered intermittent due to low flowing springs and seeps as prescribed in final rule paragraph (e)(5) because again, different demonstrations are required.
Final paragraph (e)(1)(viii) requires the permittee to demonstrate that the stream restoration techniques prescribed in the proposed reclamation plan are adequate to ensure restoration or improvement of the form, hydrologic function, dynamic near-equilibrium, streamside vegetation, and ecological function of the stream after it has been mined through or permanently diverted. However, as prescribed by Column 3, this requirement does not apply to perennial or intermittent streams with a degraded form because the permittee must make different demonstrations for these types of streams. Furthermore, this final paragraph does not apply to streams that are considered intermittent due to low flowing springs and seeps as prescribed in final rule paragraph (e)(5) because again, different demonstrations are required.
Final paragraph (e)(1)(viii) is similar to proposed paragraph (c)(2)(iv), but we modified the final rule after considering comments and to conform to other final rule changes. For example, the final rule requires the permittee to restore or improve the hydrologic function. One commenter recommended that the final rule require a permittee to restore “stream function in addition to hydrologic form” to ensure the final rule fully protects the essential elements of stream health. In support, the commenter noted that current scientific literature indicates that a stream's form is generally not a proxy for its function. We agree. Although we mentioned “form” in the proposed rule, which we intended to include hydrologic form, many other commenters were confused by the term “hydrologic form.” We have eliminated that term and added a definition of “hydrologic function” to the final rule to emphasize the importance of the role streams play in transport of water and flow of water within the stream channel and floodplain. The term “hydrologic function” includes total flow volume, seasonal variations in streamflow and base flow, and provision of water needed to maintain floodplains and wetlands associated with the stream. “Form” includes the physical characteristics of the stream and is a prerequisite of “hydrologic function.” The final rule clarifies that a permittee must demonstrate that it will restore or improve both the “form” and hydrologic function of a mined through or diverted stream. Another commenter opined that the demonstrations that stream restoration plans must restore “form and ecological function” will require a new, expansive section of the permit similar to, and duplicative of, a section 404 Clean Water Act permit. We disagree and refer the commenter to our discussion in the general comments in Part IV. I. We have incorporated both of these requirements, as proposed, into the final rule and we encourage SMCRA regulatory authorities to coordinate the processing of permit applications with the Clean Water Act authority to avoid any potential for duplication.
This paragraph of the final rule also requires the permittee to demonstrate the requirements in proposed paragraph (b)(3), now final paragraph (d), about establishment of streamside vegetation when proposing to mine through or permanently divert a perennial or intermittent stream. One commenter recommended that we require establishment of a 100-foot forested buffer on either side of stream for excess spoil piles and coal waste disposal facilities. We disagree. Final paragraph (e)(1)(viii) specifically exempts excess spoil piles and coal waste disposal areas from this demonstration because the streams beneath them no longer exist, and the stormwater conveyances constructed in conjunction with the structures are not reconstructed streams. As discussed in final paragraph, (e)(5), permittees do not have to make the demonstration required in final paragraph (e)(1)(viii) for streams that are considered intermittent due to low flowing springs and seeps because different demonstrations are required.
Final paragraph (e)(1)(ix) requires the applicant to demonstrate that it has designed the proposed excess spoil fill, coal mine waste refuse pile, or impounding structure that encroaches upon any part of a stream to minimize the amount of excess spoil or coal mine waste the proposed operation will generate. We proposed that the permittee make this demonstration in proposed paragraph (d)(2)(i) and explained the proposed demonstration in the preamble.
Many commenters supported proposed paragraph (d)(2)(i), citing the increased level of stream protection compared to our previous regulations. We appreciate these comments and are adopting proposed paragraph (d)(2)(i), now paragraph (e)(1)(ix), with minor adjustments. As reflected in the chart found in paragraph (e)(1) of the final rule, we have added references in columns 2 and 3 to final rule § 780.35(b), which governs minimization of excess spoil. These references operate to remind any permittee proposing to engage in any activity in, through, or adjacent to a perennial or intermittent stream that, in demonstrating that it will minimize
Final paragraph (e)(1)(x) requires that a permittee proposing to engage in any activity in, through, or adjacent to a perennial or intermittent stream must demonstrate that the proposed operation is designed, “to the extent possible using the best technology currently available”, to minimize adverse impacts on fish, wildlife, and related environmental values. We required this demonstration in proposed paragraph (d)(iii)(A). However, as proposed it was applicable only when a permittee proposed to construct an excess spoil fill or coal mine waste disposal facility. Although we intended this requirement to apply to all activities in, through, or adjacent to perennial or intermittent streams, we did not articulate this requirement clearly in the proposed rule. Therefore, we have clarified the final rule to accurately express our intent. This clarification more accurately tracks the requirements of section 515(b)(24) of SMCRA,
Final paragraph (e)(1)(xi) requires a permittee that proposes construction of an excess spoil fill, coal mine waste facility, or impounding structure that encroaches upon any part of a stream to demonstrate that the fish and wildlife enhancement plan required in final rule § 780.16 includes measures that will fully and permanently offset any long-term adverse impacts on fish, wildlife, and related environmental values within the footprint of the fill, refuse pile or impoundment. We imposed this requirement in paragraph (d)(2)(iv) of the proposed rule, but we invited comment seeking suggestions for more specific standards or criteria for determining the meaning of “fully and permanently offset.”
In addition to the comments in response to our invitation for comment we received many other comments on this proposed paragraph. Another commenter expressed concern that the requirement may create a duplicative mitigation requirement if excess spoil fill or coal mine waste disposal facilities are built in waters within the jurisdiction of the Clean Water Act. We disagree. We expect the SMCRA and the Clean Water Act regulatory authority to coordinate to ensure the selection of the appropriate fish and wildlife enhancement plan, to achieve a solution that satisfies the requirements of both SMCRA and the Clean Water Act. The same commenter expressed concern that the proposed paragraph included the term “related environmental values,” which in the commenter's opinion creates a duplicative mitigation requirement. The language of SMCRA expressly requires that the regulatory authority consider “fish, wildlife, and related environmental values.”
Another commenter questioned the statement in the preamble to proposed rule section 816.71 that referred to proposed rule § 780.28, where we explained that we do not consider surface runoff diversions constructed under § 816.71(e) to qualify as fish and wildlife enhancement measures pursuant to the requirements of § 780.16(d).
Another commenter alleged that proposed paragraph (d)(2)(iv), now paragraph (e)(1)(xi), inappropriately introduces a backdoor requirement for the establishment of a riparian corridor even though the proposed regulatory text about the establishment of a riparian corridor does not apply to coal mine waste disposal facilities and placement of excess spoil. The commenter misinterprets the proposed rule. If an applicant proposes an excess spoil fill or a coal mine waste disposal facility in an intermittent or perennial steam, the regulatory authority is obliged to ensure the fish and wildlife enhancement plan contains measures to fully and permanently offset any long-term adverse impacts within the footprint of the fill, refuse pile, or coal mine waste impoundment on fish, wildlife, and related values. We are not prescribing the enhancement measures that the permittee must select, although we do list potential enhancement measures in § 780.16(d). One potential enhancement measure in final rule § 780.16(d)(2)(v), proposed paragraph (d)(1)(v), is a vegetative corridor enhancement. In the preamble to the proposed rule, we recommended that, if that option is selected, the regulatory authority should consider the creation of a conservation easement to ensure that the enhancement is fully and permanently offsetting the impacts of the fill, refuse pile, or coal waste impoundment and that the newly planted vegetation is not destroyed at bond release. We did not mandate the selection of vegetative corridor enhancement or the use of conservation easements. We merely suggested these selections as options for enhancement measures. Other enhancement measures are permissible; thus, there is no backdoor requirement, and we have made no revisions to the final rule based on this comment.
Final paragraph (e)(1)(xii) requires a permittee to demonstrate that each excess spoil fill, coal mine waste refuse pile, and coal mine waste impounding structure it proposes to construct is designed in a manner that will not result in formation of toxic mine drainage. This demonstration was required in proposed paragraph (d)(2)(v); however, it was combined with another demonstration which is now required by final paragraph (e)(1)(i). For clarity we have separated these demonstrations in the final rule.
Final paragraph (e)(1)(xiii) requires that a permittee demonstrate compliance with the revegetation plan required under final rule § 780.12(g), which requires reforestation of each completed excess spoil fill if the land is forested at the time of the application or if the land would revert to forest under the conditions of natural succession. This demonstration is intended to minimize the adverse impacts of the fill on watershed hydrology, especially the quantity and quality of surface runoff, and aquatic life in the stream. We proposed this demonstration at paragraph (d)(vi), and are finalizing it, with the exception of the redesignation, as proposed.
Under the provisions in final paragraph (e)(2), a permittee may propose to convert a minimal portion of a segment of an intermittent stream
This is a revision to our proposed rule. In the proposed rule at paragraph (b)(2)(ii), we required a permittee to demonstrate that any mining activity in or through a perennial, intermittent, or ephemeral stream, with the exception of constructing an excess spoil fill or coal mine waste facility, would not “result in conversion of the stream segment from intermittent to ephemeral, from perennial to intermittent, or from perennial to ephemeral.”
A commenter questioned why converting an intermittent to an ephemeral stream may be permissible but converting a stream in the opposite manner, such as from an intermittent to a perennial stream or an ephemeral to an intermittent stream was not restricted in the proposed rule. The commenter is correct in that we do not require a permittee to demonstrate that the conversion of a stream from ephemeral to intermittent or intermittent to perennial would not degrade the hydrologic function or the ecological function. We have not restricted this type of conversion because the same processes that create streams that lose water as it flows downstream resulting in a conversion from intermittent to ephemeral and perennial to intermittent does occur in the opposing direction. Streams may gain flow after reclamation when increases in water volume contribute to, rather than diminish, the flow. This additional contribution of flow comes from infiltrated water exiting the backfill. The gaining stream now maintains flow throughout the year and develops physical features, including for example, an altered bed-and-bank that result in a classification of a stream as intermittent or perennial. Prior to mining, the same stream may have been classified as an intermittent or ephemeral stream because of the lack of certain physical features and the brief duration of flow. The reclassified stream with greater flow has beneficial characteristics, such as a potential increase in both the diversity and abundance of aquatic species and the potential to add more varied uses, especially recreational uses. Additionally, streams that gain flow can result in improved habitat especially if coupled with stream flow throughout the seasons. Moreover, converting an intermittent stream to a perennial stream or an ephemeral stream to an intermittent stream promotes a more productive and varied aquatic life as long as the sediment transport remains similar. Therefore, we do not restrict this type of conversion—from intermittent to perennial or from ephemeral to intermittent—beyond the criteria included in this section and §§ 780.12 and 780.19.
Another commenter objected to the proposed rule and argued that, as described in the Draft Environmental Impact Statement, it would preclude the conversion of any stream segment, and this complete restriction will effectively prohibit any mining that would directly impact the headwaters (or source) of an intermittent or perennial stream. As discussed in the introduction to final § 780.28, temporary impacts, such as temporarily converting certain streams, are permissible. This is consistent with SMCRA, which allows disturbances to be minimized, not precluded.
Another commenter questioned why we would authorize converting a perennial stream to an ephemeral stream, but not allow an intermittent stream to be converted to an ephemeral stream. As explained in the discussion of final paragraph (e)(1)(iii), permittees may not convert a perennial stream to an ephemeral stream, but permittees may, in specific circumstances, convert a minimal portion of a mined-through segment of an intermittent stream to an ephemeral stream. SMCRA allows minimized disturbances to the quality and quantity of surface water and groundwater both during and after surface coal mining.
Another commenter stated that the proposed rule, prohibiting stream conversions was highly restrictive, may strand coal, and did not recognize longitudinal variations in transition points, such as when transition points move upstream or downstream depending on precipitation patterns. We agree with the commenters that the proposed rule prohibited stream conversions and could restrict some mining. We also recognize that surface mining activities will, in most cases, lower the water table and, thus, impact the location of the stream type transition points which are the point where an ephemeral stream becomes intermittent or an intermittent stream becomes perennial. Furthermore, the inherent nature of mining, particularly disruption of the water table, makes minimal stream conversions unavoidable. We discuss points in support of allowing permittees to convert minimal portions of intermittent streams above in connection with final paragraph (e)(2).
To incentivize operators to engage in re-mining and the associated improvements that occur when mining through streams exhibiting substantial degradation as a result of prior anthropogenic activity and a degraded stream channel that has resulted in substantial adverse impact on ecological function, we have added provisions in final paragraph (e)(3) for mining operations that seek to mine in, through, or near certain intermittent streams. This exemption is restricted to intermittent streams that satisfy the following criteria, as prescribed by final paragraph (e)(3)(ii):
• Prior anthropogenic activity has resulted in substantial degradation of the profile or dimensions of the stream channel; and
• Degradation of the stream channel has resulted in a substantial adverse impact on the ecological function of the stream.
Implementation of these provisions is important because remining through these types of streams often provide environmental benefits including improved water quality and restored streamside vegetative corridors.
• It will improve the form of the stream segment;
• It will improve the hydrologic function or the dynamic near-equilibrium of the stream;
• Is likely to result in improvement of the biological condition, dynamic near-equilibrium or ecological function of the stream;
• It will not further degrade the hydrologic function, biological condition, or ecological function of the stream; and
• It will result in establishment of a streamside vegetative corridor in accordance with § 816.57(d) of this chapter.
Although not as comprehensive as the final rule, proposed § 816.57(b)(4) included a “special provision for restoration of degraded stream segments.” In this section we proposed to include a requirement that “if the stream segment to be mined through or diverted is in a degraded condition before mining, you must implement measures to enhance the form and ecological function of the segment as part of the restoration or diversion process.” As we explained in the preamble to the proposed rule,
We address the comments to proposed § 816.57(b)(4), about restoring degraded stream segments here because in final paragraph (e)(3), we have improved and modified proposed § 816.57(b)(4), and placed the new requirements in final rule § 780.28 because they are permitting requirements and not performance standards. One commenter suggested that permittees should restore streams to a higher quality than existed under premining conditions and that the actual premining conditions documented during baseline investigations should be a factor when designing and approving plans for stream restoration, but that this factor should not be dispositive. We agree and we have added language to the final rule at paragraphs (e)(3)(i)(C) and (D) to clarify that the permittee must consider both the biological condition or ecological function and hydrologic function of the stream, as determined by the baseline data, when designing the
Another commenter opined that anthropogenic activities have severely altered many pre‐mining stream channels and the resulting erosion should not be reproduced in the reclamation process. We agree and have modified the final rule to prevent the reproduction of degraded stream channels. Paragraphs (e)(3)(i)(B) through (D) requires a demonstration and finding by the regulatory authority that the design will not further degrade the hydrologic function, biological condition, or ecological function of the stream segment. These requirements, coupled with the other necessary demonstrations, are likely to improve the premining characteristics of the original stream channel to promote the recovery and enhancement of the aquatic habitat and the ecological and hydrologic functions of the stream.
In response to commenters, we have added final paragraph (e)(4), which prescribes that the demonstrations required by final paragraph (e)(1) do not apply to a stream segment that will be part of a permanent impoundment approved and constructed pursuant to the requirements of final rule
We received comments from a regulatory authority explaining that, in its experience, particularly in North Dakota, streams that are otherwise ephemeral can have segments that are considered intermittent due to low flowing springs and seeps. The commenter asserted that in the geographic area where it performs oversight it is common to find short reaches of streams that are classified as intermittent because of low flowing springs from shallow aquifers. According to the commenter, these low flowing springs often occur at the upper reaches of an ephemeral stream in native grasslands and the flows frequently cease within a few hundred feet or less from the water source. The commenter explained that in its experience the water is frequently saline and usually has little or no value as fish and wildlife habitat. Furthermore, the features do not have sufficient flow to serve as a livestock watering source by ranchers. According to the commenter, proposed rule § 780.28(b)(2)(ii), precluding conversions of stream segments, from which final paragraph (e)(1)(iv) is derived, would essentially prohibit mining in certain areas. The commenter specifically referred to locations where lignite is mined because according to the commenter, the lignite seam is often the aquifer that supplies the groundwater for these low flowing springs. Therefore, the commenter recommended that proposed § 780.28(b)(2)(ii) be modified to allow the conversion of an intermittent stream to an ephemeral stream if the conversion does not affect water uses or significant wildlife habitat. We have incorporated this recommendation into the final rule at paragraph (e)(5). This exception is designed to address the limited scenario described by the commenter in reference to North Dakota. To accommodate the scenario the commenter describes we prescribe in column 3 of final paragraphs (e)(1)(iv), (vii), and (viii) that the permittee is not required to make the requisite demonstrations if the following alternative demonstrations enumerated in final paragraphs (e)(5)(i) through (iii) are satisfied:
• The intermittent stream segment is a minor interval in what is otherwise a predominately ephemeral stream;
• The permittee demonstrates to the satisfaction of the regulatory authority that the intermittent segment has no significant fish, wildlife, or related environmental values, as documented by the stream assessment baseline data collected as required by final rule § 780.19(c)(6); and
• The permittee demonstrates to the satisfaction of the regulatory authority that conversion of the intermittent stream will not adversely affect water uses.
These three alternative demonstrations include the requirement that the permittee demonstrate that the intermittent stream segment is a minor interval in what is otherwise a predominately ephemeral stream.
In addition to satisfying the requirements in paragraphs (a) through (e), permittees proposing to divert, restore, or reconstruct perennial and intermittent stream channels must also satisfy the design requirements prescribed in final paragraph (f). We proposed similar requirements in proposed paragraphs (c)(2)(v) and (vi) of § 780.28, but we have re-designated and modified these paragraphs in response to comments and for clarity.
Final paragraph (f)(1) is similar to proposed paragraph (c)(2)(v)(A). This paragraph applies to permanent stream-channel diversions, temporary stream-channel diversions that will remain in use for greater than three years, and stream channels reconstructed after the completion of mining. These structures must be designed to restore, approximate, or improve the premining characteristics of the original stream channel, to promote the recovery and enhancement of aquatic habitat and the ecological and hydrologic function of the stream, and to minimize adverse alteration of stream channels on and off the site, including channel deepening or enlargement. In final paragraph (f)(1)(ii), we have retained the requirements in proposed paragraph (c)(2)(v)(A) that the pertinent stream-channel characteristics include, but are not limited to, the baseline stream pattern, profile, dimensions, substrate, habitat, and natural vegetation growing in the riparian zone and along the banks of streams. Commenters supported these requirements because they make our regulations more consistent with similar requirements imposed under section 404 of the Clean Water Act and its implementing regulations. In addition to re-designating this section, we have also made some modifications to the final rule which we discuss below.
As proposed, this section applied to temporary stream-channel diversions that were to remain in place for two or more years. Some commenters objected to the imposition of design criteria for temporary stream-channel diversions, proclaiming it a wasteful and nonsensical requirement. One of these commenters suggested that temporary diversions should require only temporary designs, citing the unpredictability of the need for temporary diversions at the time of permitting. The same commenter also stated that the National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System requirements will be in place to protect downstream waters and our rule would be problematic for establishment of long term drainage control in terms of planning and layout cost, extra construction time expense, and maintenance. The same commenter also opined that additional land disturbance will result in added and un-necessary negative environmental impact. These commenters suggested striking the requirement or modifying it in the final rule to reflect a longer term. While we agree that the length of time a temporary stream-channel diversion may be in place may not be known at the time of permitting, we know from over thirty years of experience that many of these diversions are in place for significantly long periods. Further, if the commenters' suggestion of striking the required design criteria were accepted,
Throughout the final rule we have removed the proposed term “restored” and have replaced it with “reconstructed” in order to describe more accurately the reclamation that must occur after mining in or through intermittent or perennial streams. Several commenters stated that “restored” was vague because no stream that is re-created using the criteria in § 780.28 will have the exact characteristics of a pristine stream. Some of these commenters opined that using the term “restored” implied an unachievable standard. We agree with the commenters and note that reconstructed streams may deviate from the premining characteristics as long as the requirements of the final rule are satisfied. Additionally, we have added the phrase “or improve” to final paragraph (f)(1)(i), to emphasize the importance of, and to encourage, mining techniques that improve existing stream channels. In the proposed rule we required the design to “promote the recovery and enhancement of aquatic habitat.” Promoting recovery and enhancement of aquatic habitat is most successfully done by promoting recovery and enhancement of the “ecological and hydrologic functions of the stream.” Therefore, we have included the requirement to “restore, approximate, or improve” the premining characteristics of the original stream channel in the final rule to more accurately reflect the mandates of section 515(b)(24) of SMCRA
For clarity, we have separated out the last paragraph of proposed paragraph (c)(2)(v)(A) and re-designated it as final paragraph (f)(1)(iii). This provision clarifies that permittees planting vegetation along the banks of temporary diversions in use for three or more years are not required to include species that would not reach maturity until after the diversion is removed. This will prevent unnecessary land disturbance and cost. In the final rule, we have replaced the term “in the riparian zone” with “along the banks of the diversion” to fully encompass all streamside vegetation. Also, as discussed above, we have changed “in use for 2 or more years” with “in use for 3 or more years.”
We have retained proposed paragraph (c)(2)(v)(B), but re-designated it as final paragraph (f)(2). This paragraph requires the permittee to design all temporary and permanent stream channel diversions to ensure that the hydraulic capacity is at least equal to the hydraulic capacity of the unmodified stream channel immediately upstream from the diversion and no greater than the hydraulic capacity of the unmodified stream channel immediately downstream of the diversion. As we explained in the preamble to the proposed rule,
Final paragraph (f)(3) adopts the design criteria for all temporary and permanent stream-channel diversions that were in the proposed rule at proposed paragraph (c)(2)(v)(C). The final paragraph requires that all temporary and permanent stream-channel diversions be designed to ensure that the combination of channel, bank, and flood-plain configuration is adequate to pass safely the peak runoff of a 10-year, 6-hour precipitation event for a temporary diversion and 100-year, 6-hour precipitation event for a permanent diversion.
We invited comment on whether the design event for a temporary diversion should be raised to the 25-year, 6-hour event to provide added safety and protection against overtopping. In response we received some comments in support of raising the criteria, while other commenters were opposed. The commenters supporting the increase cited the unpredictability of storm events. The comments opposed to a larger precipitation event cited unnecessary increased costs to construct and maintain larger sediment structures. Another commenter suggested that we impose site-specific goals such as zero flows or allowable increases in downstream and upstream flood risks as implemented and determined by the Federal Emergency Management Agency. We disagree with this comment because adopting site-specific design storm standards would, effectively, result in no minimum national standards. Final paragraph (f)(3) prescribes minimum standards and the regulatory authority has discretion to impose more stringent site-specific standards if it deems them appropriate. This approach ensures flood risk is appropriately addressed. To comply with the minimization requirements of SMCRA we have the responsibility to address flood risk because any increase in flood risk caused by mining would constitute the potential for material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area.
A commenter asserted that considerations for floodplains are not typically included in temporary diversion design; therefore, this commenter questioned whether proposed paragraph (c)(2)(v)(C), now final paragraph (f)(3), will no longer require a permit applicant to “consider the size of the watershed reporting to the ditch when designing a temporary diversion.” The commenter did not explain the term “ditch.” As we explain in the preamble to final rule § 816.43, there are several types of diversions, including diversion ditches, stream diversions, and conveyances or channels within the disturbed area. Historically, “ditch” has been used by industry and others—whether correctly or incorrectly—to describe each of these types of diversions. This is further complicated by the fact that each of these classifications of diversions may be subdivided as temporary or permanent. Because this comment was in direct response to proposed paragraph (c)(2)(v)(C), we interpreted the commenter to be referring to temporary stream diversions as classified by final rule § 816.43(a)(2)(i). The commenter's assertion that floodplain is not considered in temporary diversion design is incorrect. We note that, with the exception of the re-designation, the final rule pertaining to capacity of diversion ditches is identical to that in the existing rules at § 816.43(b)(3). Our final rule specifies that the permittee include precipitation event design criteria for temporary stream diversions. This includes the watershed area tributary that “reports” to the diverted stream. Therefore, permittees must continue to consider the size of the watershed “reporting” to the “ditch.” If the commenter was referring to temporary diversion ditches that are channels constructed to convey surface water runoff or other flows from areas not disturbed by mining activities away from or around disturbed areas, please refer to § 816.43 of the final rule.
Another commenter asserted that it is almost impossible for a stream channel diversion to meet the requirements of both proposed paragraphs (c)(2)(v)(B), now final paragraph (f)(2), which requires that the hydraulic capacity be no greater than the capacity of the unmodified stream channel downstream of the diversion and no less than the capacity of the unmodified stream channel upstream of the diversion, and proposed paragraph (c)(2)(v)(C), now final paragraph (f)(3), which requires that the design be able to pass the 10-year, 6-hour precipitation event for a temporary diversion and the 100-year, 6-hour event for a permanent diversion. As discussed above, we are retaining both paragraphs in the final rule and we have concluded that a permittee can and must satisfy both requirements. Together these requirements ensure that disturbances and adverse impacts to fish, wildlife, and related environmental values are minimized.
Final paragraph (f)(4) requires a permittee to submit a certification from a qualified, registered, professional engineer that the designs for all diverted and reconstructed stream-channels occurring after the completion of mining satisfy the design criteria of this section and any additional design criteria established by the regulatory authority. This certification may be limited to the location, dimensions, and physical characteristics of the stream channel. This requirement was proposed at paragraph (c)(2)(iv). We have redesignated the final paragraph and, with minor exceptions, adopted the paragraph as proposed. Similar to other paragraphs in this section we have replaced the term “restored” to “reconstructed” because the latter term better describes the streams that are recreated after mining using the criteria prescribed in this section.
One commenter objected to this portion of the proposed rule, alleging that stream restoration requires far more than just engineering and that the rule should be clarified to ensure that the requirement applies only to the engineering aspect of stream channel restoration. The commenter also noted that the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers requires only permanent streams with watersheds over 640 acres to be certified by a professional engineer. Finally, the commenter considered this requirement to be excessive, costly, and useless because both the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers and the regulatory authority constantly inspect the reclamation of these streams.
In response, we note that this requirement does not apply to all streams within a permitted area; it applies only to stream segments reconstructed after being impacted by mining activities. Also, because of the permanency of these reconstructed streams, it is important to ensure that the reconstructed stream matches the design plan. This determination is most appropriately made by a qualified, registered, professional engineer. Moreover, the last sentence of final paragraph (f)(4) expressly limits the certification to the location, dimensions, and physical attributes of the stream. As we explained in the preamble to the proposed rule,
Final paragraph (g) replaces proposed paragraph (e) which prescribed the standards the permittee must satisfy to restore the ecological function of a stream and provided general guidance for regulatory authorities to establish standards for determining when the permittee had “restored” the ecological function of a restored or permanently-diverted perennial or intermittent stream. In the final rule, we have clarified that the permittee must “reconstruct” streams that it mines, not “restore” or “permanently divert them;”
In final paragraph (g)(1), we retained the requirement that the regulatory authority establish criteria for determining when the permittee has restored the ecological function of a perennial or intermittent stream after mining through the stream. However, in response to a federal agency comment, we removed the adjective “objective” because the requirements in final paragraphs (g)(2) through (4) provide adequate guidance for establishing these standards.
We made additional revisions to this requirement. First, we clarified that the requirement to restore ecological function applies only to perennial and intermittent streams. Although final § 780.28 specifically refers to these two stream types and not ephemeral streams, several commenters opined that the proposed rule was unclear about what requirements applied to each stream type. Therefore, final paragraph (g)(1) specifically refers to perennial and intermittent streams to clarify that any applicant proposing to mine through a perennial or intermittent stream must incorporate the standards imposed by the regulatory authority and explain how it will satisfy the standards. We reiterate that final § 780.27 provides the requirements applicable to ephemeral streams.
Second, consistent with other paragraphs of the final rule, we removed the proposed terms “restored” and “permanently diverted.” Several commenters asserted that those terms are vague. We agree and we have replaced those terms with “reconstructed” in order to describe more accurately the reclamation that must occur after mining in or through intermittent or perennial streams.
One commenter objected to the requirement that the regulatory authority establish standards for determining when ecological function has been restored because the commenter opined that permittees can never restore identical ecological function. In response, we acknowledge that there has been no consistent documentation that streams can be restored to their identical ecological function. Neither the proposed rule nor the final rule, however, requires that the restored ecological function of a stream be identical to what it was before mining. Instead, § 780.28(g)(3)(ii)(A) of the final rule explicitly provides that the reconstructed streams or stream-channel diversions need not have precisely the same biological condition or biota as the stream segment had before mining.
Several commenters contended that the permit requirements in proposed § 780.28(e)(1) were too subjective and vague. Similarly, some commenters were also concerned that the standards for restoring ecological function are too difficult to determine without further guidance and that developing standards will be a task too complex for regulatory authorities. Many commenters opined that the general reference to proposed § 816.57(b)(2), which provided the requirements for restoration of “form” and “function” of streams, was too vague and objected stating that the rule did not prescribe specific standards for the restoration of ecological function. To clarify, we are not establishing standards for restoration of ecological function. The regulatory authority must follow the minimum requirements we prescribe in final paragraph (g) to establish standards for determining when the permittee has restored ecological function. We are granting this discretion to the regulatory authority because of the unique characteristics of mining operations and biological systems across the nation and due to the specialized expertise of the regulatory authority in relationship to specific geographic areas. However, the regulatory authority must satisfy the criteria set forth in § 780.28 for establishing appropriate standards. Another commenter requested that we revise the regulations to penalize regulatory authorities that fail to establish standards, in accordance with our requirements, for determining when the permittee has restored the ecological function of a stream. This is not necessary. As we discussed, the final rule appropriately provides regulatory authorities with the flexibility and discretion to establish standards for their jurisdiction. If, at some point, we determine that a regulatory authority is not satisfying the minimum requirements as identified in § 780.28(g), we may exercise our oversight responsibilities as outlined in 30 CFR part 842.
We agree with the comments that we should have been more specific about the criteria for establishing standards for assessing whether the permittee has restored the ecological function of a reconstructed stream. To remedy this, in paragraphs (g)(2), (3), and (4) of the final rule, we clearly prescribed the minimum requirements the regulatory authority must satisfy when it establishes standards. The inclusion of these minimum requirements should also address the commenters' concern that the task of developing standards for determining when the ecological function is restored was too complex of a task for regulatory authorities. We have also moved proposed paragraphs § 816.57(b)(2)(ii)(B), (C), and (D), into final § 780.28(g) because these provisions are more appropriately categorized as permitting requirements, not performance standards.
Final paragraph (g)(2) replaces and enhances the requirement in proposed § 780.28(e)(1)(ii) that the regulatory authority must coordinate with “the Clean Water Act permitting authority to ensure compliance with all Clean Water Act requirements.” We have modified this requirement to encompass coordination with all “appropriate agencies responsible for administering the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1251
In final paragraph (g)(3), we provide that the biological component standards for restoration of the ecological function of perennial and intermittent streams must employ the best technology currently available. This is consistent with section 515(b)(24) of SMCRA,
In the preamble to paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(C) of proposed § 816.57,
Other commenters objected to the requirement in proposed § 816.57(b)(2)(ii)(C), which has been moved to final § 780.28(g)(3). This provision required that the permittee assess the biological condition of a reconstructed stream by using a protocol that meets the requirements of proposed § 780.19(e)(2). Proposed § 780.19(e)(2)(i) required that, for perennial and intermittent streams, the permittee identify benthic macroinvertebrates to the genus level. The commenters specifically objected to this requirement, alleging that this level of identification is significantly more expensive and more stringent, that it is arbitrary, and that it has no apparent benefit. Another commenter added that the bioassessment method is resource intensive and that potentially affected streams are small and highly variable in nature, making the development of credible index values challenging, if not impossible. We disagree. As the commenters noted in response to proposed § 816.57(b)(2)(ii)(C), now 780.28(g)(3), genus-level identification is often more costly than family-level identification. However, scientific literature supports genus level identification because it provides a more accurate indication of the biological condition of a stream than family level. The assertion that genus level identification is too stringent or arbitrary is unfounded because many states require identification to the genus level.
Deborah Arnwine,
Eric G. Hargett,
Water Quality Assessment Branch Mississippi Dep't of Envtl. Quality,
Texas Commission on Environmental Policy,
In response to our invitation for comment on the effectiveness of using index scores from bioassessment protocols to ascertain impacts on existing, reasonably foreseeable, or designated uses, another commenter opined that using bioassessment protocols would not effectively measure impact on designated uses for streams in western states. This commenter,
After considering all of the commenters' suggestions, we are retaining the requirement that SMCRA regulatory authorities use existing scientifically defensible multimetric bioassessment protocols to assess the ecological function when such protocols are available. This requirement is now set out in two places: Final rule § 780.28(g)(3), the analog to proposed rule § 816.57(b)(2)(ii)(C); and final rule §§ 780.19(c)(6)(vi) through (viii), the analog to proposed rule § 780.19(e)(2). These protocols are the best technology currently available to measure the biological condition of perennial and intermittent streams. The approach we take in the final rule is consistent with section 515(b)(24) of SMCRA,
At the same time, we recognize that some states may not have an established scientifically defensible protocol for intermittent streams. Therefore, in paragraph (g)(3)(iv)(A) we provide that in states without currently established scientifically defensible bioassessment protocols for intermittent streams, the permittee must rely upon the restoration of the form, hydrologic function, water quality, and reestablishment of streamside vegetation as surrogates for the biological condition of the stream. However, we do not mean this approach to be a permanent solution because states are developing additional bioassessment protocols for intermittent streams. Consequently, in final rule § 780.28(g)(3)(iv)(B), we require the regulatory authority at five year intervals to reevaluate the best technology currently available for intermittent streams. We expect the regulatory authorities to consider advancements in bioassessment protocols and to adjust their permitting processes to implement the best technology currently available.
Final § 780.28(g)(3)(ii)(C) ensures that populations of organisms used to assess biological condition are capable of maintaining themselves by independent effort and prevents the usage of stocked or introduced populations. We proposed a similar requirement in § 816.57(b)(2)(ii)(D); however, one commenter asserted that this provision did not provide sufficient detail explaining how an operator will determine whether a population is self-sustaining. In response, we note that the regulatory authority will have discretion to determine the sufficiency of the population reproduction. Natural reproduction is an indicator of a self-sustaining population. As discussed in the preamble to the proposed rule, organisms that happen to drift into the reconstructed channel from other areas will not accurately reflect that the permittee has restored ecological function.
Based upon scientific literature we reviewed at commenters' suggestions,
One commenter opined that to determine if ecological function has been restored and to assess biological condition regulatory authority staff must possess more knowledge, skills, and abilities related to biological evaluation than required under the previous regulations and that this will create an unnecessary burden. We agree that expertise in biology may be required for regulatory staff to properly review permit applications that propose to conduct activities in, through, or adjacent to streams, but we disagree that the requirement is unnecessary. Restoring ecological function will result in significant long-term benefits to stream health. Additionally, in relationship to bioassessment protocols specifically, the regulatory authority is in the best position to assess protocols because it has the most relevant information and experience related to the specific geographic region and can tailor the protocols to meet local environmental constraints. Therefore, we are retaining this requirement. For further evaluation of the impacts upon regulatory authority staff, please review the RIA. Other commenters recommended that we require a qualified biologist or ecologist to formally attest to the sufficiency of any plan submitted in the permit application to restore the biological function of impacted streams and all determinations regarding restoration of stream ecological function. We have not adopted this recommended change. Instead, we have retained, with slight modification from what was proposed, a process that will ensure that reviewers use the standards as prescribed by final paragraphs (g)(2) through (4) to determine when the operator has restored the ecological function of the reconstructed stream, and that requires the applicant to incorporate those standards and explain how it will satisfy the requirements. As prescribed by final paragraph (g)(2) of § 780.28, this process includes coordination with Clean Water Act regulatory authorities. These authorities, along with the SMCRA regulatory authority, and, as
Although operators are not required to reconstruct streams that have the precise biological condition as their premining counterparts, we prescribed in proposed rule § 816.57(b)(2)(ii)(B) that the reconstructed stream must be adequate to support both the uses that existed before mining and must not preclude the attainment of the designated uses that existed before mining pursuant to sections 101(a) of 303(c) of the Clean Water Act.
Other commenters suggested that we revise proposed § 816.57(b)(2)(ii)(B), which has been moved to final rule § 780.28(g)(4), to make clear that all restored streams and receiving streams outside the permit area must have biological assemblages that support threatened and endangered species in the area. We decline to make this change here for several reasons. First, this comment is more applicable to final § 780.28(g)(3), which sets out the requirements for establishing, where applicable, appropriate biological conditions. Second, this revision would be duplicative because we have included specific requirements protecting threatened and endangered species throughout the final rule including, among others, § 773.15(j)(1), which requires documentation that the proposed permit area and adjacent area do not contain species listed or proposed for listing as threatened or endangered under the Endangered Species Act,
Similarly, one commenter asserted that proposed § 816.57(b)(2)(ii), now incorporated in final rule
We added final paragraph (g)(4)(ii) in response to a federal agency comment and a similar comment from another commenter that alleged that prohibiting activity from completely “precluding” a water use is “an inordinately lax standard that would allow severe impairment of a stream.” One of these commenters also suggested that we replace “preclude” with “cause or contribute to the impairment of.” In lieu of accepting the recommendation to replace “preclude” we have retained that terminology in final paragraph (g)(4)(i) and we have added final paragraph (g)(4)(ii). This paragraph clarifies that the standards for restoring ecological function must not prevent a stream segment from satisfying the anti-degradation requirements of the Clean Water Act as adopted by state or tribes or as established by a federal rulemaking under the Clean Water Act.
Final paragraph (h), previously proposed paragraph (e)(2), specifies that a permittee's application proposing to conduct surface mining activities in or within 100 feet of a perennial or intermittent stream may not be approved unless the regulatory authority makes a specific, written finding that the permittee has fully satisfied all of the applicable requirements of final paragraphs (c) through (f) of this section. Additionally, for the permit to be valid the regulatory authority must include a detailed rationale for the finding. We did not receive any comments on this paragraph and we are accepting it as proposed.
We have added final paragraph (i) to clarify that paragraphs (c) through (h) of this section will not apply if a regulatory authority amends its program to expressly prohibit all surface mining activities, including the construction of stream-channel diversions, that would result in more than a de minimis disturbance of land in or within 100 feet of a perennial or intermittent stream. We have added this alternative in response to comments advocating a complete ban on activities within 100 feet of any stream because the commenters viewed a ban as the most protective course of action. Although we are not adopting a complete ban as part of the final rule, we have concluded that the regulatory authority should retain the discretion to enact more stringent measures. Thus, we are clarifying that the regulatory authority has the option to enact such a prohibition.
As discussed in the preamble to the proposed rule, section 780.29 identifies the required information for surface water runoff control plans.
Final paragraph (a)(1) requires an explanation of how you will handle surface-water runoff in a manner that will prevent flows from the proposed permit area, both during and after mining and reclamation, from exceeding the premining peak flow from the same area for the same-size precipitation event. In most cases, this will require monitoring peak surface water flows in existing natural drainage channels at or near the permit boundary.
One commenter alleged that offsite flooding as a result of uncontrolled surface water runoff is probably limited
Some commenters expressed concern about the proposed use of the Natural Resource Conservation Service's synthetic storm distribution method for estimating peak storm flows as required in the proposed rule. These commenters were particularly concerned about our allowing only one method to estimate peak storm flows when other methods may be acceptable. In response to this comment, we have modified the final rule at paragraph (a)(1) to include the phrase “or another scientifically-defensible method approved by the regulatory authority that takes into account the time of concentration to estimate peak flow discharges.” We recognize that other equally viable methods for estimating storm peak flows exist and this change in the final rule provides the regulatory authority the discretion to allow other valid methods. However, although we are not prescribing a specific method for characterizing surface water runoff from a mine site, you must use a scientifically defensible, repeatable method acceptable to the regulatory authority that adequately characterizes precipitation-related surface water runoff. It is imperative that storm duration for each drainage be based on its time of concentration. Time of concentration is defined as the time needed for water to flow from the most remote point in a watershed to the watershed discharge point. A precipitation event is typically described by the frequency of occurrence and duration; for example, the 10-year, 24-hour event. The duration must be selected based on the time of concentration of the drainage being evaluated. A site specific storm duration is required because shorter duration storms typically have greater precipitation intensities, and use of the appropriate duration in the analysis will result in the maximum flow for a given frequency of occurrence event.
One commenter stated that development of a surface water runoff control plan to evaluate peak flows cannot be done using National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System points or the monitoring points required in § 780.19, regarding baseline information on hydrology, geology, and aquatic biology. We agree that those monitoring points are intended to facilitate assessment of water quality and all of these points may not be the best locations for assessing peak discharge from the permit area. Also, the National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System monitoring points within the permit area are not required for surface water runoff analysis. However, it is necessary for the operator to measure peak surface water flows at or near the permit boundaries. Often peak surface water flow monitoring points coincide with the location of National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System monitoring points. Therefore, in response to the commenter, we point out that select National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System monitoring points may be useful in analyzing surface water runoff. Paragraph (b) requires a monitoring-point density that adequately represents the drainage pattern across the entire proposed permit area, with a minimum of one monitoring point per watershed discharge point. In the context of a surface water runoff control plan, a watershed discharge point refers to a point of discharge from the permit area. The associated watershed is the drainage area that contributes to that point. Potentially, and to the commenter's point, the watershed discharge point may also coincide with a National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System monitoring point. The essential factor is that the drainage pattern across the entire proposed permit area is adequately represented.
One commenter noted that peak flows at any given moment during the operation may be different than the flows reflected during baseline sample collection, as mandated by section 780.19. Therefore, according to the commenter, this could result in false designs and expectations. We agree that precipitation events of any specific “size” are unlikely to reoccur on multiple occasions at a site. However, over the baseline monitoring period, multiple precipitation events and associated peak flows should be observed. From these, the premining relationship between precipitation and peak flows can be determined. This hydrologic response relationship can be plotted as a curve, and used to estimate peak flows for precipitation events that differ from those measured during the baseline monitoring period. Consequently, § 780.19(c)(3)(i)(A) requires baseline measurement of peak flow magnitude and frequency and § 780.19(c)(5) requires measurement of precipitation events using on-site, self-recording devices or, at the discretion of the regulatory authority, a single device located to provide baseline data for multiple permits located close to each other. Results of these measurements can be used in the design of the surface water runoff control system.
One commenter alleged that discharge estimates are based on empirical models and methodology that require the engineer to fit the appropriate methodology to the study area being evaluated. We agree. Premining precipitation and peak flow information obtained as described above can be used in these models to establish the hydrologic response characteristics of each drainage area being considered. The data collected will allow the engineer to verify that model output approximates the observed relationship between precipitation and peak flows. During mining and reclamation, the measured precipitation for each drainage area can be input to the model, and the output observed. The only requirement is that the measured peak flows from the permit area do not exceed the estimated premining peak flow for the same event.
Proposed and final paragraph (b) set out the various requirements for a surface-water-runoff monitoring and inspection program including the requirement that the program “provide sufficient precipitation and stormwater discharge data for the proposed permit area to evaluate the effectiveness of the surface-water runoff control practices under paragraph (a).” A commenter asserted that it was impossible to imagine that premining and postmining peak flows from same-sized precipitation events would be the same. The commenter alleged that it is not the size of the discharge, but whether damage could occur as a result of the discharge that should be considered. We agree in part. It is virtually certain that, if not controlled, surface water flows
Another requirement in proposed and final paragraph (b) is that the program must contain “a monitoring-point density that adequately represents the drainage pattern across the entire proposed permit area, with a minimum of one monitoring point per watershed discharge point.” Upon review of the proposed rule and the comments received, we recognize that there may be confusion about the role of ephemeral streams in the monitoring and inspection program. While it is essential that the ephemeral stream drainage pattern should be similar to the premining conditions and surface water flows should be similar to premining flows prior to final bond release, in a surface water runoff context, it is not necessary to measure discharges of particular ephemeral streams either before, during, or after mining. The purpose of monitoring in this context is to ensure that flows during and after mining do not exceed premining flows. Monitoring each ephemeral stream would require many monitoring points, yet not provide significant useful information because the pre- and postmining locations of ephemeral streams will differ, in some cases significantly. During mining, the surface water that typically feeds these ephemeral streams will be captured by the drainage control system and conveyed to one or more discrete flow monitoring points that may be associated with a National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System monitoring point. Therefore, we do not require you to include headwater streams that emanate from the permit area as ephemeral streams when you determine the monitoring-point density under paragraph (b).
Some commenters suggested that a federally-mandated minimum monitoring-point density standard is unnecessary and that the regulatory authority should have flexibility to establish the minimum point density based on local conditions, type of mining, type of sediment control measures, and other factors. The commenters appear to take issue with the requirement in paragraph (b) that there be a minimum of one monitoring point per watershed discharge point. Since the purpose of the surface water runoff control plan is to prevent offsite damage, the requirement for one monitoring point per discharge is reasonable as the data will validate that the surface water runoff control plan is working and that it is preventing mining-related offsite flooding, stream scouring and damage to private property. To specifically address the requirements of paragraph (a), monitoring points should be located at the places where streams flow from the permit area, and would, in most cases, coincide with the locations of baseline surface water monitoring points.
Citing the above reasons for a federally mandated minimum sampling density, another commenter suggested that the current criteria for sampling density are sufficient for most permits and that the changes in the proposed rule should be limited to applicable areas based upon either geographical or slope based considerations. We are not altering the final rule as a result of this comment. SMCRA regulations currently contain no minimum sampling density criteria. Regardless of geographic location or topography, changes to ground cover and precipitation infiltration characteristics occur and often result in increased stormwater runoff from a site in comparison to conditions prior to disturbance. The intent of stormwater runoff monitoring is to prevent offsite flooding attributable to mining activities. One monitoring point at each point of discharge of a perennial or intermittent stream leaving the permit area is the minimum that could be effective.
A commenter suggested that the phrase “watershed discharge point” as used in paragraph (b) of the proposed rule, is not clear with respect to the corresponding drainage area associated with that point. Similarly, another commenter noted that we did not define the term “watershed discharge point” and that a common understanding of the term is not available. To clarify, a watershed discharge point is a selected point of interest within a stream channel, such as a culvert location or a stream channel at a permit boundary. The associated watershed is the land area that drains to that watershed discharge point. These terms are commonly accepted in hydrology and engineering disciplines.
Another commenter suggested that it is not necessary for us to require post-mining monitoring and inspection of each watershed to evaluate the quantity of flow after mining because the regulatory authority will be making monthly inspections and discharge issues should be identified at that time. We have not changed the final rule as a result of this comment. Monthly inspections performed by the regulatory authority are unlikely to coincide with storm events and do not include measurement of peak stormwater discharges associated with these events. Therefore, results of scheduled inspections that occur after a storm event cannot be used to determine if flooding resulted from mining activities or if it would have occurred even in the absence of mining.
Another commenter suggested that pursuant to the Clean Water Act stormwater program, stormwater at mine sites is already carefully controlled by multiple best management practices, technology requirements, erosion and sediment control practices, and buffer zones. The commenter alleged that the requirement for a surface-water runoff monitoring and inspection program conflicts with, and is duplicative of Clean Water Act requirements. We disagree and are not making any changes to the final rule in response to this comment because, despite the cited stormwater control measures, stormwater-related offsite damage frequently occurs. In addition, the cited measures do not specifically include monitoring of stormwater discharges at permit boundaries. Therefore, the monitoring and inspection program required in final paragraph (b) supplements, rather than conflicts with existing requirements.
In the final rule we are dividing proposed paragraph (c) into paragraphs (c) and (d). Final paragraph (c) now contains the requirement for the surface-water runoff control plan to include “[d]escriptions, maps, and cross-sections of runoff-control structures.” After reviewing the comments we have decided to add a definition to address confusion about the scope of the term “runoff-control structures” which we use both here and in § 816.34(d)(1), which relates to protecting the hydrologic balance. The definition makes clear that the term “runoff-control structures” includes the many different types of hydraulic structures that play roles in controlling runoff of surface water on a mine site. All conveyance channels, including drainage benches, diversion ditches, and groin ditches, control where surface runoff flows, and these structures
Final paragraph (d) now contains the requirement for the surface-water runoff control plan to include an “explanation of how diversions will be constructed in compliance with § 816.43”. In proposed paragraph (c), this provision applied not only to diversions but also to “other channels to collect and convey surface water runoff” even though § 816.43 applies only to diversions. We have removed this erroneous reference to “other channels to collect and convey surface water runoff” from the final rule.
We are finalizing section 780.31 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
We are finalizing § 780.33 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
As discussed in the preamble to the proposed rule, § 780.35 identifies the required information for minimization and disposal of excess spoil.
One commenter expressed concern that the definition of excess spoil could be interpreted to require spoil from an initial cut to be stored and hauled a significant distance to the final cut, as opposed to allowing the initial cut spoil to be blended into the surrounding area. The commenter notes that it is common practice in the Midwest to blend the initial cut spoil into the final approximate original contour configuration and leave a final cut impoundment. The commenter opined that a change from this practice would be extremely costly. The commenter was concerned that this paragraph in conjunction with the definition of “excess spoil” in § 701.5, may result in material blended into the surrounding area being interpreted as “excess spoil” and therefore creation of an end cut impoundment would be prohibited. We agree with the commenter's concern, however, as discussed in the preamble to the definition of “excess spoil,” we have clarified that material used to blend the final configuration of the mined-out area with the surrounding terrain in non-steep slope areas in accordance with §§ 816.102(b)(3) and 817.102(b)(3) is not considered excess spoil. Thus, final cut impoundments are still allowable in the situation described by the commenter as long as all other requirements of the regulations are satisfied.
In paragraph (b)(1) of the final rule we are including a requirement for submission of a demonstration, with supporting calculations and other documentation, that the operation has been designed to minimize, to the extent possible, the volume of excess spoil that the operation will generate. One commenter expressed concern that the requirement to demonstrate that the operation has been designed to minimize, to the extent possible, the volume of excess spoil that the operation will generate could be applied to temporary overburden stockpiles, such as those created by dozers, truck, loaders, shovels, or draglines, and which will be used for future reclamation. As discussed more fully in the preamble discussion of the definition of “excess spoil” in § 701.5, we added paragraph (5) to the definition of “excess spoil” to specifically exclude temporarily placed material from the definition. This modification will ensure that temporary overburden stockpiles are not subjected to this requirement.
In paragraph (b)(2)(iii), we proposed to limit postmining drainage structures, access roads, and berms on the perimeter of the backfilled area to a maximum width of 20 feet unless a need for greater width is demonstrated. In the proposed rule, we invited comment on whether the maximum width should be larger or smaller than 20 feet.
Paragraph (b)(4) prohibits the creation of a permanent impoundment under § 816.49(b) or the placement of coal combustion residue or noncoal materials in the mine excavation if doing so would result in the creation of excess spoil. We received many
A commenter alleged that we are attempting to limit the size of what the commenter characterized as “final cut impoundments” to no more than what is needed to support the approved postmining land use and that there is no legal basis for that limit. Although the comment was not clear, because the commenter referred to impoundments in connection with approved postmining land uses, we concluded that the commenter was referencing permanent impoundments. We disagree with commenter's assertion. Section 515(b)(8) of SMCRA
After consideration of the comments related to performance standards about disposing of excess spoil on preexisting benches, we have added paragraph (c) to the final rule. This paragraph adds a permitting requirement to match the performance standards of final rule § 816.74. Paragraph (c) aids in the minimization of placement of excess spoil, to the extent possible, on undisturbed land. The previous regulations at § 816.74 allow, but do not require, placement of excess spoil on preexisting benches. Paragraph (c) requires that excess spoil placement on preexisting benches be maximized before any excess spoil fills can be constructed. Therefore, if surface mining is proposed in an area where mine benches from pre-law contour mining remain in the vicinity of the proposed permit, you must demonstrate how you will maximize placement of excess spoil on preexisting benches before you place any on undisturbed land.
One commenter suggested we replace the term “bankfull elevation” with the term “ordinary high water mark” because the latter term is the one more commonly used and more easily measured. We agree and have revised paragraph (e) of the final rule so that the term “ordinary high-water mark” is used to represent the location on the cross section of a stream channel from which the 100-foot streamside vegetative corridor, which is now required by § 780.28(d), is measured. This change is consistent with the addition of the term “ordinary high water mark” throughout the final rule, including the final definition of “ordinary high water mark” in § 701.5.
Proposed paragraph (e)(2), now final paragraph (f)(2), requires that fills be located on the most moderately sloping and naturally stable areas available. One commenter expressed concern that this requirement would encourage more fills in intermittent or perennial, rather than ephemeral streams. Paragraph (f)(2), however, should not be read in isolation and in fact requires the regulatory authority to determine the areas that are available for excess spoil fill construction after considering requirements of the Act,
The same commenter also alleged that this requirement would, in many cases, necessitate using the stream channel as a sediment conveyance. We disagree. Movement of excess spoil upslope, and into the mined area in conjunction with the requirement of § 816.57(h)(ii) to place siltation structures as near as possible to the toes of fills, will virtually eliminate the possibility of streams being used as sediment conveyances in connection with spoil placement.
Proposed paragraph (g)(6), now paragraph (h)(6), requires the performance of stability analyses that addresses static, seismic, and post-earthquake (liquefaction) conditions because those conditions are part of a comprehensive stability analysis. One commenter stated that post-earthquake (liquefaction) conditions should not be a required part of a stability analysis because liquefaction is not a concern in coarse-sized mine spoil composed of a large fraction of rock material. Moreover, a liquefaction analysis would be a costly exercise with no apparent benefit.
We agree that the potential for liquefaction is primarily a concern in loose, saturated, relatively fine-grained soil materials, such as materials that are impounded in slurry impoundments and incorporated into upstream constructed impoundments. Excess spoil consists of soil and rock mixtures placed and compacted in an unsaturated state. Materials of this type, and placed in this manner, are not normally susceptible to liquefaction. Therefore, we have removed the requirement that the stability analysis include post-earthquake (liquefaction) conditions from the final rule. Excess spoil fills remain subject to all other slope stability requirements in final rule §§ 816.71 and 817.71, relating to disposal of excess spoil.
Paragraph (a)(4)(i) of final rule § 780.37 requires that the permit application identify each road that you propose to locate in or within 100 feet, measured horizontally on a line perpendicular to the stream, beginning at the ordinary high water mark, of a perennial or intermittent stream. The final rule differs from the proposed rule in that it specifies that the measurement must begin at the ordinary high water mark of the stream, rather than at the bankfull elevation of the stream. A commenter on another rule with the 100-foot provision recommended this change because it is both more commonly used and readily determined than the bankfull elevation. We have made this change universally throughout our regulations.
Final paragraph (a)(5) requires that the permit application explain why the roads, fords, and stream crossings identified in paragraph (a)(4) are necessary and how they comply with the applicable requirements of § 780.28 and § 816.150(b)(5) and (d) and § 816.151(d)(2), (e)(5), and (e)(6). The final rule differs from the proposed and previous rules in that it adds fords, which are subject to the requirements of § 780.28 and thus should be included in the explanation required by paragraph (a)(5). The final rule also replaces the reference to section 515(b)(18) of SMCRA
In response to proposed paragraph (c) a commenter pointed out that the cross reference to § 816.151(b) regarding factors of safety was in error and that the correct cross reference should be paragraph (c) of § 816.151. Likewise, the commenter noted the identical problem existed in proposed § 784.37(c) which similarly cited proposed § 817.151(b) instead of paragraph (c). We have made the necessary corrections to the final rule at both §§ 780.37(c) and 784.37(c).
We are finalizing § 780.38 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
With the exception of altering the title of this section for clarity, we are finalizing § 783.1 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
We are finalizing § 783.2 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
We are finalizing section 783.4 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
Section 783.10 pertains to compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act, 44 U.S.C. 3501,
Like proposed § 779.11, the surface mining counterpart to § 783.11, we have removed and reserved previous § 783.11 for the reasons discussed in the preamble to the proposed rule.
Like proposed § 779.12, the surface mining counterpart to § 783.12, we have removed and reserved previous § 783.12 for the reasons discussed in the preamble to the proposed rule.
We are finalizing § 783.17 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
We are finalizing § 783.17 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
We have modified this section; however, these modifications are discussed in final rule § 779.19, which is the surface mining counterpart to § 783.19.
We have modified this section; however, these modifications are discussed in final rule § 779.20, which is the surface mining counterpart to § 783.20.
Similar to its surface mining counterpart found at § 779.21, § 783.21 identifies the information on soils that must be included in a permit application. However, § 783.21 is exclusive to underground mining permits.
Several commenters urged us to increase prime farmland reconnaissance surveys to include areas beyond the permit area and to extend these surveys into the adjacent area for areas that will be undermined. Moreover, some commenters recommended that all applicable soil survey information, including information required for the permit area, be included if prime farmland is identified in the adjacent area. In addition, some commenters recommended that all standards required by § 785.17, related to prime farmland, as well as § 823.15, related to revegetation and restoration of soil productivity, be fully applicable if prime farmlands are damaged by subsidence in the adjacent area. We are not accepting the suggestions in these comments because impacts caused by surface mining on prime farmland soils differ from impacts caused by mine subsidence. In surface mining, soil layers must be removed prior to mining. Those soil layers are later replaced as part of reclamation as further explained in final rule § 816.22(e). This is fundamentally different from what occurs from the settling of the soil layers caused by mine subsidence. It would not be appropriate to salvage soil layers prior to subsidence. In fact, doing so would have far greater impact on the
We have modified this section; however, these modifications are discussed in final rule § 779.22, which is the surface mining counterpart to § 783.22.
Similar to its surface mining counterpart found at § 779.24, § 783.24 identifies what maps, plans, and cross-sections must be included in a permit application. However, § 783.24 is exclusive to underground mining permits.
As proposed, § 783.24(a)(23) would have required that the application include maps, plans, or cross-sections showing the location and extent of known workings of active, inactive, or abandoned underground mines located either within the proposed permit area or within a 2,000-foot radius in any direction of the proposed underground workings. One commenter stated this requirement conflicts with the “reasonable possibility of adverse impacts in the adjacent area” included in the definition of adjacent area within § 701.5. It is also inconsistent with a similar requirement in § 779.24(a)(23) which does not have the 2,000-foot stipulation. We agree with the commenter and have removed the 2,000-foot radius requirement from the final rule.
One commenter asserted that the water well data required in proposed § 783.24(a) is redundant, will not serve any substantial purpose, and will be time consuming and costly to obtain. It was suggested that the regulatory authority be allowed flexibility in determining what type and the volume of well data is necessary to be submitted in the permit application and that some of the data be allowed to be maintained at the mine site for review. While we recognize that the collection of groundwater data will have associated costs, the data are necessary to determine the hydrogeology of the proposed mine site and adjacent areas so the applicant may properly evaluate and prepare a comprehensive determination of the probable hydrologic consequences of the proposed operation. The data are also necessary to support development of the hydrologic reclamation plan required by final rule § 780.22 and the cumulative hydrologic impact assessment required by final rule § 780.21. Therefore, we have not modified the final rule in response to this comment.
Like proposed § 779.25, the surface mining counterpart to § 783.25, we have removed and reserved previous § 783.25 for the reasons discussed in the preamble to the proposed rule.
We received several comments urging us to allow applicants to submit permit application information for the adjacent area in stages, especially for underground mining operations. Commenters alleged that requiring information for the entire adjacent area would be exorbitantly expensive and result in collection of data that either would be outdated by the time that underground mining activities could affect areas located distant from the area in which mining initially begins or would be useless because of changes in mining plans. One commenter also urged us to allow incremental monitoring of the adjacent area. According to the commenter, the applicant would have to obtain property for well installations in areas that would not normally require property control, which would be incredibly costly and difficult to obtain.
After considering these comments, we added two new §§ 783.26 and 784.40, to the final rule to allow incremental submission of permit application information for underground mines and incremental initiation of monitoring of groundwater, surface water, and the biological condition of perennial and intermittent streams in the adjacent area of underground mines. We decided not to allow incremental submission of permit application information and incremental initiation of monitoring for surface mines because surface mining involves much more extensive surface disturbance than underground mining and because most surface mines have a much shorter life than underground mines.
The chief drawback of allowing incremental submission of permit application information is that there may be insufficient information for the regulatory authority to prepare the cumulative hydrologic impact assessment or to make the findings required for approval of a permit application. Therefore, final rule § 783.26(b) specifies that the regulatory authority has complete discretion in deciding whether to grant a request for incremental submission of permit application information. The final rule also establishes minimum requirements and criteria for both requests for incremental submission and processing of those requests.
Specifically, paragraph (b)(1) of the final rule provides that each increment must be clearly defined. It also requires that each increment include at least five years of anticipated mining. This time period is equivalent to the standard term of a permit under final rule § 773.19(c) and section 506(b) of SMCRA.
Paragraph (b)(2) requires that the schedule include a map showing the limits of underground mining activity under each increment. It also requires establishment of those limits in a manner that will prevent any impact on the succeeding increment before the regulatory authority approves mining within that increment.
Paragraph (b)(3) requires submission of data for each successive increment at least one year in advance of any anticipated impacts of underground mining upon that increment. This time period is consistent with final rule § 784.19(b) and (c), which require a minimum of 12 months of baseline
Paragraph (b)(4)(i) provides that the regulatory authority must condition the permit to require that the permittee reevaluate the adequacy of the probable hydrologic consequences determination under § 784.20 and the hydrologic reclamation plan under § 784.22 as part of each submission. The absence of baseline permit application information for all increments at the time of permit application approval means that the permittee must use the baseline data collected for each successive increment to reevaluate the accuracy of the probable hydrologic consequences determination and the adequacy of the hydrologic reclamation plan before the mining operation may affect the new increment.
Similarly, paragraph (b)(4)(ii) provides that the regulatory authority must condition the permit to prohibit the conduct of any underground mining activity that might impact an increment before the regulatory authority reviews the information submitted for that increment, updates the cumulative hydrologic impact assessment prepared under § 784.21 to incorporate that information, and determines that the findings made at the time of approval of the permit application under § 773.15 remain accurate. If the regulatory authority cannot make this determination, it must require that the permittee either cease mining or revise the permit in a manner that will correct that problem and enable the regulatory authority to make the necessary findings.
Final rule § 784.40 provides that the requirements, procedures, and criteria of 30 CFR 783.26 apply with equal force to the permit application information requirements of part 784. In addition, in response to the comment discussed above, § 784.40(c) specifies that the plans submitted under § 784.23 for monitoring of groundwater, surface water, and the biological condition of perennial and intermittent streams may be structured and implemented in an incremental manner consistent with the schedule approved under paragraph (b).
With the exception of altering the title of this section for clarity, we are finalizing § 784.1 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
We are finalizing § 784.2 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
We are finalizing § 784.4 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
Section 784.10 pertains to compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act, 44 U.S.C. 3501,
We are finalizing § 784.11 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
We received comments urging us to extend the requirements for reclamation plans to areas adjacent to the permit area including areas located above underground mine works. The commenters stated that the restoration plan and reclamation timetable should address restoration of the form of all perennial and intermittent stream segments through or beneath which mining will occur. These commenters suggested that under paragraph (b) we should require detailed timetables for the restoration of the form and function of streams that are damaged by subsidence and that reclamation plans should include lands disturbed within the area adjacent to the permit area. We are not adopting this suggestion because impacts caused by subsidence in the areas adjacent to underground mines are appropriately addressed in other sections of this regulation. As we discuss in § 783.21 and elsewhere within this preamble, under section 516(a) of SMCRA;
We have modified this section; however, these modifications are discussed in final rule § 780.13, which is the surface mining counterpart to § 784.13.
We have modified this section; however, these modifications are discussed in final rule § 780.14, which is the surface mining counterpart to § 784.14.
One commenter suggested that we clarify that the enhancement measures enumerated in proposed rule (d)(2), final rule paragraph (d)(3), are only necessary where there are actual long-term adverse impacts as opposed to only projected impacts before mining operations have begun. This commenter opined that the need for “permanent” enhancement measures cannot be established prior to beginning operations and until the potential resultant subsidence has actually occurred. The commenter misinterprets our rule. Paragraph (d) applies only to activities conducted on the surface of the land. Other commenters asserted that we made no distinction between surface and underground mines and that it is unclear if the required enhancement measures are applicable to the permit area only or to the permit area and the area overlying the underground workings. To clarify this point, we revised paragraph (d)(3)(i) to state, “if you propose to conduct activities on the land surface that would result in” to eliminate any confusion regarding underground mining. Subsidence impacts on streams are regulated under § 784.30 and 817.121. Activities subject to paragraph (d)(3) include, but are not limited to, the construction of refuse piles or slurry impoundments in intermittent or perennial streams.
We have removed previous § 784.17 to final rule § 784.31. Section 784.17 is now reserved.
We have removed and reserved previous § 784.18. Like previous § 780.18, the surface mining counterpart to previous § 784.18, and as discussed in the preamble to the proposed rule we have moved and revised many aspects of previous § 784.18 to final rule § 780.12.
In addition to the comments we received about baseline information for surface mining permits and comments that addressed both surface mining and underground mining permit applications baseline information, we received comments exclusive to the impact of the proposed rule upon underground mining. While we discussed the baseline information relative to surface mining in § 780.19, we are addressing the comments that are exclusive to underground mining in this section.
A commenter requested stream sampling to be restricted to streams over the shadow areas of underground mines that use planned subsidence (
Another commenter noted a misplaced requirement in proposed paragraph (b)(6)(i)(C) that required monitoring points to be located in a representative number of ephemeral streams within the proposed permit and adjacent areas. Because that section of the regulations relates to groundwater information, final paragraph (b)(6)(i)(C) now specifies that a permit applicant locate monitoring points within the proposed permit area and the area overlying the proposed underground workings.
One commenter alleged that no evidence of significant damage to streams resulting from longwall mining activity existed and that we provided no rationale for requiring operators to collect a substantial volume of environmental and engineering data that would support requiring stream assessments as proposed in paragraph (c)(6). Further, commenters claimed that the proposed assessments provided no specific purpose with respect to satisfying permit and bonding obligations. The commenters also indicated that the data collection would be costly and time consuming, and would provide neither the industry nor the regulatory agency with the information necessary to demonstrate whether or not streams have actually been damaged. We disagree with these comments. Numerous examples exist of longwall damage to streams both in United States and abroad, mostly in the form of dewatered stream channels.
We modified the final rule at paragraph (c)(3) to remove the reference to “ephemeral streams” because this section applies only to perennial and intermittent streams. In response to proposed paragraph (c)(3)(D) about seepage-run sampling, one commenter stated that it is not reasonable to require seepage run analyses on ephemeral streams. We agree. Our removal of the reference to “ephemeral streams” addresses this concern. Other commenters expressed concern about the requirement for seepage analysis when longwall mining methods are employed beneath a perennial or intermittent stream. Specifically, one commenter favored the proposed language and suggested a seepage analysis for all coal mining operations adjacent to streams to help determine the interconnections between the surface and ground water systems and the proposed mine site. In a similar comment, another commenter suggested that seepage run analysis include all mining scenarios, not just longwall mining. We decline to add this language for all mining operations but note that sufficient flexibility exists for a regulatory authority to require such additional information if deemed necessary. A commenter commended us for requiring seepage run analysis, but recommended strengthening the language to include analysis of the entire length of an intermittent or perennial stream within and outside the permit area and performed at both low and high flow conditions to characterize the seepage under a variety of flow conditions. We have accepted this comment and have modified the rule language at § 784.19(c)(3)(D) to clarify where and when the seepage analysis is to occur. Another commenter requested that we clarify where, when, and how seepage analysis should be conducted. We decline to prescribe additional requirements as to where, when, and how the analysis should be done other than as described in paragraphs (c)(3), which requires all measurements to be made using generally-accepted professional techniques approved by the regulatory authority.
One commenter indicated the seepage run determinations do not take into account evaporation or uptake of water by plants and any analysis would necessarily be greatly influenced by temporal and seasonal weather events. The commenter opined that the proposed regulation would impose an onerous and costly sampling requirement that may not represent the actual reasons for changes in streamflow. We do not agree with the commenter because evapotranspiration is a minor component of the seepage analysis due to the location and depth of the water potentially moving toward
One commenter opined that the problems associated with subsidence-induced stream loss were limited to the Appalachian region and should not be required throughout the country. They further suggested that each regulatory authority should have the latitude to decide the need for such analysis. We are not implementing these suggestions for several reasons. First, stream loss over longwall mined areas is not specific to the Appalachian Region. Stream de-watering has occurred in the Illinois coal basin, in the western United States, and abroad. Second, longwall mining causes subsidence in the overburden and induces fracturing in the overburden which can extend upwards from 24 to 54 times the mined height with a surface fracture zone extending from the land surface down to 50 feet.
Some commenters asserted that the information contained in proposed § 780.19(c)(6)(ii) and (iii) for a description of the riparian zone and for the biological condition of each stream segment is unnecessary in areas located above underground mine works. As proposed, these specific sections were only applicable to surface mining operations, while the counterpart to these provisions for underground mines was proposed within proposed § 784.19(c)(6)(ii) and (iii). Upon reconsideration, we have revised § 784.19(c)(6)(i) and (ii) in our final rule for underground mines to make it identical to § 780.19(c)(6)(ii) and (iii). For both sections, the data requirements are identical and pertain to permitted and adjacent area (for underground mines, the area overlying the underground works). In final rule paragraphs (c)(6)(ii) and (iii) of §§ 780.19 and 784.19, we removed the phrase “riparian zone” and replaced it with “vegetation along the banks of each stream.” We made this slight change to clarify the intent of the rule language and avoid confusion related to how “riparian area” would be interpreted.
Assessing the biological condition of each ephemeral, intermittent, or perennial stream that could be impacted by subsidence is critical with respect to determining potential impacts to aquatic communities and the possibility for material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area. Therefore, we have retained requirements within the final rule at paragraphs (c)(6)(vii) and (viii), which requires biological condition assessments for underground mines. In § 784.19(c)(6)(v), we also added a requirement to identify the presence of and to assess the quality of wetlands adjoining streams on the permitted and adjacent areas. These two additions are in response to comments from other federal agencies requesting such and will provide further clarification about the level of detail needed to document baseline conditions. The additions will also ensure restoration of any streamside vegetative corridor and wetlands impacted by mining in or near streams. These assessment requirements are also consistent with 515(b)(19) of SMCRA
One commenter requested that we clarify the term “modify” in proposed paragraph (h)(3), now final paragraph (g)(3). That provision allows a waiver of the biological information requirements if it can be demonstrated to the regulatory authority's satisfaction that the proposed operation will not “modify the baseflow of any perennial or intermittent stream.” The common definition of “modify” as found in any dictionary is sufficient and the regulatory authority is in the best position to determine if the baseflow of a perennial or intermittent stream has been modified. We expect that the regulatory authority will broadly interpret the word “modify” in the context of baseflow changes but only to include changes likely to result from mining. Prudence dictates that the regulatory authority would require the operator to have obtained the necessary baseline data to support or defend potential impacts that may result from mining before granting this waiver. We also expect that underground mines that intend to undermine a stream will be required to conduct the baseline stream assessment regardless of any potential baseflow modification consistent with paragraphs (c)(1) and (c)(3)(i) of § 784.19.
As discussed in the preamble to the proposed rule, § 784.20 explains the requirements of the determination of the probable hydrologic consequences of a proposed operation.
Proposed § 784.20 is substantively identical to § 780.20, which pertains to surface mining, with the exception of paragraphs (a)(3), (a)(6), and (a)(7).
Some commenters suggested that we add specific language to § 784.20 to require that the probable hydrologic consequences determination contain a finding that the operation does not have the potential for causing subsidence-related dewatering that would lead to
Several commenters were concerned with the addition of § 784.20(a)(7). Paragraph (a)(7), requires that the probable hydrologic consequences determination include a finding on whether the proposed underground workings would flood after mine closure and, if so, a statement and explanation of the highest anticipated potentiometric surface of the mine pool after closure; whether, where, and when the mine pool is likely to result in a surface discharge; and the predicted quality of any discharge from the mine pool. The regulatory authority is to use this information, in combination with models and calculations of void space and adjacent mine barrier seepage, to predict the probability of a blowout, where and when blowouts might occur, and the likelihood that water discharged as a result of the blowout will require treatment to meet water quality standards or any applicable effluent limitations. Commenters stated that the prediction of mine pool hydrology and potential for discharges are speculative and challenging and would result in increased costs during preparation of the permit application. It was suggested that rather than requiring a determination, paragraph (a)(7) should require a discussion of the potential of the mine pool to discharge to the ground surface. Commenters also suggested that this analysis only be conducted as necessary on a case-by-case basis. We disagree, because before mining begins, it is important for the regulatory authority and applicant to understand what will happen at mine closure with the water quality and quantity of the mine pool. A primary environmental threat from an underground mine, other than subsidence, is the formation of a post-closure point source and non-point discharges, which often arise from water accumulating in the underground mind voids. These discharges may be acidic or alkaline in character, and contain unusually high metal concentrations or high total dissolved solids, resulting in elevated electrical conductivity in the receiving streams. The characteristic discharge can substantially degrade water quality and the biological condition of streams. The probable hydrologic consequences analysis is designed to address the anticipated effects of the planned mining operation and subsequent reclamation on the quality and quantity of surface water and groundwater systems within, and adjacent to, the proposed permit area, which should include water that accumulates in the mine pool. The analysis required by paragraph (a)(7) will, therefore provide the applicant with information regarding the likelihood that the proposed underground mining operation will create future noncompliant discharges of a perpetual nature that would require treatment. It will also allow the regulatory authority to prepare a better cumulative hydrologic impact assessment, which could lead to prevention measures or changes in the mining plan to avoid the creation a post-closure discharge that would cause material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area in violation of section 510(b)(3) of SMCRA.
One commenter also questioned the statutory support for paragraph (a)(7). Section 516(d) of SMCRA states that the permitting provisions of Title V of the Act are applicable to “surface operations and surface impacts incident to an underground coal mine with such modifications to the permit application requirements, permit approval or denial procedures, and bond requirements as are necessary to accommodate the distinct difference between surface and underground coal mining.”
We have modified this section; however, these modifications are discussed in final rule § 780.21, which is the surface mining counterpart to § 784.21.
Section 784.22 sets out the information the operator must include in the hydrologic reclamation plan and the information that it must provide about alternative water sources. Although many aspects of this section are substantively identical to the surface mining counterpart found at § 780.22, there are several differences that resulted in unique comments from industry and the public, discussed below. In response to these comments we have made modifications to the final rule.
As discussed in more detail in the preamble to § 784.28, the final rule at § 784.22(a)(2)(ii) has been revised to indicate that the hydrologic reclamation plan “must include remedial measures for any predicted diminution of streamflow or loss of wetlands as a result of subsidence” and “must discuss the results of past use of the proposed remedial measures in the vicinity of the proposed mining operation and under similar conditions elsewhere.” In order to assess the likelihood that those remedial measures will be effective to correct subsidence-related stream dewatering, this provision requires the operator and the regulatory authority to consider actual results that the proposed remedial measures have achieved in similar conditions, where available information exists. If streams in similar conditions have not been adequately restored, the regulatory authority may choose to prohibit planned subsidence mining techniques that would result in subsidence to streams within the adjacent area overlying the underground workings in order to ensure the prevention of material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area.
One commenter was concerned about proposed paragraph (b)(1), asserting that the discussion of alternative water source information should specifically include extension of and connection to public water supply lines. We direct the commenter to the definition of “replacement of water supply” in our existing regulations and the preamble discussion to the final rule
Proposed and final (b)(1) require the applicant to demonstrate that alternative water sources are both “available and feasible to develop.” The same commenter opined that we should define the terms “available” and “feasible.” Instead of defining these terms, we have added paragraph (b)(1)(ii) which, for all uses protected under § 817.40, requires the applicant to submit, a water supply replacement plan that includes construction details, costs, and an implementation schedule. This water supply replacement plan will indicate whether the alternative water sources are “available” and “feasible.”
Another commenter opined that an operator should be required to demonstrate in the permit application that a firm plan for a permanent replacement water supply system exists, that the plan should include details to support the furtherance of the plan, and that it should indicate that the permanent replacement water supply system will be installed and successfully operating no less than three years following water diminution. The commenter suggested that we implement a maximum three year period to resolve issues such as surface property access, pipeline rights-of-way concerns, as well as permitting and construction. It is more appropriate to require such a time limit in § 817.40 which describes the responsibility of the operator to replace water supplies. In the proposed rule at paragraph (c)(3) of section 817.40,
As discussed in the preamble to the proposed rule,
This paragraph describes the biological condition monitoring plan. Commenters alleged that we do not have the statutory authority to require biological monitoring requirements for underground mining operations, and asked that we clarify the source of our authority. Our authority to require biological monitoring for underground mining operations is detailed in section 516(b)(11) of SMCRA.”
Further, these commenters stated that the cause-effect relationships between nutrient stressors and biological responses, from which the designated use criteria are derived, can be highly uncertain and recommended that, before corrective action is assigned, the regulatory authority should consider natural annual variation of biological indices, as well as establish methods to evaluate these potential effects to better address regional conditions and experience and state-wide water quality criteria. The final rule in § 784.19(c)(6)(vii) states that the operator must adhere to a bioassessment protocol approved by the state or tribal agency responsible for preparing the water quality inventory required under section 305(b) of the Clean Water Act,
We have modified this section; however, these modifications are discussed in final rule § 780.24, which is the surface mining counterpart to § 784.24.
We have modified this section; however, these modifications are discussed in final rule § 780.25, which is the surface mining counterpart to § 784.25.
As proposed,
In the preamble to proposed § 784.26, we invited comment on whether we should adopt similar requirements that would apply to backstowing of coal processing waste in abandoned underground mines when that activity occurs in connection with either a surface coal mine or a coal preparation plant regulated under 30 CFR 785.21.
Proposed paragraph (b)(2) required that each plan for the return of coal processing waste to abandoned underground mine workings include a description of all chemicals used to process the coal, the quantity of those chemicals remaining in the coal processing waste, and the likely impact those chemicals would have on groundwater and any persons, aquatic life, or wildlife using or exposed to that groundwater. One commenter objected to the addition of this paragraph because many chemicals used to process coal are nonhazardous or nontoxic. The commenter also questioned whether monitoring of nonhazardous chemicals would be required under this rule.
Final paragraph (b)(2) retains the proposed requirement because information about the additives to coal processing waste is necessary to properly evaluate the potential of the injected material to affect water resources. The regulatory authority will determine whether the permittee must monitor groundwater for the presence of those chemicals. The commenter further alleged that the requirement to characterize these chemicals prior to their injection into underground workings would interfere with regulatory programs governing these discharges under laws other than SMCRA. We do not agree with the commenter because final paragraph (b)(2) simply requires disclosure of constituents and analyses of how those chemicals will impact the hydrologic balance. It does not establish discharge limits for those chemicals, although the final rule would prohibit approval of the permit application if the cumulative hydrologic impact assessment determines that disposal of coal processing waste in underground mine workings would result in material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area.
One commenter misconstrued proposed paragraph (e) as allowing the regulatory authority to exempt pneumatic backstowing operations from compliance with the requirements of proposed paragraphs (a) through (d). According to the commenter, the regulatory authority cannot make a determination that backstowing will not have an adverse impact on hydrology without the information required by those paragraphs. Final paragraph (d) eliminates this ambiguity and clarifies that the regulatory authority may only waive the monitoring requirements of final paragraph (c), not the information requirements of final paragraphs (a) and (b). We anticipate that the regulatory authority will use the information submitted under paragraphs (a) and (b) in determining whether the applicant has adequately demonstrated that the proposed pneumatic backstowing operation will not adversely impact surface water, groundwater, or water supplies.
In the preamble to the proposed rule we discussed the unique characteristics of ephemeral streams and the vital importance of headwater streams, including ephemeral streams, in maintaining the ecological health and function of streams down gradient of headwater streams.
Because of the distinctions between ephemeral streams and other types of streams, we have added § 784.27 to the final rule to specifically address the permitting requirements for
Several commenters asserted that avoiding impacts to ephemeral streams would create an unnecessary and heavy financial burden that effectively curtails longwall mining and will result in stranded coal reserves. Further, these commenters contend that protecting ephemeral streams exceeds SMCRA authority because SMCRA does not contain a provision requiring avoidance of impacts to these streams. We direct commenters to our discussion of the financial burden of the final rule found within the accompanying RIA and the general comments in Part IV, F., above. However, as discussed within this preamble we are not affording the same protections to ephemeral streams as we do for intermittent and perennial streams. As this comment centers on the impacts from underlying underground operations due to subsidence, further discussion about subsidence and material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area can be found in the discussion of general comments in Part IV, K of this preamble. Also, for further discussion on the protections afforded ephemeral streams versus intermittent and perennial streams, please refer Part IV, O of this preamble.
Similar to final rule § 780.27(a), if the proposed permit area includes waters subject to the jurisdiction of the Clean Water Act, including some ephemeral streams, the regulatory authority must condition the permit to prohibit initiation of mining-related activities in or affecting waters subject to the jurisdiction of the Clean Water Act before you obtain all necessary authorizations, certifications, and permits under the Clean Water Act.
Unlike the requirements for intermittent and perennial streams addressed in § 784.28, final rule paragraph (b) of this section only requires the restoration of a postmining surface drainage pattern that is
These requirements ensure establishment of a postmining drainage pattern that is functionally equivalent to the premining pattern, while affording the regulatory authority the discretion to alter the drainage pattern in certain situations that would be better for the hydrologic balance. Under paragraph (b)(2), the regulatory authority may allow a variance from the requirements in paragraph (b)(1) for certain express purposes: To ensure stability; prevent or minimize downcutting or widening of reconstructed stream channels and control meander migration; promote enhancement of fish and wildlife habitat; accommodate any anticipated temporary or permanent increase in surface runoff as a result of mining and reclamation; accommodate the construction of excess spoil fills, coal mine waste refuse piles, or coal mine waste impounding structures; replace a stream that was channelized or otherwise severely altered prior to submittal of the permit application with a more natural, relatively stable, and ecologically sound drainage pattern or stream-channel configuration; or reclaim a previously mined area.
As discussed previously in this preamble, throughout the final rule we have replaced the term “riparian corridor” as used in the proposed rule with “streamside vegetative corridor”; this change is also incorporated into this section. The final rule is based on the current understanding of the contributions made by streamside vegetative corridors along ephemeral streams. As discussed above, although a permittee is not required to reconstruct all of the ephemeral streams mined in or through, those ephemeral streams that are reconstructed must include streamside vegetative corridors constructed in accordance with § 817.56 of the final rule.
Some commenters recommended that § 784.28(b) and (c) and § 817.57 be revised to require that streams be protected from dewatering by longwall and other high-extraction underground mining methods, and that, if dewatering does occur, corrective action should be taken to restore streamflow and protect the biological integrity of the dewatered stream. We agree with the commenters that streams should not be permanently dewatered by subsidence caused by underground mining operations; however, we decline to make changes to § 784.28(b) and (c) and § 817.57 as a result. Those sections do not regulate subsidence from underground mining activities; instead, those sections address direct surface impacts to streams from underground mining activities, such as placement of coal refuse within the 100 foot stream buffer zone. These surface facilities of an underground mine will impact streams and lands on the surface in much the same manner as a surface coal mining operation in that areas are disturbed directly by activities such as topsoil removal, grading of the existing surface to facilitate construction of buildings and other support facilities, construction of ventilation shafts and other entries, coal processing facilities, roads and disposal of coal refuse. Otherwise known as the disturbed area, the surface facilities of an underground mine are subject to the provisions of section 515(b)(10) of SMCRA,
While it is true that the changes that commenters suggest to these regulations, which relate to surface facilities of underground mines, would be inappropriate, it is also true that SMCRA directs us to take into consideration the distinct differences between surface and underground mining operations.
We have modified this section; however, these modifications are discussed in final rule § 780.29, which is the surface mining counterpart to section 784.29.
Consistent with our revisions to the definition of material damage (in the context of the subsidence control provisions of §§ 784.30 and 817.121), our final rule has been revised at § 784.30(a) to require that the pre-subsidence survey include mapping of wetlands, streams, or water bodies and a narrative description indicating whether subsidence could cause material damage to or diminish the value or reasonably foreseeable use of such features. In addition, as explained in the discussion of general comments in Part IV.K. of this preamble, we have revised the requirements for subsidence control plans at § 784.30(c) to include wetlands, streams, or water bodies when describing the anticipated effects of planned subsidence and measures to be taken to mitigate or remedy any subsidence-related material damage to such features, whenever the pre-subsidence survey indicates the presence of wetlands, streams and water bodies that could be materially damaged by subsidence. These provisions are intended to ensure that subsidence related material damages to streams, and other water resources regulated in accordance with section 516 of SMCRA,
When previous 30 CFR 784.20(a)(3) was issued in 1995, it required a pre-subsidence survey of the condition of all noncommercial buildings or occupied residential dwellings and related structures that might be materially damaged by subsidence or have their reasonably foreseeable value diminished by subsidence, within the area encompassed by the angle of draw. 60 FR 16729-16730, 16748 (Mar. 31, 1995). This provision, however, was vacated by a court and has been suspended since December 22, 1999 (64 FR 71652-71653).
We received comments concerning this proposed nonsubstantive change to previous 30 CFR 784.20(a)(3), which has been redesignated as 30 CFR 784.30(a)(3). These commenters requested that, instead of removing the suspended language, we should revise it consistent with the Court's decision. Although we agree with the commenters that we could correct the deficiency the court identified and require a pre-subsidence survey documenting the condition of all noncommercial buildings or occupied residential dwellings and related structures that might be materially damaged by subsidence or have their reasonably foreseeable value diminished, we decline to do so at this time because it is not related to the primary purpose of this rule (
We are finalizing § 784.31 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
We are finalizing § 784.33 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
We have modified this section; however, these modifications are discussed in final rule § 780.35, which is the surface mining counterpart to § 784.35.
We have modified this section; however, these modifications are discussed in final rule § 780.37, which is the surface mining counterpart to § 784.37.
We are finalizing § 784.38 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
Please refer to the preamble for § 783.26 for a discussion of this part of the final rule and the comments that led to its adoption.
We have removed and reserved § 784.200 for the reasons discussed in the preamble to the proposed rule.
Section 785.10 pertains to compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act, 44 U.S.C. 3501,
This section implements section 515(c) of SMCRA,
The majority of commenters expressed concern about how we proposed to give effect to section 515(c)(4)(D) of SMCRA.
We decline to adopt this suggestion. If we were to interpret section 515(c)(4)(D) of SMCRA in the manner suggested by the commenters, it would effectively ban mountaintop removal mining operations because streams could neither be filled with excess spoil nor mined through to recover the underlying coal. This is so, because, by definition, mountaintop removal mining operations remove all of the overburden overlying the coal beneath a mountain or ridgetop with the resultant creation of a level plateau or gently rolling contour in accordance with section 515(c)(2) of the Act,
At paragraph (b)(9), we proposed to reconcile these potentially conflicting statutory sections by requiring the applicant to demonstrate that the proposed mountaintop removal mining operation has been designed to meet three criteria to ensure that natural watercourses mined by a mountaintop removal mining operation are affected no more than natural watercourses mined by other surface mining methods and restored to approximate original contour under our other regulations. We are adopting this approach as proposed, with a few changes discussed below, because, by explaining what damage to natural watercourses means in the context of mountaintop removal mining operations, it reconciles the potentially conflicting requirements of SMCRA and gives effect to sections 515(c)(2), 515(c)(4)(D), and 515(c)(4)(E) of SMCRA.
Although we are generally adopting this section as proposed, in the preamble to the proposed rule, we invited comment on whether we should adopt a different approach to reconciling these provisions;
The commenter opposing the alternate approach opined that there is no good evidence that fish and wildlife enhancement measures can offset the damage caused by mining through streams. The commenter further alleged that “numerous studies have demonstrated a lack of success in fully restoring the biological condition of streams once they have been damaged by coal mining or other activities, even when their physical conditions have been restored.” The commenter cited several references allegedly supporting this assertion. The commenter in support of the alternate approach recommended that we adopt it within the final rule because it provides flexibility and allows a permittee may either to cause no net damage or allows for offsets.
As discussed above, we decline to adopt this approach in the final rule. In section 780.16 of the final rule, however, we allow fish and wildlife enhancement measures to offset other permanent impacts to wetlands and to intermittent and perennial streams, such as those resulting from the placement of excess spoil, provided that the scope of the enhancement measures is commensurate with the magnitude of the long-term adverse impacts of the proposed operation. The proposed permanent adverse impacts to wetlands and streams cannot be approved if the regulatory authority determines that the proposed enhancement measures will not meet this standard because of a lack of demonstrated ability to actually achieve the necessary commensurate enhancement. Because the final rule requires the use of fish and wildlife enhancements to offset specific damage to streams, we decided that we do not need to adopt another similar provision with regard to mountaintop removal mining operations.
As proposed, final paragraph (b)(9) requires that, for mountaintop removal mining operations that seek a variance from approximate original contour restoration requirements, the applicant demonstrate that the proposed operation will not damage natural watercourses
While it is true that some commenters indicated that the approach taken in paragraph (b)(9) is not restrictive enough, it is also true that our proposed and final regulations address this issue and correct several deficiencies in our previous regulations, which did not require prevention of damage to natural watercourses above the lowest coal seam mined. First, we removed the limitation to watercourses below the lowest coal seam mined because the underlying statutory provision at section 515(c)(4)(D) of SMCRA does not contain such a limitation. The applicant now must demonstrate that the proposed operation will not damage natural watercourses within the proposed permit and adjacent areas, regardless of where the watercourse is located. Second, even for watercourses below the lowest coal seam mined, the previous regulations did not contain any criteria for determining whether an operation is likely to cause damage. To correct this deficiency, the proposed and final rules contain criteria that provide protection from the most likely adverse impacts that could occur within the watershed of the natural watercourses on the permit and adjacent areas.
While we discussed overall adverse impacts to aquatic and terrestrial ecology from surface mining operations in the preamble to the proposed rule,
To be consistent with SMCRA and other sections of the final rule, we added two criteria to the three included in the proposed rule. The first criterion we added is final paragraph (b)(9)(ii), and was also recommended by a commenter. That paragraph specifies that the regulatory authority must also consider the overall additional adverse impacts to the aquatic and terrestrial ecology that could result from granting a variance to approximate original contour restoration requirements. We also added final paragraph (b)(9)(v), which allows the regulatory authority to require additional demonstrations as necessary to determine that no damage to natural watercourses will occur. We agree with the commenter that suggested these additional requirements because they should provide adequate minimum standards that will allow the regulatory authority to determine whether damage to natural watercourses will in fact be prevented.
In addition to these new criteria, we have revised proposed paragraph (b)(9)(iii) so that final paragraph (b)(9)(iii) refers to changes in the size or frequency of peak flows that would cause an increase in “flooding” rather than an increase in “damage from flooding” as in the proposed rule. We made this change because determination of whether there would be an increase in flooding is easier and less speculative than a determination of whether there would be an increase in damage from flooding. Under the latter standard, the applicant would have to project future development downstream of the proposed permit area, which could be difficult and conjectural.
We divided proposed paragraph (b)(9)(iii), now final paragraph (b)(9)(iv), into an introductory paragraph and two separate subparagraphs. Paragraph (b)(9)(iv)(A) addresses surface flow and paragraph (b)(9)(iv)(B) addresses groundwater. Final paragraph (b)(9)(iv)(A) also differs from its counterpart in the proposed rule in that we removed references to “reasonably foreseeable uses” of surface water and groundwater. The final rule no longer includes the term “reasonably foreseeable uses” in contexts other than protection of reasonably foreseeable surface land uses from the adverse impacts of subsidence. Our reasons for deletion of this term are twofold. First, the term appears in SMCRA only in section 516(b)(1), which requires that operators of underground mines adopt subsidence control measures to, among other things, maintain the value and reasonably foreseeable use of surface lands. Section 717(b) of SMCRA establishes water supply replacement requirements for surface mines, including mountaintop removal mining operations. The regulations implementing section 717(b) of SMCRA
We also revised proposed paragraph (b)(9)(iv)(A) to track more closely the language in our final definition of “material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area” at section 701.5 about designated uses of surface water under the Clean Water Act. Finally, in response to comments from the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, we replaced the term “existing” when referring to uses of surface water with “any premining use of surface water outside the permit area.” This change is intended to avoid any confusion or conflict between the terms we use in our regulations and the term “existing uses” under the regulations implementing the Clean Water Act.
Commenters also expressed concern that our proposal to remove the “no damage to natural watercourses” provision from the performance standards in section 824.11 and make it a permitting requirement does not comport with section 515 of SMCRA. We agree that this requirement should also be a performance standard, so the final rule restores that requirement to § 824.11, with revisions to refer to the new permitting provisions in § 785.14(b)(9).
We received comments on proposed paragraph (b)(11), which would have required posting of a bond amount sufficient to restore the site of a mountaintop removal mining operation to approximate original contour if the approved postmining land use has not been implemented before expiration of the revegetation responsibility period under § 816.115. Commenters thought this requirement to be illogical because mountaintop removal mining operations are designed and approved to facilitate higher and better postmining land uses, which the Act limits to industrial, commercial, residential, public facility (including recreational facilities) and agricultural postmining land uses). Commenters were concerned that, with the exception of agricultural and some recreational postmining land uses, revegetation responsibility periods are inconsistent with implementation and attainment of the higher and better land uses proscribed by the other potential uses.
In response, we note that the intent of this provision is to ensure that mountaintop removal mining operations are approved only for legitimate immediate postmining land use needs. We find the 5-year revegetation responsibility period provides sufficient time for initiation of implementation of the approved postmining land use.
The preamble to proposed paragraph (b)(11) stated that we were considering an alternative to requiring that the amount of bond initially posted include an amount equal to the cost of restoring the area to the approximate original contour in the event the proposed land use is not implemented. That alternative would prohibit release of any bond amount for the entire permit until the approved postmining land use has been implemented. Upon further consideration, we decided to adopt this alternative as final paragraph (c)(2). We recognize that requiring that the amount of bond equal to the cost of restoring the area to the approximate original contour may be unduly burdensome and inconsistent with the principle under section 509 of SMCRA that the bond amount should be based upon the cost of completing the approved reclamation plan in the event of default. Therefore, final rule paragraph (c)(2) instead requires that the permit include a condition prohibiting the release of any part of the bond posted for the permit until substantial implementation of the approved postmining land use is underway. The rule specifies that the condition must provide that the prohibition does not apply to any portion of the bond that is in excess of an amount equal to the cost of regrading the site to its approximate original contour and revegetating the regraded land in the event that the approved postmining land use is not implemented.
One commenter expressed concern that the proposed paragraph (c) would draw attention to mountaintop removal mining operations and would subject them to increased scrutiny because they would be more readily identifiable by outside interest groups. The existing regulations already require that mountaintop removal mining operations be clearly identified as such. The regulations finalized today merely add a requirement that, as proposed, the permit identify the acreage and location of the lands within the permit area upon which mountaintop removal mining operations will occur. We are adding this requirement because some permits combine mountaintop removal mining operations with other types of mining, such as area or contour mining. Because we are only adding additional detail to the existing identification already required, we do not agree that this additional information will subject the permit to additional scrutiny by outside interests. Furthermore, this type of information is in the public interest and only makes clear the location and the extent of the lands to which the approximate original contour variance applies within the permit.
As discussed in the preamble to the proposed rule, we proposed to modify section 785.16.
We divided proposed paragraph (a)(9)(iii) into two separate paragraphs. Paragraph (A) addresses surface flow and paragraph (B) addresses ground water. Final paragraph (a)(9)(iii)(A) differs from the language of the proposed rule in that we have removed references to reasonably foreseeable uses of surface water and groundwater. The final rule no longer includes the term “reasonably foreseeable uses” in contexts other than protection of reasonably foreseeable surface land uses from the adverse impacts of subsidence. Our reasons for deletion of this term are twofold. First, the term appears in SMCRA only in section 516(b)(1), which requires that operators of underground mines adopt subsidence control measures to, among other things, maintain the value and reasonably foreseeable use of surface lands. Second, numerous commenters opposed inclusion of the term “reasonably foreseeable uses” on the basis that it is too subjective, difficult to determine, and open to widely varying interpretations, which could result in inconsistent application throughout the coalfields.
We have also revised paragraph (a)(9)(iii)(A) to track more closely the language in our definition of “material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area” at § 701.5 concerning designated uses of surface water under the Clean Water Act. Finally, in response to comments from the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, we have replaced the term “existing” when referring to uses of surface water with “any actual use of surface water outside the permit area before mining.” This change is intended to avoid any confusion or conflict between the terms we use in our regulations and the term “existing uses” under the regulations implementing the Clean Water Act.
As a result of a comment on a similar proposed rule provision at § 780.24(a)(6)(ii), we have deleted language in proposed paragraph (a)(10)(iii) of this section, which would have prohibited the surface owner from receiving any compensation for requesting a variance from approximate original contour. As discussed above, that comment stated that the proposed rule would not be effective in addressing the core issue, which is the failure of regulatory authorities to make an independent and fact-based determination that the proposed change in land use meets statutory requirements. This concern is germane here as well. We revised the final rule to require a copy of the landowner request.
In connection with paragraph (a)(13) of the proposed rule, we invited comment on whether we should prohibit release of any bond amount for the entire permit area until the postmining land use for which the approximate original contour variance was granted has been implemented.
We received a comment about paragraph (a)(13) of § 785.16 similar to a comment we received in response to proposed § 785.14(b)(11) about the requirement to post a bond sufficient to restore approximate original contour in areas that have been previously granted variances if the approved postmining land use has not been implemented before expiration of the revegetation responsibility period under § 816.115. Commenters thought this requirement to be illogical because these variances are granted in order to facilitate higher and better postmining land uses. Commenters were concerned that, with the exception of agricultural and some recreational postmining land uses, revegetation responsibility periods are inconsistent with implementation and attainment of the higher and better land uses proscribed by the other potential uses.
In response, we note that the intent of proposed paragraph (a)(13), which we are adopting in revised form as final paragraph (b)(2), was to ensure that the permittee made firm arrangements for implementation of the approved postmining land use and did not seek a variance just to avoid the higher cost of restoring the approximate original contour or to satisfy landowner desires. As discussed in the environmental impact statement for this rule, the proposed land uses used to justify approximate original contour variances have in some cases never materialized. Under our existing rules, land within the approximate original contour variance area must be revegetated and is subject to a period of responsibility, which usually varies from 5 to 10 years depending upon average annual precipitation. It is during this time, after the area has been backfilled and graded, and after vegetation has been established, that we expect the land use to actually be implemented. Five to ten years is a more than adequate time to actually implement the land use, and indeed that use may often be implemented in a shorter time.
We recognize that requiring that the amount of bond initially posted include an amount equal to the cost of restoring the variance area to the approximate original contour in the event the proposed land use is not implemented within the revegetation responsibility period, as we proposed, may be unduly burdensome and inconsistent with the principle under section 509 of SMCRA that the bond amount should be based upon the cost of completing the approved reclamation plan in the event of default. Therefore, the final rule instead requires that the permit include a condition prohibiting the release of any part of the bond posted for the permit until substantial implementation of the approved postmining land use is underway. The rule specifies that the condition must provide that the prohibition does not apply to any portion of the bond that is in excess of an amount equal to the cost of regrading the site to its approximate original contour and revegetating the regraded land in the event that the approved postmining land use is not implemented.
Regarding phased bond release, the bond for any area subject to an approximate original contour variance, and therefore not restored to approximate original contour, cannot be released using the same process as for conventional reclamation, because this process would not result in retention of bond that can be used to return the land to its approximate original contour in the event the approved postmining land use is never implemented. With regard to employing land use capability as the standard for final release rather than actual implementation of the approved use, that standard does not protect against the needless drastic alteration of the landscape and associated environmental impacts. As discussed in the preamble to section 785.14, these provisions are intended to prevent abuses that have resulted in radical departures from conventional reclamation and to ensure that lands not actually used in accordance with the approved variance are restored to approximate original contour.
For clarity, we decided to split proposed paragraph (b) into three separate paragraphs (b) through (d). We are adopting paragraph (b)(1) as proposed. We are adopting proposed paragraph (a)(13) in revised form as paragraph (b)(2), as discussed above, because the provisions of proposed paragraph (a)(13) concern bond release, not the permit application, and thus are a better fit in paragraph (b). We are adopting proposed paragraphs (b)(2) and (3) as final paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) without change. We are adopting proposed paragraph (b)(4) as final paragraph (d) without change. Finally, we are not adopting proposed paragraph (b)(5) because that paragraph is subsumed within § 773.15(h), which requires a finding by the regulatory authority that the permit applicant has satisfied the requirements of Part 785.
We received two comments on our proposed revisions
Section 701(34) of SMCRA
We are finalizing section 800.1 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
Section 800.4 describes a regulatory authority's responsibilities with respect to bonding and liability insurance requirements for surface coal mining operations. As proposed, we added a reference to financial assurances to paragraphs (a) and (b) of § 800.4, consistent with our revision of part 800 to include criteria for financial assurances for long-term treatment of discharges and to clarify which provisions of part 800 apply to financial assurances. Final paragraphs (a) and (b) require that the regulatory authority prescribe and furnish forms for performance bonds and financial assurances and prescribe terms and conditions for performance bonds, financial assurances, and liability insurance policies.
Similarly, as proposed, we added a sentence to paragraph (c) to specify that the regulatory authority must determine the amount of financial assurance required under § 800.18 and adjust that amount as needed. In response to a comment, final paragraph (c) includes a requirement that the regulatory authority also monitor trust performance under a financial assurance.
Final paragraph (d) provides that the regulatory authority may accept a self-bond if the requirements of § 800.23 and any additional requirements in the regulatory program are met. Final paragraph (d) differs from the proposed rule in that it does not specify that the permittee itself must meet self-bonding requirements. We made this change because § 800.23 allows for third-party guarantors. For clarity, we also added a sentence reminding readers that state regulatory programs need not include provisions authorizing the use of self-bonds.
We adopted final paragraphs (e) and (f), which pertain to regulatory authority responsibilities for bond release and bond forfeiture, as proposed. We received no comments on those paragraphs.
As proposed, final paragraph (g) provides that the regulatory authority must require in the permit that adequate bond and financial assurance coverage be in effect at all times. It also specifies that, except as provided in § 800.30(b), operating without adequate bond or financial assurance is a violation of both the regulations and the terms and conditions of the permit. We revised the latter provision from the proposed rule, which erroneously referred to a violation of a condition of the rules. Conditions are established in the permit, not the rules.
Section 800.5 contains definitions of certain terms that appear in Part 800. We are adopting § 800.5 as proposed, with the exception of minor editorial revisions to the definitions of “collateral bond” and “surety bond” and one substantive revision to the definition of “financial assurance.” Some commenters found the proposed rule confusing because various provisions of proposed part 800 and the preambles to those provisions were inconsistent as to whether a financial assurance was a type of alternative bonding system or a funding mechanism distinct from the alternative bonding systems discussed in § 800.9. One commenter urged us to revise the definition to clearly specify that financial assurances are a type of alternative bonding system. We agree. Therefore, the final definition of “financial assurance” describes a financial assurance as a type of alternative bonding system. This change from the proposed rule is consistent with the preamble to our approval of the financial assurance provisions in the Tennessee federal program.
One commenter recommended that financial assurances not be subject to the alternative bonding system requirements of § 800.9 and that we instead classify them as a hybrid of an alternative bonding system and a collateral bond. We do not agree. Under SMCRA, each performance bond instrument must be either a surety bond or collateral bond under section 509(b)
One commenter expressed the opinion that, because annuities typically make payments at fixed intervals, an annuity, by itself, likely could not guarantee that funds always would be available immediately when needed to continue long-term treatment of a discharge, particularly if unexpected repair or replacement work must be performed without delay to keep the treatment system operational. For that reason, the commenter suggested that we revise our rules to allow use of an annuity only in combination with another mechanism that is able to cover all potential variations in treatment expenses. We did not revise our rules in the manner suggested by the commenter because we do not want to foreclose the possibility that an annuity could be structured to address the situation that the commenter describes. However, we revised the proposed definition of “financial assurance” to clarify that a financial assurance is a type of alternative bonding system, which means that it must meet the criteria of final § 800.9(a). Section 800.9(a)(1) provides that the alternative bonding system must assure that the regulatory authority will have available sufficient money to complete the reclamation plan for any areas which may be in default at any time. Furthermore, final § 800.18 establishes other criteria for financial assurances to ensure the availability of the funds needed for long-term treatment of discharges.
One commenter requested that we clarify whether existing treatment trusts would automatically be reclassified as financial assurances upon publication of this final rule. This rule is not retroactive, so it will not operate as an automatic reclassification of existing treatment trusts as financial assurances. However, nothing in this rule would prohibit the regulatory authority from using the criteria in this rule to reevaluate the adequacy of existing trusts.
Finally, a commenter recommended that we use the term “trust” in place of
Section 800.9 sets forth the requirements for creating an alternative bonding system, such as a bond pool or long-term treatment trust. As proposed, final paragraph (a) provides that we may approve an alternative bonding system as part of a state or federal regulatory program if the alternative will assure that the regulatory authority will have available sufficient money to complete the reclamation plan for any areas which may be in default at any time, except as provided in paragraphs (c) and (d), and if the alternative provides a substantial economic incentive for the permittee to comply with all reclamation provisions.
We revised and reorganized proposed paragraph (b) to improve clarity and adherence to plain language principles and to avoid creating the impression that financial assurances need not necessarily comply with final section 800.18, which sets forth special provisions that apply to all financial guarantees (including financial assurances) for long-term treatment of discharges. Specifically, final paragraph (b)(1) provides that the alternative bonding system will apply in lieu of the requirements of §§ 800.12 through 800.23 “with the exception of those provisions of § 800.18 of this part that apply to financial assurances,” to the extent specified in the regulatory program provisions establishing the alternative bonding system and the terms under which we approved the system. As proposed, final paragraph (b)(2) provides that the alternative bonding system must include appropriate conforming modifications to the bond release provisions of §§ 800.40 through 800.44 and the bond forfeiture provisions of final § 800.50.
Final paragraph (c) provides that an alternative bonding system may be structured to include only certain phases of mining and reclamation under § 800.42, provided that the other phases of mining and reclamation are covered by one of the types of bond listed in § 800.12. Final paragraph (c) differs from proposed paragraph (c) in that we replaced “forms” with “types” for consistency with revisions to § 800.12.
Proposed paragraph (d)(1) would have prohibited alternative bonding systems from covering restoration of the ecological function of a perennial or intermittent stream through which a permittee mines. One commenter supported the proposed prohibition. Other commenters opposed proposed paragraph (d)(1) for reasons that included an alleged lack of justification, alleged inappropriate meddling in, and unnecessary disruption of, existing alternative bonding systems, and a desire to take advantage of the added security of an alternative bonding system. One commenter noted that the preamble to proposed paragraph (d)(1) provided little information on the time needed to restore the ecological function of a stream and did not explain the statement that the time needed to restore that function makes coverage of that obligation by an alternative bonding system inappropriate. The preamble to the proposed rule states that an alternative bonding system should not be allowed to cover restoration of the ecological function of streams because that cost was not anticipated when the alternative bonding system was established. The commenter did not find this argument compelling because the same rationale would apply to other stream restoration costs that could be covered by alternative bonding systems under the proposed rule. Similarly, the commenter found unpersuasive the statement in the preamble that proposed paragraph (d)(1) was justified because restoration of the ecological function of a stream is the responsibility of the entity doing the mining, not the alternative bonding system. The commenter noted that, under SMCRA, the permittee always is responsible for reclamation obligations, regardless of the nature of those obligations. Overall, the commenter argued that the proposed prohibition had no basis because there are no data to support the conclusion that alternative bonding systems cannot satisfactorily cover the obligation to restore the ecological function of streams.
After considering the arguments raised by commenters, we decided not to adopt proposed paragraph (d)(1). Thus, alternative bonding systems may provide coverage for restoration of the ecological function of a stream unless the state amends the regulations governing its alternative bonding system to provide otherwise. Once reconstruction of the form of the stream and restoration of hydrologic function are achieved, restoration of ecological function likely will involve few, if any, discrete activities or expenditures, with the possible exception of transplanting macroinvertebrates or fish to the re-established stream. As one commenter on the proposed rule observed, restoration of the ecological function of a stream for which the form and hydrologic function have been restored primarily means waiting for the streamside vegetation to mature and provide nutrients, habitat, and thermal regulation to the stream. We agree with that comment, with the exception of situations in which water quality problems resulting from the mining operation exist. In those cases, the permittee would be required to take measures to correct the water quality problem under other provisions of the final rule. Failure to correct the source of any water quality issue would result in the need for long-term treatment, in which case final paragraph (d)(2) would prohibit posting of a self-bond.
Thus, after further consideration, we anticipate that the direct cost of restoring the ecological function of a stream will be minimal, which means that the financial exposure of the alternative bonding system as a result of allowing use of self-bonding to guarantee restoration of ecological function is minimal. In addition, an alternative bonding system is a permanent entity, so the time required to document restoration of ecological function is not an issue. Therefore, we find that allowing an alternative bonding system to provide coverage for restoration of the ecological function of a stream poses little risk to the viability or financial health of the system.
Proposed paragraph (d)(2)(i) prohibited alternative bonding systems from covering long-term treatment of discharges that come into existence after the effective date of this final rule unless, upon discovery of the discharge, the permittee makes a cash contribution to the alternative bonding system in an amount that the regulatory authority determines would be sufficient to cover all future treatment costs. The proposed rule also required that the contribution be maintained in a separate account available only for treatment of the discharge for which the contribution was made.
Proposed paragraph (d)(2)(ii) specified that long-term treatment of discharges that came into existence before the effective date of the rule would continue to be covered by the alternative bonding system unless the state amends its alternative bonding system to provide otherwise. However, proposed paragraph (d)(2)(ii) also required that the permittee make a contribution to the alternative bonding system in an amount sufficient to cover all costs that the alternative bonding system will incur to treat the discharge in perpetuity.
Several commenters alleged that proposed paragraph (d)(2) was confusing because, on one hand, it
One commenter expressed concern that proposed paragraph (d)(2) did not address either sites for which forfeiture occurs before the applicable regulatory program is amended to implement the final rule or sites for which bond forfeiture occurs after the effective date of the program amendment but before the permittee makes a contribution to the alternative bonding system fully covering the estimated costs of long-term treatment or replaces the alternative bonding system coverage with a collateral bond or financial assurance. The commenter noted that the scope of coverage of an existing alternative bonding system can only be changed through the submission and approval of a regulatory program amendment and even then can only be changed prospectively.
The commenter further expressed concern that proposed paragraph (d)(2)(ii) could allow the elimination of all alternative bonding system coverage of treatment obligations dating back to when the state attained primacy because the proposed rule would require continued coverage under the existing alternative bonding system “unless the regulatory authority amends its program to specifically establish an earlier effective date.” According to the commenter, this clause would enable a state to exclude all existing discharges requiring long-term treatment from coverage under the alternative bonding system by specifying the date of approval of the permanent regulatory program for the state as the “earlier effective date” to which proposed paragraph (d)(2)(ii) refers.
To cure these perceived defects in the proposed rule, the commenter recommended that the final rule specify that:
• The permittee's treatment obligation remains fully covered by any existing alternative bonding system unless and until a regulatory program amendment implementing section 800.9 takes effect and any existing (
• The alternative bonding system remains liable for the cost of treating the discharge for as long as necessary if the regulatory authority forfeits the permittee's bond before replacement of coverage occurs.
• The alternative bonding system remains liable for the amount of the shortfall if the permittee's bond, financial assurance, or cash contribution to the alternative bonding system proves adequate to cover only part of the cost of treating the discharge.
We added paragraph (d)(2) to the final rule in response to the comment summarized above. Final paragraph (d)(2)(i) provides that the regulatory authority must amend an alternative bonding system (other than a financial assurance) that we approved as part of a regulatory program before the effective date of this final rule to specify that any permittee responsible for an existing discharge requiring long-term treatment must provide a cash contribution to the alternative bonding system to cover anticipated future treatment costs if the permittee elects to retain coverage of discharge treatment under the alternative bonding system. Final paragraph (d)(2)(i) differs from proposed paragraphs (d)(2)(i) and (ii) in that it would require use of the state program amendment process under 30 CFR 732.17 to establish the requirement that participants in alternative bonding systems make a cash contribution to the alternative bonding system to cover long-term treatment costs. The proposed rule would have bypassed the state program amendment process and imposed this requirement on all alternative bonding systems as of the effective date of the final rule. We agree with the commenter that use of the state program amendment process is more consistent with the principle of state primacy and part 732 of our regulations.
Final paragraph (d)(2)(ii) provides that an alternative bonding system (other than a financial assurance) that we approved as part of a regulatory program before the effective date of this final rule must continue to provide coverage for long-term treatment of discharges until we approve the program amendment to which final paragraph (d)(2)(i) refers and until the permittee either makes the cash contribution required by the state program counterpart to final paragraph (d)(1) or posts a separate financial assurance, collateral bond, or surety bond to cover treatment costs. Final paragraph (d)(2)(iii) provides that an alternative bonding system (other than a financial assurance) that we approved as part of a regulatory program before the effective date of this final rule must continue to provide coverage for long-term treatment of discharges if the permittee does not make the cash contribution required by the state program counterpart to final paragraph (d)(1), unless the permittee posts a separate financial assurance, collateral bond, or surety bond to cover treatment costs. Final paragraphs (d)(2)(ii) and (iii) should avoid any gap in coverage of discharges that require long-term treatment.
Final paragraph (d)(2)(iv) provides that final paragraphs (d)(2)(i) through (iii) do not apply to an alternative bonding system that we approved as part of a regulatory program if the system that we approved includes an
We decline to adopt the commenter's recommendation that the rule provide that the alternative bonding system remains liable for the amount of the shortfall if the financial assurance or bond posted by the permittee, or the cash contribution that the permittee makes to the alternative bonding system in lieu of posting a financial assurance or bond, proves inadequate to cover the full cost of treating the discharge. In the case of a cash contribution, the alternative bonding system already is responsible for treatment costs for all covered discharges in the event that the permittee defaults on that obligation. However, when the permittee posts a separate financial assurance or bond, the alternative bonding system would no longer be responsible for treatment costs because it no longer covers that discharge. As specified in final paragraph (d)(3), the alternative bonding system may elect to provide secondary coverage for a discharge covered by a separate financial assurance or bond, but it is not required to do so. It would be neither equitable nor legal to require that the alternative bonding system cover a shortfall for an obligation for which it is has neither provided coverage nor received revenue. If the permittee defaults on a discharge treatment obligation covered by a financial assurance or bond, the bond forfeiture provisions of section 800.50 would apply as they would in the case of default on any other reclamation obligation covered by a conventional bond. However, we anticipate that shortfalls would be rare, given the periodic adequacy reviews and adjustments required by §§ 800.15 and 800.18.
Another commenter observed that one consequence of adopting the proposed prohibition on alternative bonding system (other than financial assurances) coverage of long-term treatment of discharges would be to prevent the regulatory authority from relying on a statewide bond pool or similar mechanism for the limited purpose of bearing certain risks associated with a site-specific financial assurance (trust fund or annuity), such as the unpredicted failure of the treatment system or lower-than-expected returns. According to the commenter, the absence of a secondary risk-bearing mechanism means that the regulatory authority must require site-specific trust funds and annuities to hold conservative, low-risk investment portfolios, which would both reduce the expected rate of return and increase the amount of money that the permittee must deposit to establish the trust fund or annuity. As discussed in the preamble to final section 800.18, we agree with the commenter that site-specific trust funds and annuities should hold conservative, low-risk investment portfolios and we have revised section 800.18 to include that requirement. As discussed above, it would not be equitable to require bond pools and similar communal alternative bonding systems to provide secondary coverage for long-term treatment of discharges from operations that never participated in the alternative bonding system and never provided revenue to the system. However, in response to this comment, we added final paragraph (d)(3), which specifies that an alternative bonding system to which final paragraphs (d)(1) and (2) apply may elect to provide secondary coverage for long-term treatment of discharges when the permittee posts a financial assurance, collateral bond, or surety bond to cover estimated treatment costs instead of making the cash contribution required by paragraph (d)(1) to retain or obtain primary coverage under the alternative bonding system. Final paragraph (d)(3) also provides that the regulatory authority must establish terms and conditions for the secondary coverage to ensure that the coverage is consistent with the financial structure of the alternative bonding system.
One commenter asked why proposed paragraph (d)(2)(i) required that cash contributions for discharges discovered after the effective date of the final rule be in an amount sufficient to cover the cost of treating the discharge “to meet Clean Water Act standards or the water quality requirements of this chapter,” while proposed paragraph (d)(2)(ii) required that cash contributions for existing discharges be in an amount sufficient “to treat the discharge in perpetuity.” Some commenters opposed the language in proposed paragraph (d)(2)(ii), arguing that not all discharges require perpetual treatment and that the rule should be sufficiently flexible to accommodate advances in science and different treatment horizons.
Final paragraph (d)(1) addresses these concerns by replacing both of the proposed standards for duration of treatment with language requiring use of the cost calculation methodology set forth in section 800.18(c). Final paragraph (d)(1) provides that the amount of the cash contribution to the alternative bonding system must be in an amount equal to the present value of all costs that the regulatory authority estimates that the alternative bonding system will incur to treat the discharge for as long as the discharge requires active or passive treatment, taking into account the expenses listed in § 800.18(c)(2)(i) through (v). Final paragraph (d)(1) further provides that, if the alternative bonding system will receive interest or other earnings on the cash contribution, the regulatory authority may deduct the present value of those estimated earnings from the present value of all estimated expenses when calculating the amount of the required cash contribution. This approach also clarifies the meaning of “sufficient” in the proposed rule in a manner consistent with final section 800.18(d) for financial assurances and final section 800.18(c)(2) for collateral bonds and surety bonds posted for this purpose.
We did not adopt the provision in proposed paragraph (d)(2)(i) that would have required that the alternative bonding system place cash contributions in a separate account available only for treatment of the discharge for which the contribution is made. Some commenters alleged that this provision would be inconsistent with state accounting requirements and practices, as well as the pooling principle underlying most alternative bonding systems, other than financial assurances. After considering these arguments, we decided against adoption of the proposed provision because the alternative bonding system remains responsible for treatment of all discharges covered by the system, as well as completion of all other reclamation obligations of participating operations, in the event of permittee default, regardless of the method of accounting.
One commenter alleged that requiring participants in existing alternative bonding systems to make a cash contribution to the system or post separate financial assurances or bonds to cover treatment costs for discharges requiring long-term treatment was unfair because participants in alternative bonding systems have already paid entry fees and continue to pay whatever assessment is required to maintain participation in the system. According to the commenter, the proposed requirement would force participants to pay twice. We do not agree. The regulatory authority should not issue a permit for a proposed operation that would result in a discharge requiring long-term treatment. Therefore, typically, alternative bonding systems, like conventional bonds, are structured on the presumption that no such discharges will occur. If
Section 800.10 pertains to compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act, 44 U.S.C. 3501,
Section 800.11 discusses when and how a permit applicant or permittee must file a performance bond. We are adopting section 800.11 as proposed, with one revision. Proposed paragraph (c)(3) required that a permittee using incremental bonding file additional bond or bonds with the regulatory authority to cover each succeeding increment before initiating and conducting surface coal mining operations on that increment. However, proposed paragraph (c)(3) was silent on whether bonds for increments other than the initial increment must comply with proposed paragraph (b), which provided that the bond must be in an amount determined under section 800.14, be on a form prescribed and furnished by the regulatory authority, be made payable to the regulatory authority, and be conditioned upon the faithful performance of all the requirements of the regulatory program and the permit, including the reclamation plan. Section 509(a) of SMCRA
In this final rule, we are revising the section heading to refer to the type of performance bond allowed, rather than the form of the bond as in the proposed and previous rules. This revision corrects an error in the proposed and previous rules and removes an inconsistency with section 509(a) of SMCRA,
Similarly, we are not adopting proposed paragraph (a), which corresponds to the first sentence of previous
One commenter argued that section 800.12 should not include any mention of alternative bonding systems or financial assurances because the section heading refers only to performance bonds and readers might draw the erroneous conclusion that financial assurances are something other than a type of alternative bonding system. We disagree. Section 509 of SMCRA,
Final paragraph (a), like paragraph (b) of the proposed rule, lists the types of performance bonds that the regulatory authority may accept;
Final paragraph (b), like proposed paragraph (c), specifies that an alternative bonding system approved under § 800.9 of this rule may accept either more or fewer types of bond than those listed in paragraph (a) of the final rule. Final paragraph (b) differs from proposed paragraph (c) in that the final rule replaces “form” with “type” and updates cross-references.
Proposed paragraph (d) would have allowed the regulatory authority to accept only a financial assurance or a collateral bond to guarantee treatment of a long-term discharge under § 800.18 of this rule. Several commenters opposed this limitation. One regulatory authority requested that we revise proposed paragraph (d) to also allow the use of surety bonds because the regulatory authority had long relied upon surety bonds for coverage of some discharges requiring long-term treatment. According to the commenter, when a surety bond is forfeited, the surety typically establishes a fully-funded trust rather than paying the bond amount to the state. We confirm that, as stated in the preamble to the proposed rule,
One commenter alleged that the proposed rule provides no supporting evidence for provisions that would restrict financially sound companies from using the entire panoply of financial mechanisms, including self-bonding mechanisms consistent with the requirements of section 509(c) of SMCRA.
In addition, the final rule does not allow posting of a self-bond to cover long-term treatment of discharges because self-bonds provide none of the tangible financial resources afforded by financial assurances, collateral bonds, or surety bonds. Financial assurances provide the income stream needed to fund treatment. Collateral bonds require the deposit of letters of credit, cash accounts, certificates of deposit, bonds, or real property, all of which can be used to fund treatment if the permittee fails to do so. Surety bonds provide a guarantee of payment of a sum certain from an independent company.
Proposed paragraph (e) provided that the regulatory authority may accept only a surety bond, a collateral bond, or a combination thereof to guarantee restoration of the ecological function of a perennial or intermittent stream under proposed §§ 780.28(c), 784.28(c), 816.57(b), and 817.57(b). Many commenters opposed this proposed rule and the underlying requirement to post a bond to guarantee restoration of the ecological function of perennial and intermittent streams through which the permittee mines. The reasons for opposition included uncertainty on how to determine the amount of the bond or the duration of the bond, a belief that the bond amount would be astronomical and financially ruinous, and concerns that this requirement would dry up the remaining sources of surety bonds for the reclamation of coal mines. An organization representing the surety industry noted that a surety bond covering this obligation might not be widely available in the market because, typically, there must be certainty regarding the scope and nature of the obligation and the duration of the obligation must be reasonable. According to the commenter, a surety would have great difficulty underwriting the new obligation because that obligation lacks an objective standard and appears susceptible to wide variability based on circumstances beyond the permittee's control. The commenter further explained that, when underwriting a bond, the surety makes a judgment about the operational and financial viability of the permittee—a judgment that becomes less certain and more risky as the obligation extends further into the future. In this case, according to the commenter, the duration of the obligation would be too long for the surety industry to underwrite.
We recognize that there are uncertainties associated with restoration of the ecological function of streams. We also recognize that some in the surety industry may be unwilling to underwrite bonds for this reclamation obligation. However, surety bonds are not the only available option. Collateral bonds are a possibility under final paragraph (d), as are alternative bonding systems under final § 800.9 in states that have those systems. Once reconstruction of the form of the stream and restoration of hydrologic function have been accomplished, we anticipate that subsequent restoration of ecological function likely will involve few, if any, discrete activities or expenditures, with the possible exception of transplanting macroinvertebrates or fish to the re-established stream.
One commenter on the proposed rule observed that restoration of the ecological function of perennial and intermittent streams, which the permittee must achieve prior to Phase III bond release, primarily means ensuring the performance standards for the streamside vegetation have been satisfied consistent with final section 816.115, ensuring the streamside vegetation has matured sufficiently to provide nutrients, habitat, and thermal regulation to the stream. The commenter is largely correct, because under our regulations most of the physical reconstruction necessary to reestablish the ecological function of the stream will have been completed at earlier phrases. Specifically, pursuant to final section 800.42(b)(1), the
However, the commenter's point about revegetation should not be taken too far. Compliance with the performance standards for a streamside vegetative corridor is not the only consideration when regulatory authorities assess whether the permittee has restored the ecological function of perennial and intermittent streams. Restoration of ecological function includes restoration of the species richness, diversity, and extent of organisms for which the stream provides habitat, food, water, and shelter. Nonetheless, most of the reclamation work necessary to establish conditions favorable to restoration of
One commenter alleged that eliminating self-bonding for mining through ephemeral streams would severely limit the ability to mine in the Powder River Basin because of the prevalence of self-bonds in that region. Our final rule does not require the restoration of ecological function for ephemeral streams. Therefore, the final rule would not have the effect alleged by the commenter.
Some commenters argued that there is no basis under SMCRA to limit the types of bond that the applicant or permittee may post to cover this obligation. According to another commenter, the preamble to the proposed rule did not justify the exclusion of self-bonds because it did not discuss regulatory authority experience with self-bonds or identify the time required for restoration of ecological function. The implication is that we have not shown that self-bonds cannot satisfactorily guarantee restoration of ecological function.
We do not agree with the commenters' assertion that we have no legal basis under SMCRA to prohibit the use of self-bonds to guarantee restoration of the ecological function of streams. Section 509(b) of SMCRA
Proposed § 800.13(a)(1) provided that liability under the performance bond will be for the duration of the surface coal mining and reclamation operation and for a period coincident with the period of extended responsibility for successful revegetation under § 816.115 or § 817.115 or until achievement of the reclamation requirements of the regulatory program and the permit, whichever is later. We received no comments on this provision and are adopting it as proposed.
Proposed paragraph (a)(2) provided that, with the approval of regulatory authority, the applicant or permittee may post a performance bond to guarantee specific phases of reclamation within the permit area, provided that the sum of the phase bonds posted equals or exceeds the total amount required under §§ 800.14 and 800.15. We received no comments on this provision and are adopting it as proposed with minor editorial revisions.
Proposed paragraph (b) provided that isolated and clearly defined portions of the permit area that require extended liability may be separated from the original area and bonded separately with the approval of the regulatory authority. Proposed paragraph (b)(1) specified that these areas must be limited in extent and not constitute a scattered, intermittent, or checkerboard pattern of failure, while proposed paragraph (b)(3) provided that the regulatory authority must include any necessary access roads or routes in the area under extended liability. We received no comments on those proposed provisions. For the reasons discussed below, we are adopting proposed paragraph (b)(3) as final paragraph (b)(2). Otherwise, we are adopting paragraph (b) as proposed, with minor editorial revisions.
Proposed paragraph (b)(2) provided that the introductory text of proposed paragraph (b) and proposed paragraphs (b)(1) and (3) apply to the amount of bond posted to guarantee restoration of the ecological function of perennial and intermittent streams. We are not adopting proposed paragraph (b)(2) because it is unnecessary. The introductory text of final paragraph (b) and final paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) have no limitations in terms of applicability. Thus, there is no need to include language that merely identifies one situation (restoration of a stream's ecological function) that may require extended liability under the bond.
Proposed paragraph (c) provided that, if the regulatory authority approves a long-term, intensive agricultural postmining land use, the revegetation responsibility period specified under § 816.115 or § 817.115 will start on the date of initial planting for the long-term agricultural use. We received no comments on this paragraph and are adopting it as proposed.
Proposed paragraph (d)(1) provided that the bond liability of the permittee includes only those actions that the permittee is required to perform under the permit and regulatory program to complete the reclamation plan for the area covered by the bond. We received no comments on paragraph (d)(1) and are adopting it as proposed.
Proposed paragraph (d)(2) provided that the performance bond does not cover implementation of an alternative postmining land use approved under § 780.24(b) or § 784.24(b) when implementation of the land use is beyond the control of the permittee. It also specified that, except as provided in §§ 785.14(b)(11) and 785.16(a)(13), the permittee is responsible only for restoring the site to conditions capable of supporting the approved postmining land use. Upon further evaluation, we determined that proposed paragraph (d)(2) is not consistent with our previous, proposed, and final postmining land use regulations in §§ 816.133 and 817.133, all of which require that the permittee restore all disturbed areas in a timely manner to conditions that are capable of supporting either the uses they were
The first sentence of proposed paragraph (d)(2) provided that the bond does not cover implementation of an approved alternative postmining land use that is beyond the control of the permittee. That language is inconsistent with the court decisions summarized above, which, in effect, held that SMCRA does not require that the permittee implement any approved postmining land use, regardless of whether that use is an alternative postmining land use. Therefore, we are not adopting the rule as proposed. The first sentence of final paragraph (d)(2) simply provides that the performance bond does not cover implementation of the approved postmining land use or uses.
For similar reasons, we are not adopting the second sentence of proposed paragraph (d)(2), which provided that the permittee is responsible only for restoring the site to conditions capable of supporting the approved postmining land use. As discussed above, section 515(b)(2) of SMCRA and §§ 816.133 and 817.133 of our final rule require restoration to a condition capable of supporting either the uses it could support before any mining or higher or better uses. Proposed paragraph (d)(2) is less stringent than those provisions because it specifies that the permittee's bond liability is limited to restoration of the land to a condition in which it is capable of supporting the approved postmining land use. Thus, it does not extend bond coverage to full restoration of the site's premining capability, which is, in part, what section 515(b)(2) of SMCRA and §§ 816.133 and 817.133 of our final rule require. In addition, the introductory clause of the second sentence of proposed paragraph (d)(2) created an exception for mountaintop removal mining operations and steep-slope variances from approximate original contour restoration requirements. Sections 515(c)(3) and (e)(2) of SMCRA
Finally, proposed paragraph (d)(4) provided that bond liability for treatment or abatement of long-term discharges is specified in § 800.18. However, while final § 800.18(b) allows the use of collateral and surety bonds to cover long-term treatment of discharges, it focuses on the use of financial assurances for that purpose. Financial assurances are a type of alternative bonding system. Therefore, final paragraph (d)(4) does not include the term “bond.” It simply provides that § 800.18 specifies the liability for long-term treatment or abatement of discharges.
Proposed § 800.14(a) provided that the regulatory authority must determine the amount of the performance bond required for the permit or permit increment based upon, but not limited to, the requirements of the permit; the probable difficulty of reclamation, giving consideration to the topography, geology, hydrology, and revegetation potential of the permit area and the biological condition of perennial and intermittent streams within the permit and adjacent areas; and the estimated reclamation costs submitted by the permit applicant. Proposed paragraph (a) was substantively identical to previous paragraph (a) with the exception that proposed paragraph (a)(2) added the biological condition of perennial and intermittent streams within the permit and adjacent areas to the list of factors upon which the bond amount must be based. One commenter alleged that this addition would require that the bond cover impacts to adjacent areas, not just the permit area. This was not our intent. Upon reconsideration, we decided not to adopt the added phrase. Paragraph (a)(1), which requires consideration of the requirements of the permit, already covers costs associated with mining through and restoring perennial and intermittent streams, including restoration of the ecological function of those streams, as well as any measures taken to protect streams. Therefore, there is no need for specific mention of the biological condition of perennial and intermittent streams in paragraph (a)(2).
One commenter observed that the term “probable difficulty of reclamation” in proposed paragraph (a)(2) is not defined and is otherwise vague. The commenter recommended that we delay adoption of this provision until after we convene a panel of experts to consider this matter and develop the needed factors and methods. We do not agree. Section 509(a) of SMCRA
Proposed paragraph (b)(1) provided that the amount of the performance bond must be sufficient to assure the completion of the reclamation plan if the work has to be performed by a third party under contract with the regulatory authority in the event of forfeiture. We received no comments on proposed paragraph (b)(1) and are adopting it as paragraph (b) of the final rule.
We are not adopting proposed paragraph (b)(2), which required that the calculations used to determine the
Proposed paragraph (c) provided that, when the permit includes a variance from approximate original contour restoration requirements under section 785.16, the amount of the performance bond must be sufficient to restore the disturbed area to the approximate original contour if the approved postmining land use is not implemented by the end of the applicable revegetation responsibility period under § 816.115 or § 817.115. We are not adopting proposed paragraph (c) or its counterpart in section 785.16 for the reasons discussed in the preamble to proposed § 785.16(a)(13) and final § 785.16(b)(2). In lieu of proposed §§ 785.16(a)(13) and 800.14(c), final § 785.16(b)(2) provides that a permit that contains a variance from restoration of approximate original contour must include a condition prohibiting the release of any part of the bond posted for the permit until substantial implementation of the approved postmining land use is underway. The prohibition on bond release does not apply to any portion of the bond that is in excess of an amount equal to the cost of regrading the site to its approximate original contour and revegetating the regraded land in the event that the approved postmining land use is not implemented.
Proposed paragraph (d) provided that the amount of financial assurance required for long-term treatment of discharges must be determined in accordance with section 800.18. Commenters recommended that we apply similar requirements to the determination of the amount of performance bond required when the permittee elects to post a collateral bond or surety bond instead of a financial assurance for this purpose. We agree and have added those bond calculation requirements to final section 800.18(c). We revised proposed paragraph (d) to reference collateral bonds and surety bonds to be consistent with this change. We also redesignated proposed paragraph (d) as final paragraph (c) to reflect our decision not to adopt proposed paragraph (c). Final paragraph (c) provides that the amount of financial assurance, collateral bond, or surety bond required to guarantee long-term treatment of discharges must be determined in accordance with § 800.18.
Proposed paragraph (e) provided that the total performance bond initially posted for the entire area under one permit may not be less than $10,000. Proposed paragraph (f) provided that the permittee's financial responsibility under § 817.121(c) for repairing or compensating for material damage resulting from subsidence may be satisfied by the liability insurance policy required under § 800.60. We received no comments on these proposed paragraphs and are adopting them as proposed, with the exception that we redesignated them as final paragraphs (d) and (e), respectively, to reflect our decision not to adopt proposed paragraph (c).
Proposed § 800.15 contained procedures and criteria for adjustment of bond amounts after permit issuance. Final § 800.15 is substantively identical to proposed § 800.15, but, in the final rule, we revised and reorganized the paragraphs to improve clarity and to correct an inadvertent error in the proposed rule. With the exception of proposed paragraphs (a)(2)(ii) and (iii), proposed paragraph (a) applied only to situations in which the regulatory authority
Proposed paragraph (b) provided that the regulatory authority must notify the permittee, the surety, and any person with a property interest in collateral who has requested notification under § 800.21(f) of any proposed adjustment to the bond amount. It also specified that the regulatory authority must provide the permittee an opportunity for an informal conference on the adjustment. We are adopting proposed paragraph (b) as paragraph (e) in the final rule because it applies to both adjustments initiated by the regulatory authority and adjustments initiated by the permittee. We also are adding an introductory clause to final paragraph (e) to clarify that the paragraph sets forth notice and procedural requirements that the regulatory authority must follow before making any bond adjustment.
Proposed paragraph (c) provided that bond reductions under proposed paragraph (a) are not subject to the bond release requirements and procedures of §§ 800.40 through 800.44. We received no comments on this paragraph and are adopting it as proposed, with one conforming revision. Final paragraph (c) refers to bond reductions under paragraphs (a) and (b) to reflect the reorganization discussed above in which we revised proposed paragraph (a) to include just those provisions that pertain only to bond adjustments required by the regulatory authority in final paragraph (a) and moved those provisions of proposed paragraph (a) that pertain only to bond adjustments requested by the permittee to final paragraph (b).
The final rule redesignates proposed paragraphs (d), (e), and (f) as paragraphs (f), (g), and (h), respectively. Proposed paragraph (d) provided that, in the event that an approved permit is revised in accordance with subchapter G, the regulatory authority must review the bond amount for adequacy and, if necessary, require adjustment of the bond amount to conform to the permit as revised. It also included a reminder that the bond adjustment process may not be used to reduce bond amounts on the basis of completion of reclamation activities. We received no comments on proposed paragraph (d), which we are adopting as final paragraph (f), with minor editorial revisions for clarity.
Proposed paragraph (e) provided that the regulatory authority must require that the permittee post a bond or financial assurance in accordance with § 800.18 whenever a discharge that will require long-term treatment is identified. We received no comments on proposed paragraph (d). Final paragraph (g) is substantively identical to proposed paragraph (e), with minor changes to conform to plain language principles and to clarify that the bond must be either a collateral bond or a surety bond.
Proposed paragraph (f) provided that the regulatory authority may not reduce the bond amount when the permittee does not restore the approximate original contour as required or when the reclamation plan does not reflect the level of reclamation required under the regulatory program. We received no comments on proposed paragraph (f), which we are adopting as final paragraph (h).
We are adopting section 800.16 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
We removed and reserved previous § 800.17 for the reasons discussed in the preamble to the proposed rule.
We received a wide range of comments on proposed § 800.18. Some commenters challenged the validity of the proposed rule on legal grounds, while others supported it, sometimes with caveats.
One commenter asked how the length of time that a financial assurance or bond must remain in place under § 800.18, which could be in perpetuity, is consistent with section 509(b) of SMCRA.
One commenter noted that “trust funds generally are [the] appropriate mechanism for guaranteeing indefinite and variable operation and maintenance expenses and periodic outlays for refurbishing or replacing capital equipment or improvements.” We agree with this commenter's assessment because trusts are structured to provide the revenue stream needed to fund long-term treatment of discharges.
Another commenter recommended that we use the term “trust” in place of “trust fund” because the trust fund is only one element of a trust. We revised the rule as recommended.
We discuss other comments below in the context of the specific provisions to which they apply.
Proposed paragraph (a)(1) provided that § 800.18 applies whenever surface coal mining operations, underground mining activities, or other activities or facilities regulated under SMCRA result in a discharge to surface water or groundwater that requires treatment and that continues or may reasonably be expected to continue after the completion of mining, backfilling, grading, and the establishment of revegetation. We received no comments specific to proposed paragraph (a)(1), which we are adopting as final with a few nonsubstantive editorial revisions to improve clarity. Final paragraph (a)(1) provides that § 800.18 applies to any discharge resulting from surface coal mining operations, underground mining activities, or other activities or facilities regulated under SMCRA whenever both the discharge and the need to treat the discharge continue or may reasonably be expected to continue after the completion of mining, backfilling, grading, and the establishment of revegetation. Consistent with proposed paragraph (a)(1), final paragraph (a)(1) also provides that the term “discharge” includes both discharges to surface water and discharges to groundwater.
Proposed paragraph (a)(2) provided that § 800.18 also applies whenever information available to the regulatory authority documents that a discharge of the nature described in paragraph (a)(1) will develop in the future, provided that the quantity and quality of the future discharge can be determined with reasonable probability. We are adopting proposed paragraph (a)(2) as final without change.
One commenter urged that final § 800.18 include language clarifying that it does not authorize approval of a permit application for a proposed operation that anticipates creating a discharge for which long-term treatment would be required. The commenter expressed concern that, otherwise, proposed paragraph (a)(2) could be interpreted as allowing approval and issuance of a permit with a predicted discharge of this nature. The commenter notes that approval of a permit application of this nature would be inconsistent with proposed § 773.15(n), which prohibits the regulatory authority from approving a permit application unless it finds that the proposed operation has been designed to prevent discharges requiring long-term treatment.
We agree with the commenter that a permit applicant may not circumvent § 773.15(n) and receive a permit for a site that is predicted to develop a discharge requiring long-term treatment by posting a financial assurance under § 800.18 to cover treatment costs. In response to this concern, we added paragraph (a)(3) to the final rule. That paragraph provides that § 800.18 applies only to discharges that are not anticipated at the time of permit application approval. It further states that nothing in § 800.18 authorizes approval of a permit application for a proposed operation that anticipates creating a discharge for which long-term treatment would be required.
Finally, we are adding paragraph (a)(4) to the final rule as a reminder that, under final § 800.18(g), the regulatory authority must require adjustment of the bond amount whenever it becomes aware of a situation described in paragraph (a)(1) or (2).
Proposed paragraph (b)(1) provided that, except for permits covered by an alternative bonding system, the permittee must post a financial assurance instrument or a collateral bond to guarantee treatment or abatement of postmining discharges. One commenter opposed adoption of proposed paragraph (b)(1), alleging that “[t]he record is devoid of any basis for restricting financially sound companies from using the entire panoply of financial mechanisms, including self-
We do not agree with the commenter that periodic review of a permittee's eligibility to self-bond provides a satisfactory level of assurance that the funds needed for treatment will be available if the permittee ceases treatment. The periodic reviews cited by the commenter may be too late to ensure that a self-bonded company in rapidly deteriorating financial health has either the resources to post the required replacement bond or the ability to complete the reclamation work itself. Under 30 CFR 800.23(g), a self-bonded permittee must notify the regulatory authority whenever it no longer meets self-bonding eligibility criteria. The permittee then has 90 days to post a replacement surety or collateral bond. However, a financially distressed company may be unable to obtain replacement bond coverage, especially the large sums required to guarantee long-term treatment of discharges.
In addition, the final rule does not allow posting of a self-bond to cover long-term treatment of discharges because self-bonds provide none of the tangible financial resources afforded by financial assurances, collateral bonds, or surety bonds. Financial assurances provide the income stream needed to fund treatment. Collateral bonds require the deposit of letters of credit, cash accounts, certificates of deposit, stocks, bonds, or real property, all of which can be used to fund treatment if the permittee fails to do so. Surety bonds provide a guarantee of payment of a sum certain from an independent company.
One regulatory authority requested that we revise the rule to also allow the use of surety bonds because it had long done so with success. As stated in the preamble to the proposed rule,
Another commenter suggested that we avoid use of the term “financial assurance instrument” because a financial assurance always consists of more than one instrument. At a minimum, according to the commenter, a financial assurance that relies upon a trust will include the indemnity agreement describing the terms of the assurance and the trust agreement governing the trust. We agree with the commenter's recommendation and rationale and revised proposed paragraph (b)(1) accordingly. Final paragraph (b)(1) uses the term “financial assurance” in place of “financial assurance instrument.”
After the revisions discussed above, final paragraph (b)(1) provides that, except for discharges covered by alternative bonding systems other than financial assurances, the permittee must post a financial assurance, a collateral bond, or a surety bond to guarantee treatment or abatement of discharges that require long-term treatment. We replaced the term “postmining discharges” in proposed paragraph (b)(1) with “discharges that require long-term treatment” to improve clarity and to be consistent with the terminology used elsewhere in our regulations in this context.
Proposed paragraph (b)(2) provided that the amount of a collateral bond posted to guarantee treatment of a discharge must include the cost of treating the discharge during the time required to collect and liquidate the bond and convert the proceeds to a financial instrument that will generate funds in an amount sufficient to cover future treatment costs and associated administrative expenses. We extensively revised proposed paragraph (b)(2) in response to comments and incorporated it as part of final paragraph (c)(2). The preamble to final paragraph (c) discusses the comments received and the revisions made.
Proposed paragraph (b)(3) provided that operations with discharges in states with an approved alternative bonding system must comply with the requirements of proposed § 800.9(d)(2), which pertains to alternative bonding systems other than financial assurances. We received no comments specific to proposed paragraph (b)(3). We are adopting proposed paragraph (b)(3) in revised form as final paragraph (b)(2). We revised this paragraph for consistency with our revisions to section 800.9(d). We also added language to clarify that final paragraph (b)(2) does not apply to financial assurances, consistent with the intent of the proposed rule. Final paragraph (b)(2) provides that operations with discharges in states with an alternative bonding system (other than a financial assurance) approved under subchapter T must comply with the requirements of the applicable alternative bonding system.
Proposed paragraph (c) provided that calculation of the amount of financial assurance or collateral bond required must include the cost of treating the discharge to meet any applicable numerical standards or limits that are in effect at the time that the regulatory authority issues an order requiring posting of a financial assurance or bond, provided that the numerical standards or limits are established in the SMCRA permit, a permit or authorization issued under the Clean Water Act, or regulations implementing the Clean Water Act. Some commenters objected to this provision, alleging that a SMCRA permit cannot establish water quality standards or discharge limits. According to the commenters, only the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency and states with delegated authority under the Clean Water Act have the authority to set water quality standards. Nothing in the proposed rule was intended to imply that the SMCRA regulatory authority may establish water quality standards of the nature specified in the Clean Water Act. Upon further evaluation, we determined that proposed paragraph (c) is unnecessary. Therefore, the final rule does not include it. The regulatory authority will determine when a discharge requires long-term treatment, and we will not attempt to define all potential sources of treatment requirements in this rule.
One commenter on proposed paragraph (c) urged us to allow the use of cost data from the operation of existing water treatment facilities to project likely future costs of long-term treatment of discharges. No rule change is needed because nothing in section 800.18 prohibits the use of data from existing water treatment facilities to predict future treatment costs.
As discussed above, we did not adopt proposed paragraph (c). Instead, final paragraph (c) specifies how to
As also discussed above, we are adopting proposed paragraph (b)(2) in revised form as final paragraph (c)(2). Final paragraph (c)(2) establishes how the regulatory authority must calculate the amount of collateral bond or surety bond that a permittee electing that option must post. One commenter on proposed paragraph (b)(2) observed that the regulatory authority may not have the legal authority under state law to convert the bond forfeiture proceeds to a financial instrument that will generate funds. According to the commenter, a collateral bond may not be an appropriate mechanism for securing long-term treatment obligations if the applicable state law requires the regulatory authority to deposit bond forfeiture proceeds in an account that earns little or no interest. The commenter recommended that we revise proposed paragraph (b)(2) to provide that, in determining the amount of the collateral bond, the regulatory authority must account for how the moneys obtained by collecting and liquidating the bond will be managed.
We do not agree that a collateral bond may not be an appropriate mechanism for guaranteeing long-term treatment obligations. A collateral bond does not generate a revenue stream for treatment, but that does not matter as long as the permittee continues to treat the discharge and the amount of the bond is sufficient to cover future treatment costs in the event of forfeiture. Nor do we agree with the commenter's recommendation that we revise proposed paragraph (b)(2) to provide that, in determining the amount of the collateral bond, the regulatory authority must account for how the moneys obtained by collecting and liquidating the bond will be managed. Regulatory authorities have extensive experience managing bond forfeitures under SMCRA and we have no reason to believe that they are not capable of managing collateral bonds posted to guarantee long-term treatment of discharges.
Final paragraph (c)(2) requires that the amount of the bond be no less than the present value of the funds needed to pay for treatment of the discharge in perpetuity, together with related administrative, maintenance, renovation, replacement, and land reclamation expenses. In response to the commenter's concerns with respect to bond forfeiture and the handling of bond forfeiture proceeds, we revised our bond forfeiture regulations to clarify that, if the permittee defaults on treatment obligations, the regulatory authority must forfeit an amount of bond that is no less than the estimated total cost of achieving the reclamation plan requirements with respect to the discharge. We also revised our bond forfeiture regulations to specify that the regulatory authority must calculate the estimated total cost of achieving the reclamation plan requirements for long-term treatment of a discharge in a manner consistent with final § 800.18(c).
The commenter also recommended that we revise the provisions governing use of collateral bonds to guarantee long-term treatment to include provisions similar to those that apply to financial assurances under proposed paragraph (d). Most provisions of proposed and final paragraph (d) are specific to financial assurances and, thus, are not suitable for collateral bonds. However, we agree that certain provisions of proposed and final paragraph (d) that govern calculation of the amount of financial assurance that the permittee must post are transferable to determinations of the amount of collateral or surety bond that the permittee must post to ensure future treatment. (As previously discussed, in response to a different comment, we are adding surety bonds to the list of acceptable financial instruments to guarantee long-term treatment of discharges.)
Proposed paragraph (b)(2) envisioned that, after forfeiting a collateral bond, the regulatory authority would “convert the proceeds to a financial instrument that will generate funds in an amount sufficient to cover future treatment costs and associated administrative expenses.” As the commenter pointed out, state law may not allow this conversion, which means that the premise in the proposed rule for calculation of the bond amount is not correct. Even in those cases where state law may allow conversion of bond forfeiture proceeds into a financial instrument equivalent to a financial assurance, proposed paragraph (b)(2) did not specify how the regulatory authority must calculate the amount of bond that the permittee must post to be “sufficient to cover future treatment costs and associated administrative expenses.” We agree with the commenter that the method of calculation should be consistent with the method prescribed for financial assurances to ensure that the amount posted will be adequate to fully fund future treatment needs and associated costs.
In response to this comment, final paragraph (c)(2) establishes criteria for calculation of the amount of collateral bond or surety bond required. It provides that, if the permittee elects to post a collateral bond or surety bond, the bond amount must be no less than the present value of the funds needed to pay for—
(i) Treatment of the discharge in perpetuity, unless the permittee demonstrates, and the regulatory authority finds, based upon available evidence, that treatment will be needed for a lesser time, either because the discharge will attenuate or because its quality will improve. This paragraph corresponds to the first sentence of final paragraph (d)(1)(i) for financial assurances.
(ii) Treatment of the discharge during the time required to forfeit and collect the bond. This paragraph corresponds to and replaces proposed paragraph (b)(2).
(iii) Maintenance, renovation, and replacement of treatment and support facilities as needed. This paragraph corresponds to final paragraph (d)(1)(ii) for financial assurances.
(iv) Final reclamation of sites upon which treatment facilities are located and areas used in support of those facilities. This paragraph corresponds to final paragraph (d)(1)(iii) for financial assurances.
(v) Administrative costs borne by the regulatory authority. This paragraph corresponds to final paragraph (d)(1)(iv) for financial assurances.
The present value requirement reflects the fact that, unlike financial assurances, collateral and surety bonds do not provide an income stream to offset future treatment costs, nor do they
For the reasons discussed below and in the preamble to the proposed rule, we are adopting proposed paragraph (d)(1)(i) as final with minor editorial revisions, the most significant of which replaces “permit” with “permit or permit increment” in recognition of the fact that permits may be bonded in increments, in which case the provisions of this paragraph apply only to the bond for the permit increment.
Proposed paragraph (d)(1)(i) provided that the trust fund or annuity must be established in a manner that guarantees that sufficient moneys will be available when needed to pay for treatment of discharges in perpetuity, unless the permittee demonstrates, and the regulatory authority finds, based upon available evidence, that treatment will be needed for a lesser time, either because the discharge will attenuate or because its quality will improve. A number of commenters opposed proposed paragraph (d)(1)(i) on the basis that there is insufficient evidence to justify an assumption that discharges will require treatment in perpetuity. We disagree. The preamble discussion of this issue in the proposed rule
Some commenters misinterpreted the studies cited in the preamble to proposed paragraph (d)(1)(i). Those studies found that discharge quality improves over time for surface mines and below-drainage underground mines—and even for some above-drainage underground mines. According to the commenters, those studies demonstrate that the need for discharge treatment has an endpoint. However, the studies do not support the commenters' conclusion. While discharge quality improved, it did not necessarily improve to the point that the discharge no longer required treatment.
One commenter objected to the provision in proposed paragraph (d)(1)(i) that placed the burden on the permittee to demonstrate that a discharge will not continue to require treatment in perpetuity. The commenter asserted that the rule should establish the nature and level of proof needed to make that demonstration. We are not aware of any methodology that can reliably predict a precise endpoint for treatment of a particular discharge. Furthermore, section 510(a) of SMCRA
The commenter also asserted that paragraph (d)(1)(i) should expressly state that software packages such as AMD Treat and data from existing water treatment facilities can be used to calculate total treatment costs over time. We see no need to include this statement in the rule. Nothing in the final rule precludes use of either data from existing treatment facilities or the AMD Treat software. However, the software inputs and assumptions must be consistent with the requirements of this final rule. As another commenter noted, the AMD Treat software uses a default value of 75 years for the life of the trust. That default value is inconsistent with this rule, which requires a default value of perpetuity in the absence of a demonstration that a shorter treatment period will be sufficient. We agree with the commenter's observation that spreadsheets can be created that rely upon the same formula as the AMD Treat software, but that replace the 75-year default value when performing the recapitalization cost present value calculations with an assumption that the treatment period will be of infinite duration.
Proposed paragraph (d)(1)(i) also provided that the regulatory authority may accept arrangements that allow the permittee to build the amount of the trust fund or annuity over time, provided that the permittee continues to treat the discharge during that time and the regulatory authority retains performance bonds posted for the permit until the trust fund or annuity reaches a self-sustaining level as determined by the regulatory authority. One commenter alleged that this provision of proposed paragraph (d)(1)(i) implies that the regulatory authority may withhold the release of a surety bond for the permit until a trust or annuity is fully funded. According to the commenter, this action represents a fundamental misunderstanding of surety law because it requires the surety to guarantee the permittee's financial performance, which effectively converts the surety bond to a financial guarantee. The commenter is concerned that this requirement will result in a great deal of difficulty in obtaining surety bonds. The commenter also alleged that the provision runs afoul of §§ 800.13 and 800.14, which, according to the commenter, provide that separate bonds may be written not only for ecological restoration, but for any other specific matter that a surety does not wish to cover.
Final paragraph (d)(1)(i)(B) expressly requires that the regulatory authority retain all performance bonds posted for the permit or permit increment until the trust or annuity reaches a self-sustaining level as determined by the regulatory authority. This provision is a logical implementation of section 509(a) of SMCRA,
One commenter recommended that we add the following sentence after the first sentence of proposed paragraph (d)(1)(i): “If the regulatory authority does not find that treatment will be needed for a lesser time, all calculations of the dollar amount of the financial assurance, or any component of that overall amount, must be based on an infinite treatment period.” We find that the revision recommended by the commenter is unnecessary because, as proposed, paragraph (d)(1)(i) of the final rule provides that the regulatory authority must calculate the amount needed for the trust or annuity using an assumption that the discharge will require treatment in perpetuity, unless the permittee can demonstrate otherwise.
Proposed paragraph (d)(1)(ii) provided that the trust or annuity must be established in a manner that guarantees that sufficient moneys will be available when needed to pay for maintenance, renovation, and replacement of treatment and support facilities as needed. We are adopting proposed paragraph (d)(1)(ii) as final without change.
One commenter asserted that we should revise proposed paragraph (d)(1)(ii) to require that the financial assurance include a component to account for unpredicted events, including possible catastrophic failure of the treatment system or components of it, because the assumption of a zero risk of premature system failure is unreasonably rosy. According to the commenter, treatment systems, even passive ones, fail more often than we would hope, sometimes catastrophically, and sometimes far earlier than the predicted life cycle of the failed components. The commenter suggested that, in calculating the amount of financial assurance or bond required, the regulatory authority must account for not only predicted events but also the risks posed by unpredicted events, including premature failure of the treatment system or its components. According to the commenter, the regulatory authority may not rely on the permittee to provide additional funding over the long term because there is no guarantee that the permittee will be in existence for the long term.
We are aware of no realistic means of predicting the cost of unpredicted and unpredictable events. Therefore, we are not revising our rules in the manner sought by the commenter. Nothing in section 509 of SMCRA requires that the bond amount include a component for unpredicted events. Instead, section 509(e) of SMCRA and its implementing regulations at 30 CFR 800.15 require that the regulatory authority adjust the bond whenever the cost of future reclamation changes. Section 800.18(f) of the final rule includes similar requirements for financial assurances. Furthermore, final paragraph (f)(1) requires that the regulatory authority conduct an annual review of the adequacy of the trust or annuity and the assumptions upon which the trust or annuity is based. Final paragraph (f)(2) specifies that the regulatory authority must require that the permittee provide additional resources to the trust or annuity whenever the review conducted under paragraph (f)(1) or any other information available to the regulatory authority at any time demonstrates that the financial assurance is no longer adequate to meet the purpose for which it was established. The combination of these two requirements should be sufficient to address the commenter's concerns in most cases.
Proposed paragraph (d)(1)(iii) provided that the trust or annuity must be established in a manner that guarantees that sufficient moneys will be available when needed to pay for final reclamation of the sites upon which treatment facilities are located and areas used in support of those facilities. We received no comments specific to proposed paragraph (d)(1)(iii), which we are adopting it as final without change.
Proposed paragraph (d)(1)(iv) provided that the trust or annuity must be established in a manner that guarantees that sufficient moneys will be available when needed to pay for administrative costs borne by the regulatory authority or trustee to implement paragraphs (d)(1)(i) through (iii). We received no comments specific to proposed paragraph (d)(1)(iv), which we are adopting it as final without change.
Proposed paragraph (d)(2) provided that the regulatory authority must specify the investment objectives of the trust or annuity. One commenter asserted that a financial assurance that is not backstopped by some other form of treatment guarantee must demonstrate that it will be self-sustaining forever to provide a solid guarantee of treatment in perpetuity. The commenter alleged that increasing the risk level of the financial assurance's investment portfolio decreases the likelihood that the financial assurance will be self-sustaining forever. Therefore, according to the commenter, we must revise proposed paragraph (d)(2) to expressly require that a financial assurance hold a conservative, low-risk investment portfolio.
The commenter noted that proposed paragraph (d)(2) did not define “investment objectives.” According to the commenter, preceding provisions of proposed § 800.18(d) establish that the primary objective of the trust or annuity is to guarantee treatment of the discharge for as long as necessary, presumptively in perpetuity. Therefore, the commenter reasoned, any subsidiary objectives must serve that primary objective and the composition of the investment portfolio likewise must reflect the primary objective.
The commenter provided additional explanation, which we paraphrase as follows: Risk tolerance is at its lowest when a trust provides the only source of funding for an essential product or service. For example, a trust established to provide funding for a regular course of treatment like kidney dialysis in a setting where there is no secondary mechanism (
The commenter asserted that proposed paragraphs (d)(2) and (3)
We concur with the commenter that proposed paragraph (d)(2) is in need of revision for the reasons set forth in the comments submitted, as summarized above. After evaluating the two alternatives that the commenter provided, we determined that the first alternative provides more guidance and is less subjective and easier to understand than the second alternative. Therefore, as the commenter recommended, final paragraph (d)(2) provides that the regulatory authority must require that the investment portfolio held by the financial assurance prudently account for (i) the expected duration of the treatment obligation; (ii) the need to provide a guarantee of uninterrupted treatment; and (iii) whether any other financial guarantee covers the treatment obligation.
We also revised proposed paragraph (d)(2) to eliminate the reference to “investment objectives.” As the commenter noted, there is only one primary objective, which is to guarantee treatment of the discharge in perpetuity or for as long as treatment is necessary, as paragraph (d)(1) requires. Instead of simply requiring that the regulatory authority specify the objectives of the trust or annuity, as in proposed paragraph (d)(2), final paragraph (d)(2) establishes criteria for the composition of the investment portfolio to ensure attainment of that objective, as the commenter recommended. Specifically, final paragraph (d)(2) provides that the regulatory authority must require that the investment portfolio held by the trust or annuity prudently account for the expected duration of the treatment obligation, the need to provide a guarantee of uninterrupted treatment, and whether any other financial guarantee covers a portion of the treatment obligation. As the commenter recommended under either alternative, final paragraph (d)(2) also provides that, if the financial assurance will provide the only financial guarantee of treatment, the regulatory authority must require that the trust or annuity hold a low-risk investment portfolio.
Proposed paragraph (d)(3) provided that, in structuring the trust or annuity, the regulatory authority and the permittee must base calculations on a conservative anticipated rate of return on the proposed investments that is consistent with long-term historical rates of return for similar investments. One commenter expressed concern that the proposed rule did not address how the proposed investments would be proposed, reviewed, and approved.
We do not intend for these rules to be overly prescriptive. The regulatory authority may establish additional procedural requirements if it desires to do so, but we do not find that level of detail necessary or appropriate for this rule. Final paragraph (d)(2) establishes the three basic factors that the regulatory authority must consider in reviewing the investment portfolio of the trust fund or annuity; that requirement should be sufficient for purposes of this rule.
The commenter recommended that we revise proposed paragraph (d)(3) to expressly require that determination of the amount that the permittee must post for a trust fund or annuity be based on present value calculations. Present value calculations account for inflation, which means that they are based on real rather than nominal rates of return. According to the commenter, present value calculations also must account for any fees paid to the trustee or manager. The commenter notes that proposed § 800.18 does not specifically mention inflation or management fees and that proposed paragraph (d)(3) does not specify whether the anticipated rate of return to which it refers is real (reflecting adjustments for inflation) or nominal, net (reflecting a reduction for management fees) or gross. The commenter asserted that final paragraph (d)(3) must require that the calculation of the amount of the trust fund or annuity include adjustments for inflation and management fees;
We agree with the commenter. Section 509(a) of SMCRA provides that the amount of a performance bond must be sufficient to assure the completion of the reclamation plan if the regulatory authority has to perform the work in the event of forfeiture. The revisions that the commenter recommends are necessary to ensure that sufficient funds will be available. Under section 509(c) of SMCRA, an alternative bonding system, which includes a financial assurance, must achieve the objectives and purposes of the bonding of the bonding program, of which the provision of section 509(a) described above is one. Therefore, final paragraph (d)(3) provides that, in determining the required amount of the trust or annuity, the regulatory authority must base present value calculations on a conservative anticipated real rate of return on the proposed investments. Final paragraph (d)(3) also specifies that the rate of return must be net of management or trustee fees.
The commenter also opposed the provision of proposed paragraph (d)(3) that would require that the anticipated rate of return used in calculating the amount of a financial assurance be “consistent with long-term historical rates of return for similar investments.” The commenter observed that historical rates of return are not necessarily predictive of future rates of return, which means that the only rates of return that matter are those that the investment portfolio will earn in the future. Therefore, the commenter argued, the rule should require use of the best objective forecast of future long-term rates of return on a given class of assets, even if that forecast is significantly below the historical average rate of return. The commenter suggested that we either delete all mention of historical rates of return from paragraph (d)(3) or require that the regulatory authority afford “whatever consideration is appropriate” to historical rates of return. We concur with the commenter's arguments against the proposed requirement that the anticipated rate of return be consistent with historical long-term rates of return. Final paragraph (d)(3) does not include that provision.
A commenter expressed concern about how regulatory authorities will determine whether a trust or annuity is fully funded when the trust includes
We agree with the commenter that real estate, including coal reserves, is an inappropriate element of a trust or annuity unless that real estate is of an income-producing nature. However, we see no need to adopt any of the rule changes that the commenter recommends. The investment portfolio criteria that we adopted as part of final § 800.18(d)(2) and the requirement in final § 800.18(d)(3) that the required amount of the trust fund or annuity be based upon present value calculations using a conservative anticipated real rate of return for investments should preclude a recurrence of the example cited by the commenter.
Proposed paragraph (d)(4) provided that the trust or annuity must be in a form approved by the regulatory authority and contain all terms and conditions required by the regulatory authority. One commenter requested that we clarify in the final rule how the trust will hold personal and real property associated with long-term treatment facilities because it will be difficult if not impossible for the trustee to ensure the continuation of treatment operations when the permittee ceases treatment if the trustee is not provided rights to the personal and real property involved. The commenter explained that it had encountered the need to transfer ownership of treatment facilities and equipment to the trustee so that if the permittee ceases to treat water at the site, the trustee can take possession of the personal property needed to continue the treatment operations. The commenter noted that it had seen state regulatory authorities require that permittees transfer treatment equipment to the trustee to hold in the event the trustee needs to take over water treatment. In the commenter's experience, a bill of sale of the treatment equipment to the trustee with a license back to the operator for use in water treatment operations worked successfully. The commenter recommended that we revise the final rule to provide a mechanism whereby the regulatory authority can require the permittee to grant the trustee the real and personal property rights necessary to continue water treatment in the event the permittee goes out of business or ceases water treatment for other reasons.
We agree with the commenter for the reasons set forth in the comment. Final paragraph (d)(4)(ii) provides that, when appropriate, the terms and conditions of the financial assurance must include a mechanism whereby the regulatory authority may require the permittee to grant the trustee the real and personal property rights necessary to continue treatment in the event that the permittee ceases treatment. These rights include, but are not limited to, access to and use of the treatment site and ownership of treatment facilities and equipment.
Proposed paragraph (d)(5) provided that the trust or annuity must irrevocably establish the regulatory authority as the beneficiary of the trust or of the proceeds from the annuity for the purpose of treating mine drainage or other mining-related discharges to protect the environment and users of surface water. We received no comments specific to proposed paragraph (d)(5), which we are adopting as final paragraph (d)(5) with minor editorial revisions.
Proposed paragraph (d)(6) specified that the trust or annuity must provide that disbursement of money from the trust or annuity may be made only upon written authorization from the regulatory authority or according to a schedule established in the agreement accompanying the trust or annuity. We received no comments specific to proposed paragraph (d)(6), which we are adopting as final paragraph (d)(6) with minor editorial revisions.
Proposed paragraph (d)(7) provided that a financial institution or company serving as a trustee or issuing an annuity must be a national bank chartered by the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, an operating subsidiary of a national bank chartered by the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, a bank or trust company chartered by the state in which the operation is located, an insurance company licensed or authorized to do business in the state in which the operation is located or designated by the pertinent regulatory body of that state as an eligible surplus lines insurer, or any other financial institution or company with trust powers and with offices located in the state in which the operation is located. With the exception discussed below, we are adopting proposed paragraph (d)(7) as part of the final rule.
One commenter opposed the mandate in proposed paragraph (d)(7)(v) that the financial institution or company be required to have an office located in the state in which the operation is located. According to the commenter, this provision is arbitrary, capricious, and an unconstitutional restraint on interstate commerce. The commenter also alleged that this provision would be an unwise policy choice because not every state that has long-term water treatment issues will have sufficient mine discharge problems for a company to justify the establishment of a physical office in that state. The commenter further alleged that the requirement for an office located in the state does not appear to be reasonably related to the goal of proposed paragraph (d)(7), which is to ensure that only competent and reliable companies are allowed to be trustees. According to the commenter, adoption of proposed paragraph (d)(7)(v) would run counter to this goal because it would likely to make it more difficult for competent and reliable companies that do not happen to have a physical office in a state to serve as a trustee. The commenter suggested that we revise proposed paragraph (d)(7)(v) by replacing the requirement for an office located in the state with a requirement that the company be authorized to do business in the state, have trust powers satisfactory to the regulatory authority, and be examined or regulated by a state or federal agency. We agree with the commenter's arguments and suggested revisions. Final paragraph (d)(7)(v)
The commenter further recommended that the final rule clarify that the SMCRA regulatory authority may function as a “state or federal agency” under paragraph (d)(7)(v), which provides that the trustee must be a financial institution or company whose “activities are examined or regulated by a state or federal agency.” The commenter noted that the SMCRA regulatory authority provides the primary regulatory oversight in every state in which the commenter has established long-term treatment trusts. We decline to adopt this recommendation because final paragraph (d)(7)(v) applies to financial institutions and companies, which the SMCRA regulatory authority has neither the expertise nor the authority to oversee or regulate. However, adoption of this rule will not necessarily interfere with the commenter's operations because the commenter is a not-for-profit organization, which means that it is not subject to final paragraph (d)(7). Instead, it must meet the criteria for not-for-profit organizations under final paragraph (d)(8).
The commenter requested that the final rule clarify that a long-term treatment trust can consist of both a trustee and a separate custodian of the financial assets in the trust. According to the commenter, this approach works well for long-term treatment trusts because it provides an extra level of protection and separation between the purely financial aspects of the trust and management of the other aspects of trusts. We have no objection to this arrangement, but no rule change is necessary because nothing in the final rule prohibits this arrangement.
One commenter noted that adoption of proposed paragraph (d)(7) would prevent a not-for-profit organization from serving as a trustee, even though, at present, at least one such organization is successfully operating as a trustee for discharge treatment trusts. In response, we have added paragraph (d)(8), which provides that the regulatory authority may allow a not-for-profit organization under section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code to serve as a trustee if the organization maintains appropriate professional liability insurance coverage and if the regulatory authority determines that the organization has demonstrated the financial and technical capability to manage trust funds and assume day-to-day operation of the trust and treatment facility in the event of a default.
Final paragraph (d)(9) is the counterpart to proposed paragraph (e)(4). A commenter recommended deletion of proposed paragraph (e)(4), which provided that the regulatory authority could terminate a trust or annuity upon a determination that the trustee's administration of the trust or annuity is unsatisfactory to the regulatory authority. According to the commenter, state law and trust instruments can make provision for changing trustees if trust performance is an issue. The commenter explained that termination of the trust may have unintended results, such as triggering disposition of the trust assets outside the trust, which means that they would no longer be available to cover treatment costs. The commenter further explained that trust instruments used by regulatory authorities have provisions for continuing the trust while obtaining a new trustee. Finally, the commenter noted that paragraph (e)(4) does not belong in paragraph (e) because paragraph (e)(4) pertains to replacement of the trustee, while paragraph (e) pertains to termination of the trust.
We concur with the commenter that proposed paragraph (e)(4) was improperly located, but we do not agree that the provision itself should be deleted entirely. We find merit in retaining a provision that requires replacement of the trustee when the regulatory authority determines that the trustee's performance is unsatisfactory. Therefore, while we are not adopting proposed paragraph (e)(4), we are adopting a similar provision as final paragraph (d)(9). Final paragraph (d)(9) provides that the permittee or the regulatory authority must procure a new trustee when the trustee's administration of the trust fund or annuity is unsatisfactory to the regulatory authority.
Proposed paragraph (e) provided that termination of a trust or annuity may have occurred only upon the demise of the trustee or the company issuing the annuity or as specified by the regulatory authority upon a determination that one of the four situations described in paragraphs (e)(1) through (4) exists. Those situations are: (1) No further treatment or other reclamation measures are necessary; (2) a satisfactory replacement financial assurance or bond has been posted in accordance with paragraph (g); (3) the terms of the trust or annuity establish conditions for termination and those conditions have been met; and (4) the trustee's administration of the trust or annuity is unsatisfactory to the regulatory authority, in which case the permittee or the regulatory authority must procure a new trustee.
One commenter recommended that we delete the phrase “demise of the trustee or the company issuing the annuity” in the introductory text of proposed paragraph (e) because state law and trust instruments address substitution of trustees in the event of the demise of a trustee and that, thus, there is no need for the rule to address this situation. The commenter explained that, in her experience, a clause terminating the trust upon the demise of the trustee likely would create problems for the regulatory authority because it would terminate the authority of the regulatory authority to keep the assets of the trust within the trust, which means that the regulatory authority would lose the income-generating advantages of the trust. The commenter stated that a trust is intended to be as close to a perpetual instrument as is possible under current law. Therefore, according to the commenter, termination should be limited to situations in which there is no longer any need for the trust. The commenter explained that the trust instruments should cover all other situations. The commenter also asserted that, with respect to annuities, a regulatory authority may run the risk of compromising a claim against the liquidating underwriter of an annuity if the regulatory authority terminates that annuity.
Based on the information and explanation provided by the commenter, we did not include the phrase “demise of the trustee or the company issuing the annuity” in the introductory text of final paragraph (e). As previously discussed in the preamble to final paragraph (d)(9), we also are not adopting proposed paragraph (e)(4) because it concerns termination of the trustee rather than the trust. We are adopting paragraphs (e)(1) through (3) as proposed because termination of a trust or annuity under those circumstances is appropriate and will not have any adverse impacts. Final paragraph (e)(1) allows termination when no further treatment or other reclamation measures are necessary. Final paragraph (e)(2) allows termination when a satisfactory replacement financial assurance or bond has been posted. And final paragraph (e)(3) allows termination when the terms of the trust fund or annuity establish conditions for termination and those conditions have been met.
Proposed paragraph (f)(1) provided that the regulatory authority must
Proposed paragraph (g) provided that a financial assurance may be replaced in accordance with the provisions of § 800.30(a), with the approval of the regulatory authority. We received no comments specific to this paragraph, which we are adopting in final form as proposed.
Proposed paragraph (h) provided that release of reclamation liabilities and obligations under financial assurances is subject to the applicable bond release provisions of §§ 800.40 through 800.44. We received no comments specific to this paragraph, which we are adopting in final form as proposed.
Proposed paragraph (i) provided that the permittee may apply for, and the regulatory authority may approve, release of any bonds posted for the permit or permit increment for which the regulatory authority has approved a financial assurance under this section, provided that the permittee and the regulatory authority comply with the bond release requirements and procedures in §§ 800.40 through 800.44. The proposed rule specified that this provision applies only if the financial assurance is both in place and fully funded; the permit or permit increment fully meets all applicable reclamation requirements, with the exception of the discharge and the presence of associated treatment and support facilities; and the financial assurance will serve as the bond for reclamation of the portion of the permit area required for postmining water treatment facilities and access to those facilities. We received no comments specific to this paragraph, which we are adopting in final form as proposed, with minor editorial revisions.
Section 800.20 implements and fleshes out section 509(b) of SMCRA,
Proposed paragraph (b) provided that surety bonds must be noncancellable during their terms, except that surety bond coverage for undisturbed lands may be cancelled with the prior consent of the regulatory authority. The proposed rule further provided that, within 30 days after receipt of a notice to cancel bond, the regulatory authority will advise the surety whether the bond may be cancelled on an undisturbed area. We received no comments specific to this paragraph, which we are adopting in final form as proposed, with minor editorial revisions. Final paragraph (c) consists of proposed § 800.30(a)(2) in revised form. We are adopting proposed § 800.30(a)(2) as part of final § 800.20 rather than as part of final § 800.30 because it pertains to sureties and, therefore, should apply to all surety bonds, regardless of whether they are proffered as replacement bonds. Proposed § 800.30(a)(2) provided that the regulatory authority may decline to accept a proposed replacement surety bond if, in the judgment of the regulatory authority, the new surety does not have adequate reinsurance or other resources sufficient to cover the default of one or more mining companies for which the surety has provided bond coverage. A few commenters expressed concern about the lack of criteria that the regulatory authority could use in determining whether to reject a surety. Another commenter found this provision problematic because regulatory authorities generally lack the expertise to review reinsurance contracts. According to the commenter, if a state department of insurance has licensed a surety to conduct business, that license should suffice and the regulatory authority should accept the surety bond.
In response to these comments, final § 800.20(c) no longer contains any mention of the adequacy of reinsurance. Our decision not to adopt this proposed provision should not be interpreted as a prohibition on regulatory authorities conducting an analysis of the adequacy of reinsurance if they have the ability to do so. We have instead revised the proposed rule to focus on our primary intent, which was to emphasize that the regulatory authority has the discretion to establish limits on its exposure to a single surety or the default of one or more companies bonded by a single surety.
Final § 800.20(c) provides that the regulatory authority may decline to accept a surety bond if, in the judgment of the regulatory authority, the surety does not have resources sufficient to cover the default of one or more mining companies for which the surety has provided bond coverage. This provision is completely discretionary and the criteria that the regulatory authority would use in deciding whether to accept a surety bond also are totally at the regulatory authority's discretion.
Proposed § 800.21 set forth the requirements that apply to various types of collateral that may be posted as a performance bond. Except as discussed below, we received no comments on proposed § 800.21. We are adopting proposed § 800.21 in final form as proposed, with minor editorial revisions, unless otherwise noted below.
The second sentence of proposed paragraph (b)(2) provided that the regulatory authority must forfeit and collect on a letter of credit used as security in areas requiring continuous bond coverage if the permittee has not replaced the letter with another letter of credit or other suitable bond at least 30 days before the letter's expiration date. According to a commenter with experience in the use of letters of credit as a collateral bond, forfeiture is not necessary because the regulatory authority can draw upon the letter and use the cash received to assure continuous bond coverage without forfeiting the bond. In response to this comment, we revised the second sentence of proposed paragraph (b)(2) and redesignated it as paragraph (b)(4) in the final rule. Final paragraph (b)(4) provides that, if the permittee has not replaced a letter of credit with another letter of credit or other suitable bond at least 30 days before the letter's expiration date, the regulatory authority
One commenter urged us to revise proposed paragraph (c) to clarify that, in determining the bond value of real property, the regulatory authority need not accept either the fair market value or the value placed on the property by the mining company, in keeping with previous preamble discussions that accord discretion to regulatory authorities in evaluating real estate posted as a collateral bond. The commenter noted that regulatory authorities have experienced great difficulty in collecting the bond value if a mining company defaults on a collateral bond guaranteed by real estate. She cited two instances in which the liquidation of real estate collateral yielded less than half of the bond value of the collateral. The commenter further explained that the administrative costs of liquidating real estate are high and frequently are accompanied by unanticipated costs such as unpaid taxes, maintenance issues, and the need to maintain insurance on the property. The commenter pointed out that appraisal principles recognize that forced sales will ordinarily not elicit a fair market value for real property because fair market value assumes both a willing buyer and a willing seller who are not under time constraints. Forced sales do not meet those conditions. Therefore, according to the commenter, the regulatory authority must discount the value of real estate posted as a collateral bond to account for administrative costs, property maintenance and insurance costs, and the potential adverse implications of a forced sale. Otherwise, the regulatory authority will not receive the funds necessary to complete reclamation under conditions of forfeiture.
To improve the probability that the regulatory authority will realize the bond value of real property under conditions of forfeiture, we revised proposed paragraph (c) to provide more specific safeguards when the permittee posts real property as a collateral bond. The revisions flesh out final paragraph (e)(1), which provides that the bond value of collateral is not the same as the market value and which requires that the bond value reflect legal and liquidation fees, as well as value depreciation, marketability, and fluctuations that might affect the net cash available to the regulatory authority to complete reclamation. Final paragraph (c)(4) details the meaning of final paragraph (e)(1) in the context of real property.
Specifically, final paragraph (c)(4) provides that the appraised fair market value of real estate, as determined under final paragraph (c)(2)(ii), is not the bond value of the real estate. Under final paragraph (c)(4), the regulatory authority must calculate the bond value of real estate by discounting the appraised fair market value to account for the administrative costs of liquidating real estate, the probability of a forced sale in the event of forfeiture, and a contingency reserve for unanticipated costs including, but not limited to, unpaid real estate taxes, liens, property maintenance expenses, and insurance premiums.
We also revised proposed paragraph (e)(1) in response to comments. Proposed paragraph (e)(1) required that a collateral bond be subject to a margin expressed as a ratio of bond value to market value. One commenter observed that this margin is not a ratio, but rather a premium or additional amount required to cover the costs to liquidate the collateral. The commenter requested that we eliminate the reference to a margin to improve accuracy and adherence to plain language principles. The final rule implements the commenter's recommendation. Final paragraph (e)(1) provides that the bond value (rather than the margin) of the collateral must reflect legal and liquidation fees, as well as value depreciation, marketability, and fluctuations that might affect the net cash available to the regulatory authority to complete reclamation.
Under section 509 of SMCRA, a regulatory authority may accept the self-bond of an applicant, where the applicant demonstrates, among other things, a history of financial solvency and continuous operation sufficient for authorization to self-insure (self-bond).
We proposed only one substantive revision to previous § 800.23—a revision of paragraph (b)(3)(i) to allow the use of any nationally recognized statistical rating organization registered with the Securities and Exchange Commission in determining eligibility to self-bond, rather than limiting acceptable rating agencies to Moody's Investor Service and Standard and Poor's. We received no comments in opposition to this proposed change, so we are adopting proposed § 800.23 as part of the final rule.
One commenter stated that there is a pressing need to reform the self-bonding rules more comprehensively, particularly in light of the dramatic decline of the western coal industry's financial stability and inadequacy of self-bonds in a time of major coal company bankruptcies. However, the commenter acknowledged that comprehensive changes to § 800.23 are beyond the scope of the present rulemaking. Another commenter urged us to revise § 800.23 to provide that no part of a corporation may qualify for a self-bond if any part of that corporation, including any subsidiary, does not meet the self-bonding eligibility requirements. As discussed below, we intend to address the issues raised by these commenters as part of a separate rulemaking because the proposed stream protection rule did not include or seek comment on changes of the nature that the commenters request.
As discussed in the final RIA and EIS, the energy industry is in the midst of a major transformation. Low domestic and global demand for coal, plentiful low-cost shale gas, the strong U.S. dollar, utility decisions to switch power plants from coal to natural gas, and coal power plant retirements by utilities have created significant challenges for the coal industry. Since the proposed stream protection rule was published in July 2015, several large coal companies with approximately $2.4 billion in self-bonds filed for bankruptcy protection.
On March 3, 2016, WildEarth Guardians filed a petition for rulemaking under 30 CFR 700.12 requesting that we amend our self-bonding regulations at 30 CFR 800.23 to ensure that companies with a history of financial insolvency, and their subsidiary companies, are no longer eligible to self-bond.
On September 7, 2016, we published a notice in the
Final § 800.4(d) clarifies that regulatory authorities are under no obligation to include the self-bond option in their regulatory programs in the first instance. In addition, on August 5, 2016, the Director of OSMRE issued a policy advisory on self-bonding. The advisory states that ”regulatory authorities have discretion about whether to accept self-bonding,” even if an applicant or permittee meets applicable eligibility criteria. According to the advisory, “each regulatory authority should exercise its discretion and not accept new or additional self-bonds for any permit until coal production and consumption market conditions reach equilibrium, events which are not likely to occur until at least 2021.” Consistent with that guidance, we encourage regulatory authorities to robustly evaluate the financial condition of self-bonded companies and parent or third-party guarantors on a regular basis and require replacement of self-bonds with surety or collateral bonds whenever a self-bonded entity no longer meets the financial or other criteria for self-bonding.
Proposed paragraph (a) of this section contains requirements pertaining to replacement of performance bonds and financial assurances at the request of the permittee, while proposed paragraph (b) contains requirements pertaining to replacement of performance bonds and financial assurances by order of the regulatory authority. The preamble to proposed
Proposed paragraph (a)(1) provided that the regulatory authority may allow the permittee to replace existing performance bonds and financial assurance instruments with other performance bonds and financial assurance instruments that provide equivalent coverage. We received no comments specific to this paragraph, which we are adopting as proposed, with the exception that final paragraph (a)(1) refers to “financial assurances” rather than “financial assurance instruments” for the reason discussed above.
Proposed paragraph (a)(2) provided that the regulatory authority may decline to accept a proposed replacement surety bond if, in the judgment of the regulatory authority, the new surety does not have adequate reinsurance or other resources sufficient to cover the default of one or more mining companies for which the surety has provided bond coverage. In this final rule, we moved proposed paragraph (a)(2) to final section 800.20(c) because there is no reason to limit its applicability to replacement bonds. The preamble to final § 800.20(c) discusses the comments that we received on proposed § 800.30(a)(2).
Proposed paragraph (a)(3) provided that the regulatory authority may not release any existing performance bond or financial assurance instrument until the permittee submits, and the regulatory authority approves, an acceptable replacement. We received no comments specific to proposed paragraph (a)(3), which we are adopting without change as final paragraph (a)(2), with the exception that final paragraph (a)(2) refers to a “financial assurance” rather than a “financial assurance instrument” for the reason discussed above.
Proposed paragraph (b) pertains to replacement of bonds by order of the regulatory authority. We received no comments specific to this paragraph. We are adopting paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) as proposed, with the exception that we revised proposed paragraph (b)(2) to clarify that the notification under § 800.16(e) to which that paragraph refers means a notification from a bank, surety, or other responsible financial entity. We also revised proposed paragraph (b)(3) as discussed below.
Proposed paragraph (b)(3) would have provided that, if the permittee does not post replacement bond or financial assurance coverage within the time established in an order issued under paragraph (b)(2), the regulatory authority must issue a notice of violation to the permittee requiring that the permittee post replacement bond or financial assurance coverage. Proposed paragraph (b)(3) also would have required that the notice of violation order a cessation of coal extraction and initiation of reclamation activities under §§ 816.132 or 817.132 if the permittee was actively conducting surface coal mining operations. However, upon further review, we realized that the proposed rule did not properly convey our intent, which was to require immediate cessation of all surface coal mining operations, not just coal extraction, followed by either posting of replacement bond or permanent reclamation of the site under §§ 816.132 or 817.132. We did not intend to require that the permittee both post a replacement bond or financial assurance and permanently reclaim the site. Therefore, we are not adopting the rule as proposed. Instead, final paragraph (b)(3) provides that, if the permittee does not post adequate bond or financial assurance by the end of the time allowed under final paragraph (b)(2), the regulatory authority must issue a notice of violation requiring that the permittee cease surface coal mining operations immediately. The notice of violation also must require that the permittee either post adequate bond or financial assurance coverage before resuming surface coal mining operations or reclaim the site in accordance with the provisions of §§ 816.132 or 817.132.
Proposed § 800.40 corresponds to previous
Proposed paragraph (b)(1) required that the bond release application include the application form and information required by the regulatory authority. Final paragraph (b)(1) retains the requirement for an application form, but it further specifies that the application must be made on a form prescribed by the regulatory authority, consistent with other regulations. Specifically, final § 800.12(a) requires that the regulatory authority prescribe the form of the performance bond and final § 777.11(a)(3) requires that a permit application be filed in the format prescribed by the regulatory authority. We are extending this principle to applications for bond release.
Final paragraph (b)(2) is a combination of the part of proposed paragraph (b)(1) that required submittal of “information required by the regulatory authority” and the portion of proposed paragraph (b)(2)(vi) that requires a description of the results that the permittee has achieved under the approved reclamation plan and an analysis of the results of the monitoring of groundwater, surface water, and the biological condition of streams conducted under §§ 816.35 through 816.37 or §§ 817.35 through 817.37. In the proposed rule, the latter requirement appeared in paragraph (b)(2)(vi) as one of the elements of the newspaper advertisement. However, after evaluating the comments that we received, we determined that material of this nature is more appropriately considered to be part of the application than part of the newspaper advertisement.
In the final rule, we are adopting proposed paragraph (b)(2) as final paragraph (b)(3) because we divided proposed paragraph (b)(1) into final paragraphs (b)(1) and (2). The introductory text of proposed paragraph (b)(2) required that the application include a certified copy of an advertisement published at least once a week for four successive weeks in a newspaper of general circulation in the locality of the surface coal mining operation. The introductory text also provided that the permittee must submit the copy of the newspaper ad within 30 days after filing the application with the regulatory authority. The introductory text of final paragraph (b)(3) is nearly identical to the introductory text of proposed paragraph (b)(2), with two exceptions. In the first sentence, we replaced the term “surface coal mining operation” with “surface coal mining and reclamation operation” to reflect the fact that the site for which the application is filed is in reclamation and is no longer an active surface coal mining operation. In the second sentence, we replaced “application” with “application form” because final paragraph (b)(1) refers to the application form and because the application contains materials other than the form, including the copy of the advertisement required by final paragraph (b)(3), which does not need to be filed at the same time as the application form.
Proposed paragraphs (b)(2)(i) through (vii) required that the newspaper advertisement include the name of the permittee; the permit number and approval date; the number of acres and precise location of the land for which bond release is being requested; the type and amount of the bond filed and the portion for which release is being sought; the type and dates of reclamation work performed; a description of the results that the permittee achieved under the approved reclamation plan and an analysis of the results of the monitoring of groundwater, surface water, and the biological condition of streams conducted under §§ 816.35 through 816.37 or §§ 817.35 through 817.37; and the name and address of the regulatory authority. A few commenters suggested that the content requirements for the newspaper advertisement are excessive and ill-suited for a notice of that nature. According to the commenters, we should instead require that the advertisement refer readers to the location where the bond release application may be reviewed in detail. We acknowledge the merit of the comment, but, in general, we cannot adopt the recommendation because section 519(a) of SMCRA
One exception is proposed paragraph (b)(2)(iv), which provided that, among the items that the permittee must include in an advertisement published in a local newspaper announcing submission of a bond release application was the type and amount of the bond filed and the portion for which release is sought. However, section 519(a) of SMCRA
Another exception is proposed paragraph (b)(2)(vi),which required that the public notice contain a description of the results achieved under the approved reclamation plan, including an analysis of the results of the monitoring conducted under §§ 816.35 through 816.37 or §§ 817.35 through 817.37. Several commenters opposed this proposed requirement, noting the expense of publishing what could be a very lengthy notice. One commenter asserted that publishing monitoring results might be beyond the capacity of local newspapers. Another commenter observed that the proposed rule did not specify how detailed this analysis should be or who determines what constitutes a sufficient analysis. The commenter recommended that we revise the notice requirement to simply refer readers to the regulatory authority for more information on the analyses. Another commenter urged deletion of proposed paragraph (b)(2)(vi) because the information required by that paragraph is inappropriate and unnecessary for a public notice. The commenter recommended that we move this provision to be a separate element of the bond release application. According to the commenter, this level of analysis is more appropriate for an application than for a public notice.
In response to these comments, we moved most of proposed paragraph (b)(2)(vi) to become part of the bond release application requirements of final paragraph (b)(2), with the level of detail to be determined by the regulatory authority. However, section 519(a) of SMCRA specifically requires that the public notice include “a description of the results achieved as they relate to the operator's approved reclamation plan.” Therefore, final paragraph (b)(3)(vi) retains a requirement that the public notice include a brief description of the results achieved under the approved reclamation plan. One commenter expressed concern that a resource issue may exist if the regulatory authority is responsible for determining the detail required for the analysis of monitoring results that the permittee must include in the bond release application. We do not agree. The regulatory authority can establish standard guidelines that all bond release applicants must follow. There is no need for a separate
As discussed above, we agree that the information required by proposed paragraph (b)(2)(vi) is more appropriate for inclusion in the bond release application than in a public notice published in a newspaper. However, persons reading the notice should have sufficient contact information for the regulatory authority to enable them to readily make arrangements to review the application. To ensure that the reader has the information needed to make those arrangements, final paragraph (b)(3)(vii) includes a requirement that the public notice identify the location at which the application may be reviewed.
Proposed § 800.41 corresponds to previous § 800.40(b)(1). We are adopting § 800.41 as proposed, with minor editorial changes to improve clarity. Specifically, we combined proposed paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) into final paragraph (a)(1) and redesignated proposed paragraph (a)(3) as final paragraph (a)(2). We received no comments on this section.
Proposed § 800.42 corresponds to previous § 800.40(c). We have revised the proposed rule to improve clarity, to conform to other rule changes, and, as discussed below, in response to comments.
Some commenters opposed the proposed changes to our bond release criteria, especially those pertaining to restoring streams, alleging that the changes would create a vague and uncertain timeline for achievement of reclamation, which, in effect, would extend the bonding period, increase the regulatory and financial burden on permittees, decrease the availability of surety bonds, and delay return of full use of the reclaimed land to the landowner. We acknowledge that restoring the ecological function of perennial and intermittent streams as required by the final rule may take longer than the revegetation responsibility period and, thus, may result in a delay in final bond release for some time after the demonstration of revegetation success under § 816.116 or 817.116.
Many commenters opposed proposed paragraph (a)(2), which provided that the regulatory authority may not release any bond if, after an evaluation of the groundwater, surface water, and biological condition monitoring data submitted under §§ 816.35 through 816.37 or §§ 817.35 through 817.37, it determines that adverse trends exist that may result in material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area. In general, commenters found the “adverse trends” standard in this paragraph to be too vague and undefined. They expressed concern that permittees would not be able to obtain timely bond release if this provision is adopted. One commenter alleged that this provision would give regulatory authorities unwarranted authority to halt the bond release process, with the practical result being that permittees would not be able to secure surety bonds because of the uncertainty involved with a subjective determination of whether adverse trends exist. The commenter noted that some companies are having increasing difficulty securing reclamation bonds because of bonding capacity limits. One regulatory authority noted that, to be defensible, regulatory authority decisions must be based upon known conditions rather than something that might happen. The commenter recommended deletion of this proposed requirement, or, in the alternative, replacement of the “adverse trends” standard with a statistically significant degradation standard based upon monitoring data.
Section 519(b) of SMCRA requires that, as part of the evaluation of each bond release application, the regulatory authority consider, among other things, whether “pollution of surface and subsurface water is occurring, the probability of continuance of future occurrence of such pollution, and the estimated cost of abating such pollution.” The analysis of monitoring results that proposed paragraph (b)(2) required is a logical extension of this statutory provision. Similarly, except as discussed below, the prohibition in proposed paragraph (b)(2) on the release of bond when the regulatory authority determines, based on a trend analysis of monitoring data, that adverse trends exist that may result in material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area is a rational extension of section 510(b)(3) of SMCRA,
In response to the comments that we received, we revised proposed paragraph (a)(2) to remove the provision prohibiting bond release if the regulatory authority determines that “adverse trends exist that may result in material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area.” We agree that “may result” is too subjective. Final paragraph (a)(2)(i) requires that the regulatory authority conduct a scientifically defensible trend analysis of the groundwater, surface water, and biological condition monitoring data submitted under §§ 816.35 through 816.37 or §§ 817.35 through 817.37 before releasing any bond amount. Each regulatory authority will determine what type of trend analysis is scientifically defensible. Final paragraph (a)(2)(ii) provides that the regulatory authority may not approve a bond release application if the analysis conducted under final paragraph (a)(2)(i) and other relevant information indicate that the operation is causing material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area or is likely to do so in the future. We did not adopt the statistically significant degradation standard recommended by one commenter because we are not clear as to how such a standard would operate.
Proposed paragraph (a)(3) prohibited the release of any portion of the bond unless and until the permittee posts a financial assurance or collateral bond if a discharge requiring long-term treatment exists either on the permit area or at a point that is hydrologically connected to the permit area. One commenter opposed proposed paragraph (a)(3) based on a belief that surety bonds are not responsible for long-term treatment of discharges. The commenter characterized proposed paragraph (a)(3) as implying that the regulatory authority may forfeit a surety
The principle that any type of bond may be forfeited to obtain the funds needed for long-term treatment of discharges has long been official OSMRE policy. See the discussion in the preamble to proposed paragraph (a)(3) at 80 FR 44540 (Jul. 27, 2015). The commenter also alleged that proposed paragraph (a)(3) conflicted with proposed
Another commenter argued that proposed § 800.42(a)(3) improperly prohibited any bond release if the permittee incurs a long-term discharge treatment obligation. According to the commenter, this absolute prohibition fails to recognize the possibility that more than sufficient bond may be in place on a large mine site with a minimal impact discharge that requires long-term treatment. Final paragraph (a)(3) includes a provision that takes this possibility into account. Final paragraph (a)(3) also applies only to discharges for which the permittee is responsible. While not our intent, proposed paragraph (a)(3) applied to all discharges in need of long-term treatment, regardless of whether the permittee is responsible for the quality of the discharge. Final paragraph (a)(3) provides that a permittee responsible for a discharge that requires long-term treatment, regardless of whether the discharge emerges either on the permit area or at a point that is hydrologically connected to the permit area, must post a separate financial assurance or collateral or surety bond under final § 800.18 before any portion of the existing performance bond for the permit area may be released, unless the type and amount of bond remaining after the release would be adequate to meet the requirements of section 800.18 as well as any remaining land reclamation obligations. We added the reference to the type of bond remaining after the release because final § 800.18 does not allow the use of a self-bond to guarantee long-term treatment of a discharge. Therefore, if the type of bond remaining after the release is a self-bond, final paragraph (a)(3) requires that the permittee replace the self-bond with a financial assurance, collateral bond, or surety bond to provide coverage for long-term treatment.
Proposed paragraph (a)(4) provided that, if the permit area or increment includes a steep-slope variance from restoration of the approximate original contour under § 785.16, the portion of the performance bond described in § 785.16(a)(13) may not be released in whole or in part until the approved postmining land use is implemented or until the site is restored to the approximate original contour and revegetated. However, we did not adopt § 785.16(a)(13) as proposed. Instead, final § 785.16(b)(2) requires that the permit include a condition prohibiting the release of any part of the bond posted for the permit until substantial implementation of the approved postmining land use is underway. The rule specifies that the condition must provide that the prohibition does not apply to any portion of the bond that is in excess of an amount equal to the cost of regrading the site to its approximate original contour and revegetating the regraded land in the event that the approved postmining land use is not implemented. Therefore, we did not adopt the language that we proposed in § 800.42(a)(4) as part of the final rule.
Instead, final § 800.42(a)(4) provides that, if the permit area or increment includes mountaintop removal mining operations under § 785.14 or a variance from restoration of the approximate original contour under section 785.16, the amount of bond that may be released is subject to the limitation specified in § 785.14(c)(2) for mountaintop removal mining operations or the limitation specified in § 785.16(b)(2) for a variance from restoration of the approximate original contour. We inadvertently omitted a reference to § 785.14 in proposed § 800.42(a)(4), an omission that the final rule corrects. Final § 800.42(a)(4) includes a reference to § 785.14(c)(2) because final §§ 785.14(c)(2) (mountaintop removal mining operations) and 785.16(b)(2) (steep slope variances) contain identical restrictions on bond release, which should be reflected in final § 800.42 for consistency. The rationale for applying final § 800.42(a)(4) to mountaintop removal mining operations is the same as the rationale provided in the preamble to the proposed rule for applying that provision to steep-slope variances.
One commenter observed that proposed paragraph (a)(4) would be especially onerous because reestablishing approximate original contour on a site that was prepared for a postmining land use that requires a different surface configuration would be extremely expensive, much more so than restoration of approximate original contour in the normal course of contemporaneous reclamation. We acknowledge that the cost of restoring a site to approximate original contour after it was originally graded to a different configuration may be high. However, one of SMCRA's fundamental principles is to ensure restoration of the approximate original contour, with limited exceptions.
One commenter suggested that we revise proposed paragraph (a)(4) to allow bond release as soon as implementation of the postmining land use begins. The proposed rule required full implementation of the postmining land use as a precondition to bond release. We agree with the commenter that this approach is too stringent. At the same time, however, we conclude that the approach the commenter recommended is too vague and subject
Proposed § 800.42(a)(5) provides that the bond amount described in § 780.24(d)(2) or § 784.24(d)(2) may not be released either until the structure is in use as part of the postmining land use or until the structure is removed and the site upon which it was located is reclaimed in accordance with part 816 or part 817. Sections 780.24(d)(2) and 784.24(d)(2) require that the bond posted for a permit include an amount sufficient to cover the cost of removing mining-related structures (other than roads and impoundments) and reclaiming the land upon which the structures were located to a condition capable of supporting the premining uses, even when the regulatory authority has approved retention of the structure as part of the postmining land use. Otherwise, the risk is too great that the structure will never be used for the postmining land use, that it will deteriorate and become an attractive nuisance, and that no funds will be available for demolition and removal, as we explain the preamble to the proposed rule.
One commenter argued that the final rule must provide additional flexibility for unique property use situations;
We did not revise proposed paragraph (a)(5) in response to these comments because final paragraph (a)(5) does not prohibit bond release in situations in which the structure is only partially in use by the time the remainder of the site is ready for final bond release. Partial use signifies a reasonable probability of future full utilization. We do not agree with the commenter that we should allow retention of the structure if the structure remains unused for financial or economic reasons. Those are prime examples of situations in which structures should not be retained because there is no reasonable certainty of future use. We also do not agree with the comment that final paragraph (a)(5) would violate landowner rights. The structure was built for mining purposes by the mining company. Therefore, the mining company is in a position to structure any agreements with the landowner concerning future use in a manner that takes the requirements of this rule into account.
Proposed paragraph (b) contained the criteria for Phase I bond release. One commenter objected to our proposed addition of language specifying that restoration of the form of perennial and intermittent stream segments that the permittee mines through is part of Phase I reclamation, which consists of backfilling, grading, and establishment of drainage control. According to the commenter, this language unlawfully amends section 519(c)(1) of SMCRA,
We do not agree with the commenter's rationale. First, restoration of the form of perennial and intermittent streams that the operation mines through is a part of regrading and establishment of drainage control. Second, nothing in section 519 of SMCRA overrides the requirement in section 509(a) of SMCRA
We are adopting paragraph (b) as proposed, with minor editorial changes and the two revisions discussed in this paragraph. We improved the clarity of final paragraph (b)(1) by specifying that Phase I reclamation includes construction of the postmining drainage pattern and stream-channel configuration required by §§ 816.56(b), 816.57(c)(1), 817.56(b), and 817.57(c)(1). This addition is consistent with the description of Phase I reclamation in section 519(c)(1) of SMCRA, which provides that Phase I reclamation consists of “backfilling, regrading, and drainage control.” Construction of the postmining drainage pattern and stream-channel configuration is part of both regrading and drainage control. In addition, final paragraph (b)(2) specifies that the regulatory authority must retain sufficient funds after Phase I bond release to cover restoration of both the hydrologic function and ecological function of perennial and intermittent streams, not just ecological function as in proposed paragraph (b)(2). The addition of hydrologic function is responsive to our revision of proposed paragraph (c) to classify restoration of hydrologic function as part of Phase II reclamation.
Section 800.42(c) establishes criteria for Phase II bond release. Final paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) differ from proposed paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) in several respects, apart from assorted minor editorial revisions. First, final paragraph (c)(1)(i) specifies that redistribution of organic materials is a part of Phase II reclamation, consistent with final § 816.22(f), which requires salvage and redistribution or reuse of most organic materials. Second, final paragraph (c)(1)(ii) provides that Phase II reclamation includes restoration of the hydrologic function of perennial and intermittent streams that the permittee mines through. This revision resolves an ambiguity in the proposed rule, which never specified whether restoration of hydrologic function was a part of restoration of the form of the stream or part of restoration of the ecological function of the stream. Restoration of hydrologic function is not properly classified as a part of Phase I reclamation because it is not necessarily a part of backfilling, regrading, or drainage control. Nor is it properly classified as part of the restoration of the ecological function of a stream because restoration of the hydrologic function is a prerequisite for restoration of the ecological function. Therefore, we
Final paragraphs (c)(3) through (5) contain only minor editorial revisions from their counterparts in the proposed rule. The principal revision is the clarification that final paragraph (c)(4) applies only to prime farmland historically used for cropland. This restriction is consistent with § 785.17(a) of our existing rules.
In the preamble to proposed § 800.42(c), we invited comment on whether we should provide national standards for establishment of vegetation for the purposes of Phase II bond release or whether establishment of standards for this purpose is best left to the regulatory authority, based on local conditions.
We decided to retain the current arrangement in which there are no national standards. Regulatory authorities have established these standards as part of their approved regulatory programs in the past and they will continue to do so. These standards apply only for purposes of determining when revegetation has been successfully established for purposes of Phase II bond release. They differ from the revegetation success standards to which §§ 816.116 and 817.116 apply in that standards developed in compliance with §§ 816.116 and 817.116 include the revegetation responsibility period specified in §§ 816.115 and 817.115 and determine, in part, when the regulatory authority may approve Phase III bond release. The regulatory authority has the discretion to apply identical standards to both Phase II and III bond release, but doing so would have the effect of creating little distinction between Phase II and III bond release. Elimination of this distinction would be inappropriate for a national rule because section 519(c)(2) clearly contemplates a distinction between “successful reclamation” for purposes of Phase II bond release and completion of the revegetation responsibility period. The only exception is prime farmland historically used for cropland, in which case, section 519(c)(2) of SMCRA
Section 800.42(d) establishes criteria for Phase III bond release. Under final § 700.11(d)(2), Phase III bond release equates to termination of jurisdiction under SMCRA. We are adopting § 800.42(d) as proposed, with minor editorial changes to improve clarity and correct cross-references. We received few comments on proposed paragraph (d). One commenter observed that demonstrating full restoration of the ecological function of a stream segment is difficult to quantify for purposes of Phase III bond release because no clear standards exist. Sections 780.28(g) and 784.28(g) of this final rule require that the regulatory authority establish standards for determining when the ecological function of a perennial or intermittent stream has been restored. The commenter also asked what science or management tools exists to define restoration of ecological function. Sections 780.28(g)(3) and 784.28(g)(3) of this final rule identify, and require use of, the best technology currently available for this purpose. Finally, the commenter inquired as to how this requirement would apply to ephemeral streams. The answer is that this requirement applies only to perennial and intermittent streams that the permittee mines through. It does not apply to ephemeral streams.
Another commenter complained that the proposed rule is not clear regarding the consideration of pre-existing impacts in making a bond release determination. The commenter requested that the final rule clarify that the permittee will not be responsible for pre-existing impacts. The commenter also asserted that we should convene a group of bonding experts and state agencies to discuss the issue of pre-existing conditions and how to best address it during the bond release process. The commenter did not identify any pre-existing impacts or explain what the term means. However, under SMCRA, the permittee is responsible only for impacts resulting from the mining operation. Therefore, we do not see a need to convene a group of experts to discuss this topic.
We are adopting § 800.43 as proposed, with minor editorial and organizational changes to improve clarity. We received no comments on this section.
We are adopting § 800.44 as proposed, with minor editorial changes to improve clarity. We received no comments on this section.
We are adopting § 800.50 as proposed with the exception of two revisions resulting from comments that we received on proposed § 800.18(b). We received no comments specific to § 800.50.
In response to the comments that we received on proposed § 800.18(b), as discussed in the preamble to § 800.18(b), we revised § 800.50(a)(1) to clarify that, if the amount of bond to be forfeited is less than the total amount of bond posted, the amount forfeited must be no less than the estimated total cost of achieving the reclamation plan requirements. We also revised § 800.50(a)(1) to specify that the regulatory authority must calculate the estimated total cost of achieving the reclamation plan requirements for long-term treatment of a discharge in a manner consistent with final § 800.18(c).
We are adopting § 800.60 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
We are adopting § 800.70 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
With the exception of altering the title of this section for clarity, we are finalizing § 816.1 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
We are finalizing § 816.2 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
Section 816.10 pertains to compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act, 44 U.S.C. 3501,
We are finalizing § 816.11 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
We are finalizing § 816.13 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
As discussed in the preamble to the proposed rule,
Many comments on proposed § 816.22 also cited or apply to the closely related provisions of proposed § 780.12(e), so we are including some discussion of those provisions here. Proposed § 780.12(e)(1)(i) required that the permit application include a plan and schedule for removal, storage, and redistribution of topsoil, subsoil, and other material to be used as a final growing medium in accordance with § 816.22. Proposed § 780.12(e)(1)(ii) specified that the permit application must include a plan requiring that the B horizon, C horizon, and other underlying strata, or portions thereof, be removed and segregated, stockpiled, and redistributed to achieve the optimal rooting depths required to restore premining land use capability or to comply with the revegetation requirements of §§ 816.111 and 816.116.
Proposed § 816.22(a)(1) required that the permittee separately remove and salvage all topsoil and other soil materials identified for salvage and use as postmining plant growth media in the soil handling plan approved in the permit under § 780.12(e).
Some commenters claimed that there is no scientific support for the proposition that the recovery and redistribution of all topsoil and subsoil is necessary to achieve reclamation success in all situations. Another commenter alleged that some western soils do not contain multiple soil horizons. According to the commenter, topsoil is typically stripped as one layer down to unsuitable materials (bedrock or unsuitable soils, likely the C horizon). The commenter objected to the requirement to salvage and redistribute soil horizons separately because it would slow topsoil placement and complicate direct placement. The commenter urged us to revise the proposed rule to allow mixing of soil horizons. The commenter also argued that requiring additional segregation of horizons would increase costs, delay reclamation, and hinder long-term success because of increased handling and equipment traffic.
One commenter opposed the proposed requirement to salvage and redistribute all existing topsoil as scientifically and practically unsupported. According to the commenter, salvage and redistribution of topsoil in some areas, such as western North Dakota, would result in construction of a postmining soil that inhibits growth of many types of plants because of the high levels of sodium and other salts in that topsoil.
Another commenter expressed disappointment at the lack of a defined limit to the depths of soil horizons that the permittee must salvage and redistribute to construct a plant growth medium. The commenter explained that, in some regions, the proposed rule would require salvage and redistribution of soil to a greater depth than the previous rule allegedly required. According to the commenter, adoption of the proposed rule could lead to the need to stockpile substantially larger volumes of soil, which would involve added cost, both because of the increased volume of soil materials and because of the requirement to segregate the soil materials by horizon. The commenter noted that, in the Midwest, loess and drift soils can be more than 10 feet thick. The commenter questioned the benefit of salvaging that depth of soil. The commenter suggested that the rule should require the salvage and redistribution of additional topsoil and the B and C horizons only in those regions or states in which greater soil depth is required to establish a suitable plant growth medium.
The commenter further alleged that the rule may pose a problem for mining operations in the Southwest, because topsoil can be less than six inches thick. According to the commenter, the rule should allow the use of a topsoil-subsoil mixture in this situation.
We have made limited revisions to the proposed rule in response to these comments and other related comments on § 780.12(e). Final § 816.22(a)(1)(i), which we proposed as the first sentence of § 816.22(a)(1), no longer requires that soil horizons be separately removed and salvaged. Instead, we have added § 816.22(a)(1)(ii), which provides that the soil handling plan approved in the permit under § 780.12(e) will specify which soil horizons the permittee must separately remove and salvage. It also requires that the plan specify whether some or all of those soil horizons or other soil substitute materials may or must be blended to achieve an improved plant growth medium. The net effect is that the final rule allows for some flexibility in the removal, salvage, and use of topsoil and other soil materials, although it primarily relies upon the requirements for approval of soil substitutes and supplements in § 780.12(e)(2) in determining whether to allow the use of substitutes for existing soil horizons.
We also revised the second sentence of proposed § 816.22(a)(1), which is now final § 816.22(a)(1)(iii). We added an introductory phrase specifying that the requirement to complete removal and salvage of all soil materials before any drilling, blasting, mining, or other surface disturbance takes place in the area that is to be disturbed may be waived in the soil handling plan approved in the permit under final rule § 780.12(e). This change acknowledges the fact that in some cases where soil substitutes are approved for use in place
In addition, as discussed in the preamble to § 780.12(e), we have revised the proposed requirements for soil handling plans in permit applications. Final § 780.12(e)(1)(ii) differs slightly from the proposed in that the final rule requires separate removal, stockpiling (if necessary), and redistribution of the B and C soil horizons and other underlying strata only “to the extent and in the manner needed” to achieve the optimal rooting depths required to restore premining land use capability and to comply with revegetation requirements. It does not require salvage and redistribution of “all” of those soil horizons and overburden strata.
New final § 780.12(e)(1)(iii) provides that the plan need not require salvage of soil horizons that the permittee demonstrates, to the satisfaction of the regulatory authority, are inferior to other soil horizons or overburden materials as a plant growth medium, provided that the permittee complies with the soil substitute requirements of paragraph (e)(2). We added this language in response to comments objecting to the proposed requirement for salvage, segregation, and redistribution of soil horizons when one or more of those horizons have physical or chemical characteristics that make them inferior to other overburden materials in creating a medium conducive to plant growth. We made this change in response to comments urging us to allow blending of soil horizons when experience has demonstrated that doing so results in a superior growing medium.
In response to comments supporting the blending of soil horizons, we added § 780.12(e)(1)(iv), which allows blending of the B horizon, C horizon, and underlying strata, or portions thereof, to the extent that research or prior experience under similar conditions has demonstrated that blending will not adversely affect soil productivity. In other words, blending of subsoil horizons does not require approval in accordance with the soil substitute and supplement requirements of paragraph (e)(2). However, any proposal to blend topsoil with other soil horizons must be approved as a topsoil substitute or supplement under paragraph (e)(2). We find that topsoil merits extra consideration because, in most areas, topsoil is uniquely valuable as a plant growth medium, with a structure and ecology that is difficult to restore or replicate.
Several commenters objected to the application of these requirements nationwide because, according to the commenters, salvage and redistribution of soil materials other than topsoil is only necessary to address conditions found in the Appalachian Region. One commenter alleged that the preamble to the proposed rule provided no rationale for the nationwide application of the rule except a research report from Appalachia and a guide to the reclamation of borrow sites used for transportation facilities in Alberta, Canada. According to the commenter, these two documents clearly do not represent the vast majority of mined and reclaimed lands throughout the United States. The commenter further alleges that the preamble fails to evaluate or discuss the postmining productivity of reclaimed lands on the tens of thousands of acres of mined and reclaimed land outside Appalachia where no subsoil has been salvaged.
We do not agree with these comments. A suitable growth medium, including an adequate root zone, is essential to establishing successful vegetation and demonstrating restoration of premining land use capability in every region. In those relatively rare cases in which restoration of a particular ecological community requires a shallow root zone or other specialized soil condition, § 816.22(e)(1)(v) authorizes variations in the depth of soil redistribution. See 71 FR 51684-51688 (Aug. 30, 2006) for an extensive discussion of this topic. Otherwise, as explained in the preamble to our proposed rule, scientific studies have determined that an adequate root zone is critical to plant growth and survival, and that topsoil alone typically does not provide an adequate root zone. See 80 FR 44436, 44488-44489 (Jul. 27, 2015). These studies, which are not limited to Appalachia, document that salvage and redistribution of topsoil alone will not necessarily restore the mine site to a condition in which it is capable of supporting the uses that it was capable of supporting before any mining, as required by section 515(b)(2) of SMCRA,
The Alberta publication to which the commenter refers contains a particularly cogent explanation of the importance of subsoil and an adequate root zone. We summarized that explanation in the preamble to the proposed rule, but it bears repeating here:
Plant roots extend through the topsoil into the subsoil (root zone), which provides a substantial proportion of the plant's nutrient requirements. For example, field studies have shown that between 45 percent and 65 percent of nitrogen available to plants from the soil lies below a depth of 6 inches. During dry summer weather, many plants, especially deep-rooted plants like alfalfa and most trees, depend for their survival on moisture available in the subsoil. Alfalfa extracts 55 percent of its moisture requirements from soil materials deeper than one foot and is capable of extracting water from subsoil up to 6 feet in depth. Even medium-rooted crops like wheat and corn extract up to 40 percent of their moisture requirements from soil materials deeper than one foot. Finally, many plants depend on root penetration well into the subsoil for physical support, especially where topsoil is thin. If plant roots are unable to penetrate deeply into a reclaimed subsoil, soil capability for plant growth will be degraded.
Finally, the commenter did not provide references to studies on the postmining productivity of reclaimed lands outside Appalachia where no subsoil has been salvaged, and we are not aware of studies or data on this topic.
One commenter recommended that we revise proposed § 816.22(a)(1), which is now final § 816.22(a)(1)(iii), by removing the reference to drilling. According to the commenter, drilling may be necessary to install power poles and fence posts, the installation of which paragraph (a)(2)(i) exempts from soil salvage and removal requirements. We accepted this recommendation and made other revisions to the proposed rule to ensure consistency with final § 780.12(e) and other provisions of final § 816.22. Final paragraph (a)(1)(iii) now provides that, except as provided in the soil handling plan approved in the permit under § 780.12(e), the permittee must complete removal and salvage of topsoil, subsoil, and organic matter before any mining-related surface disturbance takes place on that area, other than the minor disturbances identified in paragraph (a)(2).
One commenter requested that we revise proposed paragraph (a)(2)(i) by
In addition, we restructured proposed paragraph (a)(2) to automatically exempt minor disturbances that meet the criteria of either paragraph (a)(2)(i) or paragraph (a)(2)(ii) from soil salvage requirements unless the regulatory authority specifies otherwise. Proposed paragraph (a)(2), like the previous rules, required affirmative regulatory authority approval as a prerequisite for exemption from the soil salvage requirements. This change will reduce burdens on both the permittee and the regulatory authority without any danger of environmental harm. Only very minor soil losses will occur from the construction of small structures like power poles, fence lines, signs, or monitoring wells under paragraph (a)(2)(i), while there will no soil loss at all under paragraph (a)(2)(ii), which applies only to activities that will not destroy the existing vegetation and will not cause erosion.
We revised proposed paragraph (b)(1) for clarity and consistency with other provisions of this section and § 780.12(e) concerning segregation of soil materials. Final paragraph (b)(1) now includes a new first sentence requiring that the permittee segregate and separately handle the materials removed under paragraph (a) to the extent required in the soil handling plan approved in the permit pursuant to § 780.12(e). Proposed paragraph (b)(1) required segregation of all soil materials, but final §§ 780.12(e) and 816.22 provide exceptions to that requirement under certain circumstances.
We received a number of comments on the provision in proposed paragraph (b)(2)(iii) requiring that stockpiled material “[b]e protected from wind and water erosion through prompt establishment and maintenance of an effective, quick-growing, non-invasive vegetative cover or through other measures approved by the regulatory authority.” One commenter alleged that many non-native, non-invasive plants can do a better job of protecting the stockpiles than native vegetation and suggested that we allow their use. Other commenters argued that it will be impossible to keep common non-native plants from colonizing the stockpiles. Another commenter noted that it may be impossible to keep stockpiles free of non-invasive species because stockpiles are often configured in a way that makes mowing, a common method of controlling non-invasive species, impractical.
We did not revise the proposed rule in response to these comments because we find that the rule already accommodates the commenters' concerns. When the permittee selects the vegetative cover method of controlling erosion, final paragraph (b)(2)(iii) requires the use of a “non-invasive vegetative cover,” which could include non-native plants that are non-invasive. Nothing in this paragraph would prohibit or require the control or eradication of volunteer non-native, non-invasive species that colonize the stockpiles. Finally, mowing is not the only means of controlling invasive species, nor is it necessarily the most effective. The permittee has the flexibility to implement other accepted control techniques when mowing is not practical. Finally, in the event that it is difficult or impossible to establish and maintain an effective, quick-growing, non-invasive vegetative cover, final paragraph (b)(2)(iii) allows the regulatory authority to approve the use of other measures to protect the stockpiles from wind and water erosion.
Paragraph (c) specifies that, if the soil handling plan approved in the permit in accordance with § 780.12(e) provides for the use of topsoil or subsoil substitutes or supplements, the permittee must salvage, store, and redistribute the overburden materials selected and approved for that purpose in a manner consistent with paragraphs (a), (b), and (e) of § 816.22. We discuss all comments received on the use of soil substitutes and supplements in the preamble to § 780.12(e).
We did not adopt proposed paragraph (d)(1) because that paragraph pertained to backfilling and grading of spoil, which is the subject of § 816.102, not to the subject of § 816.22, which, in this context, is the placement and grading of soil materials. We adopted a revised version of proposed paragraph (d)(2) as final paragraph (d). In response to a comment, we added a reference to deep tillage as a method of alleviating compaction and preventing slippage between the spoil and the soil. We also replaced the reference to “topsoil” with a reference to “soil materials” in order to be consistent with the revisions to other provisions of this section that require the salvage and redistribution of both topsoil and subsoil, not just topsoil. Finally, we made assorted plain language changes and streamlined the rule text.
Final paragraph (e)(1)(ii) differs from proposed paragraph (e)(1)(ii) in that we replaced the word “contours” with the phrase “final surface configuration.” We made this change because the term “contours” could be interpreted as applying only to elevation differences, which is not our intent in this context. The phrase “final surface configuration” refers to the shape of the land surface and the features of that surface. This term is more encompassing, and thus more relevant, to soil redistribution. In addition, because the term “general surface configuration” appears as the core element of the definition of “approximate original contour” in section 701(2) of SMCRA
We revised proposed paragraph (e)(1)(iii) to make that paragraph consistent with § 780.12(d)(2)(ii), which provides that the backfilling and grading plan must “[l]imit compaction of topsoil and soil materials in the root zone to the minimum necessary to achieve stability.” It also requires that the plan “identify measures that will be used to alleviate soil compaction if necessary.” Similarly, final paragraph (e)(1)(iii) requires that the permittee minimize compaction of the topsoil and soil materials in the root zone to the extent possible and alleviate any excess compaction that may occur. It further requires that the permittee limit use of measures that result in increased compaction to those situations in which added compaction is necessary to ensure stability. In response to a
Final paragraph (e)(1)(v) requires redistribution of salvaged soil materials to achieve an approximately uniform and stable thickness when doing so is consistent with the approved postmining land use, the final surface configuration, surface-water drainage systems, and the requirement in § 816.133 that all disturbed areas be restored to conditions that are capable of supporting the uses they were capable of supporting before any mining or higher or better uses approved under final § 780.24(b) . Previous paragraph (d)(1)(i), which final paragraph (e)(1)(v) replaces, required redistribution of topsoil and topsoil substitutes and supplements to achieve an approximate uniform, stable thickness “when consistent with the approved postmining land use, contours, and surface-water drainage systems.” We inadvertently excluded the quoted language from the proposed rule. Final paragraph (e)(1)(v) incorporates the quoted language, with the exception that we replaced “contours” with “the final surface configuration” for the reasons discussed above in connection with final paragraph (e)(1)(ii). As explained in the preamble to the previous rule, the quoted language is intended to “make clear that the uniform soil thickness provision is a function of the approved postmining land use, contours, and surface water drainage systems, and is not, in itself, an inflexible requirement.” See 71 FR 51685 (Aug. 30, 2006).
We further revised the previous and proposed rules by adding language providing that the requirement to redistribute soil materials in a uniform thickness applies only when such redistribution is consistent with the requirement in section 816.133 to restore all disturbed areas to conditions that are capable of supporting the uses they were capable of supporting before any mining or higher or better uses approved under § 780.24(b). This additional proviso harmonizes this rule with our revised land use rules in final §§ 780.24 and 816.133 and with section 515(b)(2) of SMCRA, all of which require that the permittee restore mined land to a condition capable of supporting the uses that it was capable of supporting before any mining or higher or better uses of which there is reasonable likelihood. Soils are a critical element of restoration of land use capability. Without this provision, the requirement for uniform soil thickness would result in an inability to meet the postmining land use capability requirement on portions of the permit area where a reduction in soil thickness compared to premining conditions would result in diminished soil capability or productivity.
Final paragraph (e)(1)(v) also includes a provision allowing soil thicknesses to vary when those variations are necessary or desirable to achieve specific revegetation goals and ecological diversity. This provision is identical to corresponding provisions in both the proposed and previous rules.
One commenter suggested that we expressly provide an additional exception to allow for variability in underlying spoil quality, compatibility with the root zones, and land use. Except as discussed above, we have made no substantive changes to this provision because final paragraph (e)(1)(v) already allows for variations in thickness when such variations are consistent with the postmining land use and when variations are necessary or desirable to achieve specific revegetation goals and ecological diversity.
Final paragraph (e)(2) requires the use of a statistically valid sampling technique to document that soil materials have been redistributed in the locations and depths required by the soil handling plan approved in the permit in accordance with section 780.12(e). In the preamble to the proposed rule,
As in the proposed rule, final paragraph (e)(2) simply requires the use of a statistically valid sampling technique. It does not require use of the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency Data Quality Objectives method. We encourage use of the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency Data Quality Objectives method for the reasons discussed in the preamble to the proposed rule, but the permittee and the regulatory authority have the flexibility to choose another statistically valid technique.
Several commenters opposed proposed paragraph (e)(2) because it required the permittee to use a statistically valid technique to document that soil materials have been redistributed in the locations and depths required by the soil handling plan developed under § 780.12(e) and approved as part of the permit. According to the commenters, a requirement for soil depth mapping using statistically valid techniques is inappropriate because other means are available to verify soil replacement depths, including regulatory authority inspection reports that routinely document soil depths. We disagree with the commenters. Under the final rule, inspection reports are acceptable only if the inspectors use a statistically valid sampling technique and document the data in the reports. Because of the limited numbers of soil types likely to be present within the permit area, we do not anticipate the requirement in final paragraph (e)(2) to be onerous or expensive.
Under the previous rules, permittees almost universally either burned or buried organic matter, which meant that the potential beneficial impacts of those materials on soil productivity were not realized. In addition, burning organic material releases greenhouse gases into the atmosphere. Proposed paragraph (f) required that the permittee salvage duff, other organic litter, and vegetative materials such as tree tops, small logs, and root balls. It also required that the permittee then redistribute those materials across the regraded surface or incorporate them into the soil to control erosion, promote growth of vegetation, serve as a source of native plant seeds and soil inoculants to speed restoration of the soil's ecological community, and increase the moisture retention capability of the soil. Proposed paragraph (f) banned the burying or burning of organic matter. However, as an alternative to redistribution, it allowed use of those materials for stream restoration purposes or to construct fish and wildlife enhancement features.
One commenter argued that topsoil and organic materials are frequently so closely integrated that separating the two into stockpiles and then subsequently distributing them separately is virtually impossible. We agree that segregation of topsoil and
Other commenters expressed concern about introducing weed seeds and root material which would complicate management of the site. One commenter opposed the use of organic materials from non-native species, such as Russian olive and Siberian elm, which may be present in windbreaks and shelterbelts, for stream restoration and fish and wildlife enhancement purposes. The commenter noted that adoption of the proposed rule, which would allow those uses, could spread invasive, non-native trees species.
In response to these comments, we reconsidered the impact of the proposed rule on the spread of invasive or noxious species. To reduce the potential impact, we have revised § 779.19(b)(3) to require that permit applicants identify those portions of the proposed permit area that support significant populations of non-native invasive or noxious species. This information will identify areas where the salvage of organic materials should be prohibited to prevent the spread of undesirable species. In concert with that requirement, we have added paragraph (f)(1)(ii) to the final rule. This new paragraph provides that the requirement to salvage organic materials does not apply to organic matter from areas identified under § 779.19(b) as containing significant populations of invasive or noxious non-native species. Final paragraph (f)(1)(ii) further provides that the permittee must bury organic matter from these areas in the backfill at a sufficient depth in order to prevent the regeneration or proliferation of undesirable species.
Numerous commenters opposed the proposed requirement to salvage, store, and redistribute organic materials. Many commenters alleged that this requirement would interfere with the use of mechanized equipment on cropland, land used for hay production, and some forestry plantations. Several commenters alleged that, while this practice may be applicable to reforestation of mined lands in Appalachia, it would definitely be detrimental to reclamation in other parts of the country. One commenter cited the example of the Northern Great Plains, where reclaimed lands are used for row crop and small grain production and where trunks, stumps, and brush from shelterbelts comprised mainly of non-native species planted decades ago are commonly piled and burned or buried to make way for improved crop production. Similarly, according to the commenter, the placement of tree tops, small logs and root balls on intensively grazed pastures on reclaimed land may not be appropriate and will likely be contrary to the private landowner's wishes. The commenter agreed that retention and replacement of the types of organic materials described in the proposed rule may enhance reclamation in many instances, especially in and near reclaimed streams, forests, and wildlife habitat. However, the commenter also asserted that we must recognize that this practice is not appropriate nationwide under all conditions and that it may, in fact, be unacceptable to the private surface owner. Therefore, the commenter recommended qualifying this requirement by requiring salvage and redistribution only “where appropriate to enhance revegetation and fulfill the postmining land use.”
In response to these comments, we moved proposed paragraph (f)(3) to paragraph (f)(2)(ii) in the final rule. We then added a new paragraph (f)(3), which provides that the redistribution requirements for organic matter do not apply to those portions of the permit area identified in paragraphs (f)(3)(i)(A) through (C). Final paragraph (f)(3)(i)(A) creates an exception for those portions of the permit area upon which row crops will be planted as part of the postmining land use before final bond release. Final paragraph (f)(3)(i)(B) creates a similar exception for those portions of the permit area that will be intensively managed for hay production before final bond release. This exception does not extend to pasture land or other grazing land. Finally, as a technical clarification, we added final paragraph (f)(3)(i)(C), which creates an exception for lands upon which structures, roads, other impervious surfaces, or water impoundments have been or will be constructed as part of the postmining land use before final bond release.
We intend for these exceptions to be applied narrowly. Most sites with cropland or hayland postmining land uses have relatively little woody plant material present before mining, so there should be areas on the edge of fields or that are used for non-cropland purposes upon which those woody organic materials can be spread. We anticipate that non-woody organic materials can and would be salvaged and mixed with the topsoil for cropland and hayland in order to improve productivity without hampering the use of agricultural machinery. Therefore, we have added paragraph (f)(3)(ii) to the final rule. That paragraph provides that, when the circumstances described in paragraphs (f)(3)(i)(A) through (C) apply, the permittee must make reasonable efforts to redistribute the salvaged organic materials on other portions of the permit area or use them to construct stream improvement or fish and wildlife habitat enhancement features consistent with the approved postmining land use.
We recognize that there may be circumstances in which it is not reasonably possible to use all available organic materials for these purposes. Therefore, the last sentence of final paragraph (f)(3)(ii) allows the permittee to bury the remaining materials in the backfill, provided the permittee demonstrates, and the regulatory authority finds, that it is not reasonably possible to use all available organic materials. This provision also is responsive to other comments alleging that salvage of all available organic materials could result in a greater amount of material than can be reasonably and practically used. However, final paragraph (f)(4)(i) retains the proposed prohibition on burning of organic materials. Retention of this prohibition is appropriate because burial is a viable alternative method of disposal and because burial does not result in the greenhouse gas emissions produced by combustion.
Another commenter contended that the distribution of organic materials would make the use of mechanical tree planters impractical. As a result of this comment, we have added paragraph (f)(2)(iii) to the final rule. That paragraph allows the permittee to adjust the timing and pattern of the redistribution of large woody debris in order to accommodate the use of mechanized tree-planting equipment on sites with a forestry postmining land use.
Some commenters alleged that the requirement to salvage and redistribute organic materials conflicts with section 816.111(d)(2), which allows the use of suitable mulch as one method of stabilizing the surface and controlling erosion, but which requires that the mulch be free of weeds and noxious plant seeds. With respect to this last comment, we note that §§ 816.22(f) and 816.111(d)(2) serve different purposes. Section 816.111(d)(2) pertains to surface stabilization of newly planted areas. We do not anticipate that the organic materials to which § 816.22 pertains will be either suitable for or used for that purpose. Instead, they would either be mixed with the soil or redistributed on the surface separate from the mulch.
Another commenter argued that long-term storage of tree roots and logs can result in deterioration of those materials, rendering them of limited use. The commenter also alleged that segregating the organic material for storage would be costly and complex, while placement on temporary redistribution areas to prevent deterioration would cause reclamation costs to triple because the material would have to be moved three times. According to the commenter, the need for additional storage sites would result in increased disturbance. The commenter further noted that it is unlikely that this material could be shredded because of the presence of rocks in root balls.
We acknowledge that lengthy storage of organic materials is detrimental to their value as a source of seeds, mycorrhizae, fungi, and other forms of life that are important to soil ecology. For that reason, we encourage that an operation be designed so that organic material salvaged from one portion of the permit can be immediately redistributed as part of the reclamation of a different portion of the permit. Such a design would have the added benefit of reducing costs by requiring that the material be handled only once. However, when long-term storage is necessary, the stored materials would still be valuable as a soil additive in the form of compost or rotted organic matter that would improve the tilth of the soil. The final rule does not prescribe a storage method, so the permittee would not be required to use the most expensive method available.
Several commenters alleged that the removal, storage, and redistribution of organic matter would be very costly and argued that implementation of these measures is unnecessary to reconstruct productive postmining soil. Some commenters contended that reference to our Forest Reclamation Advisory No. 8,
We do not agree with the commenters that Forest Reclamation Advisory No. 8 serves as sound guidance only for unique situations in which extreme measures are necessary. The Advisory documents the importance of organic materials and native soils in supporting reforestation and forestry postmining land uses. However, we recognize that it will not apply in all situations nationwide. Therefore, our reference in the preamble to the proposed rule to the practices set out in the Forest Reclamation Advisory No. 8 should not be interpreted as a mandate to implement those practices in situations where it would be inappropriate to do so, as set forth in paragraphs (f)(3)(i)(A) through (C) of the final rule.
Several commenters asserted that the storage and redistribution of undecomposed organic material will hinder plant growth because bacteria responsible for decomposition often rob the soil of nutrients essential to plant growth. We agree with the commenter that, initially, the carbon-to-nitrogen ratio will rise, making less nitrogen available to plants. However, this rise is only temporary. Ultimately, the carbon-to-nitrogen ratio will decrease, making more nitrogen available for plant growth.
Some commenters also asserted that salvage, storage, and redistribution of organic materials will require the use of new equipment, which will result in additional mining costs. While permittees may incur some additional handling costs, the equipment needed for these operations is readily available to the industry and should not result in any significant additional cost. The environmental benefits of salvaging and redistributing organic matter should outweigh any added operational cost.
One commenter noted that well-documented research has shown that appropriate equipment and reduced soil handling is critical to long-term reclamation success on mine sites. Several commenters alleged that the requirements for salvage and redistribution of organic matter will result in additional handling of soil materials and more equipment traffic over re-soiled sites, which could result in greater soil compaction. While increased soil compaction may be a possibility if redistribution occurs while soils are wet, the permittee can avoid excessive compaction by choosing to use proper equipment and by timing redistribution to avoid equipment traffic over wet soils. This approach will allow the site to both benefit from redistribution of the organic matter and avoid adverse impacts associated with excessive compaction.
As discussed in the preamble to the proposed rule, we proposed to add new § 816.34 to incorporate, consolidate, and reorganize portions of previous § 816.41, previously entitled, “Hydrologic-balance protection.”
One commenter questioned the use of the phrase “best technology currently available” as proposed in paragraphs (a)(8) and (a)(10) and suggested that we change this phrase to “best management practices.” The commenter asserted that at most mining operations the implementation of “best management practices,” such as minimizing the disturbed area, specially handling and placing acid and toxic materials, and ensuring timely revegetation, are sufficient to prevent the formation of acid and toxic drainage. We agree with the commenter and have replaced the term “best technology currently available” with the term “best management practices” for several reasons. First, the actions described above often require the use of earth moving equipment, and the term “best management practice” is typically used by those in the profession of backfilling and grading. Secondly, upon further review of these paragraphs, we have determined that this change will help eliminate confusion. The term “best technology currently available” is used
We also made additional changes to paragraphs (a)(8) and (a)(10) in response to this comment. Paragraph (a)(8) now states, “The regulatory authority will determine the meaning of the term “best management practices” on a site-specific basis. At a minimum, the term includes equipment, devices, systems, methods, and techniques that are currently available anywhere, as determined by the Director determines to be best management practices.” Paragraph (a)(10) requires the permittee to “[p]rotect the surface-water quality by using best management practices, as described in paragraph (a)(8) of this section to handle earth materials, ground water discharges, and runoff . . . .”
These additions provide the regulatory authorities with discretion to determine the meaning of the term “best management practices” on a site-specific basis. This is important because methods for groundwater and surface water protection may vary by region. Consequently, the best management practices should be determined by the regulatory authorities. We have provided some guidance to help regulatory authorities in making this determination. At a minimum, the term includes equipment, devices, systems, methods and techniques that are currently available anywhere, even if they are not widely utilized.
A regulatory authority commenter expressed concern with the requirement at paragraph (a)(10)(i) that runoff be handled in a manner to “avoid the formation” of acid or toxic mine drainage. We agree with the commenter. Recognizing that the formation of acid or toxic mine drainage cannot be wholly avoided, we have revised the final rule to be clear that surface water quality must be protected in a manner that “prevents postmining discharges of acid or toxic mine drainage.” This revision more appropriately conforms to section 515(b)(10)(A) of SMCRA
We have modified paragraph (a)(10)(ii) by adding the term “best technology currently available” to clarify that the operator should prevent contributions of suspended solids to surface stream flow using “best technology currently available” instead of “best management practices.” We made this change to be consistent with the language of SMCRA at section 515(b)(10)(B)(i).
One commenter opined that the previous regulations were sufficient and proposed paragraph (a)(11) is unnecessary. We added this paragraph for informational purposes. It helps the regulated community locate other provisions in our regulations that protect surface-water quality and flow rates and reminds them of their obligations under those provisions. We are retaining it in the final rule because it provides a service in this regard to both to the regulated community and the public.
Paragraph (b)(1) requires that to the maximum extent practicable, operators must use mining and reclamation practices that minimize water pollution, changes in flow, and adverse impacts on stream biota rather than relying upon water treatment. We received many comments in support of this modification. However, one commenter questioned our authority to make this change. Section 515(b)(24) of SMCRA provides the authority to minimize disturbances and adverse impacts on fish, wildlife, and related environmental values, such as protecting the hydrologic balance.
Another commenter suggested that we revise “maximum extent practicable” to allow for greater permitting flexibility; however, the commenter did not explain why additional flexibility was necessary. Additional flexibility would weaken this requirement, making it more difficult to enforce mining and reclamation practices that minimize water pollution, changes in flow, and adverse impacts to stream biota. We have not accepted the suggestion and are adopting paragraph (b)(1) as proposed.
Final paragraph (d) establishes examination and reporting requirements for the surface runoff control structures identified in the surface water runoff control plan approved in the permit under section 780.29. To be consistent with final section 780.29, we modified proposed paragraphs (d)(1) and (d)(2), by changing the term “hydraulic structures” to “runoff-control structures.” Runoff control structures are any man-made structures designed to control or convey stormwater runoff on or across a mine site. As discussed in the preamble to § 780.29, this term encompasses the entire surface water control system and includes diversion ditches, drainage benches or terraces, drop structures or check dams, all types of conveyance channels, downdrains, and sedimentation and detention ponds and associated outlets. It does not include swales or reconstructed perennial, intermittent, or ephemeral stream channels.
Proposed paragraph (d)(1) required that after each occurrence of certain precipitation events, the permittee must examine the structures identified under § 780.29, and submit a report certified by a registered, professional engineer to the regulatory authority within 48 hours. Several commenters indicated that it might not be possible to inspect all structures and report upon the conditions within 48 hours because of the number of applicable structures or because of the difficulty in achieving access if the precipitation event created deteriorated site conditions. In consideration of these comments, we have modified paragraph (d)(1) to require the operator to examine all structures identified under § 780.29, within 72 hours of cessation of each occurrence of certain precipitation events.
Proposed paragraph (d)(1)(i) required the examination of runoff control structures after each occurrence of the 2-year recurrence interval, or greater flow event, in areas with an average annual precipitation of more than 26.0 inches. In the preamble to the proposed rule, we invited comment on whether a precipitation event with a 2-year recurrence interval is an appropriate threshold for requiring examination of sediment control systems in mesic regions or whether we should allow variations based upon differences in terrain, storm frequency, the nature of sedimentation control structures, and the frequency with which discharges from sedimentation control structures
One regulatory authority commenter stated that it currently receives reports of significant precipitation events when there is a discharge or failure at a runoff control structure. Waiting until there has been a discharge or failure does not satisfy our intent in promulgating paragraph (d)(1). The final rule seeks to prevent discharges or failures that could harm the public, environment, or private property by specifying the threshold at which a precipitation event rises to the level of significance and the time when the mine operator must take action. Consequently, we have retained paragraph (d)(1)(i) as proposed.
In areas with an average annual precipitation of 26.0 inches or less, paragraph (d)(1)(ii) requires an examination after a significant flow event of a size specified by the regulatory authority. We invited comment on whether we should establish more specific criteria for examination of runoff control structures in arid and semiarid regions.
Proposed paragraph (d)(2) required that within 48 hours of cessation of certain precipitation events, a report certified by a registered, professional engineer, must be submitted to the regulatory authority. One commenter noted that all precipitation events are reported on a monthly basis and are addressed by the field inspector as needed. Another commenter suggested that if a reporting requirement is retained, a more reasonable reporting requirement would be 14 days. We agree with commenters that although it is important to perform the inspection as soon as possible (but not longer than within the allotted 72 hours), it is not critical that the report be submitted immediately. Therefore, in consideration of these comments, we modified paragraph (d)(2)(i) to require that a report be submitted by the operator to the regulatory authority within 30 days of cessation of the applicable precipitation event.
To account for situations where a series of precipitation events occur in a short timeframe, we have added paragraph (d)(2)(ii) to allow the submission of one report to cover all precipitation events that occur within a 30-day period.
In response to proposed paragraph (d)(2), one commenter suggested that if the reporting requirement is retained as proposed, a professional engineer certification should not be required because an inspection by any qualified person should be sufficient. We disagree. For the same reasons discussed in the preamble of section 780.25, the examination report addressing the performance of the runoff control structures should be certified by a registered, professional engineer because it affords a strict level of accountability. This increased accountability is necessary given the hazard potential in the event of failure and it is imperative that these structures be in sound condition at the time the certification is made.
As discussed in the preamble to the proposed rule, we proposed to modify groundwater monitoring requirements for surface mining.
Numerous commenters expressed concern with proposed paragraph (a)(2). This proposed paragraph required groundwater monitoring throughout mining and reclamation until final bond release. Several regulatory authority commenters questioned the feasibility of the proposed monitoring requirements because proposed § 800.42(d) required that, among other requirements, monitoring wells be removed before an applicant can apply for final bond release.
The requirements for closing monitoring wells are found in § 816.39, which require a permittee to permanently seal exploratory and monitoring wells in a safe and environmentally sound manner in accordance with § 816.13 before the regulatory authority may approve final bond release. Commenters are correct that it would be impossible to continue groundwater monitoring until final bond release while simultaneously closing monitoring wells. Therefore, we have modified final paragraph (a)(2) to require that groundwater monitoring, at a minimum, must continue through mining, reclamation, and the revegetation responsibility period as prescribed by 816.115 of this part. Additionally, monitoring must continue beyond the minimum time frame, as necessary, for the monitoring results to meet the criteria required in 816.35(d)(1) and (2), as determined by the regulatory authority. These modifications ensure that groundwater monitoring will continue until the regulatory authority determines that requirements prescribed in this section are satisfied. Permittees may seek revisions to their monitoring plans, in certain circumstances, through the permit revision procedures contained in § 774.13.
We have modified paragraph (d)(2)(iii) to clarify that the permittee must demonstrate that the operation has preserved or restored the biological condition of the stream within the permit and adjacent areas to the biological condition determined during baseline data collection. We made this change to establish that the baseline conditions of the stream serve as the standard for stream preservation or restoration.
In paragraph (d)(2), we have replaced the terms “existing” and “reasonably foreseeable” with “approved postmining land uses within the permit
Several commenters requested that we allow a regulatory authority to discontinue monitoring when the regulatory authority determines it is no longer needed. Similarly, several commenters indicated that paragraph (d) should allow the regulatory authority the discretion to modify monitoring requirements based on the site specific knowledge and experience of the regulatory authority. As discussed above, paragraph (d) allows permittees to request revisions to a groundwater monitoring plan by using the permit revision procedures of § 774.13. The requested revision may include changes to the parameters covered and the sampling frequency. However, our obligation is to ensure that the monitoring requirements are applied consistently and objectively, and recognizing the difficulty in detecting and predicting impacts to groundwater, only permits which have demonstrated the required conditions as stated in paragraph (d) may be revised by a regulatory authority. Allowing monitoring modifications based on such subjective factors as a regulatory authority's experience and/or site knowledge would defeat this obligation.
Commenters stated that paragraph (e), which prescribes when the regulatory authority must require additional groundwater monitoring, should be modified to permit regulatory authorities to use their discretion regarding additional monitoring. Other commenters suggested that paragraph (e) is unnecessary as regulators already possess the inherent authority to require additional monitoring. Two coal organizations noted that additional monitoring is already done in many states and only enforcement of our previous rules is necessary. While we acknowledge that some states require additional monitoring, this is not a universal practice throughout all states and there are no regulations currently in place that require regulatory authorities to uniformly impose additional monitoring. Therefore, we have retained paragraph (e), with no change to the final rule.
Finally, one commenter stated that paragraph (f) does not allow the transfer of wells and may be inconsistent with landowner desires. The commenter is incorrect because our regulations expressly provide for the transfer of wells. Paragraph (f) states that the requirement to install, maintain, operate, and, when no longer needed, remove all equipment, structures, and other devices used in conjunction with monitoring groundwater should be consistent with §§ 816.13 and 816.39. Section 816.13 allows for retention and transfer of a drilled hole or groundwater monitoring well for use as a water well under the conditions set forth in § 816.39. Therefore, we have not modified paragraph (f) of the final rule.
As discussed in the preamble to the proposed rule, we proposed to modify the surface water monitoring requirements.
We made several modifications to paragraph (d), which allows the permittee to use the permit revision procedures section 774.13 to request a modification of the surface-water monitoring requirements, provided that certain demonstrations are made. First, we modified paragraph (d)(2)(iii) to clarify that the operation must demonstrate that it has preserved or restored the biological condition of the stream to the condition determined during baseline data collection. We made this change to make clear the link between baseline conditions and the restoration or preservation standard, and to ensure the regulatory authority considers any baseline changes in advance of modifying the monitoring plan.
Second, we modified paragraph (d)(2)(iv) to remove the phrase “reasonably foreseeable uses.” The final rule no longer includes the term “reasonably foreseeable uses” in contexts other than protection of reasonably foreseeable surface land uses from the adverse impacts of subsidence. We have several rationales for removal of this term. First, the term appears in SMCRA only in section 516(b)(1),
In paragraph (d)(2)(iv), we also added a requirement to demonstrate that the surface water availability and quality are maintained or restored to the extent necessary to support the approved postmining land uses within the permit area. This change was made to ensure that the regulatory authority does not approve a monitoring plan modification that would prevent a determination that the surface water retains the ability to support the postmining land use, as well as any actual uses of the surface water prior to mining. The previous rule at § 816.41(e)(3)(i) required a demonstration that the water quantity and quality are suitable to support approved postmining land uses. Proposed § 816.36(d)(2)(iv) would have replaced this provision with a requirement for a demonstration that the operation has maintained the availability and quality of surface water in a manner that can support existing and reasonably foreseeable uses of the water. However, as explained above, we have now decided not to include the reference to reasonably foreseeable uses in the final rule. Therefore, our rationale for deletion of the requirement in the proposed rule pertaining to postmining land uses, as set forth at 80 FR 44436, 44546-44547 (Jul. 27, 2015), no longer applies and we are retaining that requirement as part of our final rule.
Additionally, we have created two separate paragraphs to help clarify that there are two distinct requirements: One relating to support of the approved postmining land use (paragraph (d)(iv)) and the other relating to maintenance of all designated uses (paragraph (d)(v)). These paragraphs delineate the two related but distinctly different concepts. In paragraph (d)(v) we have added the word “any” before the words “designated uses” to address situations where more than one designated use applies to a stream.
One commenter responded to our solicitation for comments on whether we should place restrictions on the regulatory authority's ability to modify the approved monitoring plan. The commenter asserted that the regulatory authority should be able to modify the parameter list after a permit has been issued because it needs to consider the physical, climatological, and other characteristics of the site when making regulatory decisions on SMCRA sites. The commenter also opined that allowing the regulatory authority the discretion to make permit modifications to the monitoring plan allows the regulatory authority to adopt new testing methods as they become available without having to promulgate a state program regulatory change.
With respect to regulatory authority discretion to modify the monitoring plan, paragraph (d) allows permit revisions that include such modifications as long as the requirements of paragraphs (d)(2)(i) through (vi) are met. This latitude helps the regulatory authorities meet changing conditions in a watershed due to mining and non-mining related changes. To both protect the operator and to delineate the source of water quality changes that may occur in a watershed, we consider it vital to be able to modify the parameter list to ascertain impacts from all sources.
As discussed in the preamble to the proposed rule, we proposed to modify our regulations at § 816.37
Some commenters suggested that the regulatory authority should be granted discretion to modify or terminate monitoring based on site conditions, such as geology, hydrology, anticipated future water use, public need, or other natural resource management considerations. Section 780.23(d) of the final rule makes clear that the regulatory authority may waive or modify the biological condition monitoring plan requirements in two scenarios: (1) When lands are eligible for remining, and (2) for operations that avoid streams. As detailed in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of § 816.37, these exceptions also apply within this section of the final rule.
We are declining to adopt the commenters' suggestion. The exceptions discussed above are the only exceptions that are consistent with the purposes of SMCRA, as described in section 102 of the Act.
Several commenters objected to the requirement at paragraph (a)(2) that the permittee must continue monitoring throughout mining and during reclamation until the regulatory authority release the entire bond amount for the monitored area. Specifically, commenters stated that there is no need to monitor biological
After careful consideration of these comments, we are retaining the final rule as proposed. We have determined that monitoring is important in all phases of mining and reclamation through final bond release, as required by §§ 800.40 through 800.43 of the final rule. Regulatory authorities cannot assess whether ecological function has been restored without biological monitoring. A snapshot sample after reclamation presents an incomplete picture and cannot demonstrate whether or not ecological success has been achieved. Annual, long-term monitoring of all restored perennial and intermittent stream channels is necessary to ensure the restoration of ecological function as required by the final rule. Long-term monitoring is also necessary to determine if the restoration is trending toward success and to give operators time to correct any negative trends before bond release is scheduled. The early identification of negative trends will allow the regulatory authority and the operator to identify and correct any negative trends before they present larger and more significant issues that could delay bond release, increase costs, or result in further corrective actions. In addition, we note that the final rule affords the regulatory authority discretion in determining how to assess restoration of ecological function, and the regulatory authority can use this discretion in considering the establishment of monitoring locations and sampling frequency as noted in § 780.23(c)(2)(ii) and (iii).
Other commenters expressed concern that there is currently insufficient scientific data to determine suitable timing for initiating the required monitoring in reclaimed streams. Still other commenters maintained that biological data are not reliable for determining trends toward reclamation success because biological data is overly influenced by seasonal conditions which render sampling methods imprecise. One commenter recommended that water quality parameters and stream form are valid indicators of the ability of a stream to support the necessary biota long-term.
While we acknowledge the variable nature of biological data, we find that it is necessary and appropriate to use this data to document the restoration of ecological function in perennial and intermittent streams, especially when the data is consistently collected before mining, during mining, and during reclamation, until the regulatory authority releases the entire bond amount for the monitored area under §§ 800.40 through 800.43. Rigorous quality assurance and quality control methods will reduce the imprecision associated with sampling. In addition, the monitoring required in this paragraph is just one part of the water monitoring requirements in this rule. Other parts of the water monitoring requirements, such as the groundwater and surface water monitoring requirements of §§ 816.35 and 816.36, will allow the operator and the regulatory authority to determine, in a timely manner, whether ecological function will be successful. Moreover, sampling of only water quality parameters and or stream form will suffice to determine the success of ecological condition. For these reasons, we have not changed the final rule in response to these comments.
A final commenter objected to paragraph (c), which, if the sample analysis demonstrates noncompliance, requires a permittee to notify the regulatory authority, take any actions required under § 773.17(e), and implement any applicable remedial measures required by the hydrologic reclamation plan. The commenter suggested that these requirements duplicate the reporting requirements of the Clean Water Act and that, as a result, they are burdensome. In the final rule, we have deleted proposed paragraph (c).
As discussed in the preamble,
In final paragraph (a), to ensure that the permittee is taking all appropriate action to prevent the formation of acid or toxic mine drainage, we have specified that the permittee must use the best technology currently available to avoid the creation of acid or toxic mine drainage into surface water or groundwater. We have added nonsubstantive language to paragraph (a) to conform to plain language principles. In addition we require that the permittee comply with the reclamation plan approved in the permit in accordance with § 780.12(n). In addition, we incorporated proposed paragraph (f), about adhering to disposal, treatment, and storage practices, into final paragraph (a) with no changes. In proposed paragraph (e), now paragraph (b), we have replaced the term “biological condition” with “biology” in the final rule to conform to other provisions of the final rule. Specifically, we are no longer assessing the biological condition of all intermittent streams. However, as explained in the preamble discussion of final § 780.19(c)(6), we are requiring the cataloging and monitoring of the biology of those intermittent streams for which a biological condition assessment is not required. The term “biology” is sufficiently broad to encompass both streams for which assessment of the biological condition is required under § 780.19(c)(6) (all perennial streams and certain intermittent streams) and those streams for which assessment of the biological condition is not required.
In the preamble to the proposed rule, we invited comment on whether the
To accommodate renumbering and final rule changes in part 800, we have renumbered references to part 800 in this section. With the exception of this renumbering, we are finalizing § 816.39 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
We proposed to modify our regulations by adding a new § 816.40 to replace water supply definitions and requirements previously located in §§ 701.5, paragraphs (a) and (b) and 816.41(h).
We received one comment requesting that this section apply only to valid water rights existing at the time of permitting. However, this comment is outside the scope of the proposed rule because neither the proposed rule nor the final rule address or determine the validity of water rights. The final rule ensures that if a water right has been adversely impacted, there will be a mechanism to replace the adversely impacted water supply. Consequently, we are not modifying the final rule in response to this comment.
We are the adopting this section of the rule as proposed except for a minor, non-substantive word change in paragraph (a)(3) and a clarifying statement in paragraph (c)(3).
In paragraph (c)(3), we added the following statement to the final rule, “[t]he regulatory authority may grant an extension if you have made a good-faith effort to meet this deadline, but have been able to do so for reason beyond your control.” Although we did not receive any comments on this section, we determined upon further review of the proposed rule that it would be appropriate for the regulatory authority to grant an extension of time to comply with water replacement requirements if the deadline for compliance cannot be met for reasons beyond the control of the operator, despite the operator's good-faith efforts.
As discussed in the preamble to the proposed rule, we proposed to modify and expand previous § 816.41
We have replaced the term “biological condition” with “biology” in paragraph (a)(1)(iii) to conform to other changes within the final rule. Specifically, we are no longer assessing the biological condition of all intermittent streams. However, as explained in the preamble discussion of final rule § 780.19(c)(6), we are requiring the cataloging and monitoring of the biology of intermittent streams.
In addition, we have modified paragraph (a)(2) by replacing “result in” with the “cause or contribute to” to better conform to language used in section 303(c) of the Clean Water Act.
We proposed in paragraph (a)(3)(i) to require a demonstration that the discharge be at a known rate and of a quality that will meet the effluent limitations for pH and total suspended solids referenced in § 817.42. One commenter asserted that this provision appears to usurp the allowance and permit limits that would be approved under a Safe Drinking Water Act Underground Injection Control permit and conflicts with paragraph (b). The commenter's vague assertion that the section “appears to usurp allowance and permit limits” does not provide enough information to fully understand commenter's concern. The commenter recommended that the regulatory jurisdiction of the Safe Drinking Water Act Underground Injection Control program be recognized. We recognize the jurisdiction of the Safe Drinking Water Act and we emphasize again that our regulations do not supersede other federal laws. Paragraph (a)(3)(i) does not “usurp” the allowance and permit limits approved under commenter's Underground Injection Control permit. Rather, the provision implements section 510(b)(3) of the Act
Furthermore, the commenter has not provided a cogent argument as to why it believes that paragraph (3)(i) conflicts with paragraph (b). Paragraph (3)(i) provides for a demonstration that the discharge will be at a known rate and of a quality that will meet the effluent limitations for pH and total suspended solids referenced in § 816.42. Paragraph (b) provides that discharges are limited to the following materials: Water; coal processing waste; fly ash from a coal-fired facility; sludge from an acid-mine-drainage treatment facility; flue-gas desulfurization sludge; inert materials used for stabilizing underground mines; and underground mine development waste. The commenter merely asserts, without explanation or support, that these two provisions conflict and does not provide any information demonstrating how our regulations governing the rate and quality of discharge conflict with our regulations limiting the materials that can be discharged.
We proposed in paragraph (a)(5) to require the permittee to obtain written permission from the owner of the mine into which a discharge is to be made and provide a copy of the authorization to the regulatory authority. A regulatory authority commented that this is a contentious issue in Virginia and has been the subject of recent litigation. This regulatory authority opined that the application of paragraph (a)(5) to existing permits may cause problems. We appreciate the commenter's concern and understand the need to avoid disruptions. In the final rule
This section requires discharges from surface coal mining operations to be in compliance with water quality standards and effluent limitations established in NDPES permits and that any discharges of overburden or fill material must be made in compliance with permits issued pursuant to section 404 of the Clean Water Act. As discussed in the preamble to the proposed rule, we proposed to re-designate and modify previous § 816.42.
Several commenters requested that we modify the final rule to clarify that an operator must comply with the effluent limitations established in the NPDES permit and all other water quality standards. We agree that this distinction is necessary. In response to comments received, and to clarify who will enforce Clean Water Act requirements applicable to discharges associated with surface and underground mining activities, we have added new rule text at § 816.42(a)(1), (a)(2), (b), (c) and (d). These sections are discussed in more detail in the general comments found in Part IV.G., of this preamble. The language added to final rule § 816.42(d) requires the SMCRA regulatory authority to coordinate with the appropriate Clean Water Act authorities to determine whether there have been violations of the Clean Water Act. The SMCRA regulatory authority must take enforcement or other action as appropriate in accordance with the terms of the SMCRA permit. This section does not preclude the SMCRA regulatory authority from performing the statutory obligation to initiate immediate enforcement action when any “permittee is in violation of any requirement of this Act, which condition, practice, or violation also creates an imminent danger to the health or safety of the public, or is causing, or can reasonably be expected to cause significant, imminent environmental harm to land, air or water resources . . . .”
Additionally we have modified paragraph (g) to better track the language of section 303(c) of the Clean Water Act.
As discussed in the preamble to the proposed rule, we proposed to modify our previous regulation at § 816.43.
Additionally, we have added “tribal” to the list of laws and regulations at final paragraph (a)(5)(iv).
Several commenters expressed confusion about the relationship between § 816.43(a) and the provisions of §§ 780.28 and 816.57. Commenters' confusion appears to stem from the fact that “diversion” as it is defined in our existing regulations covers a variety of different types of water conveyance structures. “Diversion” is defined in § 701.5 of the existing regulations as a “channel, embankment, or other manmade structure constructed to divert water from one area to another.” This broad definition includes channels designed to keep water from entering the disturbed area, known as “diversion ditches” within the regulated community. Our definition also includes the internal drainage system conveyances and channels within the disturbed area that act to transport water for sedimentation control and surface water runoff control. Furthermore, still other diversions, including those discussed in §§ 780.28 and 816.57, are streams that have been relocated from their original position to allow for mining. All of these types of diversions may be further subdivided as “permanent diversions” or “temporary diversions.” In final rule § 701.5, we define “temporary diversions” to mean “a channel constructed to convey streamflow or overland flow away from the site of actual or proposed coal exploration or surface coal mining and reclamation operations. The term includes only those channels not approved by the regulatory authority to remain after reclamation as part of the approved postmining land use.”
Because the definition of “diversion” under our regulations includes many types of manmade structures constructed to transport water, we have added paragraphs (a)(1), (2), and (3) to specifically categorize diversions. This should eliminate the confusion expressed by the commenters.
• In final paragraph (a)(1), we prescribe the requirements for diversion ditches. Diversion ditches may be temporary or permanent ditches that convey water not impacted by the mining operation around disturbed areas, bypassing siltation structures.
• In final paragraph (a)(2), we prescribe the requirements for stream diversions. Stream diversions are temporary or permanent stream relocations. Temporary stream diversions may be further characterized consistent with the requirements of § 780.28(f), which sets out specific requirements for temporary stream diversions in place for more than three years.
• In final paragraph (a)(3), we prescribe the requirements for conveyances or channels within the disturbed area. These diversions include all other conveyances, temporarily or permanently constructed, within the disturbed area to convey surface water runoff and other flows from or across disturbed areas to siltation structures during mining. Following mining and reclamation, permanent conveyances and channels that are retained to support the postmining land use will remain, but the siltation structures will be removed as required by the reclamation plan.
As part of the clarification and classification, we have moved proposed paragraph (c) and divided it into two parts: Final paragraph (a)(1) entitled “Diversion Ditches” and final paragraph (a)(3), entitled “Conveyances or Channels within the Disturbed Area.” We did this because the conveyances or channels identified in proposed paragraph (c) included both flows diverted from disturbed areas as well as impacted flows from within the disturbed area. As commenters pointed out, discussing both types of diversions was confusing. In the final rule, by setting out the three categories of diversions in paragraph (a), we clearly distinguish between the various types of diversions based upon their specific functions. As commenters have asserted, it is important for us to make such distinctions so that the regulatory community can confidently identify the standards that apply to each type of diversion.
Several commenters claimed that using the term “diversions” of perennial and intermittent streams in proposed paragraph (b) was confusing because there is an alleged overlap and potential conflict between § 816.43 and proposed §§ 780.28 and 816.57, which prescribe requirements for stream relocations, also known as stream diversions. These commenters advocated removing references to stream relocations from this section. Our response is two-fold. First, the diversion classification system established in our final rule should eliminate the commenters' confusion. Second, there is no need to remove the requirements for stream relocations from this section. Final § 816.43 is broad in scope and sets out specific requirements for the design, location, construction, maintenance, and use of all the various types of diversion, including stream relocations. As discussed above, we identified three categories of diversions, each with two subsets: Temporary or permanent. Many of the requirements in this section apply to all or most of these categories. Therefore, it is logical for us to place these requirements in one section. In contrast, the relevant portions of §§ 780.28 and 816.57 that deal with stream diversions set forth additional permitting and performance standards that apply exclusively to perennial and intermittent streams. Paragraph (a)(2) of § 816.43 specifies that when a permittee diverts perennial and intermittent streams, it must satisfy not only the requirements of this section but also those of §§ 780.28 and 816.57.
Some commenters recommended that we consolidate proposed § 816.57(b)(3) and previous § 816.43(b)(4) which required a qualified professional engineer to certify that the stream diversion has been constructed in accordance with the design approved in the permit and to certify that it meets all the engineering-related requirements of the regulations. The commenters identified proposed § 816.43(b) as an appropriate place to do this. Similarly, another commenter asked for assurance that we require a qualified professional engineer to certify all diversions, especially diversions affecting streams. It is not necessary to incorporate redundant regulations in multiple locations. Because the requirements for engineer certification of diversions apply only to stream diversions, we have retained those requirements in final § 816.57(c)(2). Although we incorporate the requirement by reference in paragraph (a)(2) of final § 816.43, we do not repeat it. We also decline to require the certification of all diversions as one commenter suggested. As discussed more fully in the preamble to final rule § 816.57(c), we intend for the certification of stream diversions to verify that the permittee has re-established the “form” of the stream. Such a certification is essential for stream diversions because restoration of “form” is critical to the return of hydrologic function and ecological function. In contrast, we are not requiring restoration of hydrologic function and ecological function for diversion ditches and conveyances and channels within the disturbed area because these two types of diversions are not intended to serve as a surrogate for an existing intermittent and perennial stream. Rather, they are designed either to divert un-impacted water away from the disturbed area or to capture and transport water through the disturbed area to a siltation structure. Thus, the normal inspection process should adequately verify that diversion ditches and conveyances or channels within the disturbed area have been constructed and maintained as designed. We decline, consequently, to require engineer certification of diversion ditches and internal conveyances and channels.
As part of the classification and explanation of the three types of diversions we have moved and re-designated proposed paragraphs (a)(2) and (a)(7) to final paragraphs (c) and (d), respectively, because these requirements apply to all types of diversions.
Several commenters maintained that the requirements related to design criteria for temporary diversions should not apply to existing or already approved, but not yet constructed, diversions. These commenters asserted that immediate imposition of these requirements will result in numerous permit revisions and will place a tremendous, unnecessary burden upon regulatory authorities, particularly in states that are currently implementing design criteria where no problems have occurred. In the final rule § 701.16, we have clarified that the stream protection rule, with enumerated exceptions, does not apply retroactively to existing or approved permits and permit applications. As discussed elsewhere in this preamble, the applicability criteria adopted in final rule § 701.16 increase regulatory certainty and address commenters' concerns about disruptions and costs for permit applicants and the regulatory authority.
Some commenters recommended that some of the design criteria imposed in
As discussed in the preamble to proposed § 816.43(c),
Several commenters opposed adopting increased design criteria for miscellaneous flows, and no commenters supported the change. We have eliminated references to “miscellaneous flows” in the final rule because this general term is now subsumed by the distinct categories of diversions we defined in paragraph (a) of the final rule. Final paragraph (b) prescribes a single set of design criteria to all three categories with one important distinction. That difference is that the flow capacity for stream diversions includes flow in the flood-prone area, while flow capacity for diversion ditches and conveyances or channels within the disturbed area includes only in-channel flow, with sufficient freeboard to prevent out-of-channel flow. This distinction is necessary because only stream diversions are intended to function as natural streams. We are also adopting separate design criteria standards for temporary and permanent diversions as proposed. Therefore, the design event for all temporary diversions will be the 2-year, 6-hour precipitation event and the design event for all permanent diversions will be a 10-year, 6-hour precipitation event.
We also invited comment on whether the design event for a temporary diversion should be raised from a 10-year, 6-hour precipitation event to a 25-year, 6-hour precipitation event to provide an added margin of safety. Many commenters opposed raising the design event. One commenter opined that a 25-year, 6-hour design event will result in larger channels, additional riprap, and higher costs. Another commenter stated that a typical diversion will result in a wider channel requiring increased cut and fill volumes for construction. The commenter added that it has not experienced any failures or breaches of temporary diversions designed for the 10-year 6-hour event and thus argued that altering the design criteria would not provide any additional environmental protection or benefit. Another commenter asserted that the regulatory authority should retain discretion to increase design standards based on sufficient local or regional data demonstrating the need. Some commenters argued that the increasing unpredictability of precipitation events necessitates a 25-year, 6-hour precipitation design event. However, precipitation events have been, and remain, inherently unpredictable.
After reviewing and considering all the comments we received in response, we have determined that the 10-year, 6-hour precipitation event is a sufficient minimum design criterion. We concur that a 25-year, 6-hour precipitation design event is not necessary to provide a sufficient added margin of safety. The final rule imposes new and more protective design and performance criteria for temporary diversions. Furthermore, sediment control measures within the permit area will may capture additional surface runoff. These additional measures will provide an added margin of safety without raising the design event.
We replaced the term “biological condition” with “biology” in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of the final rule to conform to other changes within the final rule. Specifically, we are no longer assessing the biological condition of all intermittent streams. However, as explained in the preamble discussion of final rule § 780.19(c)(6), we are requiring the cataloging and monitoring of the biology of intermittent streams.
As discussed in the preamble to the proposed rule, we proposed to modify our regulations at § 816.45
Final paragraph (a) requires the use of the best technology currently available in the design, construction, and maintenance of sediment control measures. We have modified proposed paragraph (a)(2) by deleting the phrase “more stringent of” and replaced it with the phrase “the applicable effluent limitations.” This change renders the regulation consistent with paragraph (a) of § 816.42, which requires compliance with applicable water quality standards and effluent limitations.
In final paragraph (b), we listed seven potential sediment control methods. We made a minor word change in the introductory paragraph (b) to remove the phrase “and adjacent to” that could be misinterpreted to apply to undisturbed areas. This change makes it clear that sediment control measures are carried out only on the disturbed areas, unless otherwise provided.
We modified final paragraph (b)(4) by adding “surface” and “from undisturbed areas” to clarify that this paragraph refers only to surface runoff from undisturbed areas. Likewise, we revised paragraph (b)(5) to clarify that surface runoff from undisturbed areas is what is being conveyed.
As proposed, paragraph (b)(7) stated that “treating with chemicals” is allowed. This statement could have been misconstrued as allowing treatment of entrained sediment and suspended solids to occur outside of sediment ponds. Therefore, we have added language to clarify that this type of treatment of surface runoff must occur in sediment ponds and that treatment cannot be carried out by other means, such as by broadcasting chemicals on the ground, or within other conveyances. We have also revised this paragraph to allow the use of flocculants, as well as other types of chemicals.
We received comments that proposed paragraph (b)(8), “treating mine drainage in underground sumps,” is considered processing waste water and would not be subject to oversight under this section. We agree and deleted paragraph (b)(8) from the final rule.
Paragraph (a) sets out the scope of the section. It provides specific exceptions to the requirements which follow. As proposed, paragraph (a) used the term “disturbed areas” to describe the areas subject to these exceptions. However, the term “disturbed areas” did not appear anywhere else in the section. Rather, as proposed, this section described the activities subject to the requirements of this section as activities that will “disturb the land surface.” For this reason in paragraph (a) of the final rule, we have substituted the phrase “disturb the land surface” for “disturbed areas.”
Paragraph (c)(1) includes a requirement that permittees locate sediment ponds as near as possible to the disturbed area and outside perennial or intermittent stream channels unless the regulatory authority approves of the location in accordance with §§ 780.28 and 816.57(h). In all cases, operators must construct sediment ponds as closely as possible to the downstream limit of the disturbed areas they serve. These requirements minimize, to the extent possible, adverse impacts to streams, particularly intermittent and perennial streams. Typically, sediment laden water is directed to the sediment ponds, and treated water is returned to the stream by constructed channels. Placing these structures as closely as possible to the outlet of the disturbed area will limit the length of these channels and help minimize any adverse effects. Shorter channels, moreover, require less maintenance, and are therefore, less susceptible to failure. Impacts to streams will also be minimized if sediment ponds are constructed outside perennial or intermittent channels. However, because it is not always possible to construct out-of-stream structures due to local topography, §§ 780.28 and 816.57(h) of this rule provide that the regulatory authority can approve construction in stream channels.
One commenter suggested that this paragraph be removed because the Clean Water Act, and not SMCRA, governs the location of sedimentation ponds. The commenter pointed out that the Environmental Protection Agency's recent Clean Water Rule: Definition of “Waters of the United States”
Paragraph (e) sets out conditions under which the regulatory authority may grant an exemption from the requirements of this section. The exemption applies when the area is small, and the operator can demonstrate that drainage from the disturbed area will comply with section 816.42. For small disturbed areas, more damage may be done by attempting to construct siltation structures than if the land was left undisturbed. Construction of siltation structures requires disturbance of land and, until vegetated, they contribute small amounts of sediment. As noted, the exemption does not apply if the drainage will not comply with section 816.42.
To conform to plain language principles we have made minor, nonsubstantive changes to final rule § 816.47. Otherwise, we are finalizing 816.47 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
As discussed in the preamble to the proposed rule, we proposed to modify our regulations at § 816.49, which set out the requirements for permanent and temporary impoundments.
We proposed to update the reference to the Natural Resource Conservation Service publication 210-VI-Technical Reference 60.
To increase clarity, we have moved the design certification requirements of proposed paragraph (a)(3) to the permitting regulations at § 780.25(c)(1)(i). The design certification requirements at § 780.25(c)(1)(i) are substantively unchanged from proposed paragraph (a)(3).
At the suggestion of another federal agency and to improve clarity we have modified final paragraph (a)(4) about foundations. We have added “abutments” to the requirement to ensure precautions are taken to fully prevent failure of impounding structure foundations. Additionally, we have added the phrase “and control of underseepage” at final paragraph (a)(4)(ii) to ensure that seepage failures of the dam foundation are prevented. This would include the potential for piping failures.
With the exceptions of changes to paragraphs (b)(2) and (b)(9), we have finalized paragraph (b) as proposed.
Upon further evaluation and in consultation with the U. S. Environmental Protection Agency, we modified paragraph (b)(2) by replacing “meet” with the phrase “not cause or contribute to a violation of” and referenced the applicable section of the Clean Water Act to better conform with language used in section 303(c) of the Clean Water Act.
One commenter maintained that the requirements of proposed paragraphs (b)(7), (b)(8), and (b)(9) could delay reclamation or could make contemporaneous reclamation difficult because of an alleged additional need to haul large amounts of material at the end of mining. The commenter is mistaken because these provisions impose requirements that are merely clarifications and outgrowths of existing requirements. Paragraph (b)(7) requires a demonstration that approval of the impoundment will not result in retention of spoil piles or ridges that are inconsistent with the definition of approximate original contour. This demonstration adds no additional burden because § 816.102 already requires disturbed areas to be backfilled and graded to the approximate original contour. Paragraph (b)(8) requires a demonstration that approval of the impoundment will not result in the creation of an excess spoil fill elsewhere within the permit area. This provision is an outgrowth of existing § 816.71 which requires the permittee to demonstrate that it has minimized excess spoil and requires that the final configuration of a fill must be suitable for the approved postmining land use. It is also consistent with the practice followed by the vast majority of the regulatory authorities located in mining areas that generate excess spoil. Paragraph (b)(9) requires a demonstration that the impoundment has been designed with dimensions, features, and other characteristics that will enhance fish and wildlife habitat to the extent that doing so is not inconsistent with the intended use. This demonstration adds no additional burden because it is consistent with the requirements at § 780.16 to prepare, using the best technology currently available, a fish and wildlife protection and enhancement plan and § 816.97(a) to minimize disturbances and adverse impacts on fish, wildlife, and related environmental values to the extent possible and achieve enhancement of those resources where practicable. Thus, these three provisions merely clarify existing requirements. Any burden on the operator would result from its failure to comply with previous regulations and not the effect of finalized paragraphs (b)(7), (b)(8), and (b)(9). Significantly, the commenter has provided no information to support its claim that these criteria would delay reclamation or make reclamation or contemporaneous reclamation difficult or impossible. Nor has the commenter provided any information to substantiate the claim that these criteria will create a need, which did not exist prior to the rule, to haul large amounts of material. Finally, backfilling and reclamation plans as required in § 780.12(d) must contain contour maps, models, and cross-sections that show in detail the final configuration of the permit area by proper planning and spoil handling. If the operator has complied with this provision and properly planned its operation it should be able to minimize any costs associated with haulage.
We have clarified paragraph (b)(9) by adding the word “features” so that this provision now reads “[t]he impoundment has been designed with dimensions, features, and other characteristics that will enhance fish and wildlife habitat to the extent that doing so is not inconsistent with the intended use.” This addition helps assure that the demonstration includes design features that promote habitat enhancement. As noted in the discussion of the definition of approximate original contour at § 701.5, we fully appreciate the value of
Some commenters claimed that § 816.49 inappropriately focuses upon Appalachia. We disagree. The construction of permanent impoundments postmining is conducted outside Appalachia as frequently, if not more frequently, than inside Appalachia. For example, in the Illinois Basin where the water table lies near the surface, permanent impoundments are commonly used as a fish and wildlife enhancement. Thus, § 816.49 will apply to all mining regions where permanent final pit impoundments are permitted.
Several commenters expressed concern that these regulations may affect local water rights. We disagree and do not anticipate any infringement of local water rights as a result of this rule. The demonstrations required in this section require an analysis of the impact that the impoundment would have on post mining land use. The regulatory authority, which is in the best position to make this decision, will have the final authority to determine if any impact to local water rights may occur. Furthermore, aside from vague suggestions that revisions to § 816.49 may affect water rights, commenters have provided no information, evidence, or analysis to indicate how revisions to § 816.49 would affect water rights.
In the previous and proposed rules, this regulation appeared in § 816.56, but we are redesignating it as § 816.55 in the final rule to accommodate the addition of a new § 816.56, which concerns ephemeral streams, adjacent to § 816.57, which concerns perennial and intermittent streams. One commenter asked us to draft more plain language revisions to our regulations in sections where we are making few or no substantive revisions. We have restructured and revised § 816.55 to implement that recommendation.
In addition, we have made three substantive revisions to the proposed rule. First, we removed language that could have been interpreted to allow abandonment of the permit as an alternative to seeking bond release. Abandonment of a permanent program permit before final bond release would be inconsistent with both the termination of jurisdiction provisions of § 700.11(d)(2) and the intent of section 519 of SMCRA
Second, we have replaced an ambiguous reference to “bond release” in the previous and proposed rules with a reference to final bond release under § 800.42(d). This revision is appropriate because § 816.55 requires the removal of temporary structures and the renovation of permanent structures to meet program requirements for retention. Clearly, these requirements could not apply to applications for Phase I and II bond release.
Third, we removed language that would have allowed retention of treatment facilities after final bond release. This language is inconsistent with final § 800.18, which requires reclamation of the sites upon which treatment facilities are located and areas used in support of those facilities. In particular, § 800.18(i)(3) specifies that the financial assurance will serve as the bond for reclamation of the portion of the permit area required for postmining water treatment facilities and access to those facilities.
Several commenters suggested that we should make clear which requirements in the rule apply to which types of streams. Specifically, these commenters noted proposed § 816.57, which would have applied to activities in, through, or adjacent to perennial or intermittent streams, also contained cross-references to proposed § 780.28(b)(3), which would have addressed the establishment of riparian corridors for ephemeral streams. In response, we have added new § 816.56 that sets out the requirements specific to ephemeral streams, including the requirement to establish a 100-foot streamside vegetative corridor that complies with the standards in § 816.57(d)(1)(iv) through (4) if activities are conducted through an ephemeral stream. The comparable requirements for the streamside vegetative corridors for intermittent and perennial streams are still found in § 816.57.
In the proposed rule, we invited comment on whether we should extend to ephemeral streams all the protections we give to perennial and intermittent streams. We received a variety of comments advocating equal protection of all stream types and many comments opposing the extension to ephemeral streams of the protections we give to intermittent and perennial streams. After review of the comments, we have decided not to extend the same protections to ephemeral streams that we do to intermittent and perennial streams. However, consistent with Part VII of the preamble to the proposed rule,
Another commenter raised a concern that requiring uniform restoration of biological components in ephemeral streams is not feasible and asked for a clarification that this requirement does not apply to ephemeral streams. This commenter is correct that we did not propose to require the operator to restore the ecological function of ephemeral streams. For additional information as to the protections extended to ephemeral streams, you may review the preamble to the proposed rule at Part VII, B, “What specific rule changes are we proposing with respect to ephemeral streams?”
One commenter suggested that a valid reason for not providing the same protection to ephemeral streams is the increased cost associated with protection and reconstruction to the same standard as intermittent and perennial streams. As previously stated, we are not affording the same protections to ephemeral streams as intermittent or perennial streams. Also we note that changes in the definitions of intermittent and ephemeral streams in the final rule, specifically the removal of the one square mile watershed criteria, will result in many streams, particularly those in the western region of the country, that were previously characterized as intermittent under the current definition being reclassified as ephemeral under the final rule. In circumstances where this occurs and where a stream is no longer defined as intermittent, the level of protection for that stream may be reduced, which could also reduce the cost necessary to protect or reconstruct it.
One commenter suggested that, if we did not extend the same protections to ephemeral streams that we do to intermittent and perennial streams, we
We have changed the structure of § 816.57 in the final rule. In order to make it easier to track the responses to various comments received on proposed § 816.57, we are providing the following summary of the changes to this final section:
• We have clarified the title of § 816.57 to specify that this section applies only to mining activities conducted in, through, or on the surface of land within 100 feet of a
• We have moved the general prohibition on mining within 100 feet of a perennial or intermittent stream from proposed paragraph (a)(1) to final paragraph (b), changed the title of final paragraph (b) to reflect the substance of the prohibition, and changed the term “bankfull” to “ordinary high water mark” in the same paragraph.
• We have moved the “Clean Water Act requirements” from proposed paragraph (a)(2) to final paragraph (a)(1), clarified the title of final paragraph (a)(1) to reflect plain language principles, and added final subparagraph (a)(2) to clarify that compliance with the Clean Water Act under final subparagraph (a)(1) requires compliance with applicable water quality standards.
• We have split the requirements of proposed paragraph (b) among multiple paragraphs. Proposed paragraph (b)(1) has been deleted in the final rule because it simply stated that you must comply with specific provisions of your permit, which goes without saying. Proposed paragraph (b)(2) is split among final paragraphs (d), (e), (f), and (g). Specifically, proposed paragraph (b)(2)(i) is final paragraph (e), part of proposed paragraph (b)(2)(ii) is final paragraph (d), part of proposed paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(A) is final paragraph (f), and proposed paragraphs (b)(2)(ii)(B) through (D) now form parts of final rule paragraphs (f) through (g).
• Because we have split paragraph (b) over multiple paragraphs, we have moved the prohibition on placement of sedimentation control structures from proposed paragraph (c) to final paragraph (h).
• We have changed the terms “sedimentation control” and “sedimentation pond” to “siltation structure” throughout final paragraph (h).
• We have added final paragraph (h)(1)(ii) in response to comment.
• We have modified final paragraph (h)(2), which was proposed paragraph (c)(2), in multiple places: First, we have added the requirement that the exceptions from the prohibitions only apply if approved in the permit; second, we have added coal mine waste refuse piles and coal mine waste impounding structures in steep slope areas as an exception; and third, we have added a demonstration requirement and a requirement that the regulatory authority make a written finding.
• We have added the term “coal mine waste refuse pile” to final paragraph (h)(3)(ii), which was proposed paragraph (c)(3)(ii).
• We have changed the term “coal mine waste disposal structure” to “coal mine waste impounding structure” in final paragraph (h)(3)(ii), which was proposed paragraph (c)(3)(ii).
• We have changed the phrase “coal mine waste disposal structure” in proposed paragraph (c)(3)(iii) to “coal mine waste structure” in final paragraph (h)(3)(iii).
• We have added final paragraph (h)(3)(iii)(A).
• We corrected cross-references as needed.
Before addressing some of these more specific changes, we address general comments about the section below.
Many commenters requested that we clarify what standards apply to perennial and intermittent streams and what standards apply to ephemeral streams. As discussed in the preamble to new § 816.56, we have removed the standards for ephemeral streams that were found in proposed § 816.57. As finalized, therefore, § 816.57 describes only additional performance standards that apply to activities in, through, or within 100 feet of a perennial or intermittent stream. Furthermore, we clarified in the title of § 816.57 that applies only to mining activities conducted in, through, or within 100 feet of a perennial or intermittent stream. We also changed the title of final paragraph (b) to reflect the substance of the prohibition in § 816.57: This section is a prohibition on mining in or within 100 feet of a
Some commenters requested that we clarify which stream types require the establishment of the 100-foot streamside vegetative corridor. This corridor is required for all stream types: Section 816.56(c) contains the requirements for ephemeral streams, and § 816.57(d) contains the requirements for intermittent and perennial streams.
Likewise, a commenter specifically asked for clarification as to which streams require restoration of ecological function. The restoration of ecological function is only required for perennial and intermittent streams; therefore, it is discussed only in §§ 816.57 (performance standards) and 780.28 (permit application requirements). Similarly, the requirements to restore or improve the form, hydrologic function (including flow regime), streamside vegetation, and ecological function of the stream after you have mined it apply to affected stream segments of perennial and intermittent streams.
One commenter claimed that this rulemaking does not reduce the destruction of streams or improve stream restoration, as allegedly demonstrated by the most recent assessment of the impacts from underground coal mining and mine subsidence on streams in Pennsylvania. We appreciate this comment as it highlights the fact that there is a real need to better protect streams because, under the
A commenter argued that this section takes an unnecessary one-size-fits-all approach and that biological components of perennial, intermittent, and ephemeral streams differ significantly. For similar reasons, another commenter claimed that requiring the same protections for all streams, including ephemeral ones, is not practical. As noted above, we agree with these commenters only to the extent that the protections for ephemeral streams should be different than for perennial and intermittent streams and have clarified the different requirements by adding § 816.56, which specifies the requirements for ephemeral streams, and by revising this section to clarify that it applies to perennial and intermittent streams. These differing requirements are one example of why this rule does not approach the regulation of streams in a one-size-fits-all manner. More importantly, however, this section and § 780.28 do not create one-size-fits-all requirements for perennial or intermittent streams; instead, they incorporate site specific requirements and demonstrations when mining is planned in or near an intermittent or perennial stream, allowing for differences in topography, geology, and climate in the various regions of the country. For instance, paragraphs (c) and (d) of § 780.28 require that plans for individual mines be designed to restore the surface drainage patterns and stream channel configurations and establish vegetative corridors, and paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section require that these features actually be constructed consistent with these plans. Specific drainage patterns and vegetative corridors will vary and this rule allows for appropriate tailoring to individual circumstances while reducing adverse impacts to streams.
Several commenters questioned the requirement of this section to achieve ecological function. As support, these commenters often cited judicial decisions, such as
A commenter claimed that the proposed rule failed to address damage to the hydrologic balance from backfilling with coal combustion residues and that this constitutes a glaring omission. The commenter recommended that we establish a new part in the final rule text that addresses the placement of coal combustion residues in surface and underground mines. We did not include specific rule language addressing the placement of coal combustion residues because that activity is already indirectly covered in this rulemaking in sections such as § 780.12(d)(2)(iii), handling of acid-forming and toxic-forming materials to prevent the formation of acid or toxic drainage and to protect groundwater and surface water; § 780.20, determination of the probable hydrologic consequences; and § 780.21, preparation and review of the cumulative hydrologic impact assessment. However, in order to comprehensively address this issue, additional direct regulation of the placement of coal combustion residues on active and abandoned coal mines is better addressed in a separate rulemaking. Such a rulemaking is one of our priorities.
Proposed paragraph (a)(2), now final paragraph (a)(1), requires permittees to conduct surface mining activities in or affecting waters subject to the jurisdiction of the Clean Water Act only if they first obtain all necessary authorizations, certifications, and permits under the Clean Water Act. In the final rule, we have split proposed paragraph (a)(2) into two parts. Paragraph (a)(1) in the final rule is
Together, final paragraphs (a)(1) and (a)(2) make clear that the operator must obtain all necessary authorizations, certifications, and permits under the Clean Water Act and conduct the mining activities in a way that meets the approved water quality standards required under the Clean Water Act. Paragraph (a)(2) is an outgrowth of the requirement under final paragraph (a)(1) that was proposed in paragraph (a)(2). Thus, the addition of final paragraph (a)(2) in the final rule is a clarification of the proposed requirement.
As discussed above, in the final rule, we moved the general prohibition on mining in or within 100 feet of a perennial and intermittent stream from proposed paragraph (a)(1) to final paragraph (b), changed the title of final paragraph (b) to reflect the substance of the prohibition, and changed the term “bankfull” to “ordinary high water mark” in the same paragraph. Proposed paragraph (a)(1), now final paragraph (b), prohibits surface mining activities in or through a perennial or intermittent stream or that would disturb the surface of land within 100 feet of a perennial or intermittent stream unless the regulatory authority authorizes that activity in the permit. We did not receive any comments on proposed paragraph (a)(1), and, we are adopting the section as proposed as final paragraph (b) with the two exceptions discussed below. First, in final paragraph (b), we have changed the title of proposed paragraph (a)(1) “General prohibition” to “Prohibition on mining in or within 100 feet of a perennial or intermittent stream.” This change reflects the now clear separation between § 816.56, which applies only to ephemeral streams, and § 816.57. Second, as discussed in the preamble discussion of “ordinary high water mark” in § 701.5 of the final rule, one commenter suggested that the term “ordinary high water mark” is more commonly accepted and more easily determined than the term “bankfull.” We agree and have revised references to “bankfull” throughout the final rule. We now require that the 100-foot distance be measured horizontally on a line perpendicular to the stream, beginning at the ordinary high water mark.
In section 780.28 of the proposed rule, we set out requirements for an application that proposes to mine through or divert a perennial, intermittent, or ephemeral stream.
Proposed paragraph (b)(3), now final paragraph (c)(2), requires the certification by a professional, qualified engineer that a stream channel diversion or reconstructed stream channel has been constructed in accordance with the permit and that it meets all engineering requirements. One commenter claimed that this requirement will increase engineering review and other administrative tasks and costs. Also, the commenter alleged that previous regulations only required streams with drainage areas in excess of one square mile of drainage to be certified. While we recognize that additional effort will be required to obtain this certification, we have retained the requirement in the final rule as it ensures that the plan required under § 780.28(c) will be fully implemented. Proper implementation is integral to the successful ecological development of the stream. Certifications are routinely required for other hydrology structures, such as siltation structures, sedimentation ponds, and impoundments; thus, this additional requirement would not require significantly more effort than was required under the previous regulations. We did, however, revise this section slightly to clarify that the certification requirement may be limited to the location, dimension, and physical characteristics of the stream diversion or channel.
Final paragraph (d) now contains the performance standards that we listed in proposed § 780.28(b)(3). We made this change to reduce redundancy within §§ 780.27(c) and 780.28(d) and provide one location for streamside vegetative corridor requirements. As discussed above, requirements for streamside vegetative corridors for
As discussed in the preamble to §§ 780.27(c) and 780.28(d) of this final rule, several commenters alleged that we selected the 100-foot width for the vegetative corridor arbitrarily. In the preamble to the proposed rule at §§ 780.16 and 816.57(a), we explained the ecological and historical support for
Proposed § 780.28(b)(3)(ii) would have required that the streamside vegetative corridor use only native species. A few commenters opined that revegetation within the streamside vegetative corridor using only native species may contradict what is recommended or requested by a Clean Water Act authority or the National Resources Conservation Service. We agree with these commenters in part. Final § 816.57(d)(2)(i) requires the use of appropriate native species adapted to the area unless an agency responsible for implementation of section 404 of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1344, requires the use of a non-native species. The National Resources Conservation Service only issues recommendations. So, to the extent that a Clean Water Act authority requires the use of a recommendation to use non-native species made by the National Resources Conservation Service, it is allowable under our regulations. This change satisfies our objectives for improving reclamation while ensuring there is no conflict with the Clean Water Act.
Final paragraph (d)(2)(ii) ensures that the species planted during reclamation are consistent with the revegetation plan approved in the permit. This new requirement is provided for clarity to ensure those species planted within the streamside vegetative corridor are those approved in the permit and are consistent with final § 780.12 (g)(1)(v).
Many commenters argued that the proposed rule was too rigid and did not provide sufficient flexibility within the streamside corridor vegetation requirements to allow for differences in streams, soil, and climate conditions across the country. In response, final paragraph (d)(2)(iii) clarifies that the streamside vegetative corridors must include appropriate native hydrophytic vegetation, vegetation typical of floodplains, or hydrophilic vegetation characteristic of riparian areas and wetlands to the extent that the corridor contains suitable habitat for those species and the stream and the geomorphology of the area are capable of supporting vegetation of that nature. Similarly, paragraph (d)(3) waives the requirement of planting hydrophytic or hydrophilic species within those portions of streamside corridors where the stream, soils, or climate are incapable of providing the moisture or other growing conditions needed to support and sustain hydrophytic or hydrophilic species. However, the applicant must plant the corridor with appropriate native species that are consistent with the baseline information concerning natural streamside vegetation, unless otherwise directed by an agency responsible for implementing section 404 of the Clean Water Act.
A commenter also requested that we revise proposed § 780.28(b)(3), which required establishment of a riparian corridor at least 100 feet wide on each side of a perennial, intermittent, or ephemeral stream if mining activities were conducted in or within 100 feet of the stream, to better reflect premining land uses or landowner preferences. The commenter specifically referred to premining situations where crops are planted within 100 feet on either side of an ephemeral, intermittent, or perennial stream or where the landowner would like for crops to be planted within 100 feet of a stream after reclamation. We find that no change is necessary in response to this comment. Proposed § 780.28(b)(3)(iii)(A) and (B), which we are adopting as final § 816.56(c)(4) for ephemeral streams and § 816.57(d)(4) for perennial and intermittent streams, adequately addresses the commenter's concerns. Specifically, final §§ 816.56(d)(4) and 816.57(d)(4) provide that the requirement for a streamside vegetative corridor does not apply to prime farmland historically used for cropland or to situations in which establishment of a streamside vegetative corridor comprised of native species would be incompatible with an approved postmining land use that is implemented before final bond release. Therefore, a landowner desiring to grow crops on land within 100 feet of a stream may do so, provided the regulatory authority approves a cropland postmining land use and the landowner actually implements that land use before final bond release.
This commenter also suggested we consider adopting the protocol outlined in the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers permitting process for compensatory mitigation. We do not agree that adoption of the suggested protocol is appropriate. The final rule implements section 515(b)(24) of SMCRA,
As proposed, § 780.28(b)(3)(iii) listed three situations in which the streamside vegetative corridor requirements would not apply. With the exception of proposed § 780.28(b)(3)(iii), this paragraph has now been redesignated as final § 816.56(c)(4) for ephemeral streams and final § 816.57(d)(4) for perennial streams. We did not adopt proposed § 780.28(b)(3)(iii)(C), which expressly stated that the streamside vegetative corridor requirement does not apply to stream segments buried beneath an excess spoil fill, a coal mine waste refuse pile, or a coal mine waste impounding structure. We did not adopt this provision because it is self-evident that requirements specifically applicable to reconstructed streams, such as the streamside vegetative corridor revegetation requirements, do not apply to segments of streams that no longer exist because they have been buried as allowed by our regulations.
The U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service recommended that we add additional criteria to proposed paragraph (b)(2)(ii), now final paragraph (d), to explicitly state that riparian zone plantings must meet applicable performance standards for stocking and survival. We did not adopt this recommendation because § 816.116 applies to riparian zone plantings and contains sufficient standards for determining vegetation success. Thus, inclusion of revegetation success standards in § 816.57 would be redundant.
As mentioned above, proposed paragraph (b)(2) has been split between multiple paragraphs of the final rule. Proposed paragraph (b)(2)(i) is final paragraph (e), part of proposed paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(A) has moved to final paragraph (f), and proposed paragraphs (b)(2)(ii)(B) through (D) now form parts of final rule paragraphs (f) through (g). As discussed below, we changed the structure and substance of proposed paragraph (b)(2) to respond to comments.
Proposed paragraph (b)(2) set forth the proposed requirements to restore the form and function of stream segments. Many commenters expressed their views of the relationship between the form and function of a stream. On one hand, many commenters claimed that restoration of the stream form should be considered adequate to achievement of ecological function. On the other hand, a commenter opined that a stream's form is generally not a proxy for its function. Another commenter recommended that the final rule require an operator to restore hydrologic function in addition to ecological function to ensure protection for this essential element of stream health. Similarly, several commenters opined that for bond release, the regulatory authority must consider whether the form, hydrologic function, and ecological function of intermittent or perennial stream segments have been appropriately restored or reconstructed because all three (form, hydrologic function, and ecological function) are integral to the demonstration of successful reclamation.
As described at length in the preamble to the proposed rule, restoration of form alone has not been shown to provide assurance that function will return, especially when considering the extreme nature of the impacts of mining within the stream buffer.
“Form” for purposes of this section is defined in § 701.5. We received no comments on proposed paragraph (b)(2)(i), now final paragraph (e), relating specifically to the restoration of form. As mentioned above, several commenters suggested that both form and ecological function need to be included as part of the evaluation of a stream before bond release is accepted. We agree and have modified the Phase I bond release criteria at § 800.42(b)(1) to require the restoration of form of perennial and intermittent stream segments. We are reiterating this requirement in final paragraph (e), which also serves to incorporate a similar provision that was proposed as § 816.57(b)(2)(iii)(C), which required restoration of form for Phase I bond release.
As discussed above, proposed paragraph (b)(ii) would have required the restoration of stream form and function. Although the proposed rule included provisions to measure the biological condition of a restored or reconstructed stream, it did not specifically discuss the hydrologic function of the stream except to note at proposed paragraph (b)(ii)(B) that the postmining function “must be adequate to support the uses of that stream segment that existed before mining and it must not preclude attainment of the designated uses of that stream segment under section 101(a) or 303(c) of the Clean Water Act before mining.” Several commenters suggested that we should expand the provisions relating to stream function to include more hydrological information, such as the material composition of stream beds, flow patterns, water chemistry, and stream water temperature because ultimately, restoring ecological function is dependent on restoring these hydrological parameters. We agree that we should expand our treatment of stream function in order to properly account for conditions prior to mining and, as discussed, have divided stream function into hydrologic and ecological function. We have added paragraph (f) to require the restoration of hydrologic function. “Hydrologic function” is discussed in more detail in the preamble to the definition of that term in § 701.5. In sum, hydrologic function includes total flow volume, seasonal variations in streamflow and base flow, and provision of the water needed to maintain floodplains and wetlands associated with the stream. Taken together, the restoration or reconstruction of the prerequisite “form” in paragraph (e) and “hydrologic function” in paragraph (f), means that the stream will have similar physical characteristics, pattern, profile, and dimensions as the stream in which mining activities were conducted in, through, or near. As explained in the preamble discussion of the definition of “form” this will include but not be limited to, a similar flood-prone area to bankfull width ratio (entrenchment), channel width to depth ratio, channel slope, sinuosity, bankfull depth, dominant in-stream substrate, and capacity for riffles and pools, as the stream in which mining activities were conducted.
Final paragraph (f) also specifies that you must demonstrate restoration of the hydrologic function of a stream segment that has been affected by mining activities before you qualify for Phase II bond release under § 800.42(c)(1). This language was added in response to comments that requested we consider what types of information should be considered for bond release relative to the restoration of “stream function.” As discussed in the preamble discussion of paragraph (e), Phase I bond release will not be permitted until reconstruction of the form of the stream is demonstrated and certified. We have also revised § 800.42(c)(1)(ii), which establishes the criteria for bond release to include the requirement for the restoration of hydrologic function as a condition of Phase II bond release in order to better guarantee that reestablishment of hydrologic function is achieved. We are therefore requiring in § 780.28(g) that the regulatory authority develop criteria for determining restoration of ecological function on a permit-specific basis. These criteria will help determine whether restoration is possible and whether the permit allowing mining through streams should move forward. These standards must also be in place to determine if ecological function has been restored during reclamation as required by final rule §§ 780.28(g) and 816.57(g).
Proposed paragraph (b)(2) required the restoration of stream form and function. Specifically it required the restoration of ecological function. In addition, proposed paragraph (b)(2)(ii) referred to specific provisions in the permitting requirements of proposed § 780.28(e)(1), related to the restoration of biological condition. As explained above, in the final rule, we have split the requirements pertaining to the restoration of stream form and function into three paragraphs—paragraphs (e) through (g). As revised, final paragraph (g) requires the restoration of the ecological function of a perennial or intermittent stream before final bond release may occur. As revised, paragraph (g) no longer contains a specific reference to biological condition or criteria for measuring ecological function. Instead, it cross-references § 780.28(g), which contains these criteria. Consequently, all comments received on proposed §§ 816.57(b)(2)(ii)(B) through (D) that are related to determining whether ecological function has been restored are discussed in the preamble to § 780.28.
Numerous commenters objected to any requirement to demonstrate the restoration of the ecological function of perennial and intermittent streams. Some commenters suggested that a separate requirement for the restoration of ecologic function is not necessary because some western mines are already restoring the hydrologic form using geomorphic reclamation methods and some midwestern mines are restoring stream channels based on the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers permit requirements. These commenters allege that these practices should be sufficient to restore the stream to its form and function under SMCRA. We recognize that the techniques voluntarily employed in some western mines in the application of geomorphic reclamation principles and some midwestern mines that employ natural stream channel design for reconstructed or permanently diverted streams are the type of best technology currently available that this rule seeks to implement across all mining regions. We also understand that the frequency of mines using geomorphic reclamation is increasing and has been shown to result in more stable streams and facilitates reestablishment of ecological function. Even so, we do not have reliable evidence that reconstruction of the physical form or hydrologic function is common across all mining regions or that such reconstruction will necessarily result in successful restoration of ecological function. Thus, these voluntary techniques are not sufficient to negate the need for a separate requirement to demonstrate the restoration of ecological function. This requirement will also ensure consistency across the nation and provide guidance to the regulatory authorities on implementing measures to improve stream health.
Other commenters asserted that the requirement is too subjective. As an example, a commenter expressed concern with the allegedly subjective interpretation of the language in proposed paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(B) that biological condition of a stream must be restored to a level “adequate to support the uses that existed prior to mining.” They also opined that there is not sufficient consensus within the scientific community that ecological function after mining-related disturbances can be fully restored. Several commenters criticized the proposed rule because it would require that the regulatory authority establish standards for determining when ecological function has been restored; yet, according to the commenters, experts in the discipline of stream restoration, including some cited by us in the preamble to the proposed rule, have not been able to agree on the metrics of ecological function or whether such function can be restored. They also cite to a purported lack of agreement on how the baseline and the restored ecological function should be measured. Some commenters also cited this requirement as an example of flawed science and reasoning that they allege permeates the proposed rule because the proposed definition of ecological function relies on a draft U.S. Army Corps of Engineers document that, in addition to not being final after five years, is geared toward Appalachia. Although the specifics on establishing successful ecological function vary throughout the scientific community, it is generally accepted that ecological function is an essential ingredient in stream health.
Moreover, adopting the suggestion of the scientific community to retain the requirements to restore the ecological function of these streams will ensure that SMCRA is implemented more fully nationwide. For instance, section 515(b)(10) of SMCRA requires permittees to minimize disturbances to the prevailing hydrologic balance at the mine-site and in associated offsite areas and to the quality and quantity of water in surface and ground water systems both during and after surface coal
Although we understand commenters' concerns about consensus within the scientific community, the final rule adopts the best science currently available to provide a concrete definition of ecological function. Ecological function is defined in § 701.5 as “the species richness, diversity, and extent of plants, insects, amphibians, reptiles, fish, birds, and mammals and other organisms for which the stream provides habitat, food, water or shelter. The biological condition of a stream is one way to describe its ecological function.” The final rule also provides guidance on measuring the ecological function. As the preamble to the definition of ecological function explains, for purposes of measuring the restoration of ecological function of perennial and intermittent streams that are mined in or through, a regulatory authority may use the baseline data on the biology of the restored or reconstructed stream to determine the restoration success. The final rule also reasonably imposes several requirements, including the requirement for a streamside vegetative corridor and baseline sampling to measure ecological function of streams prior to mining so that restoration of ecological function following mining can be measured. The final rule also imposes several measures to ensure the use of the best technology currently available to minimize or prevent impacts. These provisions of the final rule provide clear guidance that ensures that a restored or reconstructed stream is not simply physically restored in form and hydrologic function but also it is restored to its position in the ecosystem. The provisions address the direct link between mining and the degradation of a stream's biological health and implement the requirements of SMCRA. Thus, we are including the requirement for restoration of ecological function in the final rule.
Final paragraph (g)—paragraph (b)(2)(iii)(D) of the proposal—also specifies that if a permittee cannot restore the ecological function of a reconstructed perennial or intermittent stream as established by the regulatory authority under § 780.28(g)(1), that permittee cannot achieve final bond release. Our regulations create a phased approach to stream restoration. Phase I bond release requires the demonstration of successful restoration of form; Phase II bond release requires the demonstration of successful restoration of hydrologic function as provided in paragraphs (e) and (f); and final bond release requires the restoration of ecological function. This approach makes the permittee accountable for the establishment of an acceptable level of ecological function.
Many commenters opposed the prohibition on final bond release until after the permittee has demonstrated the restoration of ecological function. They claim that it is impossible to determine the cost of restoring the ecological function and, because of this, it will be impossible to capture the cost of such restoration when calculating the bond, as required by proposed § 800.14(b)(2). Similarly, some commenters suggested that, because ecological function cannot be controlled, it is impossible to accurately predict when, if ever, such function will be restored, which would mean that bonds could be held for an indefinite amount of time. These commenters allege that the possibility of an indefinite bond would create a substantial new risk for sureties and make it difficult for operators to obtain a bond.
We agree that the restoration of ecological function may take a long time, particularly if this restoration requires establishment of substantial canopy cover over the stream, but we maintain that SMCRA does require bonding until that function is restored. There is a direct connection between SMCRA and inclusion of ecological function restoration in the performance bond. The reclamation plan in § 780.12(h) requires compliance with the stream protection, stream reconstruction, and functional restoration requirements of §§ 780.28 and 816.57 of this chapter for perennial and intermittent streams. SMCRA section 508(a)(13)(A)
One commenter expressed concern that the requirement to return ecological function to intermittent and perennial streams would be misconstrued as also applying to ephemeral streams. The commenter further asserted that, because ephemeral streams only flow in response to precipitation events, the need to assess the biological component of ephemeral streams is unnecessary. We agree and, as discussed above, have clarified that section applies only to intermittent and perennial streams. Requirements for ephemeral streams, which do not include the restoration of ecological function, are now located in § 816.56.
A commenter noted that we did not propose to require that a stream segment have precisely the same biological condition as it had before mining and suggested that we should revise the rule to explicitly identify the acceptable level of variations in the parameters that are connected with the ecological function of stream segments. We have determined that the regulatory authority is in the best position to make that determination because they have the proper expertise with respect to the local ecological regimes and would, along with the Clean Water Act authority, be the best judge as to the
Many commenters opined that streams are difficult to replace and that there is little scientific evidence that a stream can be successfully restored to its previous ecological function. As discussed in the preamble to the proposed rule,
Proposed § 816.57(c), now § 816.57(h), prohibits construction of siltation structures in a perennial or intermittent stream or the use of perennial or intermittent streams as waste treatment systems to convey surface runoff from the disturbed area to a siltation structure except as provided in paragraphs (h)(1)(ii) and (h)(2).
In the proposed rule, the terms “sedimentation pond” and “siltation structure” were used interchangeably throughout § 816.57. To provide consistency and clarity, we have either changed the term “sedimentation pond” to “siltation structure” or added the term “siltation structure” to the applicable regulation. This makes it clear that the forms of siltation structures can vary; a sedimentation pond being only one type of siltation structure. These changes in terminology clarify that the rule covers all types of siltation structures and not just sedimentation ponds.
A commenter expressed concern that the general prohibition upon placement of siltation structures or the use of streams to convey surface runoff extends to ephemeral streams. Similarly, other commenters explained that ephemeral streams are prevalent in many areas of western mining operations, and the only way to effectively provide sediment control for those operations is to construct siltation structures downstream of the mine in various areas along minor native and reclaimed ephemeral draws. As previously discussed in this section, we have removed the provisions of proposed § 816.57 that applied to ephemeral streams and moved them to new § 816.56. As a result, § 816.57 applies only to perennial and intermittent streams. Notably, within § 816.56, there is no comparable provision to paragraph (h) of this section, which makes clear that we are not prohibiting the use of an ephemeral stream segment inside a mined area to be used to convey surface water.
Final paragraph (h)(1) contains the general prohibition, subject to exceptions, on the placement of siltation structures in perennial and intermittent streams. Many commenters disagreed with this general prohibition. Some commenters proffered that, in the arid west, wildlife use and opportunities for fish habitat can be created or increased if a sedimentation pond in perennial or intermittent streams is converted to a pond after mining and reclamation. Yet another commenter asserted that retaining siltation structures postmining is beneficial for habitat enhancement. Additional commenters indicated that a prohibition on sediment control ponds in perennial or intermittent streams may have the opposite effect of what we intended because it will result in more, not less, land disturbance since the diversions will have to be constructed on both sides of a stream. Similarly, another commenter noted that this proposed prohibition would significantly alter the typical drainage control practices currently in use, and the effect will be to require construction of many additional drainage control diversions and additional sediment basins with associated costs. Commenters further noted that allowing construction of a sedimentation pond or siltation structure in an intermittent or perennial stream is an efficient and cost effective way to control the flow of surface water within the mined area.
While retention of a siltation structure outside of an intermittent or perennial stream may be beneficial after mining, it is also true that a siltation structure situated in an intermittent or perennial stream segment would not protect the postmining stream habitat. Permanent retention of a pond in an intermittent or perennial stream requires significant long-term maintenance, which cannot be assured after final bond release and termination of jurisdiction. For this and other reasons, such as potential liability in the event of failure and impacts to stream health, the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers has historically shown reluctance to grant such retentions.
As long as it is not retained after reclamation, however, we agree that construction of a sedimentation pond in a stream during mining should be allowed provided that the fish and wildlife measures and enhancements required in § 780.16 are met. Therefore, we have added paragraph (h)(1)(ii) to allow siltation structures to be constructed in perennial and intermittent streams immediately downstream of a stream segment that has been mined through.
A commenter objected to the requirement in proposed paragraph (c)(1), now paragraph (h)(1), which prohibits the retention of siltation structures postmining. The commenter claimed that this requirement is not reasonable as sediment control structures, especially on ephemeral streams, are commonly left in place after mining and reclamation has been completed because they can be beneficial to wildlife habitat and water for livestock. As previously discussed, the prohibition on the construction of siltation structures within streams applies only to perennial and intermittent streams; thus, the situation described by the commenter would not be prohibited by this section because it concerns a siltation structure in an ephemeral stream. Moreover, we agree
As proposed in paragraph (c)(2), now paragraph (h)(2), the prohibition on placement of siltation structures in intermittent or perennial streams does not apply to siltation structures related to excess spoil fills, coal mine waste refuse piles, or coal mine waste impounding structures in steep-slope areas. We have replaced the term, “coal mine waste disposal facilities” in paragraph (h)(2) with, “coal mine waste refuse piles” and, “coal mine waste impounding structures” to clarify that this exemption applies to siltation structures associated with both of these types of facilities. After the completion of construction and revegetation of the fill or coal mine waste refuse pile or impounding structure. However, new paragraph (h)(3)(iii)(A) requires that all accumulated sediment be removed from the siltation structure and any stream segment between the siltation structure and the toe of the fill or coal mine waste disposal structure. Once the siltation structure has served its treatment purpose, the permittee must remove it as required in paragraph (h)(3)(iii)(B) and restore the stream as required in paragraph (h)(3)(iii)(C) so as to achieve the higher functionality of the natural stream condition and eliminate the risks inherent in an unmaintained structure.
We have added § 816.57(i) to the final rule to clarify that paragraphs (b) through (h) of this section will not apply if a regulatory authority amends its program to expressly prohibit all surface mining activities, including the construction of stream-channel diversions, that would result in more than a de minimis disturbance of land in or within 100 feet of a perennial or intermittent stream. We have added this alternative in response to comments advocating a complete ban on activities within 100 feet of any stream as the most stream protective course of action. Thus, we are granting the regulatory authority the option to enact such a prohibition.
We are finalizing § 816.59 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
We are adopting this section as proposed except to correct an inadvertent error in paragraph (d)(2). Previous paragraph (d)(2) stated that the blast design “may be presented as part of a permit application or at a time, before the blast, approved by the regulatory authority.” The proposed rule interpreted this language as meaning that the regulatory authority must approve the blast design either as part of the decision on the initial permit application or at a later time before the blast. However, the preamble to the previous rule explains that we never intended to require regulatory approval of blast designs:
The intent of the design is not primarily for public or regulatory review; rather it serves as a tool for the operator, blaster, and the blasting crew to understand the blast layout and implementation and for the regulatory authority to be advised of the blast parameters and timing, to initiate monitoring, if appropriate, and to ensure compliance with performance standards.
We are finalizing § 816.62 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
We are finalizing § 816.64 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
We are finalizing § 816.66 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
The published version of the proposed rule inadvertently omitted the second column in the table in section 816.67(b)(1)(i), which meant that the table included no airblast limits. Final paragraph (b)(1)(i) restores that column and the airblast limits to the table.
One regulatory authority noted the error and recommended restoration of the airblast limits. However, the commenter also stated that the table and the airblast limits are no longer needed because of standardization of microphones. The commenter recommended that we consider replacing the table with a 133 dB (linear peak) maximum limit on airblast levels. Linear peak is the maximum level of air pressure fluctuation measured in decibels without frequency weighting to ensure the measured parameter is indicative of the level experienced by the human auditory system. Frequency weighting is not applied to airblast measurements because much of the sound from an airblast is at inaudible frequencies and would therefore be excluded.
We commend the commenter for suggesting this update, but we cannot adopt it as part of this final rule because our proposed rule did not give sufficient notice that we might revise the airblast limits and the suggested revision is not a logical outgrowth of other rule changes, a correction of an error, or a nonsubstantive editorial change.
We are finalizing § 816.68 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
As discussed in the preamble to the proposed rule, we proposed to modify our regulations at § 816.71.
A commenter noted that this section does not distinguish between excess spoil and fill placed in, near, or outside a stream. No real distinction exists in this context. Fill placed in, near, or outside of a stream, is considered excess spoil. The standards in this section, however, ensure that the design and placement of any excess spoil fill
A commenter alleged that the process of restoring streams to their original elevations and enhancing the flood plain widths in their approximate original locations will increase the generation of additional spoil and elevations of spoil in the graded reclamation areas. Although specifically referencing proposed rule § 816.71, about disposal of excess spoil, the commenter appears to be referring to § 780.28(c) about the permitting requirements for restoring the approximate premining surface drainage pattern and stream-channel configuration of intermittent and perennial streams and § 816.57, which includes associated performance standards. Nevertheless, we are addressing the comment in this section because of the impacts on spoil handling. We do agree that implementing the requirements of §§ 780.28 and 816.57 may result in a different handling plan than currently used because the reestablishment of stream channels will require additional blending of spoil material into the backfilled areas than is currently performed. We disagree with the comment that excess spoil will be created when the stream drainage patterns are restored because the volume of spoil generated is dependent on the mining scenario (depth to the coal seam, bulking factors, blasting patterns, etc.). However, we do agree that additional spoil handling will be required to restore the drainage pattern, including additional grading and blending necessary to create stream drainage patterns that are consistent with form. Nevertheless, we are not modifying the final rule in response to this comment our clarification here and explanations in final rule §§ 780.28 and 816.57 are sufficient.
The same commenter alleged that restoring wetlands at grade could result in the generation of additional spoil because spoil has to be relocated to keep wetland elevations low in the reclaimed area. We decline to make any changes as a result of this comment. It appears that this issue would, for the most part, affect areas with shallow groundwater, such as occurs in parts of the midcontinent region. It also appears that restoring wetlands at grade would tend to result in more spoil being placed in the backfilled area, rather than generation of additional excess spoil. Final paragraph (h)(3)(ii), discussed in more detail below, allows the final elevation of the backfilled area to exceed the premining elevation, so, in cases where maintenance of wetlands would be an issue it is more likely that displaced spoil will be placed in the backfilled area rather than an excess spoil fill.
This commenter also alleged that the proposed rule would increase the need for additional spoil storage and increase mining costs to the point where many areas will not be practical to mine. We decline to make any changes as a result of this comment. The required volume of spoil storage is dependent on the volume and nature of overburden that the operator must remove to access the coal, and will not be affected by the rule. Section 780.35(b) requires that the operator demonstrate how you will minimize generation of excess spoil. Therefore, the rule should decrease the need to develop additional spoil storage sites.
Finally, this commenter alleged that many of these backfilling requirements are not feasible or necessary in regions outside of Appalachia. It is true that excess spoil is generated predominantly in Appalachia; however, it is generated, and should be minimized, in other regions as well. The requirements of this section do not apply at sites where excess spoil is not generated.
Another commenter noted that dry valleys are common in the arid and semi-arid West and suggested that excess spoil placement should be allowed in those areas where there are no streams to impact. In response, we note that none of the requirements in this section would preclude the placement of material in dry valleys as suggested by the commenter, as long as the other requirements of the section are satisfied. Specifically, paragraphs (a)(3), (h)(1), and (h)(3) require that the final configuration be compatible with the postmining land use and be capable of supporting appropriate vegetation, that the topography blend with the surrounding terrain, and that the drainage pattern be similar to the premining pattern.
We modified paragraph (a)(1) by clarifying that the permittee must minimize the adverse effects of a coal mine waste disposal facility on groundwater and aquatic life, in addition to surface water. The specific reference to “aquatic life” will more thoroughly implement section 515(b)(24) of SMCRA,
Additionally, in paragraph (a)(5), in response to comments, we have deleted the language “damage from” as it pertains to flooding. As explained more fully above in connection with final § 780.21(b)(9)(ii), we have made this change in order to clarify that we are not requiring an investigation of premining flood events in order to assess the potential for damage from flooding. This revision focuses the assessment upon peak flows that could result in flooding and not damage from flooding.
Further, in paragraph (a)(6), we have replaced the terms “existing uses” with the term “premining uses” and removed the term “reasonably foreseeable uses” when referencing foreseeable uses of groundwater. We replaced the term “existing use” with “premining use” because the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency expressed concern about our use of the term “existing use” throughout the proposed rule and suggested that, because the term “existing use” is also used in a Clean Water Act context, it might cause confusion to use it in this context. In response we have deleted the term from the final rule. We have deleted the term “reasonably foreseeable uses” from the final rule except in connection with the protection of reasonably foreseeable surface lands uses from the adverse impacts of subsidence. The term appears only in SMCRA in section 516(b)(1), which requires that operators of underground mines adopt subsidence control measures to, among other things, maintain the value and reasonably foreseeable use of surface lands. It is not appropriate for a more general context. Further, many commenters objected to the usage of “reasonably foreseeable” asserting that it is too subjective, difficult to assess, and open to varying interpretations, which could result in inconsistent application.
We have removed the reference to “surface water” from paragraph (a)(6) because we address surface water in final paragraph (a)(7). In the proposed rule we used the terms “exceedance” and “violation” interchangeably. We determined that we should select one term for consistency. Therefore, in paragraph (a)(7), we have replaced the word “exceedance” with the word “violation” to be consistent with the terminology used throughout the final rule. In addition, we added the phrase “adopted under the authority of section
This section requires that a permittee remove all vegetation, other organic matter, and soil materials from the disposal area prior to placement of the excess spoil. A commenter requested that the final rule include a provision allowing the regulatory authority to waive the requirement of this paragraph for the removal of topsoil and organic matter in areas of steep slopes. According to the commenter, this requirement could present safety concerns in steep slope areas. We are not including such an exemption in the rule because, in our experience, steep slope areas used for disposal of excess spoil are usually no greater in slope than the location where coal extraction occurs. If the permittee is able to safely remove this soil and organic material from the mined area, it should also be able to do so from the disposal area. Furthermore, if left in place, this matter may decompose and form a weak zone that is likely to fail in steep areas.
In the preamble to proposed § 816.71(e)(1), we stated that we do not consider surface runoff channels constructed under § 816.71(e)(1) to be stream channel diversions or restored streams and thus, these structures would not qualify as fish and wildlife enhancement measures.
Final paragraph (f) prescribes the requirements for constructing underdrains and temporary diversions to control erosion, prevent water infiltration, and ensure stability of the excess spoil disposal fill. Paragraph (f)(3)(iii) sets forth the criteria that must be used to select rock that is resistant to weathering for underdrain construction. Our rule requires use of the Los Angeles Abrasion test and the Sulfate Soundness test for choosing rock. One commenter asserted that these two tests are more elaborate and expensive testing methods than the Slake Durability Index Test, which is commonly used under the existing regulations. This commenter alleged that the proposed tests do not provide any added value. We are not modifying the final rule as a result of this comment. Our previous regulations allowed for end dumped durable rock fills and the Slake Durability Index test was appropriate because it can be used to determine the percentage of material in an excess spoil fill that is “durable.” The final rule at § 816.71(g)(2), however, prohibits durable rock fills and instead at 816.71(f)(1) requires that the permittee “design and construct underdrains and temporary diversions as necessary to control erosion, prevent water infiltration into the fill, and ensure stability.” Because of this change, we are requiring the use of tests that are more appropriate for evaluating the materials that will be used in excess spoil fill underdrains. The two tests specified in the final rule are designed to assess the resilience of rock used to construct underdrains. The primary mechanisms that cause breakdown of material used in excess spoil fill underdrains are abrasion due to truck traffic and freezing and thawing, both of which can occur before the underdrain is adequately covered. The tests we are requiring specifically address these mechanisms. The Los Angeles Abrasion test is used to evaluate rock material breakdown resulting from abrasion, and the Sulfate Soundness test is used to evaluate the resistance of rock materials due to breakdown resulting from freezing and thawing.
Another commenter recommended that only the Los Angeles Abrasion test should be required in circumstances where the underdrain rock is placed in interior or deep portions of an excess spoil fill and would not be subjected to freeze and thaw cycles, as well as in warm climates where freezing conditions are unlikely to occur. As we acknowledged in the preamble to the proposed rule, freezing of water in rocks and soil does not occur in all climates and is limited to a relatively shallow depth below the surface.
Final paragraph (g) specifies the requirements for proper transport and placement of excess spoil in a controlled manner in horizontal lifts not exceeding four feet in thickness. The spoil must be concurrently compacted to ensure mass stability and to prevent mass movement during and after construction. Finally, the paragraph prescribes grading techniques to ensure that surface and subsurface drainage is compatible with the natural surroundings. A commenter requested that we revise this paragraph to allow the regulatory authority to allow an excess spoil fill that involves the placement of material in lifts greater than four feet when supported by an alternative engineering design. Another commenter indicated that the proposed provision is unworkable and unrealistic in mining operations where the spoil can include single boulders that exceed four feet in diameter. The commenter further stated that it has successfully created excess spoil fills without this provision for decades and should be allowed to continue to do so. As we explained in the preamble for section 816.71(g) of the proposed rule, the purpose of this provision is to minimize voids in the fill and thus, reduce impacts to fish and wildlife resources.
Paragraph (g)(2), as mentioned above, contains a prohibition on so-called “durable rock fills.” It forbids any excess spoil transport and placement techniques that do not involve the controlled placement of spoil, including end-dumping, wing-dumping, cast-blasting, gravity placement, or casting spoil downslope. A commenter expressed concern that under the rule, the use of trucks for spoil transport would not be considered to be controlled placement under section 515(b)(22)(A) of SMCRA because the spoil would be dumped from the back of a truck, which the commenter interpreted as “end dumping”.
Paragraph (h) identifies the requirements for final fill configuration. Specifically, paragraph (h)(3)(i) requires that geomorphic reclamation principles be used to establish the final surface configuration of the fill. Specifically, the permittee must grade the top surface of the fill to create a topography that includes ridgelines and valleys with varied hillslope configurations when such configurations are practicable, compatible with stability and postmining land use considerations, and generally consistent with the topography of the area before any mining. One commenter questioned the rationale for requiring the use of geomorphic reclamation principles. In paragraph (h) we are requiring a final surface configuration that not only promotes greater erosional stability but also has more ecological benefits than other techniques. Although section 816.71 includes other requirements to ensure long term stability and to minimize discharges, we are encouraging the geomorphic reclamation technique, where appropriate, because of its demonstrated success. This technique has resulted in less maintenance than traditional reclamation techniques. It has enabled the creation of a diverse and natural-looking wildlife habitat and similar natural drainage patterns. However, we recognize that the geomorphic reclamation technique is not appropriate for all sites. We encourage the use of geomorphic reclamation techniques “when practicable” and grant discretion to the regulatory authority to determine the extent to which this requirement can be implemented on a site specific basis. Therefore, we decline to make any changes as a result of this comment.
This paragraph prescribes the inspection and documentation required during construction of the excess spoil fill. We modified paragraph (k)(1) to clarify that inspections will occur at least quarterly during construction, with additional complete inspections conducted during critical construction periods. We invited comment on whether the final rule should require additional specific oversight by a qualified engineer when segregated, graded, natural material is used to construct the filter system.
A regulatory authority stated that the daily inspections required by § 816.71(k)(2)(i) would result in more report reviews and place additional resource burdens on regulatory authorities. While it is true that the quarterly reports required under final paragraph (k)(3) will be more extensive, they will also provide a more comprehensive record than is currently required. Further, these records will be available on-site for regulatory authority inspection. Since the time interval between an inspection, partial or complete, may be several weeks or longer, a significant volume of excess spoil can be placed in a fill during that time period. The only way for the inspector to be certain that the lift requirement has been fulfilled is through the documentation supplied by this provision. Thus, the additional review time that this provision will require is ancillary to the benefit of attaining better oversight of the operation by the regulatory authority. The regulatory authority also referenced proposed §§ 780.19(k) and 784.19(k) which provided that a permit will be void from the date of issuance if it is issued on the basis of what the regulatory authority later determines to be substantially inaccurate baseline information. The regulatory authority alleged that daily inspections could increase the likelihood of permit nullifications, especially if the term “substantially inaccurate” is too broadly interpreted. In response we note first that, as discussed in the preamble to final rule §§ 780.19 and 784.19, we have removed the two paragraphs that the commenter referenced. Second, however, the scenario described does not seem plausible; we fail to see how an increased frequency of inspection of excess spoil placement could lead a regulatory authority to determine that the baseline information a permittee submitted at the time of permit
Final paragraph (l)(1) allows disposal of coal refuse in an excess spoil fill, subject to specific requirements. As proposed, paragraph (l)(1) required the permittee to demonstrate that no credible evidence existed that the disposal of coal mine waste in an excess spoil fill will cause or contribute to a violation of applicable water quality standards as prescribed by section 303(c) of the Clean Water Act or effluent limitations. Furthermore, the disposal of the waste must not result in material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area. A commenter stated that the term “credible evidence” is too vague and suggested we adopt “weight of the evidence” as a better standard. At the suggestion of another commenter, we have removed any reference to a standard of evidence and now require that you demonstrate, and the regulatory authority find in writing, that the disposal of coal mine waste in the excess spoil fill will not cause or contribute to a violation of applicable water quality standards adopted under the authority of section 303(c) of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1313(c), other state or tribal water quality standards, or effluent limitations or result in material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area.
As we proposed in the preamble to the proposed rule,
A rock-core chimney drain is a vertical wall of durable rock within the fill, extending along the centerline from the toe of the fill to the head of the fill and from the base of the fill to the surface of the fill. To clarify, our removal of this paragraph will not prohibit construction of head-of-hollow or valley fills. However, applications for fills including rock-core chimney drains will not be approved. Any proposed excess spoil fills must satisfy the permitting requirements of §§ 780.28 and 780.35. If approved, excess spoil fill disposal must comport with the performance standards of § 816.71.
This section of the existing regulations was deleted as part of this rulemaking. As explained in the preamble to § 816.71(g) of the proposed and final rules, we are removing this section as proposed.
We are finalizing § 816.74 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
We are finalizing § 816.79 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
As discussed in the preamble to the proposed rule,
We have modified paragraph (b)(1) by clarifying that the permittee must minimize the adverse effects of a coal mine waste disposal facility on groundwater, surface water, and aquatic life. We have replaced “biological condition” with “aquatic life” to be more comprehensive as only certain streams are assessed using bioassessment protocols associated with biological condition. The specific reference to “aquatic life” will more thoroughly implement section 515(b)(24) of SMCRA,
In paragraph (b)(6) we have deleted the language “damage from” as it pertains to flooding to ensure that the occurrence and extent of flooding should be minimized, not just the resulting damage.
In paragraph (b)(7), we have replaced the terms “existing” and “reasonably foreseeable” use of groundwater and replaced it with any “premining” use of groundwater. The U.S. Environmental Protection Agency expressed concern about our use throughout the rule of the term “existing use” and suggested that, because the term “existing use” is also used in a Clean Water Act context, in relationship to surface water, it might cause confusion for us to use it here. In response we have deleted the term from the final rule. We have deleted the term “reasonably foreseeable uses” from the final rule except in connection with the protection of reasonably foreseeable surface lands uses from the adverse impacts of subsidence. The term appears only in SMCRA in section 516(b)(1), which requires that operators of underground mines adopt subsidence control measures to, among other things, maintain the value and reasonably foreseeable use of surface lands. It is not appropriate for a more general context. Further, many commenters objected to the usage of “reasonably foreseeable” asserting that it is too subjective, difficult to assess, and open to varying interpretations, which could result in inconsistent application. Therefore, in a groundwater context we have replaced “reasonably foreseeable use “with the term “premining use” to avoid confusion with Clean Water Act terminology.
Finally, in paragraph (b)(7) we have removed “surface water” because we address surface water in final paragraph (8). In paragraph (b)(8), we have clarified that a coal mine waste disposal facility may not cause, or contribute to a violation of section 303(c) of the Clean Water Act,
Similar to the modifications we made at final §§ 816.49(a)(4), about foundations, at the suggestion of another federal agency and to improve clarity we have modified final paragraph (e) about foundation investigations. We have added “abutment” to the requirement to ensure precautions are taken to fully prevent failure of impounding structure foundations. Additionally, we have added the phrase “and control of underseepage” to ensure that seepage failures of the dam foundation are prevented. This would include the potential for piping failures.
We are finalizing § 816.83 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
We are finalizing § 816.84 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
We are finalizing § 816.87 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
We are finalizing § 816.89 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
Section 816.95 explains the additional performance standards that apply to protect topsoil from erosion and air pollution attendant to erosion. We proposed to revise § 816.95 from the previous regulation to replace the references to topsoil with the terms soil and soil substitutes.
In response to the proposed rule we did not receive any specific comments about this section. However, in response to general comments made by the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, we modified paragraph (b)(1)(ii) referencing applicable water quality standards adopted under the authority of section 303(c) of the Clean Water Act.
One commenter on this section recommended that we require permittees to avoid impacts to the extent possible instead of requiring the minimization of impacts. The commenter pointed out that using an avoidance standard is guaranteed to prevent impacts, whereas there is a risk of failure associated with minimization, even if it is followed by restoration and enhancement. We are not accepting this suggestion. As we described in the preamble to our proposed rule, our substantive revisions to § 816.97
A few commenters requested that we ensure that our fish and wildlife enhancement measures do not interfere, contradict, or incorporate conservation measures contained in voluntary conservation programs as approved by state or federal agencies. These commenters further explain that incorporating voluntary conservation program agreements into a SMCRA permit would impinge on the “voluntary” status of the conservation measures and potentially render these voluntary conservation agreements ineligible for mitigation credits. We are not changing the rule in response to this request. We recommend that these measures be discussed during coordination with the appropriate state and federal agencies during the permitting process described in §§ 779.20(b) and 783.20(b).
As proposed, paragraph (b) prohibited surface mining activities that are likely to jeopardize the continued existence of threatened or endangered species listed by the Secretary of the Interior or proposed for listing, or that are likely to result in the destruction or adverse modification of designated critical habitat in violation of the Endangered Species Act. One commenter recommended that we modify the language to prohibit operations that “may affect” listed species instead of jeopardizing their continued existence. We recognize that jeopardy is too low of a standard because it allows for more impacts than SMCRA 515(b)(24)
One commenter stated that it is unclear what actions the regulatory authority would take in the event a species is unexpectedly found in the permit area or adjacent area, as described in paragraph (b)(1)(ii). The commenter also stated that such a discovery could conceivably shut down an ongoing operation at great expense. However, § 817.97(b) in the current regulations already requires operators to “promptly report” the presence of any listed or threatened species within the permit area when the operator becomes aware of it. This section of the current regulations also specifies that upon such notification, “the regulatory authority shall consult with the appropriate State and Federal fish and wildlife agencies and, after consultation, shall identify whether, and under what conditions, the operator may proceed.” Operators have not raised concerns about this existing requirement, and we are unaware of any instances where the requirement has been overly burdensome. Furthermore, the risk of unexpected occurrences of listed species can be minimized by gathering the best possible data and coordinating with the relevant agencies at the permit application and approval stages.
We invited comment on whether to limit the notification requirement of proposed paragraph (b)(1)(ii) to the active mining phase of the operation. Specifically, we sought comment on whether the final rule should explicitly state that the notification requirement expires at the time of Phase II bond release, since there is typically a lack of activity on the site after that stage of reclamation. We received comments in support of and in opposition to terminating the notification requirement at Phase II bond release. Those in favor of terminating the requirement argued that it would save government and industry resources, since impacts would be less likely after this stage and because habitat restoration is generally in place—or at least in process—at the time of Phase I bond release. These commenters stated that most of the major earth moving and planting operations are complete at that point, and no major activity would be taking place after Phase I bond release. Those who argued against terminating the requirement voiced concern that risks to listed species continue after active mining and require long-term treatment. The U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service recommended that we not limit the notification requirement because information about the new or increased occupancy of the site or adjacent area is useful in understanding the recovery of areas affected by the mining activity. After consideration of the comments, we have determined that continued notification after Phase II bond release is not a burdensome requirement as the notification requirement does not also require prescribed searches or assessments of the area and that there is continued value to these notices as it would allow the appropriate agencies to gather data on these species is data after Phase II; therefore, we have not limited the notification requirement. Furthermore, we note that the requirement is limited to notification. If the operation is unlikely to cause any harm to the newly found species, no action will be required. In contrast, not requiring disclosure could result in unquantified harm to species and expose operators to liability under the Endangered Species Act. Therefore, we have not limited the notification requirement.
Commenters supported the requirement in paragraph (b)(1)(iv), to comply with any species-specific protection measures required by the regulatory authority in coordination with the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service. The only change we have made to this paragraph is to add a reference to the National Marine Fisheries Service in the event that a species under its jurisdiction may be impacted by mining activities.
Other commenters stated that our final rule at paragraph (b)(2) should not contain analogous requirements for state listed species. We decline to eliminate these requirements because they are necessary to comply with section 515(b)(24) of SMCRA, which requires operators to “minimize disturbances and adverse impacts of the operation on fish, wildlife, and related environmental values, and achieve enhancement of such resources where practicable.”
One commenter recommended that we remove § 816.97(c), which describes the process of protecting bald and golden eagles, their nests, and eggs, and the process of reporting and addressing the presence of bald and golden eagle nests. This commenter claimed that this provision would usurp the authority that Congress delegated to the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service under the Bald and Golden Eagle Protection Act
In paragraph (d)(1), we proposed to delete the clause in our existing regulations that allowed regulatory authorities to waive, if they determined it was unnecessary, the requirement that electric power transmission lines and other transmission facilities used for, or incidental to, surface mining activities on the permit area be designed and constructed to minimize electrocution hazards to raptors and other avian species with large wingspans. We are not aware of any situations in which these precautions are not necessary or appropriate. We received comments supporting this change and are finalizing it as proposed.
One commenter requested that we delete paragraph (d)(4), which requires the exclusion of wildlife from ponds that contain hazardous concentrations of toxic or toxic-forming materials. This requirement has been part of our existing regulations since December 11, 1987. This provision was once deleted from the regulations, as we maintained that there was little evidence of harm to wildlife as a result of unprotected toxic ponds on the site of any mining operation. We stated at the time the requirements to minimize disturbances and adverse impacts on wildlife by utilizing the best technology currently available would be sufficient to protect wildlife from toxic ponds. But the court in
Another commenter objected to proposed paragraph (d)(4) asserting that many ponds in the Appalachian and Illinois Basins are treated with chemicals because of acidity, iron, and manganese levels and some are being treated with a “proprietary mix” of treatment chemicals. The commenters assert that proposed paragraph (d)(4) is not fully protective because we have not stated the standard for “toxic or toxic-forming materials.” We disagree. In existing 30 CFR 701.5 we define toxic-forming materials as “earth materials or waste which, if acted upon by air, water, weathering, or microbiological processes, are likely to produce chemical or physical conditions in soil or water that are detrimental to biota and or uses of water.” The preamble to our 1979 implementing regulations explains the basis for the wording found in the definition.
Another commenter objected to paragraph (d)(5) under the mistaken impression that it would require operators to reforest lands that were forested or that would have reverted to forest under conditions of natural succession at the time of permit application, regardless of the approved postmining land use. We have made no change in the final rule because the rule allows for non-forestry vegetation and other land uses, such as those described in § 816.97(g) for the cropland postmining land use.
Similarly, a commenter asked if we were deleting the fish and wildlife postmining land use category because proposed paragraph (d)(5) states that, “to the extent possible,” the operator must “reclaim and reforest lands that were forested at the time of application and lands that would revert to forest under conditions of natural succession in a manner that enhances recovery of the native forest ecosystem as expeditiously as practicable.” Fish and wildlife habitat land use is still a suitable post mining land use category. Section 701.5 defines both “land use” and “fish and wildlife habitat” land use. These definitions in § 701.5 are used in conjunction with §§ 780.24 and 784.24 to determine the requirements that apply to postmining land use. The requirements of § 816.97 and 817.97 provide additional protection and enhancement measures that should be implemented to the extent possible, using the best technology currently available. Therefore, we are not making any changes in response to this comment.
We proposed to redesignate § 816.97(f) of our previous regulations as paragraph (e) within the final rule and revise it for clarity and consistency with section 515(b)(24) of SMCRA.
For additional clarification and compliance with the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1344, we have added an additional provision in paragraph (e)(2) stating that nothing in paragraph (e)(1) of this section authorizes destruction or degradation of wetlands in violation of section 404 of the Clean Water Act.
We have moved portions of proposed paragraph (e) related to habitat of unusually high value for fish and wildlife to final paragraph (f). This change was made to reduce confusion between wetlands and habitats of unusually high value for fish and wildlife. Paragraph (f) paragraph now requires operators to “avoid disturbances to, restore or replace, and, where practicable, enhance riparian and other native vegetation along rivers and streams, lentic vegetation bordering ponds and lakes, and habitat of unusually high value for fish and wildlife, as described in § 779.20(c)(3) . . . .”
In proposed paragraph (f), now redesignated as paragraph (g) in the final rule, we proposed to require, among other things, the exclusive use of native vegetation where fish and wildlife habitat is a postmining land use. We received many comments in support of this requirement. As discussed elsewhere in the preamble, we have, within the final rule, made allowances for the use of non-natives that are both non-invasive and necessary to achieve the approved postmining land use.
Another commenter stated that exceptions should be made where native species are not commercially available. We do not find this argument persuasive for a number of reasons. First, the use of native species is a best practice in SMCRA and non-SMCRA regulated reclamation across the United States, and substantial progress
A commenter objected to proposed paragraph (g), now final paragraph (h), and requested it be amended to clarify that the operator and surface owner may determine whether trees, hedges, and fence rows are appropriate for planned postmining, crop-management practices. The proposed rule requirement applies only “where appropriate for wildlife-management and crop-management practices.” Given this exception, no revision is necessary to accommodate trees, hedges, and fence rows if they are appropriate for planned postmining, crop-management practices.
One commenter objected to our requirement within proposed paragraph (h), now final paragraph (i), to plant understory species on lands managed for forestry as the postmining land use. The commenter claimed that this requirement was “not sensible,” as the rationale for a forest post mine land use is to provide forest resources for wildlife and for potential future harvesting of these resources. We disagree that the requirement is “not sensible” and are finalizing it as proposed. Interspersion of high value trees and shrubs further enhances the function and resources of the site for wildlife and increases its overall environmental and aesthetic value. Through proper forestry management techniques, the inclusion of shrubs within a forestry post mining land use would improve implementation of the revegetation requirements of 515(b)(19) of SMCRA
A commenter objected to the requirement in proposed paragraph (i)(1), now paragraph (j)(1), to intersperse greenbelts and plantings of non-invasive native plants that provide food or cover for wildlife in sites that are otherwise approved for residential, public service, commercial, industrial, or intensive recreational uses. These commenters expressed concern over the potential for conflicts between greenbelts and the features, for example power lines, of the selected land use. This concern is exaggerated. Pursuant to the requirements of § 780.12(g), the revegetation plan must be approved by the regulatory authority. The requirement in paragraph (j)(1) will be satisfied if this plan is followed. Moreover, the regulation states that greenbelts are not required if their use would be inconsistent with the approved postmining land use plan for that site. Even so, in most cases, greenbelts could be situated to avoid conflict with other necessary features of the approved land use.
We are finalizing § 816.99 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
As discussed in the preamble to the proposed rule, we proposed to modify our regulations at § 816.100 to add stream restoration to the list of reclamation activities that are subject to the contemporaneous reclamation requirement.
As discussed in the preamble to the proposed rule, we proposed to modify our regulations at § 816.102.
We proposed to revise the introductory language of paragraph (a) to clarify that the requirement to backfill applies only to mined areas.
In new § 816.102(a)(1), we have replaced the phrase “except in the following circumstances with deviations from the approximate original contour restoration requirements are allowed in the following situations.” This change should make it clear to permit applicants and to state regulatory authorities that an exemption from the approximate original contour restoration requirements cannot be claimed by the permittee when a permanent impoundment is created or when one of the other situations enumerated in § 816.102(a)(1) are present. We discuss this point in more detail below.
The proposed deviations from the general approximate original contour restoration requirements generated numerous comments. One commenter argued that the definition of “approximate original contour” in paragraph (a)(1) was ambiguous and could lead to a loophole around the statutory requirement to backfill and grade. The commenter noted a recent administrative decision
The commenter is correct that the term “approximate original contour” is often misconstrued and misapplied. As that commenter noted, the previously-referenced state geologist incorrectly excluded so-called “impoundment slopes” from his approximate original contour analysis because he apparently believed that any slope leading down to the water level of a permanent impoundment is part of the design criteria for a permanent impoundment.
It is not appropriate to create permanent impoundments merely for the purpose of avoiding the true cost of reclaiming the mined out area and restoring its approximate original contour. As the commenter suggests, the regulatory and statutory provisions dealing with impoundments, highwall elimination, spoil pile elimination, and drainage patterns should all be read together and applied together so that land affected by a surface coal mining and reclamation operation will be returned to the same approximate configuration that existed prior to any mining. In other words, land that was generally flat prior to any mining should be generally flat after the mining and reclamation operations are complete, although there may be some variations in site elevation after mining. The permittee should not propose, and the regulatory authority should not approve, the creation of land forms that were not present within the permit area prior to any mining. After reclamation operations are complete, the mined out area and the area affected by surface coal mining and reclamation operations should closely resemble the contours of the land that existed prior to any mining.
Permanent impoundments are allowable deviations from approximate original contour, but they are not an exemption from the requirement to return land to the approximate original contour that existed prior to any mining.
We have previously approved highwall retention provisions as part of the New Mexico and Utah regulatory programs.
Section 816.102(a)(3)(iii) of the final rule still allows for the retention of modified highwalls under limited circumstances. However, we have changed the rule in response to the commenters' concerns by addressing: (1) The nature of highwalls, (2) the effect of highwalls on wildlife, and (3) the danger that highwalls represent. We explain these changes further below.
We disagree that our proposed highwall retention provisions are inapplicable in regions outside of New Mexico and Utah, as commenters contended. Although the New Mexico and Utah programs allow for highwall retention under limited circumstances,
We also disagree that this new regulatory provision could provide a “loophole” around the requirement to restore the land to its approximate original contour. As we explain below, the retention of modified highwalls is actually in harmony with the requirement to restore to approximate original contour.
While we agree that highwalls created as a part of a mining operation are not natural features, highwalls retained pursuant to paragraph (a)(3)(iv) are consistent with approximate original contour because they are allowed only when they are replacing natural cliffs which existed prior to any mining and then only if they are modified to simulate the preexisting cliffs.
Highwalls that are allowable postmining features are not formed by natural processes and must be modified, in some cases significantly, to closely resemble a natural landform. To ensure that this occurs, final § 816.106(a)(3)(iv)(A) requires the regulatory authority to establish conditions to ensure that the retained segment resembles similar premining landforms. As we discussed in the preamble to the proposed rule, the rule allows retention of modified highwall segments only if they replace cliffs and bluffs that existed prior to any mining.
As we proposed,
Paragraph (a)(3)(iv)(A) further ensures that highwalls closely resemble the replaced features by making it clear that modified highwall segments are not authorized in excess of the number, length, and height needed to replace similar premining landforms. As a simple illustration, a two hundred foot cliff cannot be replaced with two one hundred foot highwalls. Likewise, five twenty foot bluffs cannot be replaced with a one hundred foot highwall. Rather, a highwall segment may be retained only if, under section (a)(3)(iv), it replaces similar natural landforms, and if, under (a)(3)(iv)(A), it closely resembles those similar premining landforms.
To avoid any confusion about the word “similar” in this context, we emphasize, as we did in the preamble to the proposed rule, that retained highwall segments must be modified to closely resemble
As mentioned above, several commenters asserted that the retention of highwalls will have a negative effect on wildlife. For instance, commenters argued that, although highwalls may create habitat for raptors and cliff-dwelling wildlife, they may pose a danger to livestock and grassland wildlife. We share commenters' concern for the effect of highwalls on wildlife and note that this concern is addressed in the final rule. Final section 816.102(a)(3)(iv)(A) requires the regulatory authority to establish conditions to ensure that the retained segment
We disagree with commenters who argue that limited highwall retention will not comply with SMCRA Section 515(b)(24). That section requires that surface coal mining and reclamation operations use the best technology currently available to minimize disturbances and adverse impacts on fish, wildlife, and related environmental values and to achieve enhancement of those resources where practicable. As we did in the preamble to the proposed rule,
As we discussed in the preamble to the proposed rule, “ecological niche” includes the wildlife habitat and ecological functions of the feature. Thus, no highwalls can be retained, as a commenter suggested, in areas where no cliffs or bluffs existed premining because such a highwall would provide a different ecological niche than premining landforms. Nor can a highwall be retained if it fails to fully restore the variety of environmental values provided by the destroyed premining landform. Succinctly, in order to restore an ecological niche, it is necessary to understand where the premining landforms provided
Some commenters suggested that, if highwalls are allowed to be retained, they should be no greater in length than the natural cliffs that existed prior to mining. These commenters further suggested that trails be cut through retained highwalls at intervals to allow for the passage of livestock and wildlife. We address the commenters' concern in final section 816.102(a)(3)(iv)(A). As previously discussed, this paragraph prohibits the retention of modified highwall segments that are longer than the premining landform. Again, as discussed above, this requirement cannot be avoided by combining or dividing the dimensions of premining natural landforms. Furthermore, we note that if trails are necessary to restoring the ecological niches provided by premining landforms, then those trails would be authorized under paragraph (a)(3)(iv)(A).
In response to concerns about the dangers posed by highwalls, we added paragraph (a)(3)(iv)(B). Commenters argued that due to the nature of some sedimentary geological formations, highwalls might prove to be unstable because they are susceptible to weathering. Paragraph (a)(3)(iv)(B) requires the regulatory authority to establish conditions to ensure that the retained segment is stable. To address similar safety concerns we also added paragraph (a)(3)(iv)(C). This provision requires the regulatory authority to establish conditions to ensure that the retained segment does not create an increased safety hazard compared to the premining feature that it replaces. The commenters further claimed that leaving highwalls would allow for the exposure of water bearing formations. In response, we added paragraph (a)(3)(iv)(D), which requires the regulatory authority to establish conditions to ensure that any exposure of water-bearing strata in the retained segment does not adversely affect the hydrologic balance.
Some commenters supported the principle of allowing remnant highwall features to replace cliffs destroyed during the mining process but questioned why it was necessary to include it in the federal final rule when several states have successfully incorporated this into their programs without a corresponding federal regulation. As we discussed in the preamble to the proposed rule, the rule harmonizes SMCRA section 515(b)(3)'s requirements to eliminate highwalls and restore the approximate original contour and clarifies any potential conflict between these requirements.
Many commenters argued that these provisions should be implemented at the discretion of state regulatory authorities. Regulatory authorities retain their traditional discretion under SMCRA to adopt provision that are no less stringent than SMCRA and no less effective than the Secretary's regulations in meeting the requirements of the Act. This final rule sets appropriate baseline requirements for regulatory authorities. Regulatory authorities must establish conditions to ensure that the retained segment: (1) Closely resembles the landforms that existed before any mining; (2) restores the ecological niches that those landforms provided; (3) is stable; (4) does not create an increased safety hazard compared to the feature that existed before any mining; and (5) does not adversely impact the hydrologic balance through the exposure of water-bearing strata. These are reasonable requirements that enhance implementation of SMCRA section 515(b)(3) and protect both the natural and human environment. Furthermore, state regulatory authorities retain their discretion to establish conditions that accomplish these requirements.
Some commenters argued that we should require public notice, a public hearing, and a comment period on any permit application, revision, or renewal that proposes to retain modified highwalls pursuant to paragraph (a)(3)(iv) in order to give local residents an opportunity to comment on potential changes to the local landscape. We have declined to change § 816.102 in response to this recommendation. Existing § 773.6 already provides these rights.
Section 816.102(a)(5) requires permittees and operators to minimize erosion and water pollution. One commenter recommended that we revise this section to require the permittee or operator to “significantly” minimize erosion and water pollution. We have declined to make this revision, as it is unnecessary. The word “minimize” is used alone throughout the performance standards of SMCRA.
Finally, in § 816.102(a)(5), we proposed to require that backfilling and grading be conducted to minimize water pollution, including discharges of parameters of concern for which no numerical effluent limitation or water quality standards have been established. One commenter argued that proposed § 816.102(a)(5) was too vague to implement. This commenter claimed that a permittee would not be able to understand, without numerical effluent limitations or water quality standards, how compliance will be determined, what effluent limits are appropriate, and whether grading and backfilling were being conducted appropriately. We understand the commenter's concern and deleted this language from the final rule. With this revision, § 816.102(a)(5) now requires the permittee to “[m]inimize erosion and water pollution both on and off the site.” As we stated in the preamble to the proposed rule, however, SMCRA requires the permittee to “minimize the disturbances to the prevailing hydrologic balance at the mine site and in associated offsite areas and to the quality and quantity of water in surface and ground water systems both during and after surface coal mining operations and during reclamation.”
We are finalizing section 816.104 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
As discussed in the preamble to the proposed rule, we proposed to modify our regulations at § 816.105,
Two commenters expressed concern about the requirement in proposed paragraph (b)(1) that operators backfill the mined-out area to approximate original contour and then place the remaining spoil and waste materials on top of the backfilled area. One commenter alleged that because of this language, it was unclear whether the proposed rule allowed “blending.” Blending involves placing spoil material outside of the mined area as a transition between the location where overburden is removed, considering spoil swell factors, and the undisturbed surrounding terrain. The purpose of blending is to avoid any abrupt or potentially hazardous changes in elevation between the mined area and the existing, surrounding terrain. Blending can have beneficial impacts, such as reduced slope steepness throughout the reclaimed area. Spoil used for blending the reclaimed area into the surrounding terrain also helps to minimize the potential for excess spoil that would cause the burial of streams. This commenter stated that if blending is not allowed, it will greatly increase the spoil elevation in many areas. The commenter further opined that any provision prohibiting the practice of “blending” conflicts with SMCRA, which, according to the commenter, allows blending to achieve approximate original contour. In response, we direct the commenter to subpart (5) of this section, which requires the final surface configuration to “blend[] into and complement[] the drainage pattern of the surrounding terrain to the extent possible.” This language specifically allows blending. We also note that this section applies only to sites with thick overburden.
Another commenter indicated that the language of paragraph (b)(2) is contradictory. That paragraph states that operators must “grade the backfilled area to the lowest practicable grade that is ecologically sound, consistent with the postmining land use, and compatible with the surrounding region.” It further states that “[n]o slope may exceed the angle of repose.” The commenter specifically states that allowing the overstacking of backfill to a height greater than the approximate original contour, but never more than the angle of repose, conflicts with achieving the lowest practicable grade. In response, we note that the commenter appears to misunderstand the purpose of this section. Section 816.105 only applies to the limited circumstance of a surface mine with thick overburden. This section was specifically intended to recognize that in the limited circumstance of thick overburden, it may not be possible to achieve the approximate original contour configuration that would otherwise be required. In the limited situation of thick overburden, § 816.105 allows for placement of spoil within the mined area in a surface configuration in a manner that will probably not closely resemble the general surface configuration of the land prior to any mining. As a result, the final reclaimed surface configurations might exceed, in both contour height and slope steepness, a normal approximate original contour configuration for mine sites that do not have thick overburden. However, while this regulation specifically allows the placement and overstacking of spoil within the mined area at these sites, it recognizes there are additional factors that must be considered before placing spoil beyond normally allowable limits. These additional factors include the avoidance of the creation of slopes that would be considered unstable—but never to exceed the angle-of-repose— and the avoidance of the creation of slopes that would be considered ecologically unsound. Moreover, even though steeper-than-normal slopes would likely be created for surface mining operations that have thick overburden, the grading of spoil materials to the lowest practicable grade is still a reasonable overall target. These qualifiers to the grading of overstacked spoil will offer reasonable protection in areas of thick overburden.
We are finalizing section 816.106 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
We received no comments on this section. Nevertheless, we made one modification from the proposed rule. Proposed paragraph (d) provided that, “you must handle woody materials in accordance with § 816.22(f) of this part. You may not bury them in the backfill.”
We proposed to revise and restructure previous § 816.111.
Some commenters claimed that the proposed rule appeared to have little applicability outside Appalachia and suggested that revegetation issues should be resolved on a state-by-state basis. Section 780.12(g) is sufficiently flexible to accommodate special circumstances in any location within the nation, as well as geographic variability within an individual state program. Our reference to circumstances or research from Appalachia or other areas of the nation should not be misconstrued to mean those locations are the sole focus of these regulations.
Several commenters recommended that we not codify the revegetation requirements in the national regulations, but instead encourage the development of rules, policies, or procedures on a state-by-state basis. We have declined to make this change. The regulations provide sufficient discretion for individual states and tribes to accommodate their unique conditions. For instance, the revegetation plan permitting requirements within § 780.12(g)(2)(i) mandate that the proposed vegetative cover be consistent with the plant communities described in the permit application. The reference to “native” plant communities in this section makes clear that the revegetation requirements are based on site-specific conditions. Therefore, we have not made changes to the rule as a result of these comments.
Several commenters alleged that § 816.111 is inconsistent with sections 515(b)(19) and (20) of SMCRA.
We disagree that there is any inconsistency. Our regulations at § 816.111 are fully consistent with SMCRA. SMCRA recognizes the legitimacy of appurtenant features that support the postmining land use that might not support any vegetation, such as water features, rock piles for wildlife habitat, or parking lots. These non-vegetative features are authorized by section 515(b)(2) of SMCRA,
One commenter expressed concern about the apparent removal of language relative to the revegetation of lands designated for cropland postmining land use. Several commenters stated that the proposed rule is problematic because sixty percent of all permitted land is cropland, and exemptions are necessary in order to use non-native species to accommodate cropland postmining land uses. In response, we note that provisions containing exceptions to the general requirement to use native species in order to achieve the postmining land use, including cropland use, have been retained in the rule. The language relating to cropland revegetation previously found within § 816.111 has been relocated from the performance standards to the permit requirements and is now part of the revegetation plan requirements at § 780.24(a)(2). The provisions related to postmining land uses (including cropland) can now be found in the final rule at § 780.12(g)(3)(i) and (g)(5) (proposed as § 780.12(g)(6)).
Proposed paragraph (b) requires that the reestablished vegetative cover comply with the revegetation plan approved in accordance with proposed § 780.12(g). It further requires in paragraph (b)(4) that vegetative cover “[b]e capable of stabilizing the soil surface and, in the long term, preventing erosion in excess of what would have occurred naturally had the site not been disturbed.” Paragraph (b)(5) requires that the vegetative cover “[n]ot inhibit the establishment of trees and shrubs when the revegetation plan approved in the permit requires the use of woody plants.” We invited comment on whether proposed paragraphs (b)(4) and (5) strike the proper balance between controlling erosion and promoting the establishment of native trees and shrubs. Commenters indicated that the language provided sufficient balance, and we are adopting the rule as proposed.
We received comments that the requirement in paragraph (b)(4), which is discussed above, is subjective and would be impossible to achieve. We acknowledge that background erosion levels on undisturbed sites vary from region to region and site to site, depending on geology, soils, topography, and climate. The final rule provides an exception for unavoidable erosion that is a consequence of the natural conditions of the site, if the extent of unavoidable erosion is determinable by comparison to other undisturbed areas with the same or similar conditions. This requirement is reasonable and allows the regulator to consider regional differences. We are not changing the rule in response to this comment.
In response to paragraph (b)(5), a commenter inquired as to who decides whether the re-established vegetative cover inhibits the establishment of trees and shrubs. The regulatory authority, based on state specific regulations contained in the approved program, has the discretion to make this determination.
Commenters also objected to the requirement in proposed paragraph (d)(2) to use native hay mulch to the extent it is commercially available. While noting that “hay mulch” is not a defined term, these commenters stated that the term typically refers to grass and legumes cut, dried, and stored for use with livestock, and not to straw mulch (baled stalks of a harvested wheat or similar crop), which is more typically used to protect soils. A commenter also raised a question regarding commercial availability of native hay seed stock for revegetation and questioned the efficacy of this requirement. We agree with the commenters that the use of “hay mulch,” in consideration of its commonly understood meaning, is not preferred as a mechanism for protecting soils, and certainly should not be mandated. Therefore, we have eliminated the requirement to use “native hay mulch.”
We have removed and reserved previous § 816.113 for the reasons discussed in the preamble to the proposed rule. Specifically, previous § 816.113 has been redesignated and moved to final rule § 816.111.
We have removed and reserved previous § 816.114 for the reasons discussed in the preamble to the proposed rule. Specifically, previous § 816.114 has been redesignated moved to final rule § 816.111.
We are finalizing § 816.115 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
As discussed in the preamble to the proposed rule, we proposed to modify our regulations at § 816.116 about the standards for determining revegetation success.
We proposed to reorient our previous regulations concerning revegetation success standards away from a focus on a single postmining land use, which may or may not be implemented, toward standards pertinent to a determination of whether the site has been restored “to a condition capable of supporting the uses which it was capable of supporting prior to any mining, or higher or better uses of which there is reasonable likelihood,” as required by section 515(b)(2) of SMCRA.
Additionally, some commenters asserted that the proposed regulations, which focus on establishing native vegetation, do not sufficiently allow for the variety of postmining land uses that exist outside the forested regions of Appalachia. These commenters suggested that the regulations do not provide for a variety of agricultural lands, reestablishment of native grasslands, certain types of managed wildlife areas, industrial lands, commercial lands, or recreational lands. The commenters also claimed these requirements have nothing to do with stream protection. In response, we note that the reestablishment of native species vegetation is of primary importance in reclaiming mined lands, and that the reclamation of these lands can have significant impacts on a stream's watershed and the health of that stream. Benefits to streams from the revegetation of terrestrial lands include the return of the appropriate surface water flow regimes and reestablishment of the proper nutrients and organic matter to the aquatic habitat. Regardless of the postmining land use, the final regulations are sufficiently flexible to allow planting of appropriate plant species specific to the various regions and local habitats, within limitations identified at § 780.12(g).
Final paragraph (a) is substantively identical to our previous regulation and provides the regulatory authority the discretion to select standards for revegetation success and statistically valid sampling techniques for measuring that success. One commenter requested that we remove the requirement that statistically valid sampling techniques must be used to measure revegetation success because it may be difficult to comply with this requirement in small areas with a limited sample size. We are not making any changes as a result of this comment. For a sample to be scientifically valid, it must present results within acceptable bounds of statistical certainty. Each regulatory authority retains the discretion to approve a model appropriate to the circumstances, as long as it uses statistically valid sampling techniques. For example, current practices, when appropriate, allow for small areas to be analyzed along with other areas; this type of grouping provides the larger sample size that will support the use of valid sampling techniques.
Commenters also expressed concern about the requirement in proposed § 816.116(b) to demonstrate restoration of premining land use capability using revegetation success standards. These commenters alleged that this requirement would impose an unnecessary burden placed on the operators and regulatory authorities, as these standards would be hard to quantify other than by planting and sampling the vegetation of many different seed mixes to determine if the premining capability has returned. After consideration, we agree and have eliminated the reference to revegetation success as part of an adequate demonstration of the affected land's premining capability.
Section 816.116(b)(4) provides that the standards of revegetation success must reflect the postmining land use established under section 780.24, but only to the extent that the approved postmining land use will be implemented before final bond release under §§ 800.40 through 800.43 of this chapter. Otherwise, the site must be revegetated in a manner that will restore native plant communities, and the revegetation success standards for the site must reflect this requirement. Commenters claim that this paragraph inappropriately allows the regulatory authority to create exceptions to the requirements of section 515(b)(19).
In addition to failing to give effect to section 515(b)(19) of SMCRA,
Some commenters requested that we retain the existing regulations in § 816.116 regulations pertaining to revegetation standards and introduced species because they adhere much more closely to SMCRA than the proposed regulations. According to the commenters, SMCRA requires revegetation standards to focus on the approved postmining land use. We disagree. Proposed and final rule § 816.116(b) takes into account both the postmining land use approved by the regulatory authority and the premining land use capability of the permitted site. These shared goals appear within SMCRA at sections 515(b)(19) and 515(b)(2).
Other commenters criticized paragraph (d) for allegedly being contrary to section 515(b)(19) of SMCRA.
Finally, the commenters considered paragraph (g) to be inconsistent with § 515(b)(19) because, according to them, it would inappropriately exempt areas that are “to be developed for industrial, commercial, or residential use” from the revegetation requirements. We are adopting paragraph (g) as proposed. Paragraph (g) exempts areas with impervious surfaces like roads, parking lots, and other structures, which are frequently part of industrial, commercial, and residential uses, from counting against the measurement of revegetation success. Removing this requirement is impracticable because it is impossible to revegetate these types of surfaces. To the extent that portions of the site are not covered in an impervious surface, those portions must be revegetated sufficient to “control erosion.”
In addition to comments received about how this section relates to sections 515(b)(19) and (20) of SMCRA,
Second, a commenter expressed concern that the proposed rule would require reclamation that will support both the premining land use and any higher or better uses selected in the reclamation plan. Specifically, the commenter explained that if the “approved postmining land use is pasture, but the land was used for cropland before mining, proposed §§ 780.12(e) and 816.22, require that the soil be reconstructed in a manner that would restore the site's capability to support cropland.” The commenter
Third, several commenters suggested that proposed paragraph (b)(4), which would have required the establishment of certain types of vegetation before the end of the vegetation responsibility liability period, should be changed to require establishment of that vegetation “prior to bond release.” These commenters noted that certain land uses, such as industrial or commercial uses, have no vegetation responsibility period. To address this comment, we are changing the language within paragraph (b)(4) to require the achievement of all postmining land use requirements prior to final bond release instead of the expiration of the revegetation liability period. We also point out, however, that although certain features, such as buildings, roads, parking lots, and bodies of water that do not support vegetation are not directly subject to the revegetation requirements, industrial and commercial postmining land uses may include areas that require revegetation and are subject to the revegetation requirements.
Fourth, several commenters encouraged us not to set national revegetation standards because of drastic differences between the regions with respect to vegetation types, precipitation amounts, humidity, and temperature. We recognize the differences in vegetation across the nation. The final rule includes minimum requirements for native species that allow for the differences between the regions with specific exceptions for introduced species as established within § 780.12(g)(3) and (4). Moreover, we have retained the measured values of the success standards from our previous regulations. As prescribed in § 780.12(g), it is primarily mine operators who will determine the types of vegetation at each site as approved by the regulatory authority.
Finally, a fifth commenter asserted, with respect to paragraph (c), that while it is possible after mining to establish native plant communities that provide a diverse, effective, and permanent vegetative cover comprised of species native to the area, those plant communities often differ significantly from the ones that existed prior to mining, primarily because of the requirements in our rules to replace the topsoil in a uniform thickness. However, in § 816.22(e)(1)(v) of our rule, we have provided an exception to this requirement that allows the thickness to vary when consistent with the postmining land use and when variations are necessary or desirable to achieve specific revegetation goals and ecological diversity, as set forth in the revegetation plan developed under § 780.12(g) of this chapter and approved as part of the permit. Therefore, uniform soil thickness should not be a barrier to the revegetation requirements in § 780.12(g).
Paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) require the description of the diversity and the areal extent of species respectively. One commenter recommended that these requirements not apply to land actually used for cropland after the completion of regrading and redistribution of soil materials. We disagree because these data are necessary to demonstrate compliance with the § 816.97(g) performance standards. Under that provision, in instances where cropland is the postmining land use and where appropriate for wildlife-management and crop-management practices, the operator must intersperse the crop fields with trees, hedges, or fence rows to break up large blocks of monoculture and to diversify habitat types for birds and other animals. Thus, we are retaining paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) as proposed.
A commenter requested that we define the phrase “areal distribution,” as used in paragraph (c)(2) where we require that the standards for determining revegetation success include the areal distribution of species required to be present. We disagree that a specific regulatory definition of this term is needed. In general, this paragraph requires that the replanting of the vegetation needs to resemble the general spatial distribution of plant species as they would be found in a natural setting. For example, some species may clump or grow in clusters, while others may be scattered or more evenly distributed; this premining vegetative characteristic should be exhibited within the reclaimed area as well.
Proposed paragraph (d) was substantively identical to the second sentence of paragraph (a)(2) of our previously existing regulations which established statistical confidence requirements for revegetation sampling techniques and statistical adequacy standards for determining when revegetation success standards have been met for ground cover, production, and stocking. In paragraph (d) of the preamble,
We are finalizing § 816.131 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
We are finalizing § 816.132 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
We are finalizing § 816.133 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
Proposed paragraph (b)(4) prohibited all haul or access roads from causing or contributing to, directly or indirectly, violations of water standards applicable to receiving waters. We have revised final paragraph (b)(4) to clarify, that each road must be located, designed, constructed, used, maintained, and reclaimed so that it does not violate
We are finalizing § 816.151 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
We are finalizing § 816.180 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
We are finalizing § 816.181 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
We have removed and reserved previous § 816.200 for the reasons discussed in the preamble to the proposed rule.
With the exception of altering the title of this section for clarity, we are finalizing § 817.1 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
We are finalizing § 817.2 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
Section 817.10 pertains to compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act, 44 U.S.C. 3501,
We inadvertently referred to “surface” mining activities in the proposed rule. In the final rule we have replaced “surface” with “underground.” With the exception of this modification, we are finalizing § 817.11 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
This section requires the mine operator to cap, seal, backfill, or otherwise properly manage each shaft, drift, adit, tunnel, exploratory hole, entryway, or other opening to the surface from underground. A commenter alleged that the proposed rule should be updated to provide clarification on performance standard requirements where an abandoned mine land site exists (and associated sinkholes, drifts, adits) within an active permit area, but the applicant has no intention to re-mine or otherwise disturb the abandoned mine land. The commenter suggested that the applicant should not be required to reclaim an abandoned mine land site just because it is located within an active permit. Final paragraph (e)(1) requires that the permittee permanently seal any underground opening unless the regulatory authority approves use of the hole or well for water monitoring purposes or authorizes other management of the hole or well. Final paragraph (f)(1) requires that the permittee seal these underground openings unless the regulatory authority approves another use and finds that it will not adversely affect the environment or public health and safety. An opening to an underground mine, pre-law or not, presents a risk to public health and safety. For this reason, we are finalizing § 817.13 as proposed.
We have modified this section; however, these modifications are discussed in final rule § 816.22, which is the surface mining counterpart to § 817.22.
We have modified this section; however, these modifications are discussed in final rule § 816.34, which is the surface mining counterpart to § 817.34. In addition, as discussed in the general comments Section IV. K. we have added language to final rule § 817.34(a)(2). This new language makes it clear that while underground operations must prevent material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area, if a regulatory authority determines that the permit application affirmatively demonstrates that the proposed operation, which may include temporary subsidence that can be repaired, has been designed to prevent material damage of the hydrologic balance outside the permit area, pursuant to § 817.121(c), the permit may be issued.
We have modified this section; however, these modifications are discussed in final rule § 816.35, which is the surface mining counterpart to § 817.35.
We have modified this section; however, these modifications are discussed in final rule § 816.36, which is the surface mining counterpart to § 817.36.
We have modified this section; however, these modifications are discussed in final rule § 816.37, which is the surface mining counterpart to § 817.37.
Section 817.38 describes how the operator must handle acid-forming and toxic-forming materials. Although many aspects of this section are substantively identical to the surface mining counterpart found at § 816.38, there are several differences that resulted in unique comments for this section. We received several comments from regulatory authorities and operators, recommending that we delete paragraph (a) of this section. Commenters asserted that paragraph (a) erroneously presupposes that all coal seams and the pit floor are acid forming and toxic forming materials. The commenters were particularly concerned with the requirement to specify that exposed coal seams and the stratum immediately beneath the lowest coal seam mined must be covered with a layer of compacted material with a hydraulic conductivity at least two orders of magnitude lower than the hydraulic conductivity of the adjacent less-compacted spoil to minimize contact and interaction with water. For the same reasons set forth in our preamble to § 816.38, we agree in part with the commenters.
We are revising proposed paragraph (a) to align more with underground mining issues related to the handling acid-forming or toxic forming materials. We are retaining the first part of paragraph (a) with a few changes that are specific to underground mining. We have revised paragraph (a) to clarify that for the face-up area you must identify potential acid-forming and toxic-forming materials in overburden strata and the stratum immediately below the coal seam to be mined. If the stratum immediately below the coal seam to be mined contains acid-forming or toxic-forming material, you must develop a plan to prevent any adverse hydrologic impacts that might otherwise develop as a result of exposure of that stratum.
The rationale for requiring a plan to prevent any adverse hydrologic impacts that might otherwise develop as a result of exposure of that stratum is the same discussed in preamble for § 816.38.
Several commenters questioned why paragraph (c) was included in § 817.38 of the proposed rule. They asserted that these requirements apply to surface coal mining not underground mining. We agree. The inclusion of paragraph (c) was an error and we have deleted paragraph (c) from the final rule and renumbered the other paragraphs accordingly.
To accommodate renumbering and final rule changes in part 800, we have renumbered references to part 800 in this section. With the exception of this renumbering, we are finalizing § 817.39 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
We have modified this section; however, these modifications are discussed in final rule § 816.40, which is the surface mining counterpart to § 817.40.
We have modified this section; however, these modifications are discussed in final rule § 816.41, which is the surface mining counterpart to § 817.41.
We have modified this section, including the title; however, these modifications are discussed in final rule § 816.42, which is the surface mining counterpart to § 817.42.
We have modified this section; however, these modifications are discussed in final rule § 816.43, which is the surface mining counterpart to § 817.43.
We are finalizing § 817.44 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
We have modified this section; however, these modifications are discussed in final rule § 816.45, which is the surface mining counterpart to § 817.45.
We have modified this section; however, these modifications are discussed in final rule § 816.46, which is the surface mining counterpart to § 817.46.
We have modified this section; however, these modifications are discussed in final rule § 816.47, which is the surface mining counterpart to § 817.47.
We have modified this section; however, these modifications are discussed in final rule § 816.49, which is the surface mining counterpart to § 817.49.
We have modified this section; however, these modifications are discussed in final rule § 816.55, which is the surface mining counterpart to § 817.55.
Section 817.56, like § 816.56, is a new section that we have added to address confusion expressed by commenters about which requirements in the rule apply to the various types of streams. Specifically, these commenters noted that proposed § 816.57, which would have applied to surface mining activities in, through, or adjacent to perennial or intermittent streams, also contained cross-references to proposed § n 780.28(b)(3), which would have addressed the establishment of riparian corridors for ephemeral streams. (These sections have counterparts in §§ 817.57 and 784.28 that address streams impacted by surface activities conducted in conjunction with underground mining.) To alleviate any confusion, we have added new § 817.56 which sets out the requirements for ephemeral streams. These include requirements that are counterparts to those for intermittent and perennial streams such as requirements to comply with the Clean Water Act, establish a
We have modified this section; however, these modifications are discussed in final rule § 816.57, which is the surface mining counterpart to § 817.57.
We are finalizing § 817.59 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
We have modified this section; however, these modifications are discussed in final rule § 816.61, which is the surface mining counterpart to section 817.61.
We are finalizing § 817.62 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
We are finalizing § 817.64 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
We are finalizing § 817.66 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
We are finalizing § 817.67 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
We are finalizing § 817.68 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
We have modified this section; however, these modifications are discussed in final rule § 816.71, which is the surface mining counterpart to section 817.71.
We are finalizing § 817.74 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
We have modified this section; however, these modifications are discussed in final rule § 816.81, which is the surface mining counterpart to § 817.81.
We are finalizing § 817.83 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
We are finalizing § 817.84 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
We are finalizing § 817.87 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
We are finalizing § 817.89 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
We have modified this section; however, these modifications are discussed in final rule § 816.95, which is the surface mining counterpart to section 817.95.
We have modified this section; however, these modifications are discussed in final rule § 816.97, which is the surface mining counterpart to § 817.97.
We are finalizing § 817.99 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
We are finalizing § 817.100 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
We have modified this section; however, these modifications are discussed in final rule § 816.102, which is the surface mining counterpart to § 817.102.
We are finalizing § 817.106 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
We have modified this section; however, these modifications are discussed in final rule § 816.107, which is the surface mining counterpart to § 817.107.
We have modified this section; however, these modifications are discussed in final rule § 816.111, which is the surface mining counterpart to § 817.111.
Like section 816.113, this section's surface mining counterpart, we have removed and reserved previous § 817.113 for the reasons discussed in the preamble to the proposed rule. Specifically, previous § 817.113 has been redesignated and moved to final rule § 817.111.
Like § 816.114, this section's surface mining counterpart, we have removed and reserved previous § 817.114 for the reasons discussed in the preamble to the
We are finalizing § 817.115 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
We have modified this section; however, these modifications are discussed in final rule § 816.116, which is the surface mining counterpart to § 817.116.
Consistent with the discussion about our revisions to the definition of material damage (in the context of the subsidence control provisions of §§ 784.30 and 817.121), our final paragraph (c) has been revised to specify that measures to prevent, control, or correct damage resulting from subsidence also applies to wetlands, streams and water bodies whenever the subsidence control standards are applicable to surface lands. These changes are consistent with our revised definition of material damage in the context of the subsidence provision of our regulations and the revisions to the subsidence control plan regulations at § 784.30.
Final paragraph (c)(1) provides that to the extent technologically and economically feasible, the permittee must correct any subsidence-related material damage to surface lands, wetlands, streams, or water bodies by restoring the land and water features to a condition capable of maintaining the value and reasonably foreseeable uses that the land was capable of supporting before the subsidence-related damage occurred. Final paragraph (c)(1) is substantively identical to the corresponding provisions in previous § 817.121(c)(1). The primary revision is the addition of explicit references to surface water features, consistent with the preamble to the previous definition of “material damage” in § 701.5, which states that the definition” covers damage to the surface and to surface features, such as wetlands, streams, and bodies of water, and to structures or facilities.”
Some commenters suggested that the regulations specify that the regulatory authority must consider the repair of the damage to be technologically and economically infeasible when a permittee has attempted to repair surface lands or waters for two years without achieving complete success. According to the commenters, the regulatory authority should then require the permittee to perform appropriate mitigation work. In response to these comments, we added § 817.121(g)(3)(ii), which requires that the regulatory authority initiate bond forfeiture proceedings if the permittee has not completed correction or repair of material damage to surface lands or waters or replaced adversely impacted protected water supplies within 2 years following the occurrence of that damage. Paragraph (g)(3)(ii) also requires that the regulatory authority use the funds collected to repair the surface lands and waters or replace the protected water supplies. In addition, we added § 817.121(c)(2), which requires that the permittee implement fish and wildlife enhancement measures, as approved by the regulatory authority in a permit revision, to offset subsidence-related material damage to wetlands or a perennial or intermittent stream when correction of that damage is technologically and economically infeasible. Paragraph (c)(2) is analogous to the fish and wildlife enhancement requirements in §§ 780.16(d)(3) and 784.16(d)(3) that apply when mining activities conducted on the land surface result in the permanent loss of wetlands or a segment of a perennial or intermittent stream.
We proposed to remove all of previous paragraph (c)(4), except previous paragraph (c)(4)(v) because those provisions were vacated by a court and have been suspended since December 22, 1999 (64 FR 71652-71653).
We also received comments that we should revise the proposed rule at paragraph (d) with regard to repair or compensation for damage to non-commercial buildings, dwellings, and related structures to ensure that the choice between repair and compensation rests with the person whose property has suffered damage, not the permittee causing the subsidence damage. We have not made any changes as a result of this comment because there appears to be a misunderstanding of the revisions we made in the proposed rule; our revisions were merely intended to adopt plain language principles by use of the word “you” instead of “permittee”, in doing so we did not revise the previous language or intent with regard to this issue.
Final paragraph (g)(1) provides that, when subsidence-related material damage to land (including wetlands, streams, and water bodies), structures or facilities protected under paragraphs (c) through (e) occurs, or when contamination, diminution, or interruption to a water supply protected under § 817.40 occurs, the regulatory authority must require the permittee to post additional performance bond until the repair, compensation, or replacement is completed. Apart from the clarification that the term “land” includes wetlands, streams, and water bodies, consistent with the preamble to the previous rule, this paragraph is substantively identical to the corresponding requirement in previous § 817.121(c)(5).
Final paragraph (g)(2) explains how the bond amount must be calculated. This paragraph is substantively identical to the corresponding provisions in previous § 817.121(c)(5) with one exception. We added final paragraph (g)(2)(iii) to specify that, for material damage to lands and waters, the amount of the bond must equal the estimated cost of restoring the land and waters to a condition capable of maintaining the value and reasonably foreseeable uses that they were capable of supporting before the material damage occurred. The previous rule
Final paragraph (g)(3)(i) provides that the bond requirements of paragraph (g)(1) do not apply if repair, compensation, or replacement is completed within 90 days of the occurrence of damage. Final paragraph (g)(3)(i) also establishes criteria for extension of the 90-day period that are substantively identical to the corresponding provisions of the previous rule at § 817.121(c)(5).
Final paragraph (g)(3)(ii)(A) provides that, if the permittee has not completed correction or repair of material damage to surface lands or waters or replaced adversely impacted protected water supplies within two years following the occurrence of that damage, the regulatory authority must initiate bond forfeiture proceedings under § 800.50 and use the funds collected to repair the surface lands and waters or replace the protected water supplies. We added paragraph (g)(3)(ii)(A) to the final rule to place a cap on the length of time that the bond may remain in place without any effort to correct the material damage or replace the adversely impacted water supply. Final paragraph (g)(3)(iii)(B) provides two exceptions to the requirement for initiation of bond forfeiture after two years. If either exception applies, the regulatory authority has the discretion to determine when the bond should be released. The first exception applies if the landowner refuses to allow access to implement the appropriate corrective actions. The second exception applies if the permittee demonstrates, and the regulatory authority finds, that correction or repair of the material damage to surface lands or waters is not technologically or economically feasible. When the latter exception applies, final paragraph (g)(3)(iii)(B)(
We are finalizing § 817.122 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
We are finalizing § 817.131 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
We are finalizing § 817.132 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
We are finalizing § 817.133 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
We have modified this section; however, these modifications are discussed in final rule § 816.150, which is the surface mining counterpart to § 817.150.
We are finalizing § 817.151 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
We are finalizing § 817.180 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
We are finalizing § 817.181 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
We have removed and reserved previous § 817.200 for the reasons discussed in the preamble to the proposed rule.
As discussed in the preamble to final rule § 785.14, explaining what special provisions apply to mountaintop removal mining operations, we revised § 824.11 to include a new paragraph (b)(6) in response to a comment. The language adopted in this final rule therefore includes text requiring the prevention of “damage to natural watercourses in accordance with the finding made by the regulatory authority under § 785.14 of this chapter.”
We are finalizing § 827.12 as proposed. We received no comments on this section.
The final rule that we are adopting today applies to all non-Indian lands in states with a federal regulatory program. States with federal regulatory programs include Arizona, California, Georgia, Idaho, Massachusetts, Michigan, North Carolina, Oregon, Rhode Island, South Dakota, Tennessee, and Washington. These programs are codified at 30 CFR parts 903, 905, 910, 912, 921, 922, 933, 937, 939, 941, 942, and 947, respectively. In general, there will be no need to amend the approved federal program because, with limited exceptions, each program cross-references 30 CFR parts 700, 701, 773, 774, 777, 779, 780, 783, 784, 785, 800, 816, 817, 824, and 827.
Tennessee is the only federal program state with active coal production and, thus, is the only state in which the rule would have immediate impact. Tennessee law already sharply restricts most significant mining activities in or near perennial and intermittent streams, which means that the provisions of proposed 30 CFR 780.28, 784.28, 816.57, and 817.57 pertaining to mining in, through, or near a perennial or intermittent stream, are unlikely to have much effect on mining within that state. For example, section 69-3-108(f) of the
The federal rule adopted today will have some impacts in Tennessee, For instance, unlike the final rule, the state law does not apply to stream crossings, to operations that improve the quality of stream segments previously disturbed by mining, or to coal mine waste from underground mines or coal preparation plants. Likewise, unlike the federal rule, the state law does not apply to coal transportation, storage, preparation and processing, loading, and shipping operations when necessary because of site-specific conditions, provided that those activities and operations do not cause the loss of stream function.
The following parts of the final rule also would apply to Indian lands by virtue of cross-references in 30 CFR part 750:
• 30 CFR 750.12(c)(1) includes the permitting provisions of parts 773, 774, 777, 779, 780, 783, 784, and 785 by cross-reference. There are no substantive revisions to the exceptions listed in 30 CFR 750.12(c)(2).
• 30 CFR 750.17 includes the bond and insurance provisions of subchapter J (part 800) by cross-reference.
• 30 CFR 750.16 includes the performance standards of parts 816, 817, 824, and 827 by cross-reference.
The revisions to parts 700 and 701 also would apply to Indian lands by virtue of 30 CFR 700.1(a), which prescribes that subchapter A of 30 CFR chapter VII contains “regulatory requirements and definitions generally applicable to the programs and persons covered by the Act.” After a tribe receives approval of a tribal regulatory program under section 710(j) of SMCRA,
Adoption of this final rule will not have any immediate effect on approved state regulatory programs. Each state with primacy will need to propose and adopt counterpart revisions to its regulations and other state program provisions and submit them for review by OSMRE and the public as a program amendment under 30 CFR 732.17. Under 30 CFR 732.17(g)(9), no change to state law or regulations making up the approved program may take effect for purposes of a state program until that change is approved by OSMRE as a program amendment.
We will evaluate each state regulatory program approved under 30 CFR part 732 and section 503 of the Act
Section 505(a) of the Act
Under 30 CFR 732.15(a), each state regulatory program must provide for the state to carry out the provisions and meet the purposes of the Act and its implementing regulations. In addition, that rule requires that state laws and regulations be in accordance with the provisions of the Act and consistent with the federal regulations. As defined in 30 CFR 730.5, “consistent with” and “in accordance with” mean that the state laws and regulations are no less stringent than, meet the minimum requirements of, and include all applicable provisions of the Act. The definition also provides that these terms mean that the state laws and regulations are no less effective than the federal regulations in meeting the requirements of the Act. Under 30 CFR 732.17(e)(1), we may require a state program amendment if, as a result of changes in SMCRA or the federal regulations, the approved state regulatory program no longer meets the requirements of SMCRA or the federal regulations.
Executive Order 12866 provides that the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs (OIRA) will review all significant rules. This final rule is considered a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866 because it may raise novel legal or policy issues arising out of legal mandates, the President's priorities, or the principles set forth in the Executive Order and therefore is subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB).
OMB has also found that this rule is not likely to have an annual effect of $100 million or more on the economy. We prepared a final environmental impact statement and regulatory impact analysis, which analyzed, among other things, the costs and benefits of the rule, including costs and benefits associated with environmental impacts, human health impacts, energy market effects, compliance costs, regulatory costs, coal market welfare, economic activity, coal prices, electricity production, employment, and severance taxes.
Executive Order 13563 reaffirms the principles of Executive Order 12866 while calling for improvements in the Nation's regulatory system to promote predictability, to reduce uncertainty, and to use the best, most innovative, and least burdensome tools for achieving regulatory ends. The Executive Order directs agencies to consider regulatory approaches that reduce burdens and maintain flexibility and freedom of choice for the public where these approaches are relevant, feasible, and consistent with regulatory objectives. Executive Order 13563 emphasizes further that regulations must be based on the best available science and that the rulemaking process must allow for public participation and an open exchange of ideas. We have developed this final rule in a manner consistent with these requirements.
We have prepared a final RIA and submitted it to OMB. Based upon the final RIA, we do not project that the final rule will prohibit mining in excess
The final Regulatory Flexibility Analysis, which appears in Appendix A of our final RIA, considers the extent to which the economic impacts resulting from this final rule could be borne by small businesses. Because of the complexity of corporate structures in the coal mining industry, it is difficult to calculate the exact number of small entities that could be affected by this rule. The coal mining industry is continually changing and it is common for large mining operators to merge with smaller operators, creating complicated business relationships between parent corporations and subsidiaries. For this analysis, we use information from the Mine Safety and Health Administration about mine controllers because information on parent companies is not readily available. We then used two methods for identifying small controllers:
Using the Small Business Administration (SBA) definition of small mines,
In particular, we estimate that compliance costs for surface mines with fewer than 20 employees will total between 0.1 and 3.1 percent of annual revenues, depending on mining region. For surface mines reporting 1,250 or fewer employees, we estimate that compliance costs will total between 0.1 and 3.1 percent of revenues, depending on mining region. For underground mines reporting 1,500 or fewer employees, we estimate compliance costs will total between zero and 0.1 percent of revenues, depending on mining region. The annual cost of the final rule as a share of annual revenue for a mine operated by a small entity is 1.2 percent.
The largest affected group of small coal mining entities is small surface mines in Appalachia (311 mines). We anticipate that this final rule will increase costs to small mines in Appalachia with fewer than 20 employees by approximately 1.1 percent of annual revenues for surface mines and 0.1 percent of annual revenues for underground mines. Average compliance costs for small surface mines in Appalachia with 1,250 or fewer employees are estimated to be 1.1 percent of annual revenues. Average compliance costs for small underground mines in Appalachia with 1,500 or fewer employees are estimated to be 0.1 percent of annual revenues.
The estimated impacts of the stream protection rule on small business revenues have changed in the final RIA as compared to the draft RIA for several reasons. First, the estimated costs of the rule have been revised in the final RIA to reflect public comments as well as rule changes. Second, the SBA's small business thresholds for businesses in the coal industry have been revised since development of the draft RIA. Specifically, the SBA thresholds for surface and underground mining were 500 employees in the draft RIA, but the SBA now splits the industry into three parts with separate thresholds: Bituminous coal and lignite surface mining has a threshold of 1,250 employees, bituminous coal underground mining has a threshold of 1,500 employees, and anthracite mining has a threshold of 250 employees. While increasing the thresholds for these businesses results in more businesses being included as small entities, the impacts per business are smaller as a result. Third, as a consequence of changes we made in response to public comments, we revisited the distribution of administrative costs among entities. In the draft RIA, we assumed that administrative costs were evenly distributed across mining businesses, regardless of size. This resulted in the appearance of larger revenue impacts to smaller businesses associated with these costs. However, after reconsidering the various administrative cost components, we concluded that assuming a linear relationship between administrative costs and tons of coal produced is likely to more accurately estimate the administrative burden of the final rule. In section A.4 of the final RIA, the analysis recognizes that some administrative costs, such as increased monitoring requirements, may vary depending on the physical size of the mine. To the extent that small mines are physically smaller, they may need to collect fewer samples than assumed in the standard mine used to estimate costs. Additionally, in general, there are likely to be fewer permits required of smaller operations. Thus, the final RIA estimates revenue impacts per business by assuming a linear relationship exists between administrative costs and the tons of coal produced by an entity. The final RIA also recognizes that small coal producers may be disproportionately impacted by the final rule because they may be more likely to lease the land that they mine, operate with smaller budgets, and struggle to pay the minimum royalty payments, thus facing a greater risk of shutting down as coal production costs increase. Further, the final RIA recognizes that to the extent that administrative costs are independent of the scale of the affected operations, revenue impacts could be larger for small entities than are presented in this analysis. This aspect of the analysis is caveated in Exhibits A-9 through A-14 of the final RIA.
Section 507(c) of SMCRA
Under section 507(c)(1) of SMCRA
• Preparation of the determination of the probable hydrologic consequences of mining, including collection and analysis of baseline data and any engineering analyses and designs needed for the determination.
• Collection and analysis of geological data.
• Development of cross-sections, maps, and plans.
• Collection of information on archaeological and historical resources and preparation of any related plans.
• Development of preblast surveys.
• Collection of site-specific information on fish and wildlife resources and preparation of fish and wildlife protection and enhancement plans.
These activities include many of the new permit application requirements in this final rule;
SOAP funding is subject to annual appropriation from the federal expense portion of the Abandoned Mine Reclamation Fund established under section 401(a) of SMCRA.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act as amended by the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act (SBREFA) generally requires an agency to prepare a regulatory flexibility analysis of any rule subject to notice and comment rulemaking requirements under the Administrative Procedure Act, unless the head of the agency certifies that the rule would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
Although it is not required, OSMRE nevertheless chose to prepare an Initial Regulatory Flexibility Analysis and Final Regulatory Flexibility Analysis for this rule. Even though this rule is not economically significant, OSMRE believes it is prudent, and potentially helpful to small entities, to provide an IRFA and FRFA for the rulemaking. This decision should not be viewed as a precedent for other rulemakings.
As discussed in response to comments on the final RIA, Appendix I, this final rule will not impose an unfunded mandate on state, local, or tribal governments or the private sector of $100 million or more per year. As discussed in Chapter 9 of the final RIA, the total aggregate annual compliance and related costs for this rule are on the order of $81 million (when calculated at a seven percent real rate of discount), which includes the costs that state regulatory agencies are expected to bear.
Under the criteria in Executive Order 12630, we have made a determination that this final rule does not have specific, identifiable takings implications. First, based upon the final RIA, we do not project that this final rule will prohibit mining in excess of baseline conditions of any particular coal reserves. In Chapter 5 of the final RIA we analyze the potential for coal reserves to be “stranded” or “sterilized.” We define stranded reserves as those that are technically and economically minable, but unavailable for production given the new requirements and restrictions included in the final rule. Our analysis indicates that there will be no increase in stranded reserves, that is, the engineering analyses determined that the same volume of coal could be mined under the final rule as under the baseline. Second, the question of whether this final rule might affect a compensable taking of a particular property interest necessarily involves ad hoc factual inquiries, including the economic impact of the final rule on a particular claimant; the extent to which this final rule might interfere with a claimant's reasonable, investment-backed expectations; and the character of the government action. None of these factual inquiries is possible for a national rule of this scope, which does not specifically bar the mining of any particular coal reserves. However, based upon the final RIA, we have no basis to believe that implementation of this final rule will result in compensable takings of any specific property interests.
Executive Order 13132, entitled “Federalism” (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999), requires that we develop a process to ensure “meaningful and timely input by State and local officials in the development of regulatory policies that have federalism implications.” Policies that have federalism implications are defined in the Executive Order to include regulations that have “substantial direct effects on the States [in terms of compliance costs], on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.” In addition, policies have federalism implications if they preempt State law. In terms of compliance costs, the Federal government must provide the necessary funds to pay the direct costs
1. Results in direct expenditures to state and local governments in aggregate of $25 million in any one year; or
2. Results in expenditures to state and local governments greater than one percent of their annual revenues in any one year.
As explained in Chapter 4.4 of the final RIA, and in our Paperwork Reduction Act analysis in section J of the Procedural Matters and Required Determinations of this preamble, we do not anticipate that this rule will result in greater compliance costs for the States above thresholds listed above. As discussed in Part IV.C. of this preamble, we also do not expect this rule to impact the relationship between the Federal government and the States or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government, as specified in the Order.
Executive Order 12898, “Federal Actions to Address Environmental Justice in Minority Populations and Low-Income Populations” (February 11, 1994), requires federal agencies to identify disproportionately large and adverse human health or environmental effects of their programs, policies, and activities on minority and low-income populations. Among other actions, agencies are directed to improve research and data collection regarding health and environmental effects in minority and low-income communities. We provide this analysis in the final EIS for the final rule in the Environmental Justice discussion at section 4.4.
Where coal extraction occurs on Indian lands, we are the SMRCA regulatory authority. Therefore, the final rule has the potential to affect Indian tribes. Consistent with Executive Order 13175, the President's memorandum of April 29, 1994, “Government-to-Government Relations with Native American Tribal Governments” (59 FR 22951), the Department of the Interior Policy on Consultation with Indian Tribes (Dec. 1, 2011), and 512 Departmental Manual 2, we evaluated possible effects of the rule on federally recognized Indian tribes and engaged in government-to-government consultations. On May 12, 2010, our Director met with the Chairmen of the Hopi and Crow Tribes and the President of the Navajo Nation to initiate consultation on the stream protection rulemaking and development of the DEIS. The Tribes in attendance requested that they be kept informed of the rulemaking process and EIS development.
Our Director again met with tribal leaders in Washington, DC on December 1, 2011. At that time, we provided additional information on the elements under consideration for the alternatives in the DEIS and discussed the expected impacts to the SMCRA regulatory program for Indian lands. From 2010-2016, the status of the stream protection rule was often included during our quarterly government-to-government meetings with the Crow Tribe, the Hopi Tribe, and the Navajo Nation. Our Western Regional Office conducts these quarterly consultation meetings with the Tribes to discuss topics of interest such as our rulemakings activities, coal mining operations on Tribal lands, and development of Tribal primacy.
On August 28, 2015, our Director sent letters to the Hopi and Crow Tribes and the Navajo Nation notifying them of the publication of our proposed stream protection rule, DEIS, and DRIA. The letters again included an offer to meet with the Tribes and further discuss the proposed rule and DEIS. On November 6, 2015, we requested government-to-government consultation with the Hopi Tribe, Crow Tribe, and Navajo Nation.
At the request of the Navajo Nation, OSMRE Director Joseph Pizarchik conducted government-to-government consultation with Navajo Nation Tribal leaders in Window Rock, Arizona on January 13, 2016. During the meeting the Navajo Tribal leaders were briefed on the proposed stream protection rule. On May 4, 2016, we offered to continue government-to-government consultation on an ongoing basis at the request of the Navajo Nation. A consultation meeting also occurred with the Navajo Nation on June 15, 2016, during which the Navajo Nation indicated its support for the letter sent by the western states and that it had no further comments on the proposed stream protection rule. We also consulted with the Hopi Tribe on June 28, 2016, at which time the Tribal representative indicated that the Hopi Tribe had no further comments on the proposed stream protection rule.
The Crow Tribe did not request additional consultation in response to our offer on November 6, 2015, or during subsequent government-to-government quarterly meetings held with the Tribe on January 13, 2016 and May 24, 2016, when the stream protection rule was discussed. On September 28, 2016, during an Executive Order 12866 meeting on the stream protection rule, a Crow tribal representative indicated that the Tribe wanted additional consultation on the stream protection rule. As a follow-up, we sent a letter to the Crow Tribe on September 29, 2016, explaining that we were in the late stages of rulemaking but offering to meet with the Tribe at the earliest opportunity. Having not received a response in over 30 days, we proceeded to finalize the rule and its supporting documents.
On November 15, 2016, the day the final environmental impact statement was released to the public, we received a letter from the Crow Tribe asking for consultation starting in January 2017. On November 17, 2016, the Chairman of the Crow Tribe requested a meeting with the Assistant Secretary for Land and Minerals Management to discuss the rule and consultation with the Crow Tribe. This meeting took place the following day on November 18, 2016, which was also attended by the Director and Deputy Director of OSMRE. The tribe did not raise any new issues at the meeting that had not already been considered. Additionally, we informed the Tribe that we did consider the comments of the Montana Department of Environmental Quality, Cloud Peak Energy, and Westmoreland Coal Company, which the Tribe indicated that they concurred with and adopted pending further review. We also committed to the Chairman that we would continue to work with and meet with the Tribe during implementation of the rule.
In addition, we sent letters to the Southern Ute Indian Tribe, Ute Mountain Ute Tribe, and Northern Cheyenne Tribe on March 7, 2016 requesting government-to-government consultation on the stream protection rule. The three Tribes did not respond to these requests.
We are committed to continuing working and meeting with the Tribes during implementation of the rule.
This final rule is not a significant energy action under Executive Order 13211. As discussed below and in the final RIA, the revisions contained in this final rule will not have a significant effect on the supply, distribution, or use of energy.
The Office of Management and Budget has identified nine outcomes that may constitute “a significant adverse
In the final RIA, we analyzed the effects of the final rule on coal production and electricity production. Regarding coal production, this final rule is not expected to result in a reduction in national coal production in excess of five million tons per year. The greatest single-year reduction in domestic coal production is expected to occur in 2021, reaching 2.3 million tons. The change in production from baseline conditions over the period of this analysis is on average 0.7 million tons, significantly smaller than the 5 million tons that is considered a significant adverse effect.
This final rule may also affect levels of domestic electricity production by influencing the costs of production. By increasing the costs of coal production, the final rule may lead to subsequent increases in the price of coal paid by power plants. Because coal makes up a significant part of the domestic energy mix, a change in the price of coal is expected to be reflected in domestic electricity prices, reducing market demand for electricity. The final RIA uses the Energy Ventures Associates coal market model to predict the changes in electricity supply and demand resulting from the final rule. Electricity is an essential service in the United States industrial, commercial, and residential sectors. Typically a supply reduction of an essential good or service is followed by an immediate price spike. The extent and duration of the price spike depends on the economic viability of alternative inputs to substitute for the initial supply reduction over a period of time as alternative investments are made. In the case of the United States power generating sector and the increasingly diverse array of energy inputs, higher cost of one form of electricity generation, such as coal, will result in an increase in use of an alternative form of electricity generation, such as natural gas. Due to the substitution of alternative forms of generation for coal, in the long-term there is a negligible effect on the supply and demand for electricity as a result of the final rule.
There is some long-term cost involved in moving from one fuel source to another due to additional capital expenditures. This cost is ultimately reflected in the price of electricity. Thereby, the final rule will result in a slightly elevated electricity price that will translate to an expected decrease in electricity consumption by 78 million kilowatt hours. In the United States, reduced electricity consumption has typically been achieved by adoption of more energy efficient practices such as purchases of energy efficient appliances by households.
This final rule will introduce a number of new requirements that may increase the overall costs of energy produced by coal. Compliance costs are estimated to make up less than one percent of total coal production costs, nationally, in every year within the study period. On average, compliance costs are expected to account for 0.18 percent of total coal production costs, nationally. The final rule may result in an increase in the price of coal, which may increase the costs of electricity production nationwide. We do not expect that this final rule will result in an increase in electricity production costs exceeding one percent over the 21-year study period. Instead, as explained in the final RIA, on average, this final rule is expected to increase electricity costs nationwide by less than .01 percent.
Under 5 CFR part 1320, the rules implementing the information collection aspects of the Paperwork Reduction Act, a federal agency must estimate the burden imposed on the public by any proposed collection of information. This burden consists of “the total time, effort, or financial resources expended by persons to generate, maintain, retain, or disclose or provide information to or for a Federal agency.”
We estimated the aggregate burden (in hours) for information collection under the final rule by calculating the number of hours that industry and state governments would need to comply with each element of the rule.
In addition, we estimated the total annual non-hour cost burden to respondents. These non-wage costs include items such as equipment required for monitoring, sampling, drilling and testing, operation and maintenance, and purchase of services.
We calculated the total estimated burden for two respondent groups, mine operators and state regulatory authorities, on an annual basis averaged over a 3-year period.
We sought comments from the public on the information collection activities for our regulations that would be revised by the proposed stream protection rule. Although no comments were submitted to the information collection clearance officer during the public comment period a number of comments were submitted regarding burden (hours and non-wage costs) which we considered in preparing this final rule and associated information collection clearance packages.
This final rule contains collections of information that we have submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and were approved in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act, 44 U.S.C. 3501,
The table below summarizes estimated information collection burdens for our regulations as revised by this final rule. We calculated the total estimated burden for two respondent groups, mine operators and state regulatory authorities, on an annual basis averaged over a 3-year period. The table does not include operational or other costs that do not involve a collection of information. For ease of understanding, the following table depicts burden increases as a result of the rule and total burden by 30 CFR part after implementation of the rule, but not programmatic changes where burden is moved between 30 CFR parts or between sections, which is less meaningful to respondents.
Under the Paperwork Reduction Act, we must obtain OMB approval of all information and recordkeeping requirements. In accordance with 44 U.S.C. 3507(d), we submitted the information collection and recordkeeping requirements of 30 CFR parts 779, 780, 783, 784, 785, 800, 816, and 817 to OMB for review, and OMB approved them.
No person is required to respond to an information collection request unless the forms and regulations requesting the information have currently valid OMB control numbers. These control numbers appear in §§ 779.10, 780.10, 783.10, 784.10, 785.10, 800.10, 816.10, and 817.10.
You should direct any comments on the accuracy of our burden estimates; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and ways to minimize the burden of collection on respondents, to the Information Collection Clearance Officer, Office of Surface Mining Reclamation and Enforcement, 1951 Constitution Ave. NW., Room 203 SIB, Washington, DC 20240.
The revisions to our regulations constitute a major Federal action affecting the quality of the natural and human environment under the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (NEPA). Therefore, we prepared a final Environmental Impact Statement (FEIS) pursuant to section 102(2)(C) of NEPA, 42 U.S.C. 4332(2)(C), the Council on Environmental Quality's (CEQ) implementing regulations (40 CFR part 1500 through 1508), and the Department's implementing regulations (43 CFR part 46). The FEIS, which is entitled “Stream Protection Rule; Final Environmental Impact Statement,” is available on the Internet at
We, along with the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, published notices of availability of the FEIS on November 16, 2016, 81 FR 80592 and 81 FR 80664, respectively. In accordance with 40 CFR 1506.10(b)(2), a final decision on the proposed action was not made until at least thirty days after publication of the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency's notice.
The purpose of the proposed action is to update and revise our regulations to provide a better balance between the Nation's need for coal as an essential energy source with the need to prevent or mitigate adverse environmental effects of present and future surface coal mining operations. The proposed action will apply to both surface mines and underground mines and will protect, minimize, and mitigate adverse impacts on surface water, groundwater, and site productivity, with particular emphasis on protecting or restoring streams, aquatic ecosystems, riparian habitats and corridors, native vegetation, and the ability of mined land to support the uses that it was capable of supporting before mining.
Despite the enactment of SMCRA and the promulgation of federal regulations implementing the statute, scientific studies published since the adoption of our previous regulations indicate that surface coal mining operations continue to have significant negative impacts on streams, fish, and wildlife, which has created a need for us to update and revise the regulations to reflect the best available science in order to avoid or minimize these negative impacts, and provide regulatory certainty to industry. Further evidence is available through several decades of our observing the impacts of coal mining operations. In addition since our earlier rulemakings, there have been significant improvements in technologies and methods for prediction, prevention, mitigation, and reclamation of coal mining impacts on hydrology, streams, fish, wildlife, and related resources. (
Additional information about the alternatives considered and the Preferred Alternative selected may be reviewed in the FEIS. The evaluation of alternatives, including the No Action Alternative, and decision to implement the Preferred Alternative is documented in the Record of Decision, which is available on the Internet at
We completed formal Section 7 consultations with the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service on the continuation of existing permits and the approval and conduct of future surface coal mining and reclamation operations under both state and federal regulatory programs adopted pursuant to SMCRA, as modified by the final rule. OSMRE and the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service agree that, due to the broad scope of this rulemaking and consultation, and because the action under consultation sufficiently modifies the OSMRE's regulations consulted on under the 1996 Biological Opinion, that this section 7 consultation supersedes the 1996 Biological Opinion for all future permitting actions. While the incidental take statement accompanying the 1996 Biological Opinion will remain valid for all existing surface coal mining and reclamation permits that complied with the terms and conditions of the 1996 Biological Opinion to obtain incidental take coverage prior to the effective date of the stream protection rule, any new permits, or revisions to previously approved permits where a revision would change the manner or extent of effects to species, would need to complete the technical assistance process identified in the new 2016 Biological Opinion and accompanying Memorandum of Understanding (MOU) or a habitat conservation plan under Section 10 of the ESA in order to demonstrate ESA compliance.
As noted elsewhere in this preamble, FEIS, and the 2016 Biological Opinion, significant new information has become available that reveals that surface coal mining operations affect listed and proposed species and proposed and designated critical habitats in a manner and to an extent not considered in the 1996 Biological Opinion, independently triggering reinitiation of ESA section 7 consultation on the 1996 Biological Opinion. Therefore, even without this rulemaking, OSMRE would have been required to reinitiate consultation on the continuation of existing permits and the approval and conduct of future surface coal mining and reclamation operations under both state and federal regulatory programs adopted pursuant to SMCRA. Further, any failure by OSMRE to ensure full implementation of this rulemaking in the Federal programs and all approved state regulatory programs would require OSMRE to reinitiate consultation on its surface coal mining program.
Because full implementation of the final rule could potentially take several years under SMCRA's cooperative federalism framework, OSMRE included in its ESA section 7 consultation an evaluation of the potential impacts to species resulting from the continuation of existing permits approved under the 1996 Biological Opinion and the approval and conduct of future surface coal mining and reclamation operations by states under the existing regulations between the effective date of the stream protection rule and the time when states update their programs to be consistent with OSMRE's stream protection rule and all program amendments are approved by OSMRE. Therefore, the scope of the consultation includes direct implementation and enforcement of the final rule in federal program states, oversight of state programs under the existing regulations until those states amend their approved programs to be consistent with the final stream protection rule, oversight of state programs as modified to be consistent with the final stream protection rule, including OSMRE's oversight of compliance with requirements related to the protection and enhancement of proposed or listed species and proposed or designated critical habitats.
Through the process of completing this section 7 consultation, OSMRE and the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service entered into a MOU to improve
The U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service issued a programmatic Biological Opinion finding that OSMRE's direct enforcement of the federal regulatory program, approval and conduct of surface coal mining and reclamation operations by primacy states, and oversight and enforcement of those state programs, as modified by the final rule and associated MOU, is not likely to jeopardize the continued existence of proposed and listed species and is not likely to destroy or adversely modify proposed or designated critical habitat. Compliance with the terms and conditions of the 2016 programmatic Biological Opinion and the MOU is only required where a proposed surface coal mining operation may affect proposed or federally-listed species or proposed or designated critical habitat and the proposed operation chooses to obtain incidental take coverage through compliance with the 2016 programmatic Biological Opinion. Alternatively, where a proposed operation may impact proposed or federally-listed species or proposed or designated critical habitat, the applicant may pursue ESA compliance through a process under section 10 or may modify its project so that it no longer has the potential to impact species or critical habitat.
Further details on this consultation can be found in the Biological Assessment and Biological Opinion for the final rule, available at
We have determined that adoption of the final rule would have no effect on species under the jurisdiction of the National Marine Fisheries Service. As discussed below, no listed or proposed species under the National Marine Fisheries Service's jurisdiction occur in the study area or in such proximity to it that there would be any direct or indirect effects on them from this action.
One federal agency specifically asked if we gave consideration to the impact upon salmon near Tyonek, Alaska. We did, and there are no listed salmon species in Alaska that would be impacted by mining activity. Furthermore, in response to the proposed rule, another commenter stated that we must consult with the National Marine Fisheries Service on this rule. The commenter also stated that because of the potential impacts to species under the National Marine Fisheries Service's jurisdiction, regulatory authorities must include the National Marine Fisheries Service in consultations pursuant to section 7 of the Endangered Species Act.
The commenter also stated there could be effects to the Carolina distinct population segment of the Atlantic sturgeon from potential mining in North Carolina. There has been no coal mining in North Carolina since 1953. North Carolina is not a part of the action area for this rulemaking and no mining is expected to occur there. Therefore, we have determined that this action will have no effect on the Carolina distinct population segment of Atlantic sturgeon.
The commenter also stated that this rulemaking may have effects on the lower Rio Grande River and the Gulf of Mexico. The National Marine Fisheries Service provided us with a list of species that may be potentially affected in the Gulf of Mexico. The list included the following sea turtle and whale species: North Atlantic distinct population segment of the green turtle, the leatherback sea turtle, the northwest Atlantic distinct population segment of the loggerhead sea turtle, the hawksbill sea turtle, the Kemp's ridley sea turtle, the humpback whale, the sei whale, the fin whale, and the blue whale. None of these species occur in the action area in Texas, nor do they occur in the lower Rio Grande River. These obligate marine species (sea turtles and whales) occur in saltwater in the Gulf of Mexico. They never enter freshwater and do not occur in the area that this rule will impact. Because coal mining occurs in inland areas in this region, drainage from mining would have to travel down tributaries, into streams, then into large rivers and finally out into the Gulf of Mexico before any of the marine species could potentially be encountered. We conducted a geographic information system analysis of the drainage distance from potentially mineable coal to the Gulf Coast. The minimum drainage distance from potentially mineable coal to the Gulf Coast is 80 river miles. We determined that the long distance, and the volume and chemistry of the receiving waters means that there would be no detectable residue of the drainage by the time the drainage encounters any threatened or endangered species. Therefore, there would be no effect on the marine species cited by the commenter.
In conclusion, we determined that this rulemaking will have no effect on
In developing this final rule, we did not conduct or use a study, experiment, or survey requiring peer review under the Data Quality Act (Pub. L. 106-554).
Administrative practice and procedure, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Surface mining, Underground mining
Law enforcement, Surface mining, Underground mining
Administrative practice and procedure, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Surface mining, Underground mining
Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Surface mining, Underground mining
Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Surface mining, Underground mining
Environmental protection, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Surface mining
Incorporation by reference, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Surface mining
Environmental protection, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Underground mining
Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Underground mining
Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Surface mining, Underground mining
Insurance, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Surety bonds, Surface mining, Underground mining
Environmental protection, Incorporation by reference, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Surface mining
Environmental protection, Incorporation by reference, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Underground mining
Environmental protection, Surface mining
Environmental protection, Surface mining, Underground mining.
For the reasons set forth in the preamble, the Department amends 30 CFR parts 700, 701, 773, 774, 777, 779, 780, 783, 784, 785, 800, 816, 817, 824, and 827 as set forth below.
30 U.S.C. 1201
(d)
(2)
(i) The regulatory authority determines in writing that all requirements imposed under the applicable regulatory program have been successfully completed; or
(ii) Where a performance bond or financial assurance was required, the regulatory authority has made a final decision in accordance with the applicable regulatory program to release the performance bond or financial assurance fully.
(3)
(i) Conditions develop after termination of jurisdiction that would constitute a violation of the reclamation requirements of the applicable regulatory program;
(ii) The conditions described in paragraph (d)(3)(i) of this section are the result of surface coal mining operations for which jurisdiction was terminated; and
(iii) The written determination or bond release referred to in paragraph (d)(1) or (2) of this section was based upon fraud, collusion, or the intentional or unintentional misrepresentation of a material fact. The intentional or unintentional misrepresentation of a material fact includes the discovery of a discharge requiring treatment after termination of jurisdiction, provided that the conditions creating the need for treatment are the result of the mining operation.
(4)
30 U.S.C. 1201
The revisions and additions read as follows:
(1)
(ii) In the context of the Endangered Species Act of 1973, 16 U.S.C. 1531
(2)
(3)
(1) Actual or proposed permit area.
(2) HUC-12 (U.S. Geological Survey 12-digit Watershed Boundary Dataset) watershed or watersheds in which the actual or proposed permit area is located or a differently-sized watershed adequate for purposes of preparation of the cumulative hydrologic impact assessment, as determined by the regulatory authority.
(3) Any other area within which impacts resulting from an actual or proposed surface or underground coal mining operation may interact with the impacts of all existing and anticipated surface and underground coal mining on surface-water and groundwater systems, including the impacts that existing and anticipated mining will have during mining and reclamation until final bond release. At a minimum, existing and anticipated mining must include:
(i) The proposed operation;
(ii) All existing surface and underground coal mining operations;
(iii) Any proposed surface or underground coal mining operation for which a permit application has been submitted to the regulatory authority;
(iv) Any proposed surface or underground coal mining operation for which a request for an authorization, certification, or permit has been submitted under the Clean Water Act; and
(v) All existing and proposed coal mining operations that are required to
(1) Spoil used to restore the approximate original contour;
(2) Spoil used to blend the final configuration of the mined-out area with the surrounding terrain in non-steep slope areas in accordance with § 816.102(b)(3) or § 817.102(b)(2) of this chapter;
(3) Spoil placed outside the mined-out area as part of a remining operation under § 816.106 or § 817.106 of this chapter;
(4) Spoil placed within the mined-out area in accordance with the thick overburden provisions of § 816.105(b)(1) of this chapter, with the exception of spoil material placed on the mined-out area as part of an excess spoil fill with a toe located outside the mined-out area; or
(5) Any temporary stockpile of material that will be subsequently transported to another location.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(i) Extraction or transformation of materials for fabrication of products, wholesaling of products, or long-term storage of products. This includes all heavy and light manufacturing facilities.
(ii) Retail or trade of goods or services, including hotels, motels, stores, restaurants, and other commercial establishments.
(7)
(8)
(9)
(10)
(1) Any functional impairment of surface lands, surface features (including wetlands, streams, and bodies of water), structures, or facilities;
(2) Any physical change that—
(i) Has a significant adverse impact on the affected land's capability to support any current or reasonably foreseeable uses; or
(ii) Causes a significant loss in production or income; or
(3) Any significant change in the condition, appearance, or utility of any structure or facility from its pre-subsidence condition.
(1) For a surface water located outside the permit area, effects that cause or contribute to a violation of applicable state or tribal water quality standards, including, but not limited to, state or tribal water quality standards established under section 303(c) of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1313(c), or, for a surface water for which water quality standards have not been established, effects that cause or contribute to non-attainment of any premining use of that surface water outside the permit area;
(2) Effects that cause or contribute to a violation of applicable state or tribal water quality standards for groundwater located outside the permit area, or effects that preclude a premining use of groundwater located outside the permit area; or
(3) Effects that result in a violation of the Endangered Species Act of 1973, 16 U.S.C. 1531
(a)
(1) Any application for a new permit submitted to the regulatory authority after the effective date of the stream protection rule under the applicable regulatory program.
(2) Any application for a new permit pending a decision under § 773.7 of this chapter or its state program counterpart as of the effective date of the stream protection rule under the applicable regulatory program, unless the regulatory authority has determined the application to be administratively complete under § 777.15 of this chapter or its state program counterpart before the effective date of the stream protection rule under the applicable regulatory program.
(3) Any application for the addition of acreage to an existing permit submitted to the regulatory authority after the effective date of the stream protection rule under the applicable regulatory program, with the exception of applications for incidental boundary revisions that do not propose to add acreage for coal removal.
(4) Any application for the addition of acreage to an existing permit pending a decision under § 773.7 of this chapter or its state program counterpart as of the effective date of the stream protection rule under the applicable regulatory program, with two exceptions:
(i) Applications for incidental boundary revisions that do not propose to add acreage for coal removal; and
(ii) Applications that the regulatory authority has determined to be administratively complete before the effective date of the stream protection rule under the applicable regulatory program.
(5) Any application for a permit revision submitted on or after the effective date of the stream protection rule under the applicable regulatory program, or pending a decision as of that date, that proposes a new excess spoil fill, coal mine waste refuse pile, or coal mine waste slurry impoundment or that proposes to move or expand the location of an approved excess spoil fill or coal mine waste facility.
(b) [Reserved]
30 U.S.C. 1201
(a) To avoid duplication, each regulatory program must provide for the coordination of review of permit applications and issuance of permits for surface coal mining operations with the federal and state agencies responsible for permitting and related actions under the following laws and their implementing regulations:
(1) The Clean Water Act (33 U.S.C. 1251
(2) The Endangered Species Act of 1973 (16 U.S.C. 1531
(3) The Fish and Wildlife Coordination Act (16 U.S.C. 661
(4) The Migratory Bird Treaty Act of 1918 (16 U.S.C. 703
(5) The Bald and Golden Eagle Protection Act (16 U.S.C. 668-668d).
(b) In addition to the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section, each federal regulatory program must provide for coordination of the review of permit applications and issuance of permits for surface coal mining operations with applicable requirements of the following laws and their implementing regulations:
(1) The National Historic Preservation Act of 1966 (54 U.S.C. 300101
(2) The Archeological and Historic Preservation Act of 1974 (16 U.S.C. 469
(3) The Archaeological Resources Protection Act of 1979 (16 U.S.C. 470aa
(4) The National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4371
(a)
(b)
(2) If no informal conference is held under § 773.6(c) of this part, the regulatory authority must issue a decision on the application within a reasonable time established in the regulatory program. In determining what constitutes a reasonable time, the regulatory authority must consider the following five factors:
(i) The time needed for proper site investigations.
(ii) The complexity of the permit application.
(iii) Whether there are any written objections on file.
(iv) Whether the application previously has been approved or disapproved, in whole or in part.
(v) The time required for coordination of permitting activities with other agencies under § 773.5 of this part.
(c)
The regulatory authority may not approve any application for a permit or a significant revision of a permit that you, the applicant, submit unless the application affirmatively demonstrates and the regulatory authority finds, in writing, on the basis of information set forth in the application or from information otherwise available that is documented in the approval, that—
(a) The application is accurate and complete and you have complied with all applicable requirements of the Act and the regulatory program.
(b) You have demonstrated that reclamation as required by the Act and the regulatory program can be accomplished under the reclamation plan contained in the permit application.
(c) The proposed permit area is not within an area—
(1) Under study or administrative proceedings under a petition filed pursuant to part 764 or part 769 of this chapter to have an area designated as unsuitable for surface coal mining operations, unless you demonstrate that you made substantial legal and financial commitments before January 4, 1977, in relation to the operation covered by the permit application;
(2) Designated under parts 762 and 764 or 769 of this chapter as unsuitable for the type of surface coal mining operations that you propose to conduct; or
(3) Subject to the prohibitions of § 761.11 of this chapter, unless one or more of the exceptions provided under that section apply.
(d) For mining operations where the private mineral estate to be mined has been severed from the private surface estate, you have submitted to the regulatory authority the documentation required under § 778.15(b) of this chapter.
(e) The regulatory authority has—
(1) Made an assessment of the probable cumulative impacts of all anticipated coal mining on the hydrologic balance in the cumulative impact area; and
(2) Determined that the proposed operation has been designed to prevent material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area.
(f) You have demonstrated that any existing structure will comply with § 701.11(d) of this chapter and the applicable performance standards of subchapter B or K of this chapter.
(g) You have paid all reclamation fees from previous and existing operations as required by subchapter R of this chapter.
(h) You have satisfied the applicable requirements of part 785 of this chapter.
(i) If applicable, you have satisfied the requirements for approval of a long-term, intensive agricultural postmining land use.
(j)(1) You have provided documentation that the proposed surface coal mining and reclamation operations would have no effect on species listed or proposed for listing as threatened or endangered under the Endangered Species Act of 1973, 16 U.S.C. 1531
(2) You and the regulatory authority have documented compliance with a valid biological opinion that covers issuance of permits for surface coal mining operations and the conduct of those operations under the applicable regulatory program; or
(3) You have provided documentation that interagency consultation under section 7 of the Endangered Species Act of 1973, 16 U.S.C. 1536, has been completed for the proposed operation; or
(4) You have provided documentation that the proposed operation is covered under a permit issued pursuant to section 10 of the Endangered Species Act of 1973, 16 U.S.C. 1539.
(k) The regulatory authority has taken into account the effect of the proposed permitting action on properties listed on and eligible for listing on the National Register of Historic Places. This finding may be supported in part by inclusion of appropriate permit conditions or changes in the operation plan protecting historic resources or a documented decision that the regulatory authority has determined that no additional protection measures are necessary.
(l) For a proposed remining operation where you intend to reclaim in accordance with the requirements of § 816.106 or § 817.106 of this chapter, the site of the operation is a previously mined area, as that term is defined in § 701.5 of this chapter.
(m) You are eligible to receive a permit, based on the reviews under §§ 773.7 through 773.14 of this part.
(n) You have demonstrated, and the regulatory authority concurs, that—
(1) The operation has been designed to prevent the formation of toxic mine drainage that would require long-term treatment after mining has been completed.
(2) A thorough analysis of all available evidence supports a conclusion that the design of the proposed operation will work as intended to prevent the formation of discharges that would require long-term treatment after mining has been completed. If a study or other evidence supports a contrary conclusion, you must explain why that study or other evidence is not credible or applicable to the proposed operation.
(o) To the extent possible using the best technology currently available, the proposed operation has been designed to minimize disturbances and adverse impacts on fish, wildlife, and related environmental values and to achieve enhancement of those resources where practicable, as required under § 780.16 or § 784.16 of this chapter.
The regulatory authority must include the following conditions in each permit issued:
(a) You, the permittee, may conduct surface coal mining and reclamation operations only on those lands that are specifically designated as the permit area on the maps submitted with the application and authorized for the term of the permit and that are subject to the performance bond or other equivalent guarantee in effect pursuant to part 800 of this chapter.
(b) You must conduct all surface coal mining and reclamation operations only as described in the approved application, except to the extent that the regulatory authority otherwise directs in the permit.
(c) You must comply with the terms and conditions of the permit, all applicable requirements of the Act, and the requirements of the regulatory program.
(d) Without advance notice, delay, or a search warrant, upon presentation of appropriate credentials, you must allow authorized representatives of the Secretary and the regulatory authority to—
(1) Have the right of entry provided for in §§ 842.13 and 840.12 of this chapter; and
(2) Be accompanied by private persons for the purpose of conducting an inspection in accordance with parts 840 and 842 of this chapter, when the inspection is in response to an alleged violation reported to the regulatory authority by the private person.
(e) You must take all possible steps to minimize any adverse impact to the environment or public health and safety resulting from noncompliance with any term or condition of the permit, including, but not limited to—
(1) Any accelerated or additional monitoring necessary to determine the nature and extent of noncompliance and the results of the noncompliance.
(2) Immediate implementation of measures necessary to comply.
(3) Warning, as soon as possible after learning of such noncompliance, any person whose health and safety is in imminent danger due to the noncompliance.
(4) Notifying the regulatory authority and other appropriate state and federal regulatory agencies whenever conditions within the permit area result in an imminent danger to the health or safety of the public or cause or can reasonably be expected to cause significant, imminent environmental harm to land, air, or water resources, regardless of whether a noncompliance exists.
(f) As applicable, you must comply with § 701.11(d) and subchapter B or K of this chapter for compliance, modification, or abandonment of existing structures.
(g) You or the operator must pay all reclamation fees required by subchapter R of this chapter for coal produced under the permit for sale, transfer, or use, in the manner required by that subchapter.
(h) You must obtain all necessary authorizations, certifications, and permits in accordance with other applicable federal, state, and tribal laws before conducting any activities that require authorization, certification, or a permit under those laws.
(i) You must comply with all effluent limitations and conditions in any National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System permit issued for your operation by the appropriate authority under the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1251
(a) We, the regulatory authority, will take the actions set forth in paragraphs (b) through (f) of this section if we issue a permit on the basis of what we later determine to be inaccurate baseline information, provided that the information is inaccurate to the extent that it would invalidate one or more of the findings required for permit application approval under § 773.15 or other provisions of this chapter.
(b) We will provide you, the permittee, with written notice that we have made a preliminary finding that your permit was issued on the basis of inaccurate information of the nature described in paragraph (a) of this section. The notice will set forth the reasons for that finding.
(c) Within 30 days of receiving a notice under paragraph (b) of this section, you may—
(1) Challenge the preliminary finding by providing us with an explanation of why the information either is not inaccurate or does not meet the standard established in paragraph (a) of this section; or
(2) Supply, or agree to supply, updated information and submit an application to revise the permit as needed to correct the deficiency in an expeditious manner.
(d)(1) We will evaluate any explanation that you submit under paragraph (c)(1) of this part.
(2)(i) If you do not take either of the actions identified under paragraph (c) of this section, or if the evaluation under paragraph (d)(1) of this section determines that the deficiency identified in our preliminary finding still exists, we will serve you with a written notice of proposed suspension or rescission of the permit, together with a statement of the reasons for the proposed suspension or rescission,
(ii) Any proposed suspension or rescission will take effect 60 days from the date that we provide notice under paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section, unless you obtain temporary relief under § 775.11(b)(2) of this chapter.
(3) The proposed suspension or rescission under paragraph (d)(2) of this section is subject to administrative review under part 775 of this chapter.
(4) Section 843.14 of this chapter will govern service under paragraph (d)(2) of this section.
(e)(1) If we suspend your permit under paragraph (d)(2) of this section, you must cease all surface coal mining operations under the permit and complete all affirmative obligations specified in the suspension order within the time established in that order. We will rescind your permit in accordance with paragraph (d)(2) of this section if you do not complete those obligations within the time specified.
(2) If we rescind your permit under paragraph (d)(2) of this section, you must cease all surface coal mining operations under the permit and complete reclamation within the time specified in the order.
(f)(1) If we suspend or rescind your permit under paragraph (d)(2) of this section, the bond posted for the permit will remain in effect until you complete all reclamation obligations under the reclamation plan approved in the permit and obtain bond release under §§ 800.40 through 800.44 of this chapter.
(2) We will initiate bond forfeiture proceedings under § 800.50 of this chapter if you do not complete all reclamation obligations within the time specified in the order issued under paragraph (d)(2) of this section.
30 U.S.C. 1201 et seq.
In accordance with 44 U.S.C. 3501
(a)(1) The regulatory authority must review each permit issued and outstanding under an approved regulatory program during the term of the permit.
(2) The review required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section must include, but is not limited to, an evaluation of the impacts of the operation on fish, wildlife, and related environmental values in the permit and adjacent areas. The regulatory authority must use that evaluation to determine whether it is necessary to order the permittee to modify the fish and wildlife enhancement plan approved in the
(3) The review required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section must occur not later than the middle of each permit term except that permits with a term longer than 5 years must be reviewed no less frequently than the permit midterm or every 5 years, whichever is more frequent.
(4) Permits granted in accordance with § 785.14 of this chapter (mountaintop removal mining) and permits containing a variance from approximate original contour restoration requirements in accordance with § 785.16 of this chapter must be reviewed no later than 3 years from the date of issuance of the permit, unless the permittee affirmatively demonstrates that the proposed development is proceeding in accordance with the terms of the permit. This review may be combined with the first review conducted under paragraph (a)(3) of this section if the permit term does not exceed 5 years.
(5) Permits containing an experimental practice approved in accordance with § 785.13 of this chapter must be reviewed as set forth in the permit or at least every 2
(6) Permits granted in accordance with § 785.18 of this chapter (variance for delay in contemporaneous reclamation requirement in combined surface and underground mining operations) must be reviewed no later than 3 years from the date of issuance of the permit. This review may be combined with the first review conducted under paragraph (a)(3) of this section if the permit term does not exceed 5 years.
(b) After a review required by paragraph (a) of this section, or at any time, the regulatory authority may, by order, require reasonable revision of a permit in accordance with § 774.13 to ensure compliance with the Act and the regulatory program.
(c) Any order of the regulatory authority requiring revision of a permit must be based upon written findings and is subject to the provisions for administrative and judicial review in part 775 of this chapter. Copies of the order must be sent to the permittee.
(d) Permits may be suspended or revoked in accordance with subchapter L of this chapter.
(a)
(b)
(2) You must file the application for renewal in the form required by the regulatory authority. At a minimum, your application must include the following information—
(i) Your name and address.
(ii) The term of the renewal requested.
(iii) The permit number or other identifier.
(iv) Evidence that a liability insurance policy for the operation will continue in full force and effect during the proposed renewal term or that you will have adequate self-insurance under § 800.60 of this chapter for the proposed term of renewal.
(v) Evidence that the performance bond for the permit will continue in full force and effect for the proposed term of renewal.
(vi) A copy of the newspaper notice and proof of publication, as required by § 778.21 of this chapter.
(vii) Additional revised or updated information required by the regulatory authority.
(3) Applications for renewal are subject to the public notification and public participation requirements in §§ 773.6 and 773.19(b) of this chapter.
(4) If an application for renewal includes any proposed revisions to the permit, those revisions must be identified and processed in accordance with § 774.13 of this part.
(c)
(i) The terms and conditions of the existing permit are not being satisfactorily met.
(ii) The present surface coal mining and reclamation operations are not in compliance with the environmental protection standards of the Act and the regulatory program. The permit eligibility standards in §§ 773.12 through 773.14 of this chapter apply to this determination.
(iii) The requested renewal substantially jeopardizes your continuing ability to comply with the Act and the regulatory program on existing permit areas.
(iv) You have not provided evidence of having continuing liability insurance or self-insurance coverage as required under § 800.60 of this chapter.
(v) You have not provided evidence that any performance bond required to be in effect for the operation will continue in full force and effect for the proposed term of renewal.
(vi) You have not posted any additional bond required by the regulatory authority under part 800 of this chapter.
(vii) You have not provided any additional revised or updated information required by the regulatory authority.
(2)
(3)
(d)
(e)
(f)
30 U.S.C. 1201 et seq.
This part provides minimum requirements concerning data collection and analysis and the format and general content of permit applications under a regulatory program.
(a) An application must—
(1) Contain current information, as required by this subchapter.
(2) Be clear and concise.
(3) Be filed in the format prescribed by the regulatory authority.
(b) If used in the application, referenced materials must either be provided to the regulatory authority by the applicant or be readily available to the regulatory authority. If provided, relevant portions of referenced published materials must be presented briefly and concisely in the application by photocopying or abstracting and with explicit citations.
(c) Applications for permits; revisions; renewals; or transfers, sales or assignments of permit rights must be verified under oath, by a responsible official of the applicant, that the information contained in the application is true and correct to the best of the official's information and belief.
(a)
(2) Technical analyses must be planned by or under the direction of a professional qualified in the subject to be analyzed.
(b)
(1) The methodology in 40 CFR parts 136 and 434, to the extent applicable; or
(2) A scientifically defensible methodology acceptable to the regulatory authority, in coordination with any agency responsible for administering or implementing a program under the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1251
(c)
(d)
(2) You must use actual site-specific data to calibrate each model. All models must be validated for the region and ecosystem in which they will be used.
(3) The regulatory authority may either disallow the use of models or require that you submit additional actual, site-specific data.
(a)(1) Maps submitted with applications must be presented in a consolidated format, to the extent possible, and must include all the types of information that are set forth on topographic maps of the U.S. Geological Survey of the 1:24,000 scale series.
(2) Maps of the proposed permit area must be at a scale of 1:6,000 or larger.
(3) Maps of the adjacent area must clearly show the lands and waters within that area and must be at a scale determined by the regulatory authority, but in no event smaller than 1:24,000.
(b) When applicable, maps must clearly show those portions of the operation where surface coal mining operations occurred—
(1) Prior to August 3, 1977.
(2) After August 3, 1977, but prior to either—
(i) May 3, 1978; or
(ii) January 1, 1979, if an applicant or operator obtained a small operator's exemption in accordance with § 710.12 of this chapter.
(3) After May 3, 1978 (or January 1, 1979, for persons who received a small operator's exemption in accordance with § 710.12 of this chapter) and prior to the approval of the applicable regulatory program.
An administratively complete application for a permit to conduct surface coal mining operations and must include at a minimum—
(a) For surface mining activities, the information required under parts 778, 779, and 780 of this chapter, and, as applicable to the operation, part 785 of this chapter.
(b) For underground mining activities, the information required under parts 778, 783, and 784 of this chapter, and, as applicable to the operation, part 785 of this chapter.
30 U.S.C. 1201
This part establishes the minimum requirements for the descriptions of environmental resources and conditions that you must include in an application for a permit to conduct surface mining activities.
The objective of this part is to ensure that you, the permit applicant, provide the regulatory authority with a complete and accurate description of the environmental resources that may be impacted or affected by proposed surface mining activities and the environmental conditions that exist within the proposed permit and adjacent areas.
(a) You, the permit applicant, must provide all information required by this
(b) State and federal government agencies are responsible for providing information for permit applications to the extent that this part specifically requires that they do so.
In accordance with 44 U.S.C. 3501
(a) Your permit application must describe the nature of cultural, historic, and archeological resources listed or eligible for listing on the National Register of Historic Places and known archeological sites within the proposed permit and adjacent areas. The description must be based on all available information, including, but not limited to, information from the State Historic Preservation Officer and from local archeological, historical, and cultural preservation agencies.
(b) The regulatory authority may require you, the applicant, to identify and evaluate important historic and archeological resources that may be eligible for listing on the National Register of Historic Places by—
(1) Collecting additional information;
(2) Conducting field investigations, or
(3) Completing other appropriate analyses.
The regulatory authority may require that your permit application contain a statement of the climatic factors that are representative of the proposed permit area, including:
(a) The average seasonal precipitation.
(b) The average direction and velocity of prevailing winds.
(c) Seasonal temperature ranges.
(d) Additional data that the regulatory authority deems necessary to ensure compliance with the requirements of this subchapter.
(a) You must identify, describe, and map existing vegetation types and plant communities within the proposed permit area. If you propose to use reference areas for purposes of determining revegetation success under § 816.116 of this chapter, you also must identify, describe, and map existing vegetation types and plant communities within any proposed reference areas.
(b) The description and map required under paragraph (a) of this section must—
(1) Be in sufficient detail to assist in preparation of the revegetation plan under § 780.12(g) of this chapter and provide a baseline for comparison with postmining vegetation;
(2) Be adequate to evaluate whether the vegetation provides important habitat for fish and wildlife and whether the proposed permit area contains native plant communities of local or regional significance;
(3) Identify areas with significant populations of non-native invasive or noxious species; and
(4) Delineate all wetlands and all areas bordering streams that either support or are capable of supporting hydrophytic or hydrophilic vegetation or vegetation typical of floodplains.
(c) If the vegetation on the proposed permit area has been altered by human activity, you must describe the native vegetation and plant communities typical of that area in the absence of human alterations.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(1) Species listed or proposed for listing as threatened or endangered under the Endangered Species Act of 1973, 16 U.S.C. 1531
(2) Species or habitat protected by state or tribal endangered species statutes and regulations.
(3) Habitat of unusually high value for fish and wildlife, which may include wetlands, riparian areas, cliffs that provide nesting sites for raptors, significant migration corridors, specialized reproduction or wintering areas, areas offering special shelter or protection, and areas that support populations of endemic species that are vulnerable because of restricted ranges, limited mobility, limited reproductive capacity, or specialized habitat requirements.
(4) Other species or habitat identified through interagency coordination as requiring special protection under state, tribal, or federal law, including species identified as sensitive by a state, tribal, or federal agency.
(5) Perennial or intermittent streams.
(6) Native plant communities of local or regional ecological significance.
Your permit application must include—
(a) The results of a reconnaissance inspection to determine whether the proposed permit area may contain prime farmland historically used for
(b)(1) A map showing the soil mapping units located within the proposed permit area, if the National Cooperative Soil Survey has completed and published a soil survey of the area.
(2) The applicable soil survey information that the Natural Resources Conservation Service maintains for the soil mapping units identified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section. You may provide this information either in paper form or via a link to the appropriate element of the Natural Resources Conservation Service's soil survey Web site.
(c) A description of soil depths within the proposed permit area.
(d) Detailed information on soil quality, if you seek approval for the use of soil substitutes or supplements under § 780.12(e) of this chapter.
(e) The soil survey information required by § 785.17(b)(3) of this chapter if the reconnaissance inspection conducted under paragraph (a) of this section indicates that prime farmland historically used for cropland may be present.
(f) Any other information on soils that the regulatory authority finds necessary to determine land use capability.
Your permit application must contain a statement of the condition, capability, and productivity of the land within the proposed permit area, including—
(a)(1) A map and narrative identifying and describing the land use or uses in existence at the time of the filing of the application.
(2) A description of the historical uses of the land to the extent that this information is readily available or can be inferred from the uses of other lands in the vicinity.
(3) For any previously mined area within the proposed permit area, a description of the land uses in existence before any mining, to the extent that such information is available.
(b) A narrative analysis of—
(1) The capability of the land before any mining to support a variety of uses, giving consideration to soil and foundation characteristics, topography, vegetative cover, and the hydrology of the proposed permit area; and
(2) The productivity of the proposed permit area before mining, expressed as average yield of food, fiber, forage, or wood products obtained under high levels of management, as determined by—
(i) Actual yield data; or
(ii) Yield estimates for similar sites based on current data from the U.S. Department of Agriculture, state agricultural universities, or appropriate state natural resources or agricultural agencies.
(c) Any additional information that the regulatory authority deems necessary to determine the condition, capability, and productivity of the land within the proposed permit area.
(a) In addition to the maps, plans, and information required by other sections of this part, your permit application must include maps and, when appropriate, plans and cross-sections showing—
(1) All boundaries of lands and names of present owners of record of those lands, both surface and subsurface, included in or contiguous to the proposed permit area.
(2) The boundaries of land within the proposed permit area upon which you have the legal right to enter and begin surface mining activities.
(3) The boundaries of all areas that you anticipate affecting over the estimated total life of the surface mining activities, with a description of the size, sequence, and timing of the mining of subareas for which you anticipate seeking additional permits or expansion of an existing permit in the future.
(4) The location and current use of all buildings on the proposed permit area or within 1,000 feet of the proposed permit area.
(5) The location of surface and subsurface manmade features within, passing through, or passing over the proposed permit area, including, but not limited to, highways, electric transmission lines, pipelines, constructed drainageways, irrigation ditches, and agricultural drainage tile fields.
(6) The location and boundaries of any proposed reference areas for determining the success of revegetation.
(7) The location and ownership of existing wells, springs, and other groundwater resources within the proposed permit and adjacent areas. You may provide ownership information in a table cross-referenced to a map if approved by the regulatory authority.
(8) The location and depth (if available) of each water well within the proposed permit and adjacent areas. You may provide information concerning depth in a table cross-referenced to a map if approved by the regulatory authority.
(9) The name, location, ownership, and description of all surface-water bodies and features, such as perennial, intermittent, and ephemeral streams; ponds, lakes, and other impoundments; wetlands; and natural drainageways, within the proposed permit and adjacent areas. To the extent appropriate, you may provide this information in a table cross-referenced to a map if approved by the regulatory authority.
(10) The locations of water supply intakes for current users of surface water flowing into, from, and within a hydrologic area defined by the regulatory authority.
(11) The location of any public water supplies and the extent of any associated wellhead protection zones located within one-half mile, measured horizontally, of the proposed permit area. Both you and the regulatory authority must keep this information confidential when required by state law or when otherwise necessary for safety and security purposes and protection of the integrity of public water supplies.
(12) The location of all existing and proposed discharges to any surface-water body within the proposed permit and adjacent areas.
(13) The location of any discharge into or from an active, inactive, or abandoned surface or underground mine, including, but not limited to, a mine-water treatment or pumping facility, that is hydrologically connected to the site of the proposed operation or that is located within one-half mile, measured horizontally, of the proposed permit area.
(14) Each public road located in or within 100 feet of the proposed permit area.
(15) The boundaries of any public park and locations of any cultural or historical resources listed or eligible for listing in the National Register of Historic Places and known archeological sites within the permit and adjacent areas.
(16) Each cemetery that is located in or within 100 feet of the proposed permit area.
(17) Any land within the proposed permit area which is within the boundaries of any units of the National System of Trails or the Wild and Scenic Rivers System, including study rivers designated under section 5(a) of the Wild and Scenic Rivers Act.
(18) The elevations, locations, and geographic coordinates of test borings and core samplings. You may provide this information in a table cross-referenced to a map if approved by the regulatory authority.
(19) The location and extent of any subsurface water encountered within the proposed permit and adjacent areas. This information must include, but is not limited to, the elevation of the water table, the areal and vertical distribution of aquifers, and maximum and minimum variations in hydraulic head in different aquifers. You must provide this information on appropriately-scaled cross-sections or maps, in a narrative, or a combination of these methods, whichever format best displays this information to the satisfaction of the regulatory authority.
(20) The elevations, locations, and geographic coordinates of monitoring stations used to gather data on water quality and quantity and on fish and wildlife in preparation of the application. You may provide this information in a table cross-referenced to a map if approved by the regulatory authority.
(21) The nature, depth, thickness, and commonly used names of the coal seams to be mined.
(22) Any coal crop lines within the permit and adjacent areas and the strike and dip of the coal to be mined.
(23) The location and extent of known workings of active, inactive, or abandoned underground mines within or underlying the proposed permit and adjacent areas.
(24) Any underground mine openings to the surface within the proposed permit and adjacent areas.
(25) The location and extent of existing or previously surface-mined areas within the proposed permit area.
(26) The location and dimensions of existing areas of spoil, coal mine waste, noncoal mine waste disposal sites, dams, embankments, other impoundments, and water treatment facilities within the proposed permit area.
(27) The location and, if available, the depth of all gas and oil wells within the proposed permit and adjacent areas. You must identify the lateral extent of the well bores unless that information is confidential under state law. You may provide information concerning well depth in a table cross-referenced to a map if approved by the regulatory authority.
(28) Other relevant information required by the regulatory authority.
(b) Maps, plans, and cross-sections required by paragraph (a) of this section must be—
(1) Prepared by, or under the direction of, and certified by a qualified registered professional engineer, a professional geologist, or in any state that authorizes land surveyors to prepare and certify such maps, plans, and cross-sections, a qualified registered professional land surveyor, with assistance from experts in related fields such as landscape architecture.
(2) Updated when required by the regulatory authority.
(c) The regulatory authority may require that you submit the materials required by this section in a digital format that includes all necessary metadata.
30 U.S.C. 1201
This part establishes the minimum requirements for the operation and reclamation plan portions of applications for a permit to conduct surface mining activities, except to the extent that part 785 of this subchapter establishes different requirements.
The objective of this part is to ensure that you, the permit applicant, provide the regulatory authority with comprehensive and reliable information on how you propose to conduct surface mining activities and reclaim the disturbed area in compliance with the Act, this chapter, and the regulatory program.
(a) You, the permit applicant, must provide to the regulatory authority all information required by this part, except where specifically exempted in this part.
(b) State and federal governmental agencies must provide information needed for permit applications to the extent that this part specifically requires that they do so.
In accordance with 44 U.S.C. 3501
Your application must contain a description of the mining operations that you propose to conduct during the life of the mine within the proposed permit area, including, at a minimum, the following:
(a) A narrative description of the—
(1) Type and method of coal mining procedures and proposed engineering techniques.
(2) Anticipated annual and total number of tons of coal to be produced.
(3) Major equipment to be used for all aspects of the proposed operations.
(b) A narrative explaining the construction, modification, use, maintenance, and removal (unless you can satisfactorily explain why retention is necessary or appropriate for the postmining land use specified in the application under § 780.24 of this part) of the following facilities:
(1) Dams, embankments, and other impoundments.
(2) Overburden and soil handling and storage areas and structures.
(3) Coal removal, handling, storage, cleaning, and transportation areas and structures.
(4) Spoil, coal processing waste, and noncoal mine waste removal, handling, storage, transportation, and disposal areas and structures.
(5) Mine facilities.
(6) Water pollution control facilities.
(a)
(b)
(1) Backfilling.
(2) Grading.
(3) Establishment of the surface drainage pattern and stream-channel configuration approved in the permit, including construction of appropriately-designed perennial, intermittent, and ephemeral stream channels to replace those removed by mining, to the extent and in the form required by §§ 780.27, 780.28, 816.56, and 816.57 of this chapter.
(4) Soil redistribution.
(5) Planting of all vegetation in accordance with the revegetation plan approved in the permit, including establishment of streamside vegetative corridors along the banks of perennial, intermittent, and ephemeral streams when required by §§ 816.56(c) and 816.57(d) of this chapter.
(6) Demonstration of revegetation success.
(7) Demonstration of restoration of the ecological function of all reconstructed perennial and intermittent stream segments.
(8) Application for each phase of bond release under § 800.42 of this chapter.
(c)
(d)
(2) The backfilling and grading plan must describe in detail how you will conduct backfilling and related reclamation activities, including how you will—
(i) Compact spoil to reduce infiltration to minimize leaching and discharges of parameters of concern.
(ii) Limit compaction of topsoil and soil materials in the root zone to the minimum necessary to achieve stability. The plan also must identify measures that will be used to alleviate soil compaction if necessary.
(iii) Handle acid-forming and toxic-forming materials, if present, to prevent the formation of acid or toxic drainage from acid-forming and toxic-forming materials within the overburden. The plan must be consistent with paragraph (n) of this section and § 816.38 of this chapter.
(e)
(ii) Except as provided in paragraphs (e)(1)(iii) and (iv) of this section, the plan submitted under paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section must require that the B soil horizon, the C soil horizon, and other underlying strata, or portions of those soil horizons and strata, be removed separately, stockpiled if necessary, and redistributed to the extent and in the manner needed to achieve the optimal rooting depths required to restore premining land use capability and to comply with the revegetation requirements of §§ 816.111 and 816.116 of this chapter.
(iii) The plan submitted under paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section need not require salvage of those soil horizons which you demonstrate, to the satisfaction of the regulatory authority, are inferior to other overburden materials as a plant growth medium, provided you comply with the soil substitute requirements of paragraph (e)(2) of this section.
(iv) The plan submitted under paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section may allow blending of the B soil horizon, the C soil horizon, and underlying strata, or portions thereof, to the extent that research or prior experience under similar conditions has demonstrated that blending will not adversely affect soil productivity.
(v) The plan submitted under paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section must explain how you will handle and, if necessary, store soil materials to avoid contamination by acid-forming or toxic-forming materials and to minimize deterioration of desirable soil characteristics.
(2)
(A)(
(
(B) The use of the overburden materials that you have selected, in combination with or in place of the existing topsoil or subsoil, will result in a soil medium that is more suitable than the existing topsoil and subsoil to support and sustain vegetation consistent with the postmining land use and the revegetation plan under paragraph (g) of this section and that will provide a rooting depth that is superior to the existing topsoil and subsoil.
(C) The overburden materials that you select for use as a soil substitute or supplement are the best materials available to support and sustain vegetation consistent with the postmining land use and the revegetation plan under paragraph (g) of this section.
(ii) For purposes of paragraph (e)(2)(i) of this section, the regulatory authority will specify the—
(A) Suitability criteria for substitutes and supplements.
(B) Chemical and physical analyses, field trials, or greenhouse tests that you must conduct to make the demonstration required by paragraph (e)(2)(i) of this section.
(C) Sampling objectives and techniques and the analytical techniques that you must use for purposes of paragraph (e)(2)(ii)(B) of this section.
(iii) At a minimum, the demonstrations required by paragraph (e)(2)(i) of this section must include—
(A) The physical and chemical soil characteristics and root zones needed to support and sustain the type of vegetation to be established on the reclaimed area.
(B) A comparison and analysis of the thickness, total depth, texture, percent coarse fragments, pH, and areal extent of the different kinds of soil horizons and overburden materials available within the proposed permit area, based upon a statistically-valid sampling procedure.
(iv) You must include a plan for testing and evaluating overburden materials during both removal and redistribution to ensure that only materials approved for use as soil substitutes or supplements are removed and redistributed.
(f)
(g)
(i) The schedule for revegetation of the area to be disturbed.
(ii) The site preparation techniques that you plan to use, including the measures that you will take to avoid or, when avoidance is not possible, to minimize and alleviate compaction of the root zone during backfilling, grading, soil redistribution, and planting.
(iii) What soil tests you will perform, together with a statement as to whether you will apply lime, fertilizer, or other amendments in response to those tests before planting or seeding.
(iv) The species that you will plant to achieve temporary erosion control or, if you do not intend to establish a temporary vegetative cover, a description of other soil stabilization measures that you will implement in lieu of planting a temporary cover.
(v) The species that you will plant and the seeding and stocking rates and planting arrangements that you will use to achieve or complement the postmining land use, enhance fish and wildlife habitat, and achieve the streamside vegetative corridor requirements of §§ 816.56(c) and 816.57(d) of this chapter, when applicable.
(A) Revegetation plans that involve the establishment of trees and shrubs must include site-specific planting prescriptions for canopy trees, understory trees and shrubs, and herbaceous ground cover compatible with establishment of trees and shrubs.
(B) To the extent practicable and consistent with other revegetation and regulatory program requirements, the species mix must include native pollinator-friendly plants and the planting arrangements must promote the establishment of pollinator-friendly habitat.
(vi) The planting and seeding techniques that you will use.
(vii) Whether you will apply mulch and, if so, the type of mulch and the method of application.
(viii) Whether you plan to conduct irrigation or apply fertilizer after the first growing season and, if so, to what extent and for what length of time.
(ix) Any normal husbandry practices that you plan to use in accordance with § 816.115(d) of this chapter.
(x) The standards and evaluation techniques that you propose to use to determine the success of revegetation in accordance with § 816.116 of this chapter.
(xi) The measures that you will take to avoid the establishment of invasive species on reclaimed areas or to control those species if they do become established.
(2) Except as provided in paragraphs (g)(4) and (5) of this section, the species and planting rates and arrangements selected as part of the revegetation plan must be designed to create a diverse, effective, permanent vegetative cover that is consistent with the native plant communities and natural succession process described in the permit application in accordance with § 779.19 of this chapter.
(3) The species selected as part of the revegetation plan must—
(i) Be native to the area. The regulatory authority may approve the use of introduced species as part of the permanent vegetative cover for the site only if—
(A) The introduced species are both non-invasive and necessary to achieve the postmining land use;
(B) Planting of native species would be inconsistent with the approved postmining land use; and
(C) The approved postmining land use is implemented before the entire bond amount for the area has been fully released under §§ 800.40 through 800.43 of this chapter.
(ii) Be capable of stabilizing the soil surface from erosion to the extent that control of erosion with herbaceous ground cover is consistent with establishment of a permanent vegetative cover that resembles native plant communities in the area.
(iii) Be compatible with the approved postmining land use.
(iv) Have the same seasonal characteristics of growth, consistent with the appropriate stage of natural succession, as the native plant communities described in the permit application in accordance with § 779.19 of this chapter.
(v) Be capable of self-regeneration and natural succession.
(vi) Be compatible with the plant and animal species of the area.
(vii) Meet the requirements of applicable state and federal seed, noxious plant, and introduced species laws and regulations.
(4) The regulatory authority may grant an exception to the requirements of paragraphs (g)(3)(i), (iv), and (v) of this section when necessary to achieve a quick-growing, temporary, stabilizing cover on disturbed and regraded areas, and the species selected to achieve this purpose will not impede the establishment of permanent vegetation.
(5) The regulatory authority may grant an exception to the requirements of paragraphs (g)(2), (g)(3)(iv), and (g)(3)(v) of this section for those areas with a long-term, intensive, agricultural postmining land use.
(6) A qualified, experienced biologist, soil scientist, forester, or agronomist must prepare or approve all revegetation plans.
(h)
(i)
(j)
(1) The type and quantity of noncoal waste materials that you anticipate disposing of within the proposed permit area.
(2) How you intend to dispose of noncoal waste materials in accordance with § 816.89 of this chapter.
(3) The locations of any proposed noncoal waste material disposal sites within the proposed permit area.
(4) The contingency plans that you have developed to preclude sustained combustion of combustible noncoal materials.
(k)
(l)
(m)
(1) All applicable state and local land use plans and programs.
(2) The plans of the surface landowner, to the extent that those plans are practicable and consistent with this chapter and with other applicable laws and regulations.
(n)
(i) Identify the anticipated postmining groundwater level for all locations within the mined-out area at which you propose to place acid-forming or toxic-forming materials within the backfill.
(ii) Explain how you will use one of the techniques in paragraphs (n)(1)(ii)(A) through (C) of this section when placing those materials in the backfill, as appropriate and as approved by the regulatory authority, to prevent the formation of acid or toxic mine drainage or other discharges that would require long-term treatment after mining has been completed:
(A) Treat or otherwise neutralize acid-forming and toxic-forming materials to prevent the formation of acid or toxic mine drainage. This technique may include the blending of acid-forming materials with spoil of sufficient alkalinity to prevent the development of acid drainage.
(B) Place acid-forming and toxic-forming materials in a location below the water table where they will remain fully saturated at all times, provided that you demonstrate, and the regulatory authority finds in writing in the permit, that complete saturation will prevent the formation of acid or toxic mine drainage.
(C) Isolate acid-forming and toxic-forming materials by completely surrounding them with compacted material with a hydraulic conductivity at least two orders of magnitude lower than the hydraulic conductivity of the adjacent spoil.
(2) The plan developed under paragraph (n)(1) of this section may allow the placement of acid-forming and toxic-forming materials in an excess spoil fill or a coal mine waste refuse pile, using one or more of the techniques identified in paragraphs (n)(1)(ii)(A) through (C) of this section.
(3) If the baseline geologic information collected under § 780.19(e)(3) of this chapter indicates the presence of acid-forming or toxic-forming material in the stratum immediately below the lowest coal seam to be mined, you must identify the measures that you will take to prevent any adverse hydrologic impacts that might develop as a result of exposure of that stratum during the mining process.
(a) In addition to the maps and plans required under § 779.24 and other provisions of this subchapter, your application must include maps, plans, and cross-sections of the proposed permit area showing—
(1) The lands that you propose to affect throughout the life of the operation, including the sequence and timing of surface mining activities and the sequence and timing of backfilling, grading, and other reclamation activities on areas where the operation will disturb the land surface.
(2) Each area of land for which a performance bond or equivalent guarantee will be posted under part 800 of this chapter.
(3) Any change that the proposed operations will cause in a facility or feature identified under § 779.24 of this chapter.
(4) All buildings, utility corridors, and facilities to be used or constructed within the proposed permit area, with identification of those facilities that you propose to retain as part of the postmining land use.
(5) Each coal storage, cleaning, processing, and loading area and facility.
(6) Each temporary storage area for soil, spoil, coal mine waste, and noncoal mine waste.
(7) Each water diversion, collection, conveyance, treatment, storage and discharge facility to be used, including the location of each point at which water will be discharged from the proposed permit area to a surface-water body and the name of that water body.
(8) Each disposal facility for coal mine waste and noncoal mine waste materials.
(9) Each feature and facility to be constructed to protect or enhance fish, wildlife, and related environmental values.
(10) Each explosive storage and handling facility.
(11) The location of each siltation structure, sedimentation pond, permanent water impoundment, refuse pile, and coal mine waste impoundment for which plans are required by § 780.25 of this part, and the location of each excess spoil fill for which plans are required under § 780.35 of this part.
(12) Each segment of a perennial or intermittent stream that you propose to mine through, bury, or divert.
(13) Each location in which you propose to restore a perennial or intermittent stream or construct a temporary or permanent diversion of a perennial or intermittent stream.
(14) Each streamside vegetative corridor that you propose to establish.
(15) Each segment of a perennial or intermittent stream that you propose to enhance under the plan submitted in accordance with § 780.16 of this part.
(16) The location and geographic coordinates of each monitoring point for groundwater and surface water.
(17) The location and geographic coordinates of each point at which you propose to monitor the biological condition of perennial and intermittent streams.
(b) Except as provided in §§ 780.25(a)(2), 780.25(a)(3), 780.35, 816.74(c), and 816.81(c) of this chapter, maps, plans, and cross-sections required under paragraphs (a)(5), (6), (7), (10), and (11) of this section must be prepared by, or under the direction of, and certified by a qualified registered professional engineer, a professional geologist, or, in any state that authorizes land surveyors to prepare and certify maps, plans, and cross-sections, a qualified registered professional land surveyor, with assistance from experts in related fields such as landscape architecture.
(c) The regulatory authority may require that you submit the materials required by paragraph (a) of this section in a digital format.
(a) Each application must contain a description of every existing structure that you propose to use in connection with or to facilitate surface coal mining and reclamation operations. The description must include—
(1) The location of the structure.
(2) Plans of the structure.
(3) A description of the current condition of the structure.
(4) The approximate dates when the structure was originally built.
(5) A showing, including relevant monitoring data or other evidence, of whether the structure meets the permanent program performance standards of subchapter K of this chapter or, if the structure does not meet the performance standards of subchapter K of this chapter, a showing of whether the structure meets the initial program performance standards of subchapter B of this chapter.
(b) Each application must contain a compliance plan for every existing structure that you propose to modify or reconstruct for use in connection with or to facilitate surface coal mining and reclamation operations. The compliance plan must include—
(1) Design specifications for the modification or reconstruction of the structure to meet the design and performance standards of subchapter K of this chapter.
(2) A schedule for the initiation and completion of any modification or reconstruction under paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
(3) Provisions for monitoring the structure during and after modification or reconstruction to ensure that the performance standards of subchapter K of this chapter are met.
(4) A demonstration that there is no significant risk of harm to the environment or to public health or safety during modification or reconstruction of the structure.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(1) Is consistent with the requirements of § 816.97 of this chapter.
(2) Is specific to the resources identified under § 779.20 of this chapter.
(3) Complies with the requirements of paragraphs (b) through (f) of this section.
(b)
(2) You must describe the steps that you have taken or will take to comply with the Endangered Species Act of 1973, 16 U.S.C. 1531
(3) The regulatory authority may not approve the permit application before there is a demonstration of compliance with the Endangered Species Act of 1973, 16 U.S.C. 1531
(c)
(1) Retain forest cover and other native vegetation as long as possible and time the removal of that vegetation to minimize adverse impacts on aquatic and terrestrial species.
(2) Locate and design sedimentation ponds, utilities, support facilities, roads, rail spurs, and other transportation facilities to avoid or minimize adverse impacts on fish, wildlife, and related environmental values.
(3) Except as provided under § 780.12(g)(4) of this part, select non-invasive native species for revegetation that either promote or do not inhibit the long-term development of wildlife habitat.
(4)(i) Avoid mining through wetlands or perennial or intermittent streams or disturbing riparian habitat adjacent to those streams. When avoidance is not possible, minimize—
(A) The time during which mining and reclamation operations disrupt wetlands or streams or riparian habitat associated with streams;
(B) The length of stream mined through; and
(C) The amount of wetlands or riparian habitat disturbed by the operation.
(ii) If you propose to mine through or discharge dredged or fill material into wetlands or streams that are subject to the jurisdiction of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1251
(5) Implement other appropriate conservation practices such as, but not limited to, those identified in the technical guides published by the Natural Resources Conservation Service.
(d)
(ii) If your application includes no proposed enhancement measures under paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section, you must explain, to the satisfaction of the regulatory authority, why implementation of enhancement measures is not practicable.
(2)
(i) Using the backfilling and grading process to create postmining surface features and configurations, such as functional wetlands, of high value to fish and wildlife.
(ii) Designing and constructing permanent impoundments in a manner that will maximize their value to fish and wildlife.
(iii) Creating rock piles and other permanent landscape features of value to raptors and other wildlife for nesting and shelter, to the extent that those features are consistent with features that existed on the site before any mining, the surrounding topography, and the approved postmining land use.
(iv) Reestablishing native forests or other native plant communities, both within and outside the permit area. This may include restoring the native plant communities that existed before any mining, establishing native plant communities consistent with the native plant communities that are a part of the natural succession process, establishing native plant communities designed to restore or expand native pollinator populations and habitats, or establishing native plant communities that will support wildlife species of local, state, tribal, or national concern, including, but not limited to, species listed or proposed for listing as threatened or endangered on a state, tribal, or national level.
(v) Establishing a vegetative corridor along the banks of streams where there is no such corridor before mining but where a vegetative corridor typically would exist under natural conditions. Species selected for planting within the corridor must be comprised of species native to the area, including native plants adapted to and suitable for planting in any floodplains or other riparian zones located within the corridor. Whenever possible, you should establish this corridor along both banks of the stream, preferably with a minimum corridor width of 100 feet along each bank.
(vi) Implementing conservation practices identified in publications, such as the technical guides published by the Natural Resources Conservation Service.
(vii) Permanently fencing livestock away from perennial and intermittent streams and wetlands.
(viii) Installing perches and nest boxes.
(ix) Establishing conservation easements or deed restrictions, with an emphasis on preserving riparian vegetation and forested corridors along perennial and intermittent streams.
(x) Providing funding to cover long-term operation and maintenance costs that watershed organizations incur in treating long-term postmining discharges from previous mining operations.
(xi) Reclaiming previously mined areas located outside the area that you propose to disturb for coal extraction.
(xii) Implementing measures to reduce or eliminate existing sources of surface-water or groundwater pollution.
(3)
(A) Temporary or permanent loss of mature native forest or other native plant communities that cannot be restored fully before final bond release under §§ 800.40 through 800.43 of this chapter or
(B) Permanent loss of wetlands or a segment of a perennial or intermittent stream.
(ii) Whenever the conditions described in paragraph (d)(3)(i) of this section apply, the scope of the enhancement measures that you propose under paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section must be commensurate with the magnitude of the long-term adverse impacts of the proposed operation.
(iii)(A) Enhancement measures proposed under paragraph (d)(3)(ii) of this section must be implemented within the watershed in which the proposed operation is located, unless opportunities for enhancement are not available within that watershed. In that case, you must propose to implement enhancement measures in the closest adjacent watershed in which enhancement opportunities exist, as approved by the regulatory authority.
(B) Each regulatory program must prescribe the size of the watershed for purposes of paragraph (d)(3)(iii)(A) of this section, using a generally-accepted watershed classification system.
(4)
(e)
(ii)(A) When the resource information obtained under § 779.20 of this chapter does not include species listed as threatened or endangered under the Endangered Species Act of 1973, 16 U.S.C. 1531
(B) The regulatory authority must provide the resource information and the protection and enhancement plan to the Service under paragraph (e)(1)(ii)(A) of this section within 10 days of receipt of a request from the Service to review the resource information and the protection and enhancement plan.
(2) The regulatory authority must document the disposition of comments that it receives from the applicable Service(s) in response to the distribution made under paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section to the extent that those comments pertain to species listed as threatened or endangered under the Endangered Species Act of 1973, 16 U.S.C. 1531
(a)(1)
(i) Determining the probable hydrologic consequences of the operation upon the quality and quantity of surface water and groundwater in the proposed permit and adjacent areas, as required under § 780.20 of this part.
(ii) Determining the nature and extent of both the hydrologic reclamation plan required under § 780.22 of this part and the monitoring plans required under § 780.23 of this part.
(iii) Determining whether reclamation as required by this chapter can be accomplished.
(iv) Preparing the cumulative hydrologic impact assessment under § 780.21 of this part, including an evaluation of whether the proposed operation has been designed to prevent material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area.
(2)
(b)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(i) The areal extent and saturated thickness of all potentially-impacted aquifers; and
(ii) Approximate rates of groundwater discharge or usage and the elevation of the water table or potentiometric head in—
(A) Each water-bearing coal seam to be mined.
(B) Each aquifer above each coal seam to be mined.
(C) Each potentially-impacted aquifer below the lowest coal seam to be mined.
(6)
(A) Upgradient and downgradient of the proposed permit area; and
(B) Within the proposed permit area.
(ii)(A) To document seasonal variations in groundwater quality and quantity, you must collect samples and take the measurements identified in paragraph (b)(5) of this section from each location identified in paragraph (b)(6)(i) of this section at approximately equally-spaced monthly intervals for a minimum of 12 consecutive months.
(B) If approved by the regulatory authority, you may modify the interval or the 12-consecutive-month requirement specified in paragraph (b)(6)(ii)(A) of this section if adverse weather conditions make travel to a location specified in paragraph (b)(6)(i) of this section hazardous or if the water at that location is completely frozen.
(C) In lieu of the frequency specified in paragraph (b)(6)(ii)(A) of this section, the regulatory authority may allow you to collect data quarterly for 2 years. The regulatory authority may initiate review of the permit application after collection and analysis of the first four quarterly groundwater samples, but it may not approve the application until after receipt and analysis of the final four quarterly groundwater samples.
(D) You must analyze the samples collected in paragraph (b)(6)(ii)(A) of this section for the applicable water quality parameters identified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section and any other parameters specified by the regulatory authority.
(iii) You must provide the Palmer Drought Severity Index for the proposed permit and adjacent areas for the initial baseline data collection period under paragraph (b)(6)(ii) of this section. The regulatory authority may extend the minimum data collection period specified in paragraph (b)(6)(ii) of this section whenever data available from the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration or similar databases indicate that the region in which the proposed operation is located experienced severe drought or abnormally high precipitation during the initial baseline data collection period.
(c)
(2)
(3)
(A) Peak-flow magnitude and frequency.
(B) Actual and anticipated usage.
(C) Seasonal flow variations.
(ii) All flow measurements under paragraph (c)(3)(i) of this section must be made using generally-accepted professional techniques approved by the regulatory authority. All techniques must be repeatable and must produce consistent results on successive measurements. Visual observations are not acceptable.
(4)
(ii)(A) To document seasonal variations in surface-water quality and quantity, you must collect samples and take the measurements identified in paragraph (c)(3) of this section from each location identified in paragraph (c)(4)(i) of this section at approximately equally-spaced monthly intervals for a minimum of 12 consecutive months.
(B) If approved by the regulatory authority, you may modify the interval or the 12-consecutive-month sampling requirement specified in paragraph (c)(4)(ii)(A) of this section if adverse weather conditions make travel to a location specified in paragraph (c)(4)(i) of this section hazardous or if the water at that location is completely frozen.
(C) You must analyze the samples collected under paragraph (c)(4)(ii)(A) of this section for the applicable parameters identified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section and any other parameters specified by the regulatory authority.(iii) You must provide the Palmer Drought Severity Index for the proposed permit and adjacent areas for the initial baseline data collection period under paragraph (c)(4)(ii) of this section. The regulatory authority may extend the minimum data collection period specified in paragraphs (c)(4)(ii) and (iii) of this section whenever data available from the National Oceanic and
(5)
(ii) Precipitation records must be adequate to generate and calibrate a hydrologic model of the site. The regulatory authority will determine whether you must create such a model.
(iii) At the discretion of the regulatory authority, you may use precipitation data from a single self-recording device to provide baseline data for multiple permits located close to each other.
(6)
(B) The map must show the location of the channel head of each stream identified in paragraph (c)(6)(i)(A) of this section whenever the applicable area includes a terminal reach of the stream.
(C) The map must show the location of transition points from ephemeral to intermittent and from intermittent to perennial (and vice versa, when applicable) for each stream identified in paragraph (c)(6)(i)(A) of this section whenever the applicable area includes such a transition point. If the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers has determined the location of a transition point, your application must be consistent with that determination.
(ii)(A) For all perennial and intermittent streams within the proposed permit area, you must describe the baseline stream pattern, profile, and dimensions, with measurements of channel slope, sinuosity, water depth, alluvial groundwater depth, depth to bedrock, bankfull depth, bankfull width, width of the flood-prone area, and dominant in-stream substrate at a scale and frequency adequate to characterize the entire length of the stream within the proposed permit area.
(B) You must describe the general stream-channel configuration of ephemeral streams within the proposed permit area.
(iii) For all perennial, intermittent, and ephemeral streams within the proposed permit area, you must describe the vegetation growing along the banks of each stream, including—
(A) Identification of any hydrophytic vegetation located within or adjacent to the stream channel.
(B) The extent to which streamside vegetation consists of trees and shrubs.
(C) The percentage of channel canopy coverage.
(D) A scientific calculation of the species diversity of the vegetation.
(iv) You must identify all stream segments within the proposed permit and adjacent areas that appear on the list of impaired surface waters prepared under section 303(d) of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1313(d). You must identify the parameters responsible for the impaired condition and the total maximum daily loads associated with those parameters, when applicable.
(v) For all perennial, intermittent, and ephemeral streams within the proposed permit area and for all perennial and intermittent streams within the adjacent area, you must identify the extent of wetlands adjoining the stream and describe the quality of those wetlands.
(vi) Except as provided in paragraph (g) of this section, you must provide an assessment of the biological condition of—
(A) Each perennial stream within the proposed permit area.
(B) Each perennial stream within the adjacent area that could be affected by the proposed operation.
(C) Each intermittent stream within the proposed permit area, if a scientifically defensible protocol has been established for assessment of intermittent streams in the state or region in which the stream is located.
(D) Each intermittent stream within the adjacent area that could be affected by the proposed operation, if a scientifically defensible protocol has been established for assessment of intermittent streams in the state or region in which the stream is located.
(vii) When determining the biological condition of a stream under paragraph (c)(6)(vi) of this section, you must adhere to a bioassessment protocol approved by the state or tribal agency responsible for preparing the water quality inventory required under section 305(b) of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1315(b), or to other scientifically defensible bioassessment protocols accepted by agencies responsible for implementing the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1251
(A) Be based upon the measurement of an appropriate array of aquatic organisms, including, at a minimum, benthic macroinvertebrates, identified to the genus level where possible, otherwise to the lowest practical taxonomic level.
(B) Result in the calculation of index values for both stream habitat and aquatic biota based on the reference condition.
(C) Provide index values that correspond to the capability of the stream to support its designated aquatic life uses under section 303(c) of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1313(c).
(D) Include a quantitative assessment of in-stream and riparian habitat condition.
(E) Describe the technical elements of the bioassessment protocol, including but not limited to sampling methods, sampling gear, index period, sample processing and analysis, and quality assessment/quality control procedures.
(viii) Except as provided in paragraph (g) of this section, you must describe the biology of each intermittent stream within the proposed permit area, and each intermittent stream within the adjacent area that could be affected by the proposed operation, whenever an assessment of the biological condition of those streams is not required under paragraph (c)(6)(vi) of this section. When obtaining the data needed to prepare this description, you must—
(A) Sample each stream using a scientifically defensible sampling method or protocol established or endorsed by an agency responsible for implementing the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1251
(B) Identify benthic macroinvertebrates to the genus level where possible, otherwise to the lowest practical taxonomic level; and
(C) Describe the technical elements of the sampling protocol, including but not limited to sampling methods, sampling gear, index period, sample processing and analysis, and quality assessment/quality control procedures.
(d)
(1) Aluminum.
(2) Arsenic.
(3) Barium.
(4) Beryllium.
(5) Cadmium.
(6) Copper.
(7) Lead.
(8) Mercury.
(9) Nickel.
(10) Silver.
(11) Thallium.
(12) Zinc.
(e)
(i) The areal and structural geology of the proposed permit and adjacent areas.
(ii) Other parameters that may influence the required reclamation.
(iii) An explanation of how the areal and structural geology and other parameters affect the occurrence, availability, movement, quantity, and quality of potentially impacted surface water and groundwater.
(2) The description required by paragraph (e)(1) of this section must be based on all of the following—
(i) The cross-sections, maps, and plans required by § 779.24 of this chapter.
(ii) The information obtained under paragraphs (e)(3) and (4) of this section.
(iii) Geologic literature and practices.
(3) For any portion of the proposed permit area in which the strata down to the coal seam or seams to be mined will be removed or are already exposed, you must collect and analyze samples collected from test borings; drill cores; or fresh, unweathered, uncontaminated samples from rock outcrops, down to and including the deeper of either the stratum immediately below the lowest coal seam to be mined or any aquifer below the lowest seam to be mined that may be adversely impacted by mining. Your application must include the following data and analyses:
(i) Logs showing the lithologic characteristics, including physical properties and thickness of each stratum, and the location of any groundwater encountered.
(ii) Chemical analyses identifying those strata that may contain acid-forming materials, toxic-forming materials, or alkalinity-producing materials and the extent to which each stratum contains those materials.
(iii) Chemical analyses of all coal seams for acid-forming or toxic-forming materials, including, but not limited to, total sulfur and pyritic sulfur.
(4) You must provide any additional geologic information and analyses that the regulatory authority determines to be necessary to protect the hydrologic balance or to meet the performance standards of this chapter.
(5) You may request the regulatory authority to waive the requirements of paragraph (e)(3) of this section, in whole or in part. The regulatory authority may grant the waiver request only after finding in writing that the collection and analysis of such data is unnecessary because other representative information is available to the regulatory authority in a satisfactory form.
(f)
(2) If the information identified as necessary in paragraph (f)(1) of this section is not available from other federal or state agencies, you may gather and submit this information to the regulatory authority as part of the permit application. As an alternative to collecting new information, you may submit data and analyses from nearby mining operations if the site of those operations is representative of the proposed operations in terms of topography, hydrology, geology, geochemistry, and method of mining.
(3) The regulatory authority may not approve the permit application until the information identified as necessary in paragraph (f)(1) of this section has been made available to the regulatory authority and the regulatory authority has used that information to prepare the cumulative hydrologic impact assessment required by § 780.21 of this part.
(g)
(1) Mine through or bury a perennial or intermittent stream;
(2) Create a point-source discharge to any perennial, intermittent, or ephemeral stream; or
(3) Modify the base flow of any perennial or intermittent stream.
(h)
(1) Consult in a timely manner with the agencies responsible for issuing permits, authorizations, and certifications under the Clean Water Act;
(2) Minimize differences in baseline data collection points and parameters; and
(3) Share data to the extent practicable and consistent with each agency's mission, statutory requirements, and implementing regulations.
(i)
(a)
(1) Whether the operation may cause material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area.
(2) Whether acid-forming or toxic-forming materials are present that could result in the contamination of surface water or groundwater, including, but not limited to, a discharge of toxic mine drainage after the completion of land reclamation.
(3) Whether the proposed operation may result in contamination, diminution, or interruption of an underground or surface source of water within the proposed permit or adjacent areas that is used for a domestic, agricultural, industrial, or other legitimate purpose.
(4) Whether the proposed operation will intercept aquifers in overburden strata or aquifers in underground mine voids (mine pools) or create aquifers in spoil placed in the backfilled area and, if so, what impacts the operation would
(5) What impact the proposed operation will have on:
(i) Sediment yield and transport from the area to be disturbed.
(ii) The quality of groundwater and surface water within the proposed permit and adjacent areas. At a minimum, unless otherwise specified, the finding must address the impacts of the operation on both groundwater and surface water in terms of the parameters listed in § 780.19(a)(2) of this part and any additional water quality parameters that the regulatory authority determines to be of local importance.
(iii) Flooding and precipitation runoff patterns and characteristics.
(iv) Peak-flow magnitude and frequency for perennial and intermittent streams within the proposed permit and adjacent areas.
(v) Seasonal variations in streamflow.
(vi) The availability of groundwater and surface water, including the impact of any diversion of surface or subsurface flows to underground mine workings or any changes in watershed size as a result of the postmining surface configuration.
(vii) The biology of perennial and intermittent streams within the proposed permit and adjacent areas, except as provided in § 780.19(g) of this part.
(viii) Other characteristics as required by the regulatory authority.
(b)
(c)
(2) The regulatory authority must require that you prepare a new or updated PHC determination if the review under paragraph (c)(1) of this section finds that one is needed.
(a)
(2) In preparing the CHIA, the regulatory authority must consider relevant information on file for other mining operations located within the cumulative impact area or in similar watersheds.
(3) As provided in § 780.19(f) of this part, the regulatory authority may not approve a permit application until the hydrologic, geologic, and biological information needed to prepare the CHIA has been made available to the regulatory authority and the regulatory authority has used that information to prepare the CHIA.
(b)
(1) A map of the cumulative impact area. At a minimum, the map must identify and display—
(i) Any difference in the boundaries of the cumulative impact area for groundwater and surface water.
(ii) The locations of all previous, current, and anticipated surface and underground mining.
(iii) The locations of all baseline data collection sites within the proposed permit and adjacent areas under § 780.19 of this part.
(iv) Designated uses of surface water under section 303(c) of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1313(c).
(2) A description of all previous, existing, and anticipated surface and underground coal mining within the cumulative impact area, including, at a minimum, the coal seam or seams mined or to be mined, the extent of mining, and the reclamation status of each operation.
(3) A quantitative and qualitative description of baseline hydrologic information for the proposed permit and adjacent areas under § 780.19 of this part, including—
(i) The quality and quantity of surface water and groundwater and seasonal variations therein.
(ii) The quality and quantity of water needed to support, maintain, or attain each—
(A) Designated use of surface water under section 303(c) of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1313(c), or, if there are no designated uses, each premining use of surface water.
(B) Premining use of groundwater.
(iii) A description and/or maps of the local and regional groundwater systems.
(iv) To the extent required by § 780.19(c)(6)(vi) of this part, the biological condition of perennial and intermittent streams and, to the extent required by § 780.19(c)(6)(viii) of this part, the biology of intermittent streams not included within § 780.19(c)(6)(vi) of this part.
(4) A discussion of any potential concerns identified in the PHC determination required under § 780.20 of this part and how those concerns have been or will be resolved.
(5) A qualitative and quantitative assessment of how all anticipated surface and underground mining may impact the quality of surface water and groundwater in the cumulative impact area, expressed in terms of each baseline parameter identified under § 780.19 of this part.
(6) Site-specific numeric or narrative thresholds for material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area. These thresholds must also be included as a condition of the permit. When identifying thresholds to define when material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area would occur in connection with a particular permit, the regulatory authority will—
(i) In consultation with the Clean Water Act authority, as appropriate, undertake a comprehensive evaluation that considers the following factors—
(A) The baseline data collected under § 780.19 of this part;
(B) The PHC determination prepared under § 780.20 of this part;
(C) Applicable water quality standards adopted under the authority of section 303(c) of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1313(c);
(D) Applicable state or tribal standards for surface water or groundwater;
(E) Ambient water quality criteria developed under section 304(a) of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1314(a);
(F) The biological requirements of any species listed as threatened or endangered under the Endangered Species Act of 1973, 16 U.S.C. 1531
(G) Other pertinent information and considerations to identify the parameters for which thresholds are necessary.
(ii) In consultation with the Clean Water Act authority, adopt numeric thresholds as appropriate, taking into consideration relevant contaminants for which there are water quality criteria under the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1251
(iii) Identify the portion of the cumulative impact area to which each threshold applies. Parameters and thresholds may vary from subarea to subarea within the cumulative impact area when appropriate, based upon differences in watershed characteristics and variations in the geology, hydrology, and biology of the cumulative impact area.
(iv) Identify the points within the cumulative impact area at which the permittee will monitor the impacts of the operation on surface water and groundwater outside the permit area and explain how those locations will facilitate timely detection of the impacts of the operation on surface water and groundwater outside the permit area in a scientifically defensible manner. The permit applicant must incorporate those monitoring locations into the surface water and groundwater monitoring plans submitted under § 780.23 of this part.
(7) Evaluation thresholds for critical water quality and quantity parameters, as determined by the regulatory authority. After permit issuance, if monitoring results at the locations designated under paragraph (b)(6)(iv) of this section document exceedance of an evaluation threshold, the regulatory authority, in consultation with the Clean Water Act authority, as appropriate, must determine the cause of the exceedance. If the mining operation is responsible for the exceedance and if the adverse trend is likely to continue in the absence of corrective action, the regulatory authority must issue a permit revision order under § 774.10 of this chapter. The order must require that the permittee reassess the adequacy of the PHC determination prepared under § 780.20 of this part and the hydrologic reclamation plan approved under § 780.20 of this part and develop measures to prevent material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area.
(8) An assessment of how all anticipated surface and underground mining may affect groundwater movement and availability within the cumulative impact area.
(9) After consultation with the Clean Water Act authority, as appropriate, an evaluation, with references to supporting data and analyses, of whether the CHIA will support a finding that the operation has been designed to prevent material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area. To support this finding, the CHIA must include the following determinations, with appropriate documentation, or an explanation of why the determination is not necessary or appropriate:
(i) Except as provided in §§ 780.22(b) and 816.40 of this chapter, the proposed operation will not—
(A) Cause or contribute to a violation of applicable water quality standards adopted under the authority of section 303(c) of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1313(c), or other applicable state or tribal water quality standards;
(B) Cause or contribute to a violation of applicable state or tribal groundwater quality standards;
(C) Preclude attainment of a premining use of a surface water located outside the permit area when no water quality standards have been established for that surface water; or
(D) Preclude attainment of any premining use of groundwater located outside the permit area.
(ii) The proposed operation has been designed to ensure that neither the mining operation nor the final configuration of the reclaimed area will result in changes in the size or frequency of peak flows from precipitation events or thaws that would cause an increase in flooding outside the permit area, when compared with premining conditions.
(iii) Perennial and intermittent streams located outside the permit area will continue to have sufficient base flow at all times during and after mining and reclamation to maintain their premining flow regime;
(iv) The proposed operation has been designed to protect the quantity and quality of water in any aquifer that significantly ensures the prevailing hydrologic balance.
(c)
(2) The regulatory authority must reevaluate the CHIA at intervals not to exceed 3 years to determine whether the CHIA remains accurate and whether the material damage and evaluation thresholds in the CHIA and the permit are adequate to ensure that material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area will not occur. This evaluation must include a review of all biological and water monitoring data from both this operation and all other coal mining operations within the cumulative impact area.
(3) The regulatory authority must prepare a new or updated CHIA if the review conducted under paragraph (c)(1) or (2) of this section finds that one is needed.
(a)
(1) Be specific to local hydrologic conditions.
(2) Include preventive or remedial measures for any potential adverse hydrologic consequences identified in the PHC determination prepared under § 780.20 of this part. These measures must describe the steps that you will take during mining and reclamation through final bond release under §§ 800.40 through 800.43 of this chapter to—
(i) Minimize disturbances to the hydrologic balance within the proposed permit and adjacent areas.
(ii) Prevent material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the proposed permit area.
(iii) Meet applicable water quality laws and regulations.
(iv) Protect the rights of existing water users in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section and § 816.40 of this chapter.
(v) Avoid acid or toxic discharges to surface water and avoid or, if avoidance is not possible, minimize degradation of groundwater.
(vi) Prevent, to the extent possible using the best technology currently available, additional contributions of suspended solids to streamflow or to runoff outside the proposed permit area.
(vii) Provide water-treatment facilities when needed.
(viii) Control surface-water runoff in accordance with § 780.29 of this part.
(ix) Restore the approximate premining recharge capacity.
(3) Address the impacts of any transfers of water among active and abandoned mines within the proposed permit and adjacent areas.
(4) Describe the steps that you will take during mining and reclamation through final bond release under §§ 800.40 through 800.43 of this chapter to protect and enhance aquatic life and related environmental values to the extent possible using the best technology currently available.
(b)
(i) Identify alternative water sources that are available, feasible to develop, and of suitable quality and sufficient in quantity to support the uses existing before mining and, when applicable, the approved postmining land uses.
(ii) Develop a water supply replacement plan that includes construction details, costs, and an implementation schedule.
(2) If you cannot identify an alternative water source that is both suitable and available, you must modify your application to prevent the proposed operation from contaminating, interrupting, or diminishing any water supply protected under § 816.40 of this chapter.
(3)(i) When a suitable alternative water source is available, your operation plan must require that the alternative water supply be developed and installed on a permanent basis before your operation advances to the point at which it could adversely affect an existing water supply protected under § 816.40 of this chapter.
(ii) Paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section will not apply immediately if you demonstrate, and the regulatory authority finds, that the proposed operation also would adversely affect the replacement supply. In that case, your plan must require provision of a temporary replacement water supply until it is safe to install the permanent replacement water supply required under paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section.
(4) Your application must describe how you will provide both temporary and permanent replacements for any unexpected losses of water supplies protected under § 816.40 of this chapter.
(a)
(i) Identify the locations to be monitored, the measurements to be taken at each location, and the parameters to be analyzed in samples collected at each location.
(ii) Specify the sampling frequency.
(iii) Establish a sufficient number of appropriate monitoring locations to evaluate the accuracy of the findings in the PHC determination, to identify adverse trends, and to determine, in a timely fashion, whether corrective action is needed to prevent material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area. At a minimum, the plan must include—
(A) For each aquifer above or immediately below the lowest coal seam to be mined, monitoring wells or equivalent monitoring points located upgradient and downgradient of the proposed operation.
(B) Monitoring wells placed in backfilled portions of the permit area after backfilling and grading of all or a portion of the permit area is completed, unless you demonstrate, and the regulatory authority finds in writing, that wells in the backfilled area are not necessary to determine or predict the future impact of the mining operation on groundwater quality.
(C) Monitoring wells in any existing underground mine workings that would have a direct hydrologic connection to the proposed operation.—
(D) Monitoring wells or equivalent monitoring points at the locations specified in the CHIA under § 780.21(b)(6)(iv) of this part.
(iv) Describe how the monitoring data will be used to—
(A) Determine the impacts of the operation upon the hydrologic balance.
(B) Determine the impacts of the operation upon the biology of surface waters within the permit and adjacent areas.
(C) Prevent material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area.
(v) Describe how the water samples will be collected, preserved, stored, transmitted for analysis, and analyzed in accordance with the sampling, analysis, and reporting requirements of paragraphs (a) and (b) of § 777.13 of this chapter.
(2)
(A) Accuracy of the findings and predictions in the PHC determination prepared under § 780.20 of this part.
(B) Suitability of the quality and quantity of groundwater for premining uses of the groundwater within the permit and adjacent areas, subject to § 816.40 of this chapter.
(C) Suitability of the quality and quantity of groundwater to support the premining land uses within the permit and adjacent areas.
(ii)
(A) Analysis of each sample for the groundwater parameters listed in § 780.19(a)(2) of this part.
(B) Water levels in each well used for monitoring purposes and discharge rates from each spring or underground opening used for monitoring purposes.
(C) Analysis of each sample for parameters detected by the baseline sampling and analysis conducted under § 780.19(d) of this part.
(D) Analysis of each sample for all parameters for which there is an evaluation threshold under § 780.21(b)(7) of this part.
(E) Analysis of each sample for other parameters of concern, as determined by
(3)
(ii) After completing preparation of the cumulative hydrologic impact assessment required under § 780.21 of this part, the regulatory authority must reconsider the adequacy of the monitoring plan and require that you make any necessary changes.
(4)
(b)
(i) Identify the locations to be monitored, the measurements to be taken at each location, and the parameters to be analyzed in samples collected at each location.
(ii)(A) Require on-site measurement of precipitation amounts at specified locations within the permit area, using self-recording devices.
(B) Measurement of precipitation amounts must continue through Phase II bond release under § 800.42(c) of this chapter or for any longer period specified by the regulatory authority.
(C) At the discretion of the regulatory authority, you may use precipitation data from a single self-recording device to provide monitoring data for multiple permits that are contiguous or nearly contiguous if a single station would provide adequate and accurate coverage of precipitation events occurring in that area.
(iii) Specify the sampling frequency.
(iv) Establish a sufficient number of appropriate monitoring locations to evaluate the accuracy of the findings in the PHC determination, to identify adverse trends, and to determine, in a timely fashion, whether corrective action is needed to prevent material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area. At a minimum, the plan must include—
(A) Monitoring of point-source discharges from the proposed operation.
(B) Monitoring locations upgradient and downgradient of the proposed permit area in each perennial and intermittent stream within the proposed permit and adjacent areas, with the exception that no upgradient monitoring location is needed for a stream when the operation will mine through the headwaters of that stream.
(C) Monitoring locations specified in the CHIA under § 780.21(b)(6)(vi) of this part.
(v) Describe how the monitoring data will be used to—
(A) Determine the impacts of the operation upon the hydrologic balance.
(B) Determine the impacts of the operation upon the biology of surface waters within the permit and adjacent areas.
(C) Prevent material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area.
(vi) Describe how the water samples will be collected, preserved, stored, transmitted for analysis, and analyzed in accordance with the sampling, analysis, and reporting requirements of paragraphs (a) and (b) of § 777.13 of this chapter.
(2)
(A) For which there are applicable effluent limitation guidelines under 40 CFR part 434.
(B) Needed to assess the accuracy of the findings and predictions in the PHC determination prepared under § 780.20 of this part.
(C) Needed to assess the adequacy of the surface-water runoff control plan prepared under § 780.29 of this part.
(D) Needed to assess the suitability of the quality and quantity of surface water in the permit and adjacent areas for all designated uses under section 303(c) of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1313(c), or, if there are no designated uses, all premining uses of surface water in the permit and adjacent areas, subject to § 816.40 of this chapter; and—
(E) Needed to assess the suitability of the quality and quantity of surface water in the permit and adjacent areas to support the premining land uses.
(F) For which there is an evaluation threshold under § 780.21(b)(7) of this part.
(ii)
(A) Analysis of each sample for the surface-water parameters listed in § 780.19(a)(2) of this part.
(B) Flow rates at each sampling location. The plan must require use of generally-accepted professional flow measurement techniques. Visual observations are not acceptable.
(C) Analysis of each sample for parameters detected by the baseline sampling and analysis conducted under § 780.19(d) of this part.
(D) Analysis of each sample for all parameters for which there is an evaluation threshold under § 780.21(b)(7) of this part.
(E) Analysis of each sample for other parameters of concern, as determined by the regulatory authority, based upon the information and analyses required under §§ 780.19 through 780.21 of this part.
(iii)
(A) Provide for monitoring in accordance with 40 CFR parts 122, 123, and 434 and as required by the National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System permitting authority.
(B) Require measurement of flow rates, using generally-accepted professional flow measurement techniques. Visual observations are not acceptable.
(iv)
(3)
(ii) After completing preparation of the cumulative hydrologic impact assessment required under § 780.21 of this part, the regulatory authority must reconsider the adequacy of the monitoring plan and require that you make any necessary changes.
(c)
(2)
(i) Require use of a bioassessment protocol that meets the requirements of § 780.19(c)(6)(vii) of this part.
(ii) Identify monitoring locations in each perennial and intermittent stream within the proposed permit and adjacent areas for which baseline biological condition data was collected under § 780.19(c)(6)(vi) of this part.
(iii) Establish a sampling frequency that must be no less than annual, but not so frequent as to unnecessarily deplete the populations of the species being monitored.
(iv) Require submission of monitoring data to the regulatory authority on an annual basis.
(3)
(ii) After completing preparation of the cumulative hydrologic impact assessment required under § 780.21 of this part, the regulatory authority must reconsider the adequacy of the monitoring plan and require that you make any necessary changes.
(d)
(ii) The regulatory authority may approve your request if it determines that a less extensive monitoring plan will be adequate to monitor the impacts of the proposed operation on groundwater and surface water, based upon an evaluation of the quality of groundwater and surface water and the biological condition of the receiving stream at the time of application.
(2)
(A) Mine through or bury any perennial or intermittent stream;
(B) Create a point-source discharge to any perennial, intermittent, or ephemeral stream; or
(C) Modify the base flow of any perennial or intermittent stream.
(ii) If you meet all the criteria of paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section with the exception of paragraph (d)(2)(i)(B) of this section, you may request, and the regulatory authority may approve, limiting the biological condition monitoring plan requirements of paragraph (c) of this section to only the stream that will receive the point-source discharge.
(e)
(1) Consult in a timely manner with the agencies responsible for issuing permits, authorizations, and certifications under the Clean Water Act;
(2) Minimize differences in monitoring locations and reporting requirements; and
(3) Share data to the extent practicable and consistent with each agency's mission, statutory requirements, and implementing regulations.
(a)
(2) Except for prime farmland historically used for cropland, you must discuss the utility and capability of the reclaimed land to support the proposed postmining land use and the variety of uses that the land was capable of supporting before any mining, as identified under § 779.22 of this chapter, regardless of the proposed postmining land use.
(3) You must explain how the proposed postmining land use is consistent with existing state and local land use policies and plans.
(4) You must include a copy of the comments concerning the proposed postmining use that you receive from the—
(i) Legal or equitable owner of record of the surface of the proposed permit area; and
(ii) State and local government agencies that would have to initiate, implement, approve, or authorize the proposed use of the land following reclamation.
(5) You must explain how the proposed postmining land use will be achieved and identify any support activities or facilities needed to achieve that use.
(6) If you propose to restore the proposed permit area or a portion thereof to a condition capable of supporting a higher or better use or uses rather than to a condition capable of supporting the uses that the land could support before any mining, you must provide the demonstration required under paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
(b)
(i) There is a reasonable likelihood that the proposed use or uses will be achieved after mining and reclamation, as documented by, for example, real estate and construction contracts, plans for installation of any necessary infrastructure, procurement of any necessary zoning approvals, landowner commitments, economic forecasts, and studies by land use planning agencies.
(ii) The proposed use or uses do not present any actual or probable hazard to public health or safety or any threat of water diminution or pollution.
(iii) The proposed use or uses will not—
(A) Be impractical or unreasonable.
(B) Be inconsistent with applicable land use policies or plans.
(C) Involve unreasonable delay in implementation.
(D) Cause or contribute to a violation of federal, state, tribal or local law.
(E) Result in changes in the size or frequency of peak flows from the reclaimed area that would cause an increase in flooding when compared with the conditions that would exist if the land were restored to a condition capable of supporting the uses that it was capable of supporting before any mining.
(F) Cause the total volume of flow from the reclaimed area, during every season of the year, to vary in a way that would preclude attainment of any designated use of a surface water located outside the permit area under section 303(c) of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1313(c), or, if there are no designated uses, any premining use of a surface water located outside the permit area.
(G) Cause a change in the temperature or chemical composition of the water that would preclude attainment of any designated use of a surface water under section 303(c) of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1313(c), or, if there are no designated uses, any premining use of a surface water located outside the permit area.
(2)
(i) Consults with the landowner or the land management agency having jurisdiction over the lands to which the use would apply; and
(ii) Finds in writing that you have made the demonstration required under paragraph (b)(1) of this section. Landowner consent alone is an insufficient basis for this finding.
(c)
(2) If you propose a higher or better postmining land use, the requirements of paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section will apply and the application must be considered a significant permit revision for purposes of § 774.13(b)(2) of this chapter.
(d)
(2) The amount of bond required for the permit under part 800 of this chapter must include the cost of removing the structure and reclaiming the land upon which it was located to a condition capable of supporting the premining uses. The bond must include the cost of restoring the site to its approximate original contour in accordance with § 816.102 of this chapter and revegetating the site in accordance with the revegetation plan approved under § 780.12(g) of this part for the permit area surrounding the site upon which the structure was previously located.
(3) The reclamation plan submitted under § 780.12 of this part must specify that if a structure is not in use as part of the approved postmining land use by the end of the revegetation responsibility period specified in § 816.115 of this chapter, you must remove the structure and reclaim the land upon which it was located by restoring the approximate original contour in accordance with § 816.102 of this chapter and revegetating the site in accordance with the revegetation plan approved under § 780.12(g) of this part for the permit area surrounding the site upon which the structure was previously located.
(e)
(a)
(b)
(1) The plan must be prepared by, or under the direction of, and certified by a qualified registered professional engineer, a professional geologist, or, in any state that authorizes land surveyors to prepare and certify such plans, a qualified registered professional land surveyor, with assistance from experts in related fields such as landscape architecture.
(2) The plan must contain a description, map, and cross-sections of the structure and its location.
(3) The plan must contain the hydrologic and geologic information required to assess the hydrologic impact of the structure.
(4)(i) The plan must contain a report describing the results of a geotechnical investigation of the potential effect on the structure if subsurface strata subside as a result of past, current, or future underground mining operations beneath or within the proposed permit and adjacent areas. When necessary, the investigation report also must identify design and construction measures that would prevent adverse subsidence-related impacts on the structure.
(ii) Except for structures that would meet the criteria in § 77.216(a) of this title or that would have a significant or high hazard potential under paragraph (a) of this section, the requirements of paragraph (b)(4)(i) of this section do not apply—
(A) In areas with 26.0 inches or less of average annual precipitation; or
(B) To siltation structures.
(5)(i) The plan must contain an analysis of the potential for each impoundment to drain into subjacent underground mine workings, together with an analysis of the impacts of such drainage.
(ii) Except for structures that would meet the criteria in § 77.216(a) of this title or that would have a significant or high hazard potential under paragraph (a) of this section, the requirements of paragraph (b)(5)(i) of this section do not apply—
(A) In areas with 26.0 inches or less of average annual precipitation; or
(B) To siltation structures.
(6) The plan must include a schedule setting forth the dates when any detailed design plans for structures that are not submitted with the general plan will be submitted to the regulatory authority.
(c)
(i) The plan must be prepared by, or under the direction of, a qualified registered professional engineer with assistance from experts in related fields such as geology, land surveying, and landscape architecture. The engineer must certify that the impoundment design meets the requirements of this part, current prudent engineering practices, and any design criteria established by the regulatory authority. The qualified registered professional engineer must be experienced in the design and construction of impoundments.
(ii) The plan must incorporate any design and construction measures identified in the geotechnical investigation report prepared under paragraph (b)(4) of this section as necessary to protect against potential adverse impacts from subsidence resulting from underground mine workings underlying or adjacent to the structure.
(iii) The plan must describe the operation and maintenance requirements for each structure.
(iv) The plan must describe the timetable and plans to remove each structure, if appropriate.
(2)
(i)(A) Except as provided in paragraph (c)(2)(i)(B) of this section, the plan must be prepared by, or under the direction of, a qualified, registered, professional engineer, or, in any state that authorizes land surveyors to prepare and certify such plans, a qualified, registered, professional, land surveyor. The engineer or land surveyor must certify that the impoundment design meets the requirements of this part, current prudent engineering practices, and any design criteria established by the regulatory authority. The qualified registered professional engineer or qualified registered professional land surveyor must be experienced in the design and construction of impoundments.
(B) All coal mine waste structures to which §§ 816.81 through 816.84 of this chapter apply must be certified by a qualified, registered, professional engineer.
(ii) The plan must reflect any design and construction requirements for the structure, including any measures identified as necessary in the geotechnical investigation report prepared under paragraph (b)(4) of this section.
(iii) The plan must describe the operation and maintenance requirements for each structure.
(iv) The plan must describe the timetable and plans to remove each structure, if appropriate.
(3)
(d)
(e)
(2) The regulatory authority may establish, through the regulatory program approval process, engineering design standards that ensure stability comparable to a 1.3 minimum static safety factor in lieu of conducting engineering tests to establish compliance with the minimum static safety factor of 1.3 required in § 816.49(a)(2)(ii) of this chapter.
(3) Each plan must include stability analyses of the proposed impoundment if the structure would meet the criteria in § 77.216(a) of this title or would have a significant or high hazard potential under paragraph (a) of this section. The stability analyses must address static, seismic, and post-earthquake (liquefaction) conditions. They must include, but are not limited to, strength parameters, pore pressures, and long-term seepage conditions. The plan also must contain a description of each engineering design assumption and calculation with a discussion of each alternative considered in selecting the specific analysis and design parameters and construction methods.
(f)
(1)
(2)
(ii) The plan for each impounding structure that meets the criteria of § 77.216(a) of this title must comply with the requirements of § 77.216-2 of this title.
(iii) Each plan for an impounding structure that will impound coal mine waste or that will be constructed of coal mine waste must contain the results of a geotechnical investigation to determine the structural competence of the foundation that will support the proposed impounding structure and the
(A) Determine the number, location, and depth of borings and test pits using current prudent engineering practice for the size of the impoundment and the impounding structure, the quantity of material to be impounded, and subsurface conditions.
(B) Consider the character of the overburden and bedrock, the proposed abutment sites for the impounding structure, and any adverse geotechnical conditions that may affect the impounding structure.
(C) Identify all springs, seepage, and groundwater flow observed or anticipated during wet periods in the area of the proposed impounding structure on each plan.
(D) Consider the possibility of mudflows, rock-debris falls, or other landslides into the impounding structure, impoundment, or impounded material.
(iv) The design must ensure that at least 90 percent of the water stored in the impoundment during the design precipitation event will be removed within a 10-day period.
Your application must describe the measures that you will use to comply with § 816.79 of this chapter if you intend to conduct surface mining activities within 500 feet of an underground mine.
(a)
(b)
(i) A postmining surface drainage pattern that is similar to the premining surface drainage pattern, relatively stable, and in dynamic near-equilibrium; and
(ii) Postmining stream-channel configurations that are relatively stable and similar to the premining configuration of ephemeral stream channels.
(2) The regulatory authority may approve or require a postmining surface drainage pattern or stream-channel configuration that differs from the pattern or configuration otherwise required under paragraph (b)(1) of this section when the regulatory authority finds that a different pattern or configuration is necessary or appropriate to—
(i) Ensure stability;
(ii) Prevent or minimize downcutting or widening of reconstructed stream channels and control meander migration;
(iii) Promote enhancement of fish and wildlife habitat;
(iv) Accommodate any anticipated temporary or permanent increase in surface runoff as a result of mining and reclamation;
(v) Accommodate the construction of excess spoil fills, coal mine waste refuse piles, or coal mine waste impounding structures;
(vi) Replace a stream that was channelized or otherwise severely altered prior to submittal of the permit application with a more natural, relatively stable, and ecologically sound drainage pattern or stream-channel configuration; or
(vii) Reclaim a previously mined area.
(c)
(2) The plan submitted under paragraph (c)(1) of this section must be consistent with the requirements of § 816.56(c) of this chapter for vegetative corridors along ephemeral streams.
(3) Paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) of this section do not apply to prime farmland historically used for cropland.
(a)
(b)
(1) In or through a perennial or intermittent stream; or
(2) On the surface of lands within 100 feet of a perennial or intermittent stream. You must measure this distance horizontally on a line perpendicular to the stream, beginning at the ordinary high water mark.
(c)
(i) A postmining surface drainage pattern that is similar to the premining surface drainage pattern, relatively stable, and in dynamic near-equilibrium; and
(ii) Postmining stream-channel configurations that are relatively stable and similar to the premining configuration of perennial and intermittent stream channels.
(2) The regulatory authority may approve or require a postmining surface drainage pattern or stream-channel configuration that differs from the pattern or configuration otherwise required under paragraph (c)(1) of this section when the regulatory authority finds that a different pattern or configuration is necessary or appropriate to—
(i) Ensure stability;
(ii) Prevent or minimize downcutting or widening of reconstructed stream channels and control meander migration;
(iii) Promote enhancement of fish and wildlife habitat;
(iv) Accommodate any anticipated temporary or permanent increase in surface runoff as a result of mining and reclamation;
(v) Accommodate the construction of excess spoil fills, coal mine waste refuse piles, or coal mine waste impounding structures;
(vi) Replace a stream that was channelized or otherwise severely altered prior to submittal of the permit application with a more natural, relatively stable, and ecologically sound drainage pattern or stream-channel configuration; or
(vii) Reclaim a previously mined area.
(d)
(2) The plan submitted under paragraph (d)(1) of this section must be consistent with natural vegetation patterns.
(3) The plan submitted under paragraph (d)(1) of this section must be consistent with the streamside vegetative corridor requirements of § 816.57(d) of this chapter.
(4) The corridor width must be measured horizontally on a line perpendicular to the stream, beginning at the ordinary high water mark.
(5) Paragraphs (d)(1) through (2) of this section do not apply to prime farmland historically used for cropland.
(e)
(2)(i) As part of a proposal to mine through an intermittent stream, you may propose to convert a minimal portion of the mined-through segment of an intermittent stream to an ephemeral stream. The regulatory authority may approve the proposed conversion only if you demonstrate, and the regulatory authority finds, that the conversion would not degrade the hydrologic function, dynamic near-equilibrium, or the ecological function of the stream as a whole within the mined area, as determined by comparison with the stream assessment conducted under § 780.19(c)(6) of this part.
(ii) Paragraph (e)(2)(i) of this section does not apply to the circumstances described in paragraph (e)(5) of this section.
(3)(i) Paragraphs (e)(1)(v) and (vii) of this section do not apply to a proposal to mine through a segment of an intermittent stream when that segment meets the criteria of paragraph (e)(3)(ii) of this section, provided you demonstrate, and the regulatory authority finds, that implementation of the proposed mining and reclamation plan—
(A) Will improve the form of the stream segment;
(B) Will improve the hydrologic function of the stream;
(C) Is likely to result in improvement of the biological condition or ecological function of the stream;
(D) Will not further degrade the hydrologic function, dynamic near-equilibrium, biological condition, or ecological function of the stream; and
(E) Will result in establishment of a streamside vegetative corridor for the stream segment in accordance with § 816.57(d) of this chapter.
(ii) To qualify for purposes of paragraph (e)(3)(i) of this section, a stream segment must display both of the following characteristics:
(A) Prior anthropogenic activity has resulted in substantial degradation of the profile or dimensions of the stream channel; and
(B) Degradation of the stream channel has resulted in a substantial adverse impact on the ecological function of the stream.
(4) Paragraph (e)(1) of this section does not apply to a stream segment that will be part of a permanent impoundment approved and constructed under § 816.49(b) of this chapter.
(5) Paragraphs (e)(1)(iv) and (vii) of this section and the requirement for restoration of the hydrologic and ecological functions and the dynamic near-equilibrium of a stream in paragraph (e)(1)(viii) of this section do not apply to an intermittent stream segment if—
(i) The intermittent segment is a minor interval in what is otherwise a predominantly ephemeral stream;
(ii) You demonstrate, and the regulatory authority finds, that the intermittent segment has no significant fish, wildlife, or related environmental values, as documented by the baseline data collected under § 780.19(c)(6) of this part; and
(iii) You demonstrate, and the regulatory authority finds, that conversion of the intermittent stream segment will not adversely affect water uses.
(f)
(ii) Pertinent stream-channel characteristics include, but are not limited to, the baseline stream pattern, profile, dimensions, substrate, habitat, and natural vegetation growing in the riparian zone and along the banks of the stream.
(iii) For temporary stream-channel diversions that will remain in use for 3 or more years, the vegetation proposed for planting along the banks of the diversion need not include species that would not reach maturity until after the diversion is removed.
(2) You must design the hydraulic capacity of all temporary and permanent stream-channel diversions to be at least equal to the hydraulic capacity of the unmodified stream channel immediately upstream of the diversion, but no greater than the hydraulic capacity of the unmodified stream channel immediately downstream from the diversion.
(3) You must design all temporary and permanent stream-channel diversions in a manner that ensures that the combination of channel, bank, and flood-plain configuration is adequate to pass safely the peak runoff of a 10-year, 6-hour precipitation event for a temporary diversion and a 100-year, 6-hour precipitation event for a permanent diversion.
(4) You must submit a certification from a qualified registered professional engineer that the designs for all stream-channel diversions and all stream channels to be reconstructed after the completion of mining meet the design requirements of this section and any additional design criteria established by the regulatory authority. This certification may be limited to the location, dimensions, and physical characteristics of the stream channel.
(g)
(2) In establishing standards under paragraph (g)(1) of this section, the regulatory authority must coordinate with the appropriate agencies responsible for administering the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1251
(3)(i) The biological component of the standards established under paragraph (g)(1) of this section must employ the best technology currently available, as specified in paragraphs (g)(3)(ii) through (iv) of this section.
(ii) For perennial streams, the best technology currently available includes an assessment of the biological condition of the stream, as determined by an index of biological condition or other scientifically-defensible bioassessment protocols consistent with § 780.19(c)(6)(vii) of this part. Standards established under paragraph (g)(1) of this section for perennial streams—
(A) Need not require that a reconstructed stream or stream-channel diversion have precisely the same biological condition or biota as the stream segment did before mining.
(B) Must prohibit substantial replacement of pollution-sensitive species with pollution-tolerant species.
(C) Must require that populations of organisms used to determine the biological condition of the reconstructed stream or stream-channel diversion be self-sustaining within that stream segment.
(iii) Paragraph (g)(3)(ii) of this section also applies to intermittent streams whenever a scientifically defensible biological index and bioassessment protocol have been established for assessment of intermittent streams in the state or region in which the stream is located.
(iv)(A) Except as provided in paragraph (g)(3)(iii) of this section, the best technology currently available for intermittent streams consists of the establishment of standards that rely upon restoration of the form, hydrologic function, and water quality of the stream and reestablishment of streamside vegetation as a surrogate for the biological condition of the stream.
(B) The regulatory authority must reevaluate the best technology currently available for intermittent streams under paragraph (g)(3)(iv)(A) of this section at 5-year intervals. Upon conclusion of that evaluation, the regulatory authority must make any appropriate adjustments before processing permit applications submitted after the conclusion of that evaluation.
(4) Standards established under paragraph (g)(1) of this section must ensure that the reconstructed stream or stream-channel diversion will not—
(i) Preclude attainment of the designated uses of that stream segment under section 303(c) of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1313(c), before mining, or, if there are no designated uses, the premining uses of that stream segment; or
(ii) Result in that stream segment not meeting the applicable anti-degradation requirements under section 303(c) of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1313(c), as adopted by a state or authorized tribe or as promulgated in a federal rulemaking under the Clean Water Act.
(h)
(i)
Your application must contain a surface-water runoff control plan that includes the following—
(a)(1) An explanation of how you will handle surface-water runoff in a manner that will prevent peak flows from the proposed permit area, both during and after mining and reclamation, from exceeding the premining peak flow from the same area for the same-size precipitation event. You must use the appropriate regional Natural Resources Conservation Service synthetic storm distribution or another scientifically defensible method approved by the regulatory authority that takes into account the time of concentration to estimate peak flows.
(2) The explanation in paragraph (a)(1) of this section must consider the findings in the determination of the probable hydrologic consequences of mining prepared under § 780.20 of this part.
(b) A surface-water runoff monitoring and inspection program that will provide sufficient precipitation and stormwater discharge data for the proposed permit area to evaluate the effectiveness of the surface-water runoff control practices under paragraph (a) of
(c) Descriptions maps, and cross-sections of runoff-control structures. A runoff-control structure is any man-made structure designed to control or convey storm water runoff on or across a minesite. This term encompasses the entire surface water control system and includes diversion ditches, drainage benches or terraces, drop structures or check dams, all types of conveyance channels, downdrains, and sedimentation and detention ponds and associated outlets. It does not include swales or reconstructed perennial, intermittent, or ephemeral stream channels.
(d) An explanation of how diversions will be constructed in compliance with § 816.43 of this chapter.
(a) For any publicly owned parks or any places listed on the National Register of Historic Places that may be adversely affected by the proposed operation, you must describe the measures to be used—
(1) To prevent adverse impacts, or
(2) If a person has valid existing rights, as determined under § 761.16 of this chapter, or if joint agency approval is to be obtained under § 761.17(d) of this chapter, to minimize adverse impacts.
(b) The regulatory authority may require the applicant to protect historic or archeological properties listed on or eligible for listing on the National Register of Historic Places through appropriate mitigation and treatment measures. Appropriate mitigation and treatment measures may be required to be taken after permit issuance, provided that the required measures are completed before the properties are affected by any mining operation.
Your application must describe, with appropriate maps and cross-sections, the measures to be used to ensure that the interests of the public and landowners affected are protected if, under § 761.14 of this chapter, you seek to have the regulatory authority approve—
(a) Conducting the proposed surface mining activities within 100 feet of the right-of-way line of any public road, except where mine access or haul roads join that right-of-way; or
(b) Relocating a public road.
(a)
(b)
(2) The demonstration under paragraph (b)(1) of this section must explain, in quantitative terms, how the maximum amount of overburden will be returned to the mined-out area after considering—
(i) Applicable regulations concerning backfilling, compaction, grading, and restoration of the approximate original contour.
(ii) Safety and stability needs and requirements.
(iii) The need for access and haul roads with their attendant drainage structures and safety berms during mining and reclamation. You may construct roads and their attendant drainage structures and safety berms on the perimeter of the backfilled area as necessary to conduct surface coal mining and reclamation operations, but, when the roads are no longer needed to support heavy equipment traffic, you must reduce the total width of roads and their attendant drainage structures and berms to be retained as part of the postmining land use to no more than 20 feet unless you demonstrate an essential need for a greater width for the postmining land use.
(iv) Needs and requirements associated with revegetation and the proposed postmining land use.
(v) Any other relevant regulatory requirements, including those pertaining to protection of water quality and fish, wildlife, and related environmental values.
(3) When necessary to avoid or minimize construction of excess spoil fills on undisturbed land, paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section does not prohibit the placement of what would otherwise be excess spoil on the mined-out area to heights in excess of the premining elevation, provided that the final surface configuration is compatible with the surrounding terrain and generally resembles landforms found in the surrounding area.
(4) You may not create a permanent impoundment under § 816.49(b) of this chapter or place coal combustion residues or noncoal materials in the mine excavation if doing so would result in the creation of excess spoil.
(c)
(d)
(e)
(f)
(2) You must locate fills on the most moderately sloping and naturally stable areas available. The regulatory authority will determine which areas are available, based upon the requirements of the Act and this chapter.
(3) Whenever possible, you must place fills on or above a natural terrace, bench, or berm if that location would provide additional stability and prevent mass movement.
(g)
(h)
(1) Sufficient foundation investigations, as well as any necessary laboratory testing of foundation material, to determine the design requirements for foundation stability for each site.
(2) A description of the character of the bedrock and any adverse geologic conditions in the area of the proposed fill.
(3) The geographic coordinates and a narrative description of all springs, seepage, mine discharges, and groundwater flow observed or anticipated during wet periods in the area of the proposed fill.
(4) An analysis of the potential effects of any underground mine workings within the proposed permit and adjacent areas, including the effects of any subsidence that may occur as a result of previous, existing, and future underground mining operations.
(5) A technical description of the rock materials to be used in the construction of fills underlain by a rock drainage blanket.
(6) Stability analyses that address static and seismic conditions. The analyses must include, but are not limited to, strength parameters, pore pressures and long-term seepage conditions. The analyses must be accompanied by a description of all engineering design assumptions and calculations and the alternatives considered in selecting the specific design specifications and methods.
(i)
(j)
(1) Number, location, and depth of borings or test pits, which must be determined according to the size of the fill and subsurface conditions.
(2) Engineering specifications used to design the bench cuts or rock-toe buttresses. Those specifications must be based upon the stability analyses required under paragraph (h)(6) of this section.
(k)
(a)
(2) You must include appropriate cross-sections, design drawings, and specifications for road widths, gradients, surfacing materials, cuts, fill embankments, culverts, bridges, drainage ditches, drainage structures, and fords and low-water crossings of perennial and intermittent streams.
(3) You must demonstrate how all proposed roads will comply with the applicable requirements of §§ 780.28, 816.150, and 816.151 of this chapter.
(4) You must identify—
(i) Each road that you propose to locate in or within 100 feet, measured horizontally on a line perpendicular to the stream, beginning at the ordinary high water mark, of a perennial or intermittent stream.
(ii) Each proposed ford of a perennial or intermittent stream that you plan to use as a temporary route during road construction.
(iii) Any plans to alter or relocate a natural stream channel.
(iv) Each proposed low-water crossing of a perennial or intermittent stream channel.
(5) You must explain why the roads, fords, and stream crossings identified in paragraph (a)(4) of this section are necessary and how they comply with the applicable requirements of § 780.28 of this part and §§ 816.150 and 816.151 of this chapter.
(6) You must describe the plans to remove and reclaim each road that would not be retained as part of the postmining land use, and provide a schedule for removal and reclamation.
(b)
(c)
You must submit a description, plans, and drawings for each support facility to be constructed, used, or maintained within the proposed permit area. The plans and drawings must include a map, appropriate cross-sections, design drawings, and specifications sufficient to demonstrate compliance with § 816.181 of this chapter for each facility.
30 U.S.C. 1201
This part establishes the minimum requirements for the descriptions of environmental resources and conditions that you must include in an application for a permit to conduct underground mining activities.
The objective of this part is to ensure that you, the permit applicant, provide the regulatory authority with a complete and accurate description of the environmental resources that may be impacted or affected by proposed underground mining activities and the environmental conditions that exist within the proposed permit and adjacent areas.
(a) You, the permit applicant, must provide all information required by this part in your application, except when this part specifically exempts you from doing so.
(b) State and federal government agencies are responsible for providing information for permit applications to the extent that this part specifically requires that they do so.
In accordance with 44 U.S.C. 3501
(a) Your permit application must describe the nature of cultural, historic, and archeological resources listed or eligible for listing on the National Register of Historic Places and known archeological sites within the proposed permit and adjacent areas. The description must be based on all available information, including, but not limited to, information from the State Historic Preservation Officer and from local archeological, historical, and cultural preservation agencies.
(b) The regulatory authority may require you, the applicant, to identify and evaluate important historic and archeological resources that may be eligible for listing on the National Register of Historic Places by—
(1) Collecting additional information,
(2) Conducting field investigations, or
(3) Completing other appropriate analyses.
The regulatory authority may require that your permit application contain a statement of the climatic factors that are representative of the proposed permit area, including—
(a) The average seasonal precipitation.
(b) The average direction and velocity of prevailing winds.
(c) Seasonal temperature ranges.
(d) Additional data that the regulatory authority deems necessary to ensure compliance with the requirements of this subchapter.
(a) You must identify, describe, and map existing vegetation types and plant communities within the proposed permit area. If you propose to use reference areas for purposes of determining revegetation success under § 817.116 of this chapter, you also must identify, describe, and map existing vegetation types and plant communities within any proposed reference areas.
(b) The description and map required under paragraph (a) of this section must—
(1) Be in sufficient detail to assist in preparation of the revegetation plan under § 784.12(g) of this chapter and provide a baseline for comparison with postmining vegetation;
(2) Be adequate to evaluate whether the vegetation provides important habitat for fish and wildlife and whether the proposed permit area contains native plant communities of local or regional significance;
(3) Identify areas with significant populations of non-native invasive or noxious species; and
(4) Delineate all wetlands and all areas bordering streams that either support or are capable of supporting hydrophytic or hydrophilic vegetation or vegetation typical of floodplains.
(c) If the vegetation on the proposed permit area has been altered by human activity, you must describe the native vegetation and plant communities typical of that area in the absence of human alterations.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(1) Species listed or proposed for listing as threatened or endangered under the Endangered Species Act of 1973, 16 U.S.C. 1531
(2) Species or habitat protected by state or tribal endangered species statutes and regulations.
(3) Habitat of unusually high value for fish and wildlife, which may include wetlands, riparian areas, cliffs that provide nesting sites for raptors,
(4) Other species or habitat identified through interagency coordination as requiring special protection under state, tribal, or federal law, including species identified as sensitive by a state, tribal, or federal agency.
(5) Perennial or intermittent streams.
(6) Native plant communities of local or regional ecological significance.
Your permit application must include—
(a) The results of a reconnaissance inspection to determine whether the proposed permit area may contain prime farmland historically used for cropland, as required by § 785.17(b)(1) of this chapter.
(b)(1) A map showing the soil mapping units located within the proposed permit area, if the National Cooperative Soil Survey has completed and published a soil survey of the area.
(2) The applicable soil survey information that the Natural Resources Conservation Service maintains for the soil mapping units identified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section. You may provide this information either in paper form or via a link to the appropriate element of the Natural Resources Conservation Service's soil survey Web site.
(c) A description of soil depths within the proposed permit area.
(d) Detailed information on soil quality, if you seek approval for the use of soil substitutes or supplements under § 784.12(e) of this chapter.
(e) The soil survey information required by § 785.17(b)(3) of this chapter if the reconnaissance inspection conducted under paragraph (a) of this section indicates that prime farmland historically used for cropland may be present.
(f) Any other information on soils that the regulatory authority finds necessary to determine land capability.
Your permit application must contain a statement of the condition, capability, and productivity of the land within the proposed permit area, including—
(a)(1) A map and narrative identifying and describing the land use or uses in existence at the time of the filing of the application.
(2) A description of the historical uses of the land to the extent that this information is readily available or can be inferred from the uses of other lands in the vicinity.
(3) For any previously mined area within the proposed permit area, a description of the land uses in existence before any mining, to the extent that such information is available.
(b) A narrative analysis of—
(1) The capability of the land before any mining to support a variety of uses, giving consideration to soil and foundation characteristics, topography, vegetative cover, and the hydrology of the proposed permit area; and
(2) The productivity of the proposed permit area before mining, expressed as average yield of food, fiber, forage, or wood products obtained under high levels of management, as determined by—
(i) Actual yield data; or
(ii) Yield estimates for similar sites based on current data from the U.S. Department of Agriculture, state agricultural universities, or appropriate state natural resources or agricultural agencies.
(c) Any additional information that the regulatory authority deems necessary to determine the condition, capability, and productivity of the land within the proposed permit area.
(a) In addition to the maps, plans, and information required by other sections of this part, your permit application must include maps and, when appropriate, plans and cross-sections showing—
(1) All boundaries of lands and names of present owners of record of those lands, both surface and subsurface, included in or contiguous to the proposed permit area.
(2) The boundaries of land within the proposed permit area upon which you have the legal right to enter and begin underground mining activities.
(3) The boundaries of all areas that you anticipate affecting over the estimated total life of the underground mining activities, with a description of the size, sequence, and timing of the mining of subareas for which you anticipate seeking additional permits or expansion of an existing permit in the future.
(4) The location and current use of all buildings within the proposed permit area or within 1,000 feet of the proposed permit area.
(5) The location of surface and subsurface manmade features within, passing through, or passing over the proposed permit and adjacent areas, including, but not limited to, highways, electric transmission lines, pipelines, constructed drainageways, irrigation ditches, and agricultural drainage tile fields.
(6) The location and boundaries of any proposed reference areas for determining the success of revegetation.
(7) The location and ownership of existing wells, springs, and other groundwater resources within the proposed permit and adjacent areas. You may provide ownership information in a table cross-referenced to a map if approved by the regulatory authority.
(8) The location and depth (if available) of each water well within the proposed permit and adjacent areas. You may provide information concerning depth in a table cross-referenced to a map if approved by the regulatory authority.
(9) The name, location, ownership, and description of all surface-water bodies and features, such as perennial, intermittent, and ephemeral streams; ponds, lakes, and other impoundments; wetlands; and natural drainageways, within the proposed permit and adjacent areas. To the extent appropriate, you may provide this information in a table cross-referenced to a map if approved by the regulatory authority.
(10) The locations of water supply intakes for current users of surface water flowing into, from, and within a hydrologic area defined by the regulatory authority.
(11) The location of any public water supplies and the extent of any associated wellhead protection zones located within one-half mile, measured horizontally, of the proposed permit area or the area overlying the proposed underground workings. Both you and the regulatory authority must keep this information confidential when required by state law or when otherwise necessary for safety and security purposes and protection of the integrity of public water supplies.
(12) The location of all existing and proposed discharges to any surface-water body within the proposed permit and adjacent areas.
(13) The location of any discharge into or from an active, inactive, or abandoned surface or underground mine, including, but not limited to, a mine-water treatment or pumping facility, that is hydrologically connected to the site of the proposed operation or that is located within one-half mile,
(14) Each public road located in or within 100 feet of the proposed permit area.
(15) The boundaries of any public park and locations of any cultural or historical resources listed or eligible for listing in the National Register of Historic Places and known archeological sites within the permit and adjacent areas.
(16) Each cemetery that is located in or within 100 feet of the proposed permit area.
(17) Any land within the proposed permit area which is within the boundaries of any units of the National System of Trails or the Wild and Scenic Rivers System, including study rivers designated under section 5(a) of the Wild and Scenic Rivers Act.
(18) The elevations, locations, and geographic coordinates of test borings and core samplings. You may provide this information in a table cross-referenced to a map if approved by the regulatory authority.
(19) The location and extent of subsurface water, if encountered, within the proposed permit and adjacent areas. This information must include, but is not limited to, the elevation of the water table, the areal and vertical distribution of aquifers, and maximum and minimum variations in hydraulic head in different aquifers. You must provide this information on appropriately-scaled cross-sections or maps, in a narrative, or a combination of these methods, whichever format best displays this information to the satisfaction of the regulatory authority.
(20) The elevations, locations, and geographic coordinates of monitoring stations used to gather data on water quality and quantity and on fish and wildlife in preparation of the application. You may provide this information in a table cross-referenced to a map if approved by the regulatory authority.
(21) The nature, depth, thickness, and commonly used names of the coal seams to be mined.
(22) Any coal crop lines within the permit and adjacent areas and the strike and dip of the coal to be mined.
(23) The location and extent of known workings of active, inactive, or abandoned underground mines within or underlying the proposed permit and adjacent areas.
(24) Any underground mine openings to the surface within the proposed permit and adjacent areas.
(25) The location and extent of existing or previously surface-mined areas within the proposed permit area.
(26) The location and dimensions of existing areas of spoil, coal mine waste, noncoal mine waste disposal sites, dams, embankments, other impoundments, and water treatment facilities within the proposed permit area.
(27) The location and, if available, the depth of all gas and oil wells within the proposed permit and adjacent areas. You must identify the lateral extent of the well bores unless that information is confidential under state law. You may provide information concerning well depth in a table cross-referenced to a map if approved by the regulatory authority.
(28) Other relevant information required by the regulatory authority.
(b) Maps, plans, and cross-sections required by paragraph (a) of this section must be—
(1) Prepared by, or under the direction of, and certified by a qualified registered professional engineer, a professional geologist, or in any state that authorizes land surveyors to prepare and certify such maps, plans, and cross-sections, a qualified registered professional land surveyor, with assistance from experts in related fields such as landscape architecture.
(2) Updated when required by the regulatory authority.
(c) The regulatory authority may require that you submit the materials required by this section in a digital format that includes all necessary metadata.
(a) You may request that the regulatory authority approve a schedule for incremental submission of the information required by this part, based on the anticipated progress and impact of underground mining activities.
(b) At its discretion, the regulatory authority may approve the proposed schedule, provided that—
(1) Each increment is clearly defined and includes at least 5 years of anticipated mining.
(2) The schedule includes a map showing the limits of underground mining activity under each increment. You must establish those limits in a manner that will prevent any impact on the succeeding increment before the regulatory authority approves mining within that increment.
(3) The schedule requires that you submit all required data under this part for each successive increment at least one year in advance of any anticipated impact of underground mining upon that increment.
(4) The regulatory authority conditions the permit to—
(i) Require that you reevaluate the adequacy of the PHC determination under § 784.20 of this chapter and the hydrologic reclamation plan under § 784.22 of this chapter as part of each submission under paragraph (b)(3) of this section.
(ii) Prohibit the conduct of any underground mining activity that might impact an increment before the regulatory authority reviews the information submitted for that increment, updates the CHIA prepared under § 784.21 of this chapter to incorporate that information, and determines that the findings made under § 773.15 of this chapter remain accurate.
30 U.S.C. 1201
This part establishes the minimum requirements for the operation and reclamation plan portions of applications for a permit to conduct underground mining activities, except to the extent that part 785 of this subchapter establishes different requirements.
The objective of this part is to ensure that you, the permit applicant, provide the regulatory authority with comprehensive and reliable information on how you propose to conduct underground mining activities and reclaim the disturbed area in compliance with the Act, this chapter, and the regulatory program.
(a) You, the permit applicant, must provide to the regulatory authority all information required by this part, except where specifically exempted in this part.
(b) State and federal governmental agencies must provide information needed for permit applications to the extent that this part specifically requires that they do so.
In accordance with 44 U.S.C. 3501
Your application must contain a description of the mining operations that you propose to conduct during the life of the mine, including, at a minimum, the following—
(a) A narrative description of the—
(1) Type and method of coal mining procedures and proposed engineering techniques.
(2) Anticipated annual and total number of tons of coal to be produced.
(3) Major equipment to be used for all aspects of the proposed operations.
(b) A narrative explaining the construction, modification, use, maintenance, and removal (unless you can satisfactorily explain why retention is necessary or appropriate for the postmining land use specified in the application under § 784.24 of this part) of the following facilities:
(1) Dams, embankments, and other impoundments.
(2) Overburden and soil handling and storage areas and structures.
(3) Coal removal, handling, storage, cleaning, and transportation areas and structures.
(4) Spoil, coal processing waste, underground development waste, and noncoal mine waste removal, handling, storage, transportation, and disposal areas and structures.
(5) Mine facilities, including ventilation boreholes, fans, and access roads.
(6) Water pollution control facilities.
(a)
(b)
(1) Backfilling.
(2) Grading.
(3) Establishment of the surface drainage pattern and stream-channel configuration approved in the permit, including construction of appropriately-designed perennial, intermittent, and ephemeral stream channels to replace those removed by mining, to the extent and in the form required by §§ 784.27, 784.28, 817.56, and 817.57 of this chapter.
(4) Soil redistribution.
(5) Planting of all vegetation in accordance with the revegetation plan approved in the permit, including establishment of streamside vegetative corridors along the banks of perennial, intermittent, and ephemeral streams when required by §§ 817.56(c) and 817.57(d) of this chapter.
(6) Demonstration of revegetation success.
(7) Demonstration of restoration of the ecological function of all reconstructed perennial and intermittent stream segments.
(8) Application for each phase of bond release under § 800.42 of this chapter.
(c)
(d)
(2) The backfilling and grading plan must describe in detail how you will conduct backfilling and related reclamation activities, including how you will—
(i) Compact spoil to reduce infiltration to minimize leaching and discharges of parameters of concern.
(ii) Limit compaction of topsoil and soil materials in the root zone to the minimum necessary to achieve stability. The plan also must identify measures that will be used to alleviate soil compaction if necessary.
(iii) Handle acid-forming and toxic-forming materials, if present, to prevent the formation of acid or toxic drainage from acid-forming and toxic-forming materials within the overburden. The plan must be consistent with paragraph (n) of this section and § 817.38 of this chapter.
(e)
(ii) Except as provided in paragraphs (e)(1)(iii) and (iv) of this section, the plan submitted under paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section must require that the B soil horizon, the C soil horizon, and other underlying strata, or portions of those soil horizons and strata, be removed separately, stockpiled if necessary, and redistributed to the extent and in the manner needed to achieve the optimal rooting depths required to restore premining land use capability and to comply with the revegetation requirements of §§ 817.111 and 817.116 of this chapter.
(iii) The plan submitted under paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section need not require salvage of those soil horizons which you demonstrate, to the satisfaction of the regulatory authority, are inferior to other overburden materials as a plant growth medium, provided you comply with the soil substitute requirements of paragraph (e)(2) of this section.
(iv) The plan submitted under paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section may allow blending of the B soil horizon, the C soil horizon, and underlying strata, or portions thereof, to the extent that research or prior experience under similar conditions has demonstrated that blending will not adversely affect soil productivity.
(v) The plan submitted under paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section must explain how you will handle and, if necessary, store soil materials to avoid contamination by acid-forming or toxic-forming materials and to minimize deterioration of desirable soil characteristics.
(2)
(A)(
(
(B) The use of the overburden materials that you have selected, in combination with or in place of the topsoil or subsoil, will result in a soil medium that is more suitable than the existing topsoil and subsoil to support and sustain vegetation consistent with the postmining land use and the revegetation plan under paragraph (g) of this section and that will provide a rooting depth that is superior to the existing topsoil and subsoil.
(C) The overburden materials that you select for use as a soil substitute or supplement are the best materials available to support and sustain vegetation consistent with the postmining land use and the revegetation plan under paragraph (g) of this section.
(ii) For purposes of paragraph (e)(2)(i) of this section, the regulatory authority will specify the—
(A) Suitability criteria for substitutes and supplements.
(B) Chemical and physical analyses, field trials, or greenhouse tests that you must conduct to make the demonstration required by paragraph (e)(2)(ii) of this section.
(C) Sampling objectives and techniques and the analytical techniques that you must use for purposes of paragraph (e)(2)(iii)(B) of this section.
(iii) At a minimum, the demonstrations required by paragraph (e)(2)(ii) of this section must include—
(A) The physical and chemical soil characteristics and root zones needed to support and sustain the type of vegetation to be established on the reclaimed area.
(B) A comparison and analysis of the thickness, total depth, texture, percent coarse fragments, pH, and areal extent of the different kinds of soil horizons and overburden materials available within the proposed permit area, based upon a statistically valid sampling procedure.
(v) You must include a plan for testing and evaluating overburden materials during both removal and redistribution to ensure that only materials approved for use as soil substitutes or supplements are removed and redistributed.
(f)
(g)
(i) The schedule for revegetation of the area to be disturbed.
(ii) The site preparation techniques that you plan to use, including the measures that you will take to avoid or, when avoidance is not possible, to minimize and alleviate compaction of the root zone during backfilling, grading, soil redistribution, and planting.
(iii) What soil tests you will perform, together with a statement as to whether you will apply lime, fertilizer, or other amendments in response to those tests before planting or seeding.
(iv) The species that you will plant to achieve temporary erosion control or, if you do not intend to establish a temporary vegetative cover, a description of other soil stabilization measures that you will implement in lieu of planting a temporary cover.
(v) The species that you will plant and the seeding and stocking rates and planting arrangements that you will use to achieve or complement the postmining land use, enhance fish and wildlife habitat, and achieve the streamside vegetative corridor requirements of §§ 817.56(c) and 817.57(d) of this chapter, when applicable.
(A) Revegetation plans that involve the establishment of trees and shrubs must include site-specific planting prescriptions for canopy trees, understory trees and shrubs, and herbaceous ground cover compatible with establishment of trees and shrubs.
(B) To the extent practicable and consistent with other revegetation and regulatory program requirements, the species mix must include native pollinator-friendly plants and the planting arrangements must promote the establishment of pollinator-friendly habitat.
(vi) The planting and seeding techniques that you will use.
(vii) Whether you will apply mulch and, if so, the type of mulch and the method of application.
(viii) Whether you plan to conduct irrigation or apply fertilizer after the first growing season and, if so, to what extent and for what length of time.
(ix) Any normal husbandry practices that you plan to use in accordance with § 817.115(d) of this chapter.
(x) The standards and evaluation techniques that you propose to use to determine the success of revegetation in accordance with § 817.116 of this chapter.
(xi) The measures that you will take to avoid the establishment of invasive species on reclaimed areas or to control those species if they do become established.
(2) Except as provided in paragraphs (g)(4) and (5) of this section, the species and planting rates and arrangements selected as part of the revegetation plan must be designed to create a diverse, effective, permanent vegetative cover that is consistent with the native plant communities and natural succession process described in the permit application in accordance with § 783.19 of this chapter.
(3) The species selected as part of the revegetation plan must—
(i) Be native to the area. The regulatory authority may approve the use of introduced species as part of the permanent vegetative cover for the site only if—
(A) The introduced species are both non-invasive and necessary to achieve the postmining land use;
(B) Planting of native species would be inconsistent with the approved postmining land use; and
(C) The approved postmining land use is implemented before the entire bond amount for the area has been fully released under §§ 800.40 through 800.43 of this chapter.
(ii) Be capable of stabilizing the soil surface from erosion to the extent that control of erosion with herbaceous ground cover is consistent with establishment of a permanent vegetative cover that resembles native plant communities in the area.
(iii) Be compatible with the approved postmining land use.
(iv) Have the same seasonal characteristics of growth, consistent with the appropriate stage of natural succession, as the native plant communities described in the permit application in accordance with § 783.19 of this chapter.
(v) Be capable of self-regeneration and natural succession.
(vi) Be compatible with the plant and animal species of the area.
(vii) Meet the requirements of applicable state and federal seed, noxious plant, and introduced species laws and regulations.
(4) The regulatory authority may grant an exception to the requirements of paragraphs (g)(3)(i), (iv), and (v) of this section when necessary to achieve a quick-growing, temporary, stabilizing cover on disturbed and regraded areas, and the species selected to achieve this purpose will not impede the establishment of permanent vegetation.
(5) The regulatory authority may grant an exception to the requirements of paragraphs (g)(2), (g)(3)(iv), and (g)(3)(v) of this section for those areas with a long-term, intensive, agricultural postmining land use.
(6) A qualified, experienced biologist, soil scientist, forester, or agronomist must prepare or approve all revegetation plans.
(h)
(i)
(j)
(1) The type and quantity of noncoal waste materials that you anticipate disposing of within the proposed permit area.
(2) How you intend to dispose of noncoal waste materials in accordance with § 817.89 of this chapter.
(3) The locations of any proposed noncoal waste material disposal sites within the proposed permit area.
(4) The contingency plans that you have developed to preclude sustained combustion of combustible noncoal materials.
(k)
(l)
(m)
(1) All applicable state and local land use plans and programs.
(2) The plans of the surface landowner, to the extent that those plans are practicable and consistent with this chapter and with other applicable laws and regulations.
(n)
(i) Identify the anticipated postmining groundwater level for all locations at which you propose to place acid-forming or toxic-forming materials.
(ii) When approved in the permit, place acid-forming and toxic-forming
(A) Completely surround acid-forming and toxic-forming materials with compacted material with a hydraulic conductivity at least two orders of magnitude lower than the hydraulic conductivity of the adjacent spoil or coal mine waste.
(B) Treat or otherwise neutralize acid-forming and toxic-forming materials to prevent the formation of acid or toxic mine drainage. This technique may include the blending of acid-forming materials with spoil of sufficient alkalinity to prevent the development of acid drainage.
(a) In addition to the maps and plans required under § 783.24 and other provisions of this subchapter, your application must include maps, plans, and cross-sections of the proposed permit area showing—
(1) The lands that you propose to affect throughout the life of the operation, including the sequence and timing of underground mining activities and the sequence and timing of backfilling, grading, and other reclamation activities to be conducted on areas where the operation will disturb the land surface.
(2) Each area of land for which a performance bond or other equivalent guarantee will be posted under part 800 of this chapter.
(3) Any change that the proposed operations will cause in a facility or feature identified under § 783.24 of this chapter.
(4) All buildings, utility corridors, and facilities to be used or constructed within the proposed permit area, with identification of those facilities that you propose to retain as part of the postmining land use.
(5) Each coal storage, cleaning, processing, and loading area and facility.
(6) Each temporary storage area for soil, spoil, coal mine waste, and noncoal mine waste.
(7) Each water diversion, collection, conveyance, treatment, storage and discharge facility to be used, including the location of each point at which water will be discharged from the proposed permit area to a surface-water body and the name of that water body.
(8) Each disposal facility for coal mine waste and noncoal mine waste materials.
(9) Each feature and facility to be constructed to protect or enhance fish, wildlife, and related environmental values.
(10) Each explosive storage and handling facility.
(11) The location of each siltation structure, sedimentation pond, permanent water impoundment, refuse pile, and coal mine waste impoundment for which plans are required by § 784.25 of this part, and the location of each excess spoil fill for which plans are required under § 784.35 of this part.
(12) Each segment of a perennial or intermittent stream that you propose to mine through, bury, or divert.
(13) Each location in which you propose to restore a perennial or intermittent stream or construct a temporary or permanent diversion of a perennial or intermittent stream.
(14) Each streamside vegetative corridor that you propose to establish.
(15) Each segment of a perennial or intermittent stream that you propose to enhance under the plan submitted in accordance with § 784.16 of this part.
(16) The location and geographic coordinates of each monitoring point for groundwater, surface water, and subsidence.
(17) The location and geographic coordinates of each point at which you propose to monitor the biological condition of perennial and intermittent streams.
(b) Except as provided in §§ 784.25(a)(2), 784.25(a)(3), 784.35, 817.74(c), and 817.81(c) of this chapter, maps, plans, and cross-sections required under paragraphs (a)(5), (6), (7), (10), and (11) of this section must be prepared by, or under the direction of, and certified by a qualified, registered, professional engineer, a professional geologist, or, in any state that authorizes land surveyors to prepare and certify such maps, plans, and cross-sections, a qualified, registered, professional, land surveyor, with assistance from experts in related fields such as landscape architecture.
(c) The regulatory authority may require that you submit the materials required by paragraph (a) of this section in a digital format.
(a) Each application must contain a description of every existing structure that you propose to use in connection with or to facilitate surface coal mining and reclamation operations. The description must include—
(1) The location of the structure.
(2) Plans of the structure.
(3) A description of the current condition of the structure.
(4) The approximate dates when the structure was originally built.
(5) A showing, including relevant monitoring data or other evidence, of whether the structure meets the permanent program performance standards of subchapter K of this chapter or, if the structure does not meet the performance standards of subchapter K of this chapter, a showing of whether the structure meets the initial program performance standards of subchapter B of this chapter.
(b) Each application must contain a compliance plan for every existing structure that you propose to modify or reconstruct for use in connection with or to facilitate surface coal mining and reclamation operations. The compliance plan must include—
(1) Design specifications for the modification or reconstruction of the structure to meet the design and performance standards of subchapter K of this chapter.
(2) A schedule for the initiation and completion of any modification or reconstruction under paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
(3) Provisions for monitoring the structure during and after modification or reconstruction to ensure that the performance standards of subchapter K of this chapter are met.
(4) A demonstration that there is no significant risk of harm to the environment or to public health or safety during modification or reconstruction of the structure.
(a)
(1) Is consistent with the requirements of § 817.97 of this chapter.
(2) Is specific to the resources identified under § 783.20 of this chapter.
(3) Complies with the requirements of paragraphs (b) through (e) of this section.
(b)
(2) You must describe the steps that you have taken or will take to comply with the Endangered Species Act of 1973, 16 U.S.C. 1531
(3) The regulatory authority may not approve the permit application before there is a demonstration of compliance with the Endangered Species Act of 1973, 16 U.S.C. 1531
(c)
(1) Retain forest cover and other native vegetation as long as possible and time the removal of that vegetation to minimize adverse impacts on aquatic and terrestrial species.
(2) Locate and design sedimentation ponds, utilities, support facilities, roads, rail spurs, and other transportation facilities to avoid or minimize adverse impacts on fish, wildlife, and related environmental values.
(3) Except as provided under § 784.12(g)(4) of this part, select non-invasive native species for revegetation that either promote or do not inhibit the long-term development of wildlife habitat.
(4)(i) Avoid mining through wetlands or perennial or intermittent streams or disturbing riparian habitat adjacent to those streams. When avoidance is not possible, minimize—
(A) The time during which mining and reclamation operations disrupt wetlands or streams or riparian habitat associated with streams;
(B) The length of stream mined through; and
(C) The amount of wetlands or riparian habitat disturbed by the operation.
(ii) If you propose to mine through or discharge dredged or fill material into wetlands or streams that are subject to the jurisdiction of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1251
(5) Implement other appropriate conservation practices such as, but not limited to, those identified in the technical guides published by the Natural Resources Conservation Service.
(d)
(ii) If your application includes no proposed enhancement measures under paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section, you must explain, to the satisfaction of the regulatory authority, why implementation of enhancement measures is not practicable.
(2)
(i) Using the backfilling and grading process to create postmining surface features and configurations, such as functional wetlands, of high value to fish and wildlife.
(ii) Designing and constructing permanent impoundments in a manner that will maximize their value to fish and wildlife.
(iii) Creating rock piles and other permanent landscape features of value to raptors and other wildlife for nesting and shelter, to the extent that those features are consistent with features that existed on the site before any mining, the surrounding topography, and the approved postmining land use.
(iv) Reestablishing native forests or other native plant communities, both within and outside the permit area. This may include restoring the native plant communities that existed before any mining, establishing native plant communities consistent with the native plant communities that are a part of the natural succession process, establishing native plant communities designed to restore or expand native pollinator populations and habitats, or establishing native plant communities that will support wildlife species of local, state, tribal, or national concern, including, but not limited to, species listed or proposed for listing as threatened or endangered on a state, tribal, or national level.
(v) Establishing a vegetative corridor along the banks of streams where there is no such corridor before mining but where a vegetative corridor typically would exist under natural conditions. Species selected for planting within the corridor must be comprised of species native to the area, including native plants adapted to and suitable for planting in any floodplains or other riparian zones located within the corridor. Whenever possible, you should establish this corridor along both banks of the stream, preferably with a minimum corridor width of 100 feet along each bank.
(vi) Implementing conservation practices identified in publications, such as the technical guides published by the Natural Resources Conservation Service.
(vii) Permanently fencing livestock away from perennial and intermittent streams and wetlands.
(viii) Installing perches and nest boxes.
(ix) Establishing conservation easements or deed restrictions, with an emphasis on preserving riparian vegetation and forested corridors along perennial and intermittent streams.
(x) Providing funding to cover long-term operation and maintenance costs that watershed organizations incur in treating long-term postmining discharges from previous mining operations.
(xi) Reclaiming previously mined areas located outside the area that you propose to disturb for coal extraction.
(xii) Implementing measures to reduce or eliminate existing sources of surface-water or groundwater pollution.
(3)
(A) Temporary or permanent loss of mature native forest or other native plant communities that cannot be restored fully before final bond release under §§ 800.40 through 800.43 of this chapter or
(B) Permanent loss of wetlands or a segment of a perennial or intermittent stream.
(ii) Whenever the conditions described in paragraph (d)(3)(i) of this section apply, the scope of the enhancement measures that you propose under paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section must be commensurate with the magnitude of the long-term adverse impacts of the proposed operation. Whenever possible, the measures must be permanent.
(iii)(A) Enhancement measures proposed under paragraph (d)(3)(ii) of this section must be implemented within the watershed in which the proposed operation is located, unless opportunities for enhancement are not available within that watershed. In that case, you must propose to implement enhancement measures in the closest adjacent watershed in which enhancement opportunities exist, as approved by the regulatory authority.
(B) Each regulatory program must prescribe the size of the watershed for purposes of paragraph (d)(3)(iii)(A) of this section, using a generally-accepted watershed classification system.
(4)
(e)
(ii)(A) When the resource information obtained under § 783.20 of this chapter does not include species listed as threatened or endangered under the Endangered Species Act of 1973, 16 U.S.C. 1531
(B) The regulatory authority must provide the resource information and the protection and enhancement plan to the Service under paragraph (e)(1)(ii)(A) of this section within 10 days of receipt of a request from the Service to review the resource information and the protection and enhancement plan.
(2) The regulatory authority must document the disposition of comments that it receives from the applicable Service(s) in response to the distribution made under paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section to the extent that those comments pertain to species listed as threatened or endangered under the Endangered Species Act of 1973, 16 U.S.C. 1531
(a)(1)
(i) Determining the probable hydrologic consequences of the proposed operation upon the quality and quantity of surface water and groundwater in the proposed permit and adjacent areas, as required under § 784.20 of this part.
(ii) Determining the nature and extent of both the hydrologic reclamation plan required under § 784.22 of this part and the monitoring plans required under § 784.23 of this part.
(iii) Determining whether reclamation as required by this chapter can be accomplished.
(iv) Preparing the cumulative hydrologic impact assessment under § 784.21 of this part, including an evaluation of whether the proposed operation has been designed to prevent material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area.
(v) Preparing the subsidence control plan under § 784.30 of this part.
(2)
(b)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(i) The areal extent and saturated thickness of all potentially-impacted aquifers; and
(ii) Approximate rates of groundwater discharge or usage and the elevation of the water table or potentiometric head in—
(A) Each water-bearing coal seam to be mined.
(B) Each aquifer above each coal seam to be mined.
(C) Each potentially-impacted aquifer below the lowest coal seam to be mined.
(6)
(A) Upgradient and downgradient of the proposed permit area;
(B) Upgradient and downgradient of the area encompassed by the angle of dewatering; and
(C) Within the proposed permit area and the area overlying the proposed underground workings.
(ii)(A) To document seasonal variations in groundwater quality and quantity, you must collect samples and take the measurements identified in paragraph (b)(5) of this section from each location identified in paragraph (b)(6)(i) of this section at approximately equally-spaced monthly intervals for a minimum of 12 consecutive months.
(B) If approved by the regulatory authority, you may modify the interval or the 12-consecutive-month requirement specified in paragraph (b)(6)(ii)(A) of this section if adverse weather conditions make travel to a location specified in paragraph (b)(6)(i) of this section hazardous or if the water at that location is completely frozen.
(C) In lieu of the frequency specified in paragraph (b)(6)(ii)(A) of this section, the regulatory authority may allow you to collect data quarterly for 2 years. The regulatory authority may initiate review of the permit application after collection and analysis of the first four quarterly groundwater samples, but it may not approve the application until after receipt and analysis of the final four quarterly groundwater samples.
(D) You must analyze the samples collected in paragraph (b)(6)(ii)(A) of this section for the applicable water quality parameters identified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section and any other parameters specified by the regulatory authority.
(iii) You must provide the Palmer Drought Severity Index for the proposed permit and adjacent areas for the initial baseline data collection period under paragraph (b)(6)(ii) of this section. The regulatory authority may extend the minimum data collection period specified in paragraph (b)(6)(ii) of this section whenever data available from the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration or similar databases indicate that the region in which the proposed operation is located experienced severe drought or abnormally high precipitation during the initial baseline data collection period.
(c)
(2)
(3)
(A) Peak-flow magnitude and frequency.
(B) Actual and anticipated usage.
(C) Seasonal flow variations.
(D) Seepage-run sampling determinations, if you propose to deploy a longwall panel beneath a perennial or intermittent stream or employ other types of full-extraction mining methods beneath a perennial or intermittent stream. You must take the seepage-run measurement during both low-flow and high-flow conditions. The seepage-run measurement must extend to the full length of the stream that
(ii) All flow measurements under paragraph (c)(3)(i) of this section must be made using generally-accepted professional techniques approved by the regulatory authority. All techniques must be repeatable and must produce consistent results on successive measurements. Visual observations are not acceptable.
(4)
(A) Upgradient and downgradient of the proposed permit area in each perennial and intermittent stream within the proposed permit and adjacent areas; and
(B) Upgradient and downgradient of the area encompassed by the angle of dewatering in all potentially affected perennial and intermittent streams.
(ii)(A) To document seasonal variations in surface-water quality and quantity, you must collect samples and take the measurements identified in paragraph (c)(3) of this section from each location identified in paragraph (c)(4)(i) of this section at approximately equally-spaced monthly intervals for a minimum of 12 consecutive months.
(B) If approved by the regulatory authority, you may modify the interval or the 12-consecutive-month sampling requirement specified in paragraph (c)(4)(ii)(A) of this section if adverse weather conditions make travel to a location specified in paragraph (c)(4)(i) of this section hazardous or if the water at that location is completely frozen.
(C) You must analyze the samples collected under paragraph (c)(4)(ii)(A) of this section for the applicable parameters identified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section and any other parameters specified by the regulatory authority. (iii) You must provide the Palmer Drought Severity Index for the proposed permit and adjacent areas for the initial baseline data collection period under paragraph (c)(4)(ii) of this section. The regulatory authority may extend the minimum data collection period specified in paragraphs (c)(4)(ii) and (iii) of this section whenever data available from the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration or similar databases indicate that the region in which the proposed operation is located experienced severe drought or abnormally high precipitation during the initial baseline data collection period.
(5)
(ii) Precipitation records must be adequate to generate and calibrate a hydrologic model of the site. The regulatory authority will determine whether you must create such a model.
(iii) At the discretion of the regulatory authority, you may use precipitation data from a single self-recording device to provide baseline data for multiple permits located close to each other.
(6)
(B) The map must show the location of the channel head of each stream identified in paragraph (c)(6)(i)(A) of this section whenever the applicable area includes a terminal reach of the stream.
(C) The map must show the location of transition points from ephemeral to intermittent and from intermittent to perennial (and vice versa, when applicable) for each stream identified in paragraph (c)(6)(i)(A) of this section whenever the applicable area includes such a transition point. If the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers has determined the location of a transition point, your application must be consistent with that determination.
(ii)(A) For all perennial and intermittent streams within the proposed permit area, you must describe the baseline stream pattern, profile, and dimensions, with measurements of channel slope, sinuosity, water depth, alluvial groundwater depth, depth to bedrock, bankfull depth, bankfull width, width of the flood-prone area, and dominant in-stream substrate at a scale and frequency adequate to characterize the entire length of the stream within the proposed permit area.
(B) You must describe the general stream-channel configuration of ephemeral streams within the proposed permit area.
(iii) For all perennial, intermittent, and ephemeral streams within the proposed permit area, you must describe the vegetation growing along the banks of each stream, including—
(A) Identification of any hydrophytic vegetation located within or adjacent to the stream channel.
(B) The extent to which streamside vegetation consists of trees and shrubs.
(C) The percentage of channel canopy coverage.
(D) A scientific calculation of the species diversity of the vegetation.
(iv) You must identify all stream segments within the proposed permit and adjacent areas that appear on the list of impaired surface waters prepared under section 303(d) of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1313(d). You must identify the parameters responsible for the impaired condition and the total maximum daily loads associated with those parameters, when applicable.
(v) For all perennial, intermittent, and ephemeral streams within the proposed permit area and for all perennial and intermittent streams within the adjacent area, you must identify the extent of wetlands adjoining the stream and describe the quality of those wetlands.
(vi) Except as provided in paragraph (g) of this section, you must provide an assessment of the biological condition of—
(A) Each perennial stream within the proposed permit area.
(B) Each perennial stream within the adjacent area that could be affected by the proposed operation.
(C) Each intermittent stream within the proposed permit area, if a scientifically defensible protocol has been established for assessment of intermittent streams in the state or region in which the stream is located.
(D) Each intermittent stream within the adjacent area that could be affected by the proposed operation, if a scientifically defensible protocol has been established for assessment of intermittent streams in the state or region in which the stream is located.
(vii) When determining the biological condition of a stream under paragraph (c)(6)(vi) of this section, you must adhere to a bioassessment protocol approved by the state or tribal agency responsible for preparing the water quality inventory required under section 305(b) of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1315(b), or to other scientifically defensible bioassessment protocols accepted by agencies responsible for implementing the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1251
(A) Be based upon the measurement of an appropriate array of aquatic organisms, including, at a minimum, benthic macroinvertebrates, identified to the genus level where possible, otherwise to the lowest practical taxonomic level.
(B) Result in the calculation of index values for both stream habitat and aquatic biota based on the reference condition.
(C) Provide index values that correspond to the capability of the stream to support its designated aquatic life uses under section 303(c) of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1313(c).
(D) Include a quantitative assessment of in-stream and riparian habitat condition.
(E) Describe the technical elements of the bioassessment protocol, including but not limited to sampling methods, sampling gear, index period, sample processing and analysis, and quality assessment/quality control procedures.
(viii) Except as provided in paragraph (g) of this section, you must describe the biology of each intermittent stream within the proposed permit area, and each intermittent stream within the adjacent area that could be affected by the proposed operation, whenever an assessment of the biological condition of those streams is not required under paragraph (c)(6)(vi) of this section. When obtaining the data needed to prepare this description, you must—
(A) Sample each stream using a scientifically defensible sampling method or protocol established or endorsed by an agency responsible for implementing the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1251
(B) Identify benthic macroinvertebrates to the genus level where possible, otherwise to the lowest practical taxonomic level; and
(C) Describe the technical elements of the sampling protocol, including but not limited to sampling methods, sampling gear, index period, sample processing and analysis, and quality assessment/quality control procedures.
(d)
(1) Aluminum.
(2) Arsenic.
(3) Barium.
(4) Beryllium.
(5) Cadmium.
(6) Copper.
(7) Lead.
(8) Mercury.
(9) Nickel.
(10) Silver.
(11) Thallium.
(12) Zinc.
(e)
(i) The areal and structural geology of the proposed permit and adjacent areas.
(ii) Other parameters that influence the required reclamation.
(iii) An explanation of how the areal and structural geology may affect the occurrence, availability, movement, quantity, and quality of potentially impacted surface water and groundwater.
(iv) The composition of the bed of each perennial and intermittent stream within the proposed permit and adjacent areas, together with a prediction of how that bed would respond to subsidence of strata overlying the proposed underground mine workings and how subsidence would impact streamflow.
(2) The description required by paragraph (f)(1) of this section must be based on all of the following—
(i) The cross-sections, maps, and plans required by § 783.24 of this chapter.
(ii) The information obtained under paragraphs (e)(3) through (5) of this section.
(iii) Geologic literature and practices.
(3) For any portion of the proposed permit area in which the strata down to the coal seam to be mined will be removed or are already exposed, you must collect and analyze samples from test borings; drill cores; or fresh, unweathered, uncontaminated samples from rock outcrops, down to and including the deeper of either the stratum immediately below the lowest coal seam to be mined or any aquifer below the lowest seam to be mined that may be adversely impacted by mining. Your application must include the following data and analyses:
(i) Logs showing the lithologic characteristics, including physical properties and thickness, of each stratum, and the location of any groundwater encountered.
(ii) Chemical analyses identifying those strata that may contain acid-forming materials, toxic-forming materials, or alkalinity-producing materials and the extent to which each stratum contains those materials.
(iii) Chemical analyses of all coal seams for acid-forming or toxic-forming materials, including, but not limited to, total sulfur and pyritic sulfur.
(4) For lands within the permit and adjacent areas where the strata above the coal seam to be mined will not be removed, you must collect and analyze samples from test borings or drill cores. Your application must include the following data and analyses:
(i) Logs showing the lithologic characteristics, including physical properties and thickness, of each stratum that may be impacted, and the location of any groundwater encountered.
(ii) Chemical analyses of those strata immediately above and below the coal seam to be mined to identify whether and to what extent each stratum contains acid-forming materials, toxic-forming materials, or alkalinity-producing materials.
(iii) Chemical analyses of the coal seam for acid-forming or toxic-forming materials, including, but not limited to, total sulfur and pyritic sulfur.
(iv) For standard room-and-pillar mining operations, the thickness and engineering properties of clays or soft rock such as clay shale, if any, in the strata immediately above and below each coal seam to be mined.
(5) You must provide any additional geologic information and analyses that the regulatory authority determines to be necessary to protect the hydrologic balance, to minimize or prevent subsidence, or to meet the performance standards of this chapter.
(6) You may request the regulatory authority to waive the requirements of paragraphs (e)(3) and (4) of this section, in whole or in part. The regulatory authority may grant the waiver request only after finding in writing that the collection and analysis of that data is unnecessary because other representative information is available to the regulatory authority in a satisfactory form.
(f)
(2) If the information identified as necessary in paragraph (f)(1) of this section is not available from other federal or state agencies, you may gather and submit this information to the regulatory authority as part of the permit application. As an alternative to collecting new information, you may submit data and analyses from nearby mining operations if the site of those operations is representative of the
(3) The regulatory authority may not approve the permit application until the information identified as necessary in paragraph (f)(1) of this section has been made available to the regulatory authority and the regulatory authority has used that information to prepare the cumulative hydrologic impact assessment required by § 784.21 of this part.
(g)
(1) Mine through or bury a perennial or intermittent stream;
(2) Create a point-source discharge to any perennial, intermittent, or ephemeral stream; or
(3) Modify the base flow of any perennial or intermittent stream.
(h)
(1) Consult in a timely manner with the agencies responsible for issuing permits, authorizations, and certifications under the Clean Water Act;
(2) Minimize differences in baseline data collection points and parameters; and
(3) Share data to the extent practicable and consistent with each agency's mission, statutory requirements, and implementing regulations.
(i)
(a)
(1) Whether the operation may cause material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area.
(2) Whether acid-forming or toxic-forming materials are present that could result in the contamination of surface water or groundwater, including, but not limited to, a discharge of toxic mine drainage after the completion of land reclamation.
(3) Whether underground mining activities conducted after October 24, 1992, may result in contamination, diminution or interruption of a well or spring within the permit or adjacent areas that was in existence when the permit application was submitted and that is used for domestic, drinking, or residential purposes.
(4) Whether the proposed operation will intercept aquifers in overburden strata or aquifers in underground mine voids (mine pools) or create aquifers in spoil placed in the backfilled area and, if so, what impacts the operation would have on those aquifers, both during mining and after reclamation, and the effect of those impacts on the hydrologic balance.
(5) What impact the proposed operation will have on:
(i) Sediment yield and transport from the area to be disturbed.
(ii) The quality of groundwater and surface water within the proposed permit and adjacent areas. At a minimum, unless otherwise specified, the finding must address the impacts of the operation on both groundwater and surface water in terms of the parameters listed in § 784.19(a)(2) of this part and any additional water quality parameters that the regulatory authority determines to be of local importance.
(iii) Flooding and precipitation runoff patterns and characteristics.
(iv) Peak-flow magnitude and frequency for perennial and intermittent streams within the proposed permit and adjacent areas.
(v) Seasonal variations in streamflow.
(vi) The availability of groundwater and surface water, including the impact of any diversion of surface or subsurface flows to underground mine workings or any changes in watershed size as a result of the postmining surface configuration.
(vii) The biology of perennial and intermittent streams within the proposed permit and adjacent areas, except as provided in § 784.19(g) of this part.
(viii) Other characteristics as required by the regulatory authority.
(6) What impact subsidence resulting from the proposed underground mining activities may have on perennial and intermittent streams.
(7) Whether the underground mine workings will flood after mine closure and, if so, a statement and explanation of—
(i) The highest potentiometric surface of the mine pool after closure.
(ii) Whether, where, and when the mine pool is likely to result in a surface discharge, either via gravity or as a result of hydrostatic pressure.
(iii) The predicted quality of any discharge from the mine pool.
(iv) The predicted impact of the mine pool on the hydrologic balance of the proposed permit and adjacent areas after the mine pool reaches equilibrium.
(v) The potential for a mine pool blowout or other hydrologic disturbances.
(vi) The potential for the mine pool to destabilize surface features.
(vii) The potential impact of roof collapses on mine pool behavior and equilibrium.
(b)
(c)
(2) The regulatory authority must require that you prepare a new or updated PHC determination if the review under paragraph (c)(1) of this section finds that one is needed.
(a)
(2) In preparing the CHIA, the regulatory authority must consider relevant information on file for other mining operations located within the cumulative impact area or in similar watersheds.
(3) As provided in § 784.19(f) of this part, the regulatory authority may not approve a permit application until the hydrologic, geologic, and biological information needed to prepare the CHIA has been made available to the regulatory authority and the regulatory authority has used that information to prepare the CHIA.
(b)
(1) A map of the cumulative impact area. At a minimum, the map must identify and display—
(i) Any difference in the boundaries of the cumulative impact area for groundwater and surface water.
(ii) The locations of all previous, current, and anticipated surface and underground mining.
(iii) The locations of all baseline data collection sites within the proposed permit and adjacent areas under § 784.19 of this part.
(iv) Designated uses of surface water under section 303(c) of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1313(c).
(2) A description of all previous, existing, and anticipated surface and underground coal mining within the cumulative impact area, including, at a minimum, the coal seam or seams mined or to be mined, the extent of mining, and the reclamation status of each operation.
(3) A quantitative and qualitative description of baseline hydrologic information for the proposed permit and adjacent areas under § 784.19 of this part, including—
(i) The quality and quantity of surface water and groundwater and seasonal variations therein.
(ii) The quality and quantity of water needed to support, maintain, or attain each—
(A) Designated use of surface water under section 303(c) of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. or 1313(c), or, if there are no designated uses, each premining use of surface water.
(B) Premining use of groundwater.
(iii) A description and/or maps of the local and regional groundwater systems.
(iv) To the extent required by § 784.19(c)(6)(vi) of this part, the biological condition of perennial and intermittent streams and, to the extent required by § 784.19(c)(6)(viii) of this part, the biology of intermittent streams not included within § 784.19(c)(6)(vi) of this part.
(4) A discussion of any potential concerns identified in the PHC determination required under § 784.20 of this part and how those concerns have been or will be resolved.
(5) A qualitative and quantitative assessment of how all anticipated surface and underground mining may impact the quality of surface water and groundwater in the cumulative impact area, expressed in terms of each baseline parameter identified under § 784.19 of this part.
(6) Site-specific numeric or narrative thresholds for material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area. These thresholds must also be included as a condition of the permit. When identifying thresholds to define when material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area would occur in connection with a particular permit, the regulatory authority will—
(i) In consultation with the Clean Water Act authority, as appropriate, undertake a comprehensive evaluation that considers the following factors—
(A) The baseline data collected under § 784.19 of this part;
(B) The PHC determination prepared under § 784.20 of this part;
(C) Applicable water quality standards adopted under the authority of section 303(c) of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1313(c);
(D) Applicable state or tribal standards for surface water or groundwater;
(E) Ambient water quality criteria developed under section 304(a) of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1314(a);
(F) The biological requirements of any species listed as threatened or endangered under the Endangered Species Act of 1973, 16 U.S.C. 1531
(G) Other pertinent information and considerations to identify the parameters for which thresholds are necessary.
(ii) In consultation with the Clean Water Act authority, adopt numeric thresholds as appropriate, taking into consideration relevant contaminants for which there are water quality criteria under the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1251
(iii) Identify the portion of the cumulative impact area to which each threshold applies. Parameters and thresholds may vary from subarea to subarea within the cumulative impact area when appropriate, based upon differences in watershed characteristics and variations in the geology, hydrology, and biology of the cumulative impact area.
(iv) Identify the points within the cumulative impact area at which the permittee will monitor the impacts of the operation on surface water and groundwater outside the permit area and explain how those locations will facilitate timely detection of the impacts of the operation on surface water and groundwater outside the permit area in a scientifically defensible manner. The permit applicant must incorporate those monitoring locations into the surface water and groundwater monitoring plans submitted under § 784.23 of this part.
(7) Evaluation thresholds for critical water quality and quantity parameters, as determined by the regulatory authority. After permit issuance, if monitoring results at the locations designated under paragraph (b)(6)(iv) of this section document exceedance of an evaluation threshold, the regulatory authority, in consultation with the Clean Water Act authority, as appropriate, must determine the cause of the exceedance. If the mining operation is responsible for the exceedance and if the adverse trend is likely to continue in the absence of corrective action, the regulatory authority must issue a permit revision order under § 774.10 of this chapter. The order must require that the permittee reassess the adequacy of the PHC determination prepared under § 784.20 of this part and the hydrologic reclamation plan approved under § 784.20 of this part and develop measures to prevent material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area.
(8) An assessment of how all anticipated surface and underground
(9) After consultation with the Clean Water Act authority, as appropriate, an evaluation, with references to supporting data and analyses, of whether the CHIA will support a finding that the operation has been designed to prevent material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area. To support this finding, the CHIA must include the following determinations, with appropriate documentation, or an explanation of why the determination is not necessary or appropriate:
(i) Except as provided in §§ 784.22(b) and 817.40 of this chapter, the proposed operation will not—
(A) Cause or contribute to a violation of applicable water quality standards adopted under the authority of section 303(c) of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1313(c), or other applicable state or tribal water quality standards;
(B) Cause or contribute to a violation of applicable state or tribal groundwater quality standards;
(C) Preclude attainment of a premining use of a surface water located outside the permit area when no water quality standards have been established for that surface water; or
(D) Preclude attainment of any premining use of groundwater located outside the permit area.
(ii) The proposed operation has been designed to ensure that neither the mining operation nor the final configuration of the reclaimed area will result in changes in the size or frequency of peak flows from precipitation events or thaws that would cause an increase in flooding outside the permit area, when compared with premining conditions.
(iii) Perennial and intermittent streams located outside the permit area will continue to have sufficient base flow at all times during and after mining and reclamation to maintain their premining flow regime;
(iv) The proposed operation has been designed to protect the quantity and quality of water in any aquifer that significantly ensures the prevailing hydrologic balance.
(c)
(2) The regulatory authority must reevaluate the CHIA at intervals not to exceed 3 years to determine whether the CHIA remains accurate and whether the material damage and evaluation thresholds in the CHIA and the permit are adequate to ensure that material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area will not occur. This evaluation must include a review of all biological and water monitoring data from both this operation and all other coal mining operations within the cumulative impact area.
(3) The regulatory authority must prepare a new or updated CHIA if the review conducted under paragraph (c)(1) or (2) of this section finds that one is needed.
(a)
(1) Be specific to local hydrologic conditions.
(2) Include preventive or remedial measures for any potential adverse hydrologic consequences identified in the PHC determination prepared under § 784.20 of this part. These measures must describe the steps that you will take during mining and reclamation through final bond release under §§ 800.40 through 800.43 of this chapter to—
(i) Minimize disturbances to the hydrologic balance within the proposed permit and adjacent areas. .
(ii) Prevent material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the proposed permit area. The plan must include remedial measures for any predicted diminution of streamflow or loss of wetlands as a result of subsidence. The application must discuss the results of past use of the proposed remedial measures in the vicinity of the proposed mining operation and under similar conditions elsewhere.
(iii) Meet applicable water quality laws and regulations.
(iv) Protect existing water users in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section and § 817.40 of this chapter.
(v) Avoid acid or toxic discharges to surface water and avoid or, if avoidance is not possible, minimize degradation of groundwater.
(vi) Prevent, to the extent possible using the best technology currently available, additional contributions of suspended solids to streamflow or to runoff outside the proposed permit area.
(vii) Provide water-treatment facilities when needed.
(viii) Control surface-water runoff in accordance with § 784.29 of this part.
(3) Address the impacts of any transfers of water among active and abandoned mines within the proposed permit and adjacent areas.
(4) Describe the steps that you will take during mining and reclamation through final bond release under §§ 800.40 through 800.43 of this chapter to protect and enhance aquatic life and related environmental values to the extent possible using the best technology currently available.
(b)
(ii) You must develop a water supply replacement plan for all uses protected under § 817.40 of this chapter that includes construction details, costs, and an implementation schedule.
(2) If you cannot identify an alternative water source that is both suitable and available, you must modify your application to prevent the proposed operation from contaminating, interrupting, or diminishing any water supply protected under § 817.40 of this chapter.
(3)(i) When a suitable alternative water source is available, your operation plan must require that the alternative water supply be developed and installed
(ii) Paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section will not apply immediately if you demonstrate, and the regulatory authority finds, that the proposed operation also would adversely affect the replacement supply. In that case, your plan must require provision of a temporary replacement water supply until it is safe to install the permanent replacement water supply required under paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section.
(4) Your application must describe how you will provide both temporary and permanent replacements for any unexpected losses of water supplies protected under § 817.40 of this chapter.
(a)
(i) Identify the locations to be monitored, the measurements to be taken at each location, and the parameters to be analyzed in samples collected at each location.
(ii) Specify the sampling frequency.
(iii) Establish a sufficient number of appropriate monitoring locations to evaluate the accuracy of the findings in the PHC determination, to identify adverse trends, and to determine, in a timely fashion, whether corrective action is needed to prevent material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area. At a minimum, the plan must include—
(A) For each aquifer above or immediately below the coal seam to be mined, monitoring sites located upgradient and downgradient of the proposed operation at a distance sufficiently close to the underground mine workings to detect changes as the mining operation progresses. The plan must include a schedule and map for moving these sites as the underground workings advance.
(B) Monitoring wells in any existing underground mine workings that would have a direct hydrological connection to the proposed operation.
(C) At least one monitoring well to be located in the mine pool after mine closure.
(D) Monitoring wells or equivalent monitoring points at the locations specified in the CHIA under § 784.21(b)(6)(vi) of this part.
(iv) Describe how the monitoring data will be used to—
(A) Determine the impacts of the operation upon the hydrologic balance.
(B) Determine the impacts of the operation upon the biology of surface waters within the permit and adjacent areas.
(C) Prevent material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area.
(v) Describe how the water samples will be collected, preserved, stored, transmitted for analysis, and analyzed in accordance with the sampling, analysis, and reporting requirements of paragraphs (a) and (b) of § 777.13 of this chapter.
(2)
(A) Accuracy of the findings and predictions in the PHC determination prepared under § 784.20 of this part.
(B) Suitability of the quality and quantity of groundwater for protected premining uses of groundwater within the permit and adjacent areas, subject to § 817.40 of this chapter.
(C) Suitability of the quality and quantity of groundwater to support the premining land uses within the permit and adjacent areas.
(ii)
(A) Analysis of each sample for the groundwater parameters listed in § 784.19(a)(2) of this part.
(B) Water levels in each well used for monitoring purposes and discharge rates from each spring or underground opening used for monitoring purposes.
(C) Analysis of each sample for parameters detected by the baseline sampling and analysis conducted under § 784.19(d) of this part.
(D) Analysis of each sample for all parameters for which there is an evaluation threshold under § 784.21(b)(7) of this part.
(E) Analysis of each sample for other parameters of concern, as determined by the regulatory authority, based upon the information and analyses required under §§ 784.19 through 784.21 of this part.
(3)
(ii) After completing preparation of the cumulative hydrologic impact assessment required under § 784.21 of this part, the regulatory authority must reconsider the adequacy of the monitoring plan and require that you make any necessary changes.
(4)
(b)
(i) Identify the locations to be monitored, the measurements to be taken at each location, and the parameters to be analyzed in samples collected at each location.
(ii)(A) Require on-site measurement of precipitation amounts at specified locations within the permit area, using self-recording devices.
(B) Measurement of precipitation amounts must continue through Phase II bond release under § 800.42(c) of this chapter or for any longer period specified by the regulatory authority.
(C) At the discretion of the regulatory authority, you may use precipitation data from a single self-recording device to provide monitoring data for multiple permits that are contiguous or nearly contiguous if a single station would provide adequate and accurate coverage of precipitation events occurring in that area.
(iii) Specify the sampling frequency.
(iv) Establish a sufficient number of appropriate monitoring locations to evaluate the accuracy of the findings in the PHC determination, to identify adverse trends, and to determine, in a timely fashion, whether corrective action is needed to prevent material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area. At a minimum, the plan must include—
(A) Monitoring of point-source discharges from the proposed operation.
(B) Monitoring locations upgradient and downgradient of the proposed permit area in each perennial and intermittent stream within the proposed permit and adjacent areas, with the exception that no upgradient monitoring location is needed for a stream when the operation will mine through the headwaters of that stream.
(C) Monitoring locations upgradient and downgradient of the proposed operation at a distance sufficiently close to the underground mine workings to detect changes as the mining operation progresses. The plan must include a schedule and map for moving these sites as the underground workings advance.
(D) Monitoring locations specified in the CHIA under § 784.21(b)(6)(vi) of this part.
(v) Describe how the monitoring data will be used to—
(A) Determine the impacts of the operation upon the hydrologic balance.
(B) Determine the impacts of the operation upon the biology of surface waters within the permit and adjacent areas.
(C) Prevent material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area.
(vi) Describe how the water samples will be collected, preserved, stored, transmitted for analysis, and analyzed in accordance with the sampling, analysis, and reporting requirements of paragraphs (a) and (b) of § 777.13 of this chapter.
(2)
(A) For which there are applicable effluent limitation guidelines under 40 CFR part 434.
(B) Needed to assess the accuracy of the findings and predictions in the PHC determination prepared under § 784.20 of this part.
(C) Needed to assess the adequacy of the surface-water runoff control plan prepared under § 784.29 of this part.
(D) Needed to assess the suitability of the quality and quantity of surface water in the permit and adjacent areas for all designated uses under section 303(c) of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1313(c), or, if there are no designated uses, all premining uses of surface water in the permit and adjacent areas, subject to § 817.40 of this chapter; and
(E) Needed to assess the suitability of the quality and quantity of surface water in the permit and adjacent areas to support the premining land uses.
(F) For which there is an evaluation threshold under § 784.21(b)(7) of this part.
(ii)
(A) Analysis of each sample for the surface-water parameters listed in § 784.19(a)(2) of this part.
(B) Flow rates at each sampling location. The plan must require use of generally-accepted professional flow measurement techniques. Visual observations are not acceptable.
(C) Analysis of each sample for parameters detected by the baseline sampling and analysis conducted under § 784.19(d) of this part.
(D) Analysis of each sample for all parameters for which there is an evaluation threshold under § 784.21(b)(7) of this part.
(E) Analysis of each sample for other parameters of concern, as determined by the regulatory authority, based upon the information and analyses required under §§ 784.19 through 784.21 of this part.
(iii)
(A) Provide for monitoring in accordance with 40 CFR parts 122, 123, and 434 and as required by the National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System permitting authority.
(B) Require measurement of flow rates, using generally-accepted professional flow measurement techniques. Visual observations are not acceptable.
(iv)
(3)
(ii) After completing preparation of the cumulative hydrologic impact assessment required under § 784.21 of this part, the regulatory authority must reconsider the adequacy of the monitoring plan and require that you make any necessary changes.
(c)
(2)
(i) Require use of a bioassessment protocol that meets the requirements of § 784.19(c)(6)(vii) of this part.
(ii) Identify monitoring locations in each perennial and intermittent stream within the proposed permit and adjacent areas for which baseline biological condition data was collected under § 784.19(c)(6)(vi) of this part.
(iii) Establish a sampling frequency that must be no less than annual, but not so frequent as to unnecessarily deplete the populations of the species being monitored.
(iv) Require submission of monitoring data to the regulatory authority on an annual basis.
(3)
(ii) After completing preparation of the cumulative hydrologic impact assessment required under § 784.21 of this part, the regulatory authority must reconsider the adequacy of the monitoring plan and require that you make any necessary changes.
(d)
(i) Mine through or bury any perennial or intermittent stream;
(ii) Create a point-source discharge to any perennial, intermittent, or ephemeral stream; or
(iii) Modify the base flow of any perennial or intermittent stream or cause the stream to pool, either as a result of subsidence or as a result of any other mining-related activity.
(2) If you meet all the criteria of paragraph (d)(1) of this section with the exception of paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section, you may request, and the regulatory authority may approve, limiting the biological condition monitoring requirements of paragraph (c) of this section to only the stream that will receive the point-source discharge.
(e)
(1) Consult in a timely manner with the agencies responsible for issuing permits, authorizations, and certifications under the Clean Water Act;
(2) Minimize differences in monitoring locations and reporting requirements; and
(3) Share data to the extent practicable and consistent with each agency's mission, statutory requirements, and implementing regulations.
(a)
(2) Except for prime farmland historically used as cropland, you must discuss the utility and capability of the reclaimed land to support the proposed postmining land use and the variety of uses that the land was capable of supporting before any mining, as identified under § 783.22 of this chapter, regardless of the proposed postmining land use.
(3) You must explain how the proposed postmining land use is consistent with existing state and local land use policies and plans.
(4) You must include a copy of the comments concerning the proposed postmining use that you receive from the—
(i) Legal or equitable owner of record of the surface of the proposed permit area; and
(ii) State and local government agencies that would have to initiate, implement, approve, or authorize the proposed use of the land following reclamation.
(5) You must explain how the proposed postmining land use will be achieved and identify any support activities or facilities needed to achieve that use.
(6) If you propose to restore the proposed permit area or a portion thereof to a condition capable of supporting a higher or better use or uses rather than to a condition capable of supporting the uses that the land could support before any mining, you must provide the demonstration required under paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
(b)
(i) There is a reasonable likelihood that the proposed use or uses will be achieved after mining and reclamation, as documented by, for example, real estate and construction contracts, plans for installation of any necessary infrastructure, procurement of any necessary zoning approvals, landowner commitments, economic forecasts, and studies by land use planning agencies.
(ii) The proposed use or uses do not present any actual or probable hazard to public health or safety or any threat of water diminution or pollution.
(iii) The proposed use or uses will not—
(A) Be impractical or unreasonable.
(B) Be inconsistent with applicable land use policies or plans.
(C) Involve unreasonable delay in implementation.
(D) Cause or contribute to a violation of federal, state, tribal or local law.
(E) Result in changes in the size or frequency of peak flows from the reclaimed area that would cause an increase in flooding when compared with the conditions that would exist if the land were restored to a condition capable of supporting the uses that it was capable of supporting before any mining.
(F) Cause the total volume of flow from the reclaimed area, during every season of the year, to vary in a way that would preclude attainment of any designated use of a surface water located outside the permit area under section 303(c) of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1313(c), or, if there are no designated uses, any premining use of a surface water located outside the permit area.
(G) Cause a change in the temperature or chemical composition of the water that would preclude attainment of any designated use of a surface water under section 303(c) of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1313(c), or, if there are no designated uses, any premining use of a surface water located outside the permit area.
(2)
(i) Consults with the landowner or the land management agency having jurisdiction over the lands to which the use would apply; and
(ii) Finds in writing that you have made the demonstration required under paragraph (b)(1) of this section. Landowner consent alone is an insufficient basis for this finding.
(c)
(2) If you propose a higher or better postmining land use, the requirements of paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section will apply and the application must be considered a significant permit revision for purposes of § 774.13(b)(2) of this chapter.
(d)
(2) The amount of bond required for the permit under part 800 of this
(3) The reclamation plan submitted under § 784.12 of this part must specify that if a structure is not in use as part of the approved postmining land use by the end of the revegetation responsibility period specified in § 817.115 of this chapter, you must remove the structure and reclaim the land upon which it was located by restoring the approximate original contour in accordance with § 817.102 of this chapter and revegetating the site in accordance with the revegetation plan approved under § 784.12(g) of this part for the permit area surrounding the site upon which the structure was previously located.
(e)
(a)
(b)
(1) The plan must be prepared by, or under the direction of, and certified by a qualified registered professional engineer, a professional geologist, or, in any state that authorizes land surveyors to prepare and certify such plans, a qualified registered professional land surveyor, with assistance from experts in related fields such as landscape architecture.
(2) The plan must contain a description, map, and cross-sections of the structure and its location.
(3) The plan must contain the hydrologic and geologic information required to assess the hydrologic impact of the structure.
(4)(i) The plan must contain a report describing the results of a geotechnical investigation of the potential effect on the structure if subsurface strata subside as a result of past, current, or future underground mining operations beneath or within the proposed permit and adjacent areas. When necessary, the investigation report also must identify design and construction measures that would prevent adverse subsidence-related impacts on the structure.
(ii) Except for structures that would meet the criteria in § 77.216(a) of this title or that would have a significant or high hazard potential under paragraph (a) of this section, the requirements of paragraph (b)(4)(i) of this section do not apply—
(A) In areas with 26.0 inches or less of average annual precipitation; or
(B) To siltation structures.
(5)(i) The plan must contain an analysis of the potential for each impoundment to drain into subjacent underground mine workings, together with an analysis of the impacts of such drainage.
(ii) Except for structures that would meet the criteria in § 77.216(a) of this title or that would have a significant or high hazard potential under paragraph (a) of this section, the requirements of paragraph (b)(5)(i) of this section do not apply—
(A) In areas with 26.0 inches or less of average annual precipitation; or
(B) To siltation structures.
(6) The plan must include a schedule setting forth the dates when any detailed design plans for structures that are not submitted with the general plan will be submitted to the regulatory authority.
(c)
(i) The plan must be prepared by, or under the direction of, a qualified registered professional engineer with assistance from experts in related fields such as geology, land surveying, and landscape architecture. The engineer must certify that the impoundment design meets the requirements of this part, current prudent engineering practices, and any design criteria established by the regulatory authority. The qualified registered professional engineer must be experienced in the design and construction of impoundments.
(ii) The plan must incorporate any design and construction measures identified in the geotechnical investigation report prepared under paragraph (b)(4) of this section as necessary to protect against potential adverse impacts from subsidence resulting from underground mine workings underlying or adjacent to the structure.
(iii) The plan must describe the operation and maintenance requirements for each structure.
(iv) The plan must describe the timetable and plans to remove each structure, if appropriate.
(2)
(i)(A) Except as provided in paragraph (c)(2)(i)(B) of this section, the plan must be prepared by, or under the direction of, a qualified, registered, professional engineer, or, in any state that authorizes land surveyors to prepare and certify such plans, a qualified, registered, professional, land surveyor. The engineer or land surveyor must certify that the impoundment design meets the requirements of this part, current prudent engineering practices, and any design criteria established by the regulatory authority. The qualified registered professional engineer or qualified registered professional land surveyor must be experienced in the design and construction of impoundments.
(B) All coal mine waste structures to which §§ 817.81 through 817.84 of this chapter apply must be certified by a qualified, registered, professional engineer.
(ii) The plan must reflect any design and construction requirements for the structure, including any measures identified as necessary in the geotechnical investigation report prepared under paragraph (b)(4) of this section.
(iii) The plan must describe the operation and maintenance requirements for each structure.
(iv) The plan must describe the timetable and plans to remove each structure, if appropriate.
(3)
(d)
(e)
(2) The regulatory authority may establish, through the regulatory program approval process, engineering design standards that ensure stability comparable to a 1.3 minimum static safety factor in lieu of conducting engineering tests to establish compliance with the minimum static safety factor of 1.3 required in § 816.49(a)(2)(ii) of this chapter.
(3) Each plan must include stability analyses of the proposed impoundment if the structure would meet the criteria in § 77.216(a) of this title or would have a significant or high hazard potential under paragraph (a) of this section. The stability analyses must address static, seismic, and post-earthquake (liquefaction) conditions. They must include, but are not limited to, strength parameters, pore pressures, and long-term seepage conditions. The plan also must contain a description of each engineering design assumption and calculation with a discussion of each alternative considered in selecting the specific analysis and design parameters and construction methods.
(f)
(1)
(2)
(ii) The plan for each impounding structure that meets the criteria of § 77.216(a) of this title must comply with the requirements of § 77.216-2 of this title.
(iii) Each plan for an impounding structure that will impound coal mine waste or that will be constructed of coal mine waste must contain the results of a geotechnical investigation to determine the structural competence of the foundation that will support the proposed impounding structure and the impounded material. An engineer or engineering geologist must plan and supervise the geotechnical investigation. In planning the investigation, the engineer or geologist must—
(A) Determine the number, location, and depth of borings and test pits using current prudent engineering practice for the size of the impoundment and the impounding structure, the quantity of material to be impounded, and subsurface conditions.
(B) Consider the character of the overburden and bedrock, the proposed abutment sites for the impounding structure, and any adverse geotechnical conditions that may affect the impounding structure.
(C) Identify all springs, seepage, and groundwater flow observed or anticipated during wet periods in the area of the proposed impounding structure on each plan.
(D) Consider the possibility of mudflows, rock-debris falls, or other landslides into the impounding structure, impoundment, or impounded material.
(iv) The design must ensure that at least 90 percent of the water stored in the impoundment during the design precipitation event will be removed within a 10-day period.
(a) As provided in §§ 816.81(h) and 817.81(h) of this chapter, you may return coal processing waste from either surface-mined coal or underground-mined coal to abandoned underground mine workings for disposal only if the regulatory authority and the Mine Safety and Health Administration first approve the disposal plan.
(b) Each plan for the return of coal processing waste to abandoned underground mine workings must describe the—
(1) Source and quality of coal processing waste to be stowed in the abandoned underground workings.
(2) All chemicals used to process the coal, the quantity of those chemicals remaining in the coal processing waste, and the likely impact of those chemicals on groundwater and any persons, aquatic life, or wildlife using that groundwater.
(3) Area of the abandoned underground workings in which the waste is to be placed.
(4) Percent of the abandoned underground mine void to be filled.
(5) Method of constructing underground retaining walls.
(6) Influence of the backstowing operation on active underground mine operations.
(7) Surface area to be supported by the backstowed waste.
(8) Anticipated occurrence of surface effects following backstowing.
(9) Source and operation of the hydraulic transport mediums.
(10) Method of dewatering the coal processing waste after placement.
(11) Extent to which water will be retained underground.
(12) Method of treatment of water if released to surface streams.
(13) Plans for monitoring for chemicals contained in the coal processing waste.
(14) Effect on the hydrologic regime and biological communities.
(15) Measures to be taken to comply with the requirements of § 816.41 or § 817.41 of this chapter for discharges to underground mines.
(c) The plan submitted under paragraph (b) of this section must include a monitoring plan that complies with § 784.23 of this part, as applicable. It must describe the objective of each permanent monitoring well to be located in the area in which coal processing waste is placed, the stratum underlying the mined coal, and the gradient from the area in which the waste is placed.
(d) Paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section also apply to pneumatic backstowing operations, except that the regulatory authority may exempt a proposed pneumatic backstowing operation from compliance with the monitoring requirements of paragraph (c) of this section after finding in writing that you have demonstrated that the proposed operation will not adversely impact surface water, groundwater, or water supplies.
(a)
(b)
(i) A postmining surface drainage pattern that is similar to the premining surface drainage pattern, relatively stable, and in dynamic near-equilibrium; and
(ii) Postmining stream-channel configurations that are relatively stable and similar to the premining configuration of ephemeral stream channels.
(2) The regulatory authority may approve or require a postmining surface drainage pattern or stream-channel configuration that differs from the pattern or configuration otherwise required under paragraph (b)(1) of this section when the regulatory authority finds that a different pattern or configuration is necessary or appropriate to—
(i) Ensure stability;
(ii) Prevent or minimize downcutting or widening of reconstructed stream channels and control meander migration;
(iii) Promote enhancement of fish and wildlife habitat;
(iv) Accommodate any anticipated temporary or permanent increase in surface runoff as a result of mining and reclamation; or
(v) Accommodate the construction of excess spoil fills, coal mine waste refuse piles, or coal mine waste impounding structures;
(vi) Replace a stream that was channelized or otherwise severely altered prior to submittal of the permit application with a more natural, relatively stable, and ecologically sound drainage pattern or stream-channel configuration; or
(vii) Reclaim a previously mined area.
(c)
(2) The plan submitted under paragraph (c)(1) of this section must be consistent with the requirements of § 817.56(c) of this chapter for vegetative corridors along ephemeral streams.
(3) Paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) of this section do not apply to prime farmland historically used for cropland.
(a)
(b)
(1) In or through a perennial or intermittent stream; or
(2) On the surface of lands within 100 feet of a perennial or intermittent stream. You must measure this distance horizontally on a line perpendicular to the stream, beginning at the ordinary high water mark.
(c)
(i) A postmining surface drainage pattern that is similar to the premining surface drainage pattern, relatively stable, and in dynamic near-equilibrium; and
(ii) Postmining stream-channel configurations that are relatively stable and similar to the premining configuration of perennial and intermittent stream channels.
(2) The regulatory authority may approve or require a postmining surface drainage pattern or stream-channel configuration that differs from the pattern or configuration otherwise required under paragraph (c)(1) of this section when the regulatory authority finds that a different pattern or configuration is necessary or appropriate to—
(i) Ensure stability;
(ii) Prevent or minimize downcutting or widening of reconstructed stream channels and control meander migration;
(iii) Promote enhancement of fish and wildlife habitat;
(iv) Accommodate any anticipated temporary or permanent increase in surface runoff as a result of mining and reclamation;
(v) Accommodate the construction of excess spoil fills, coal mine waste refuse piles, or coal mine waste impounding structures;
(vi) Replace a stream that was channelized or otherwise severely altered prior to submittal of the permit application with a more natural, relatively stable, and ecologically sound drainage pattern or stream-channel configuration; or
(vii) Reclaim a previously mined area.
(d)
(2) The plan submitted under paragraph (d)(1) of this section must be consistent with natural vegetation patterns.
(3) The plan submitted under paragraph (d)(1) of this section must be consistent with the streamside vegetative corridor requirements of § 817.57(d) of this chapter.
(4) The corridor width must be measured horizontally on a line perpendicular to the stream, beginning at the ordinary high water mark.
(5) Paragraphs (d)(1) through (2) of this section do not apply to prime farmland historically used for cropland.
(e)
(2)(i) As part of a proposal to mine through an intermittent stream, you may propose to convert a minimal portion of the mined-through segment of an intermittent stream to an ephemeral stream. The regulatory authority may approve the proposed conversion only if you demonstrate, and the regulatory authority finds, that the conversion would not degrade the hydrologic function, dynamic near-equilibrium, or the ecological function of the stream as a whole within the mined area, as determined by comparison with the stream assessment conducted under § 784.19(c)(6) of this part.
(ii) Paragraph (e)(2)(i) of this section does not apply to the circumstances described in paragraph (e)(5) of this section.
(3)(i) Paragraphs (e)(1)(v) and (vii) of this section do not apply to a proposal to mine through a segment of an intermittent stream when that segment meets the criteria of paragraph (e)(3)(ii) of this section, provided you demonstrate, and the regulatory authority finds, that implementation of the proposed mining and reclamation plan—
(A) Will improve the form of the stream segment;
(B) Will improve the hydrologic function of the stream;
(C) Is likely to result in improvement of the biological condition or ecological function of the stream;
(D) Will not further degrade the hydrologic function, dynamic near-equilibrium, biological condition, or ecological function of the stream; and
(E) Will result in establishment of a streamside vegetative corridor for the stream segment in accordance with § 817.57(d) of this chapter.
(ii) To qualify for purposes of paragraph (e)(3)(i) of this section, a stream segment must display both of the following characteristics:
(A) Prior anthropogenic activity has resulted in substantial degradation of the profile or dimensions of the stream channel; and
(B) Degradation of the stream channel has resulted in a substantial adverse impact on the ecological function of the stream.
(4) Paragraph (e)(1) of this section does not apply to a stream segment that will be part of a permanent impoundment approved and constructed under § 817.49(b) of this chapter.
(5) Paragraphs (e)(1)(iv) and (vii) of this section and the requirement for restoration of the hydrologic and ecological functions and the dynamic near-equilibrium of a stream in paragraph (e)(1)(viii) of this section do not apply to an intermittent stream segment if—
(i) The intermittent segment is a minor interval in what is otherwise a predominantly ephemeral stream;
(ii) You demonstrate, and the regulatory authority finds, that the intermittent segment has no significant fish, wildlife, or related environmental values, as documented by the baseline data collected under § 784.19(c)(6) of this part; and
(iii) You demonstrate, and the regulatory authority finds, that conversion of the intermittent stream segment will not adversely affect water uses.
(f)
(ii) Pertinent stream-channel characteristics include, but are not limited to, the baseline stream pattern, profile, dimensions, substrate, habitat, and natural vegetation growing in the riparian zone and along the banks of the stream.
(iii) For temporary stream-channel diversions that will remain in use for 3 or more years, the vegetation proposed for planting along the banks of the diversion need not include species that would not reach maturity until after the diversion is removed.
(2) You must design the hydraulic capacity of all temporary and permanent stream-channel diversions to be at least equal to the hydraulic capacity of the unmodified stream channel immediately upstream of the diversion, but no greater than the hydraulic capacity of the unmodified stream channel immediately downstream from the diversion.
(3) You must design all temporary and permanent stream-channel diversions in a manner that ensures that the combination of channel, bank, and flood-plain configuration is adequate to pass safely the peak runoff of a 10-year, 6-hour precipitation event for a temporary diversion and a 100-year, 6-hour precipitation event for a permanent diversion.
(4) You must submit a certification from a qualified registered professional engineer that the designs for all stream-
(g)
(2) In establishing standards under paragraph (g)(1) of this section, the regulatory authority must coordinate with the appropriate agencies responsible for administering the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1251
(3)(i) The biological component of the standards established under paragraph (g)(1) of this section must employ the best technology currently available, as specified in paragraphs (g)(3)(ii) through (iv) of this section.
(ii) For perennial streams, the best technology currently available includes an assessment of the biological condition of the stream, as determined by an index of biological condition or other scientifically-defensible bioassessment protocols consistent with § 784.19(c)(6)(vii) of this part. Standards established under paragraph (g)(1) of this section for perennial streams—
(A) Need not require that a reconstructed stream or stream-channel diversion have precisely the same biological condition or biota as the stream segment did before mining.
(B) Must prohibit substantial replacement of pollution-sensitive species with pollution-tolerant species.
(C) Must require that populations of organisms used to determine the biological condition of the reconstructed stream or stream-channel diversion be self-sustaining within that stream segment.
(iii) Paragraph (g)(3)(ii) of this section also applies to intermittent streams whenever a scientifically defensible biological index and bioassessment protocol have been established for assessment of intermittent streams in the state or region in which the stream is located.
(iv)(A) Except as provided in paragraph (g)(3)(iii) of this section, the best technology currently available for intermittent streams consists of the establishment of standards that rely upon restoration of the form, hydrologic function, and water quality of the stream and reestablishment of streamside vegetation as a surrogate for the biological condition of the stream.
(B) The regulatory authority must reevaluate the best technology currently available for intermittent streams under paragraph (g)(3)(iv)(A) of this section at 5-year intervals. Upon conclusion of that evaluation, the regulatory authority must make any appropriate adjustments before processing permit applications submitted after the conclusion of that evaluation.
(4) Standards established under paragraph (g)(1) of this section must ensure that the reconstructed stream or stream-channel diversion will not—
(i) Preclude attainment of the designated uses of that stream segment under section 303(c) of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1313(c), before mining, or, if there are no designated uses, the premining uses of that stream segment; or
(ii) Result in that stream segment not meeting the applicable anti-degradation requirements under section 303(c) of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1313(c), as adopted by a state or authorized tribe or as promulgated in a federal rulemaking under the Clean Water Act.
(h)
(i)
Your application must contain a surface-water runoff control plan that includes the following—
(a)(1) An explanation of how you will handle surface-water runoff in a manner that will prevent peak discharges from the proposed permit area, both during and after mining and reclamation, from exceeding the premining peak discharge from the same area for the same-size precipitation event. You must use the appropriate regional Natural Resources Conservation Service synthetic storm distribution or another scientifically defensible method approved by the regulatory authority that takes into account the time of concentration to estimate peak discharges.
(2) The explanation in paragraph (a)(1) of this section must consider the findings in the determination of the probable hydrologic consequences of mining prepared under § 784.20 of this part.
(b) A surface-water runoff monitoring and inspection program that will provide sufficient precipitation and stormwater discharge data for the proposed permit area to evaluate the effectiveness of the surface-water runoff control practices under paragraph (a) of this section. The surface-water runoff monitoring and inspection program must specify criteria for monitoring, inspection, and reporting consistent with § 817.34(d) of this chapter. The program must contain a monitoring-point density that adequately represents the drainage pattern across the entire proposed permit area, with a minimum of one monitoring point per watershed discharge point.
(c) Descriptions maps, and cross-sections of runoff-control structures. A runoff-control structure is any man-made structure designed to control or convey storm water runoff on or across a minesite. This term encompasses the entire surface water control system and includes diversion ditches, drainage benches or terraces, drop structures or check dams, all types of conveyance channels, downdrains, and sedimentation and detention ponds and associated outlets. It does not include swales or reconstructed perennial, intermittent, or ephemeral stream channels.
(d) An explanation of how diversions will be constructed in compliance with § 817.43 of this chapter.
(a)
(1) A map of the proposed permit and adjacent areas at a scale no smaller than 1:12,000. The regulatory authority may require a larger-scale or more detailed map. The map must show the location and type of—
(i) Structures, renewable resource lands, wetlands, streams, and water bodies that subsidence may materially damage or for which the value or reasonably foreseeable use may be diminished by subsidence; and
(ii) Drinking, domestic, and residential water supplies that could be contaminated, diminished, or interrupted by subsidence.
(2) A narrative indicating whether subsidence, if it occurred, could cause material damage to or diminish the value or reasonably foreseeable use of such structures, renewable resource lands, wetlands, streams, or water bodies or could contaminate, diminish, or interrupt drinking, domestic, or residential water supplies.
(3)(i) A survey of the quantity and quality of all drinking, domestic, and residential water supplies within the permit area and adjacent area that could be contaminated, diminished, or interrupted by subsidence.
(ii) You, the applicant, must pay for any technical assessment or engineering evaluation used to determine the premining quantity and quality of drinking, domestic, or residential water supplies. You may use publicly available assessments conducted for research purposes by a university or government agency, provided those assessments are updated to reflect any changes that have occurred since completion of the study.
(iii) You must provide copies of the survey and any technical assessment or engineering evaluation to the property owner and to the regulatory authority.
(b)
(1) No structures, drinking, domestic, or residential water supplies, renewable resource lands, wetlands, streams, or water bodies exist within the proposed permit and adjacent areas; or
(2) There would be no material damage or diminution in value or reasonably foreseeable use of structures, lands, or features protected under § 817.121(c) through (e) of this chapter, and no contamination, diminution, or interruption of water supplies protected under § 817.40 of this chapter would occur as a result of mine subsidence, provided that the regulatory authority agrees with this conclusion.
(c)
(2) The subsidence control plan must contain the following information:
(i) A description of the method of coal removal, such as longwall mining, room-and-pillar removal or hydraulic mining, including the size, sequence and timing of the development of underground workings.
(ii) A map of the underground workings that describes the location and extent of the areas in which planned-subsidence mining methods will be used and that identifies all areas where the measures described in paragraphs (c)(2)(iv), (v), and (vii) of this section will be taken to prevent or minimize subsidence and subsidence-related damage; and, when applicable, to correct subsidence-related material damage.
(iii) A description of the physical conditions, such as depth of cover, seam thickness and lithology of overlying strata, that affect the likelihood or extent of subsidence and subsidence-related damage.
(iv) A description of the monitoring, if any, needed to determine the commencement and degree of subsidence so that, when appropriate, other measures can be taken to prevent, reduce or correct material damage in accordance with § 817.121(c) of this chapter.
(v) Except for those areas where planned subsidence is projected to be used, a detailed description of the subsidence control measures that will be taken to prevent or minimize subsidence and subsidence-related damage to the extent technologically and economically feasible. Those measures may include, but are not limited to:
(A) Backstowing of voids;
(B) Leaving support pillars of coal;
(C) Leaving areas in which no coal is removed, including a description of the overlying area to be protected by leaving coal in place; and
(D) Taking measures on the surface to prevent or minimize material damage or diminution in value of the surface.
(vi) A description of the anticipated effects of planned subsidence, if any, including impacts to wetlands, streams, and water bodies that support the value and reasonably foreseeable uses of surface lands.
(vii) For those areas where planned subsidence is projected to be used, a description of methods to be employed to minimize damage from planned subsidence to non-commercial buildings and occupied residential dwellings and structures related thereto; or the written consent of the owner of the structure or facility that minimization measures not be taken; or, unless the anticipated damage would constitute a threat to health or safety, a demonstration that the costs of minimizing damage exceed the anticipated costs of repair.
(viii) A description of the measures to be taken in accordance with §§ 817.40 and 817.121(c) of this chapter to replace adversely affected protected water supplies or to mitigate or remedy any subsidence-related material damage to land, wetlands, streams, water bodies, and protected structures.
(ix) Other information specified by the regulatory authority as necessary to demonstrate that the operation will be conducted in accordance with § 817.121 of this chapter.
(a) For any publicly owned parks or any places listed on the National Register of Historic Places that may be adversely affected by the proposed operation, you must describe the measures to be used—
(1) To prevent adverse impacts, or
(2) If a person has valid existing rights, as determined under § 761.16 of this chapter, or if joint agency approval is to be obtained under § 761.17(d) of this chapter, to minimize adverse impacts.
(b) The regulatory authority may require the applicant to protect historic or archeological properties listed on or eligible for listing on the National Register of Historic Places through appropriate mitigation and treatment measures. Appropriate mitigation and treatment measures may be required to be taken after permit issuance, provided that the required measures are completed before the properties are affected by any mining operation.
Your application must describe, with appropriate maps and cross-sections, the measures to be used to ensure that the interests of the public and landowners affected are protected if, under § 761.14 of this chapter, you seek to have the regulatory authority approve—
(a) Conducting the proposed surface mining activities within 100 feet of the right-of-way line of any public road, except where mine access or haul roads join that right-of-way; or
(b) Relocating a public road.
(a)
(b)
(2) The demonstration under paragraph (b)(1) of this section must explain, in quantitative terms, how the maximum amount of overburden will be returned to the mined-out area after considering—
(i) Applicable regulations concerning backfilling, compaction, grading, and restoration of the approximate original contour.
(ii) Safety and stability needs and requirements.
(iii) The need for access and haul roads with their attendant drainage structures and safety berms during mining and reclamation. You may construct roads and their attendant drainage structures and safety berms on the perimeter of the backfilled area as necessary to conduct surface coal mining and reclamation operations, but, when the roads are no longer needed to support heavy equipment traffic, you must reduce the total width of roads and their attendant drainage structures and berms to be retained as part of the postmining land use to no more than 20 feet unless you demonstrate an essential need for a greater width for the postmining land use.
(iv) Needs and requirements associated with revegetation and the proposed postmining land use.
(v) Any other relevant regulatory requirements, including those pertaining to water quality and protection of fish, wildlife, and related environmental values.
(3) When necessary to avoid or minimize construction of excess spoil fills on undisturbed land, paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section does not prohibit the placement of what would otherwise be excess spoil on the mined-out area to heights in excess of the premining elevation, provided that the final surface configuration is compatible with the surrounding terrain and generally resembles landforms found in the surrounding area.
(4) You may not create a permanent impoundment under § 817.49(b) of this chapter or place coal combustion residues or noncoal materials in the surface excavation if doing so would result in the creation of excess spoil.
(c)
(d)
(e)
(f)
(2) You must locate fills on the most moderately sloping and naturally stable areas available. The regulatory authority will determine which areas area available, based upon the alternatives analysis under § 784.28 of this part and other requirements of the Act and this chapter.
(3) Whenever possible and consistent with the alternatives analysis and alternative selection requirements of § 784.28 of this part, you must place fills on or above a natural terrace, bench, or berm if that location would provide additional stability and prevent mass movement.
(g)
(h)
(1) Sufficient foundation investigations, as well as any necessary laboratory testing of foundation material, to determine the design requirements for foundation stability for each site.
(2) A description of the character of the bedrock and any adverse geologic conditions in the area of the proposed fill.
(3) The geographic coordinates and a narrative description of all springs, seepage, mine discharges, and groundwater flow observed or anticipated during wet periods in the area of the proposed fill.
(4) An analysis of the potential effects of any underground mine workings within the proposed permit and adjacent areas, including the effects of any subsidence that may occur as a result of previous, existing, and future underground mining operations.
(5) A technical description of the rock materials to be used in the construction of fills underlain by a rock drainage blanket.
(6) Stability analyses that address static and seismic conditions. The analyses must include, but are not limited to, strength parameters, pore pressures, and long-term seepage conditions. The analyses must be accompanied by a description of all engineering design assumptions and calculations and the alternatives considered in selecting the design specifications and methods.
(i)
(j)
(1) Number, location, and depth of borings or test pits, which must be determined according to the size of the fill and subsurface conditions.
(2) Engineering specifications used to design the bench cuts or rock-toe buttresses. Those specifications must be based upon the stability analyses
(k)
(a)
(2) You must include appropriate cross-sections, design drawings, and specifications for road widths, gradients, surfacing materials, cuts, fill embankments, culverts, bridges, drainage ditches, drainage structures, and fords and low-water crossings of perennial and intermittent streams.
(3) You must demonstrate how all proposed roads will comply with the applicable requirements of §§ 784.28, 817.150, and 817.151 of this chapter.
(4) You must identify—
(i) Each road that you propose to locate in or within 100 feet, measured horizontally on a line perpendicular to the stream, beginning at the ordinary high water mark of a perennial or intermittent stream.
(ii) Each proposed ford of a perennial or intermittent stream that you plan to use as a temporary route during road construction.
(iii) Any plans to alter or relocate a natural stream channel.
(iv) Each proposed low-water crossing of a perennial or intermittent stream channel.
(5) You must explain why the roads, fords, and stream crossings identified in paragraph (a)(4) of this section are necessary and how they comply with the applicable requirements of § 784.28 of this part and §§ 817.150 and 817.151 of this chapter.
(6) You must describe the plans to remove and reclaim each road that would not be retained as part of the postmining land use, and provide a schedule for removal and reclamation.
(b)
(c)
You must submit a description, plans, and drawings for each support facility to be constructed, used, or maintained within the proposed permit area. The plans and drawings must include a map, appropriate cross-sections, design drawings, and specifications sufficient to demonstrate compliance with § 817.181 of this chapter for each facility.
(a) You may request that the regulatory authority approve a schedule for incremental submission of the information required by this part, based on the anticipated progress and impact of underground mining activities.
(b) Section 783.26(b) of this chapter applies to a request submitted under paragraph (a) of this section.
(c) The monitoring plans submitted under § 784.23 of this part may be structured and implemented in a manner consistent with the schedule approved under paragraph (b) of this section.
30 U.S.C. 1201
In accordance with 44 U.S.C. 3501
(a)
(b)
(1) The proposed postmining land use of the lands to be disturbed is an industrial, commercial, agricultural, residential, or public facility (including recreational facilities) use.
(2) After consultation with the appropriate land-use planning agencies, if any, the regulatory authority deems that the proposed postmining land use constitutes an equal or better economic or public use of the land compared with the premining use.
(3) You have demonstrated compliance with the requirements for alternative postmining land uses in § 780.24(b) of this chapter.
(4) You have presented specific plans for the proposed postmining land use and appropriate assurances that the use will be—
(i) Compatible with adjacent land uses.
(ii) Obtainable according to data regarding expected need and market.
(iii) Assured of investment in necessary public facilities.
(iv) Supported by commitments from public agencies where appropriate.
(v) Practicable with respect to private financial capability for completion of the proposed use.
(vi) Planned pursuant to a schedule attached to the reclamation plan so as to integrate the mining operation and reclamation with the postmining land use.
(5) The proposed operation has been designed by a registered engineer in conformance with professional standards established to assure the stability, drainage, and configuration necessary for the intended use of the site.
(6) The proposed use is consistent with adjacent land uses and with existing state and local land use plans and programs.
(7) The regulatory authority has provided, in writing, an opportunity of not more than 60 days to review and comment on the proposed use to—
(i) The governing body of the unit of general-purpose government in whose jurisdiction the land is located; and
(ii) Any state or federal agency that the regulatory authority, in its discretion, determines to have an interest in the proposed use.
(8) You have demonstrated that the proposed operation has been designed to comply with the requirements of part 824 of this chapter.
(9) You have demonstrated that the operation will not damage natural watercourses within the proposed permit and adjacent areas. You may meet this requirement by demonstrating that the proposed operation will comply with all of the following requirements:
(i) The proposed operation will not increase the amount or concentration of parameters of concern in discharges to groundwater and surface water from the proposed permit area, when compared to the discharges that would occur if the operation were designed to adhere to approximate original contour restoration requirements.
(ii) The proposed operation will not result in any greater adverse impact to the aquatic and terrestrial ecology of the proposed permit and adjacent area than would occur if the area to be mined was restored to its approximate original contour.
(iii) The proposed operation will not result in changes in the size or frequency of peak flows from the proposed permit area that would cause an increase in flooding, when compared to the impacts that would occur if the operation were designed to adhere to approximate original contour restoration requirements.
(iv) The total volume of flow from the proposed permit area, during every season of the year, will not vary in a way that would adversely affect any—
(A) Designated use of a surface water located outside the proposed permit area under section 303(c) of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1313(c), or, if there are no designated uses, any premining use of a surface water located outside the proposed permit area.
(B) Premining use of groundwater located outside the proposed permit area.
(v) Any other demonstrations that the regulatory authority finds necessary to determine that no damage will occur to natural watercourses within the proposed permit and adjacent areas.
(10) The revegetation plan proposed under § 780.12(g) of this chapter requires that those portions of the proposed permit area that are forested at the time of application or that would revert to forest under conditions of natural succession be revegetated using native tree and understory species to the extent that this requirement is not inconsistent with attainment of the proposed postmining land use.
(11) The proposed operation complies with all other requirements of the regulatory program.
(c)
(2) The permit must include a condition prohibiting the release of any part of the bond posted for the permit under part 800 of this chapter until substantial implementation of the approved postmining land use is underway. The condition must provide that the prohibition does not apply to any portion of the bond that is in excess of an amount equal to the cost of regrading the site to its approximate original contour and revegetating the regraded land in the event that the approved postmining land use is not implemented.
(3) The regulatory authority must clearly mark the permit issued under this part as including mountaintop removal mining operations.
(d)
(2) The regulatory authority may modify the terms and conditions of a permit for mountaintop removal mining at any time if it determines that more stringent measures are necessary to insure that the operation is conducted in compliance with the requirements of the regulatory program.
(a)
(1) After reclamation, the lands within the proposed permit area to which the variance would apply will be suitable for an industrial, commercial, residential, or public (including recreational facilities) postmining land use.
(2) The alternative postmining land use requirements of § 780.24(b) or § 784.24(b) of this chapter have been met.
(3) After consultation with the appropriate land use planning agencies, if any, the proposed use is shown to constitute an equal or better economic or public use.
(4) Federal, state, and local government agencies with an interest in the proposed land use have an adequate period in which to review and comment on the proposed use.
(5) A qualified registered professional engineer has certified that the operation has been designed in conformance with professional standards established to assure the stability, drainage, and configuration necessary for the intended use of the site.
(6) The highwall will be completely backfilled with spoil material in a manner that results in a static factor of safety of at least 1.3, using standard geotechnical analysis methods.
(7) Only the amount of spoil that is necessary to achieve the postmining land use, ensure the stability of spoil retained on the bench, and meet all other requirements of this chapter will be placed off the mine bench. All spoil not retained on the bench will be placed in accordance with §§ 816.71 and 816.74 or §§ 817.71 and 817.74 of this chapter.
(8) The variance will not result in the construction of a fill in a perennial or intermittent stream.
(9) The proposed operation will improve the condition of the watershed of lands within the proposed permit and adjacent areas when compared either with the condition of the watershed before the proposed operation or with the condition that would exist if the site were mined and restored to the approximate original contour. The condition of the watershed will be deemed improved only if you demonstrate that the following criteria will be met, relative to one of the situations described in the preceding sentence:
(i) The amount or concentration of total suspended solids or other parameters of concern in discharges to groundwater or surface water from the proposed permit area will be reduced.
(ii) Flood hazards within the watershed containing the proposed permit area will be diminished by reduction of the size or frequency of peak-flow discharges from precipitation events or thaws.
(iii) The total volume of flow from the proposed permit area, during every season of the year, will not vary in a way that would adversely affect any—
(A) Designated use of a surface water located outside the proposed permit area under section 303(c) of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1313(c), or, if there are no designated uses, any premining use of a surface water located outside the proposed permit area;
(B) Premining use of groundwater located outside the proposed permit area.
(iv) The proposed operation will result in a lesser adverse impact on the aquatic ecology of the cumulative impact area than would occur if the area to be mined was restored to its approximate original contour.
(v) The impact on perennial and intermittent streams within the proposed permit and adjacent areas will be less than the impact that would occur if the area to be mined was restored to its approximate original contour. The fish and wildlife enhancement measures proposed and approved under § 780.16 or § 784.16 of this chapter may be considered in making this determination.
(vi) The appropriate state environmental agency has approved the plan.
(10)(i) The owner of the surface of the lands within the proposed permit area has knowingly requested, in writing, as part of the application, that a variance be granted.
(ii) The request to which paragraph (a)(10)(i) of this section refers must be made separately from any surface owner consent given for the operations under § 778.15 of this chapter and it must show an understanding that the variance could not be granted without the surface owner's request.
(iii) The permit application must include a copy of the request to which paragraph (a)(10)(i) of this section refers.
(11) The proposed deviations from the premining surface configuration are necessary and appropriate to achieve the approved postmining land use.
(12) The revegetation plan proposed under § 780.12(g) or § 784.12(g) of this chapter requires the use of native tree and understory species to revegetate all portions of the permit area that are forested at the time of application or that would revert to forest under conditions of natural succession. This requirement does not apply to—
(i) Permanent impoundments, roads, and other impervious surfaces to be retained following the completion of mining and reclamation.
(ii) Those portions of the permit area covered by the variance, but only to the extent that compliance with this requirement would be inconsistent with attainment of the postmining land use.
(b)
(2) The permit must include a condition prohibiting the release of any part of the bond posted for the permit under part 800 of this chapter until substantial implementation of the approved postmining land use is underway. The condition must provide that the prohibition does not apply to any portion of the bond that is in excess of an amount equal to the cost of regrading the site to its approximate original contour and revegetating the regraded land in the event that the approved postmining land use is not implemented.
(c)
(2) The regulatory authority may modify the terms and conditions of a permit incorporating a variance under this section at any time if it determines that more stringent measures are necessary to ensure that the operations are conducted in compliance with the requirements of the regulatory program.
(d)
(a) This section applies to you if you intend to apply for a permit to conduct surface coal mining operations on lands eligible for remining, as that term is defined in § 701.5 of this chapter.
(b)(1) Your application must comply with all applicable requirements of this subchapter.
(2) In addition, to be eligible under the provisions of § 773.13 of this chapter concerning unanticipated events or conditions at remining sites, the application must—
(i) To the extent possible, if not otherwise addressed in the permit application, identify potential environmental and safety problems that could reasonably be anticipated to occur as a result of prior mining activities within the proposed permit area. This identification must be based on a due diligence investigation that includes visual observations, a record review of past mining operations at or near the site, environmental sampling, and any other relevant available information, including data from prior mining activities and remining operations on similar sites.
(ii) With regard to potential environmental and safety problems referred to in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section, describe the measures that will be taken to ensure that the applicable reclamation requirements of the regulatory program can and will be met.
30 U.S.C. 1201
This part sets forth the minimum requirements for filing and maintaining bonds, financial assurances, and liability insurance policies for surface coal mining and reclamation operations under regulatory programs in accordance with the Act.
(a) The regulatory authority must prescribe and furnish forms for filing performance bonds and financial assurances.
(b) The regulatory authority must prescribe by regulation terms and conditions for performance bonds, financial assurances, and liability insurance policies.
(c) The regulatory authority must determine the amount of the bond for each area to be bonded, in accordance with § 800.14 of this part. The regulatory authority also must adjust the bond amount as acreage in the permit area is revised or when other relevant conditions change, in accordance with § 800.15 of this part. In addition, the regulatory authority must determine the amount of financial assurance required to ensure long-term treatment of discharges under § 800.18 of this part, monitor trust performance, and require adjustments of the financial assurance as necessary.
(d) The regulatory authority may accept a self-bond if the requirements of § 800.23 of this part and any additional requirements in the regulatory program are met. However, a state or tribal regulatory program need not authorize the use of self-bonds.
(e) The regulatory authority must release liability under a bond or financial assurance instrument in accordance with §§ 800.40 through 800.44 of this part.
(f) If the conditions specified in § 800.50 of this part occur, the regulatory authority must take appropriate action to cause all or part of a bond or financial assurance to be forfeited in accordance with procedures of that section.
(g) The regulatory authority must require in the permit that adequate bond and financial assurance coverage be in effect at all times. Except as provided in § 800.30(b) of this part, operating without adequate bond or financial assurance is a violation of these rules and the terms and conditions of the permit.
(1) A cash account, which must be the deposit of cash—
(i) In one or more federally-insured or equivalently protected accounts, payable only to the regulatory authority upon demand; or
(ii) Directly with the regulatory authority.
(2) Negotiable bonds of the United States, a state, or a municipality, endorsed to the order of, and placed in the possession of, the regulatory authority.
(3) Negotiable certificates of deposit, made payable or assigned to the regulatory authority and placed in its possession or held by a federally-insured bank.
(4) An irrevocable letter of credit of any bank organized or authorized to transact business in the United States, payable only to the regulatory authority upon presentation.
(5) A perfected, first-lien security interest in real property in favor of the regulatory authority.
(6) Other securities with a rating of “A” or higher from either Moody's Investors Service or Standard and Poor's or an equivalent rating issued by any other nationally recognized statistical rating organization registered with the Securities and Exchange Commission, endorsed to the order of, and placed in the possession of, the regulatory authority.
(a)
(1) The alternative must assure that the regulatory authority will have available sufficient money to complete the reclamation plan for any areas which may be in default at any time, except as provided in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section.
(2) The alternative must provide a substantial economic incentive for the permittee to comply with all reclamation provisions.
(b)
(2) The alternative bonding system must include appropriate conforming modifications to the bond release
(c)
(d)
(2)(i) The regulatory authority must amend an alternative bonding system, other than a financial assurance under § 800.18 of this part, that we approved as part of a regulatory program under subchapter T of this chapter before January 19, 2017 to specify that any permittee responsible for a discharge requiring long-term treatment must make the cash contribution required under paragraph (d)(1) of this section if the permittee elects to retain coverage of discharge treatment under the alternative bonding system.
(ii) An alternative bonding system, other than a financial assurance under § 800.18 of this part, that we approved as part of a regulatory program under subchapter T of this chapter before January 19, 2017 must continue to provide coverage for long-term treatment of discharges from operations included within the system until we approve the program amendment to which paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section refers and the permittee makes the cash contribution required by the state program counterpart to paragraph (d)(1) of this section, unless the permittee posts a separate financial assurance, collateral bond, or surety bond to cover that liability.
(iii) An alternative bonding system, other than a financial assurance under § 800.18 of this part, that we approved as part of a regulatory program under subchapter T of this chapter before January 19, 2017 must continue to provide coverage for long-term treatment of discharges from operations included within the system if the permittee does not make the cash contribution required by the state program counterpart to paragraph (d)(1) of this section, unless the permittee posts a separate financial assurance, collateral bond, or surety bond to cover that liability.
(iv) Paragraphs (d)(2)(i) through (iii) of this section do not apply to an alternative bonding system that we approved as part of a regulatory program under subchapter T of this chapter if the system that we approved includes an exclusion for coverage of discharges that require long-term treatment.
(3) An alternative bonding system to which paragraphs (d)(1) and (2) of this section apply may elect to provide secondary coverage for long-term treatment of discharges when the permittee posts a financial assurance, collateral bond, or surety bond to cover anticipated treatment costs in lieu of making the cash contribution required by paragraph (d)(1) of this section to retain or obtain primary coverage under the alternative bonding system. The regulatory authority must establish terms and conditions for the secondary coverage.
In accordance with 44 U.S.C. 3501
(a) After approving a permit application submitted under subchapter G of this chapter, the regulatory authority may not issue the permit until you, the permit applicant, file one of the following:
(1) A performance bond or bonds for the entire permit area;
(2) A cumulative bond schedule and the performance bond required for full reclamation of the initial area to be disturbed; or
(3) An incremental bond schedule and the performance bond required for the first increment in the schedule.
(b) The bond or bonds that you file under paragraph (a) of this section must be—
(1) In an amount determined under § 800.14 of this part.
(2) On a form prescribed and furnished by the regulatory authority.
(3) Made payable to the regulatory authority.
(4) Conditioned upon the faithful performance of all the requirements of the regulatory program and the permit, including the reclamation plan.
(c) If the bond or bonds filed under paragraph (a) of this section cover only an identified increment of land within the permit area upon which you will initiate and conduct surface coal mining operations during the initial term of the permit, you must—
(1) Identify the initial and successive areas or increments for bonding on the permit application map submitted under part 780 or part 784 of this chapter and specify the bond amount to be provided for each area or increment.
(2) Ensure that independent increments are of sufficient size and configuration to provide for efficient reclamation operations should reclamation by the regulatory authority become necessary pursuant to § 800.50 of this part.
(3) File additional bond or bonds with the regulatory authority to cover each succeeding increment before you initiate and conduct surface coal mining operations on that increment. The bond
(d) You may not disturb any surface area or extend any vertical underground mine shaft or other vertical underground mine opening for which a performance bond is required before the regulatory authority accepts the performance bond required for that area or extension.
(a) Except as provided in paragraphs (b) through (d) of this section, the regulatory authority may allow you to post any of the following types of performance bond:
(1) A surety bond;
(2) A collateral bond;
(3) A self-bond; or
(4) A combination of any of these types of performance bond.
(b) An alternative bonding system approved under § 800.9 of this part may accept either more or fewer types of performance bond than those listed in paragraph (a) of this section.
(c) To guarantee long-term treatment of a discharge under § 800.18 of this part, the regulatory authority may accept a—
(1) Financial assurance;
(2) Collateral bond; or
(3) Surety bond.
(d) The regulatory authority may accept any type of performance bond listed in paragraph (a) of this section, other than a self-bond, to guarantee restoration of the ecological function of a perennial or intermittent stream under §§ 780.28(e) and (g), 784.28(e) and (g), 816.57(g), and 817.57(g) of this chapter.
(a)(1) Liability under the performance bond will be for the duration of the surface coal mining and reclamation operation and for a period coincident with the period of extended responsibility for successful revegetation under § 816.115 or § 817.115 of this chapter or until achievement of the reclamation requirements of the regulatory program and the permit, whichever is later.
(2) With the approval of the regulatory authority, you may post a performance bond to guarantee specific phases of reclamation within the permit area, provided that the sum of the phase bonds posted equals or exceeds the total performance bond amount required under §§ 800.14 and 800.15 of this part. The scope of work to be guaranteed and the liability assumed under each phase bond must be specified in detail.
(b) Isolated and clearly defined portions of the permit area requiring extended liability may be separated from the original area and bonded separately with the approval of the regulatory authority, with the following provisos:
(1) These areas must be limited in extent and not constitute a scattered, intermittent, or checkerboard pattern of failure.
(2) The regulatory authority must include any necessary access roads or routes in the area under extended liability.
(c) If the regulatory authority approves a long-term, intensive agricultural postmining land use, the revegetation responsibility period specified under § 816.115 or § 817.115 of this chapter will start on the date of initial planting for the long-term agricultural use.
(d)(1) The bond liability of the permittee includes only those actions that the permittee is required to perform under the permit and regulatory program to complete the reclamation plan for the area covered by the bond.
(2) The performance bond does not cover implementation of the approved postmining land use or uses. The permittee is responsible only for restoring the site to conditions capable of supporting the uses specified in § 816.133 or § 817.133 of this chapter.
(3) Performance bond liability for prime farmland historically used for cropland includes meeting the productivity requirement specified in § 800.42(c) of this part.
(4) Section 800.18 of this part specifies the liability for long-term treatment of discharges.
(a) The regulatory authority must determine the amount of the performance bond required for the permit or permit increment based upon, but not limited to—
(1) The requirements of the permit, including the reclamation plan.
(2) The probable difficulty of reclamation, giving consideration to the topography, geology, hydrology, and revegetation potential of the permit area.
(3) The estimated reclamation costs submitted by the permit applicant.
(b) The amount of the performance bond must be sufficient to assure the completion of the reclamation plan if the work has to be performed by a third party under contract with the regulatory authority in the event of forfeiture.
(c) The amount of financial assurance, collateral bond, or surety bond required to guarantee long-term treatment of discharges must be determined in accordance with § 800.18 of this part.
(d) The total performance bond initially posted for the entire area under one permit may not be less than $10,000.
(e) The permittee's financial responsibility under § 817.121(c) of this chapter for repairing or compensating for material damage resulting from subsidence may be satisfied by the liability insurance policy required under § 800.60 of this part.
(a) The regulatory authority must adjust the amount of performance bond required and, if needed, the terms of the acceptance when—
(1) The area requiring bond coverage increases or decreases.
(2) The unit cost or scope of future reclamation changes as a result of technological advances, revisions to the operation or reclamation plans in the permit, or external factors. The regulatory authority may specify periodic times or set a schedule for reevaluating and adjusting the bond amount to fulfill this requirement.
(b) The permittee may request at any time that the regulatory authority reduce the amount of the performance bond based upon submission of evidence that the permittee's method of operation or other circumstances will reduce the estimated unit costs for the regulatory authority to reclaim the bonded area.
(c) Bond reductions under paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section are not subject to the bond release requirements and procedures of §§ 800.40 through 800.44 of this part.
(d) The regulatory authority may not use the provisions of this section to reduce the amount of the performance bond to reflect changes in the cost of reclamation resulting from completion of activities required under the reclamation plan. Bond reduction for completed reclamation activities must comply with the bond release requirements and procedures of §§ 800.40 through 800.44 of this part.
(e) Before making a bond adjustment, the regulatory authority must—
(1) Notify the permittee, the surety, and any person with a property interest in collateral who has requested notification under § 800.21(f) of this part of any proposed adjustment to the bond amount; and
(2) Provide the permittee an opportunity for an informal conference on the adjustment.
(f) In the event that an approved permit is revised in accordance with subchapter G of this chapter, the
(g) The regulatory authority must require that the permittee post a financial assurance, collateral bond, or surety bond in accordance with § 800.18 of this part whenever it identifies a discharge that will require long-term treatment.
(h) The regulatory authority may not reduce the bond amount when the permittee does not restore the approximate original contour as required or when the reclamation plan does not reflect the level of reclamation required under the regulatory program.
(a) The performance bond must be in an amount determined by the regulatory authority as provided in § 800.14 of this part.
(b) The performance bond must be payable to the regulatory authority.
(c) The performance bond must be conditioned upon faithful performance of all the requirements of the regulatory program and the approved permit, including completion of the reclamation plan.
(d) The duration of the bond must be for the time provided in § 800.13 of this part.
(e) The bond must provide a mechanism for a bank, surety, or other responsible financial entity to give prompt notice to the regulatory authority and the permittee of any action filed alleging the insolvency or bankruptcy of the surety, the bank, or other responsible financial entity, or alleging any violations that would result in suspension or revocation of the firm's charter or license to do business.
(a)
(2) This section also applies whenever information available to the regulatory authority documents that a discharge of the nature described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section will develop in the future, provided that the quantity and quality of the future discharge can be determined with reasonable probability.
(3) Paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of this section apply only to discharges that are not anticipated at the time of permit application approval. Those paragraphs do not authorize approval of a permit application for a proposed operation that anticipates creating a discharge for which long-term treatment would be required.
(4) As provided in § 800.18(g) of this part, the regulatory authority must require adjustment of the bond amount whenever it becomes aware of a situation described in paragraph (a)(1) or (2) of this section.
(b)
(2) Operations with discharges in states with an alternative bonding system (other than a financial assurance) approved under subchapter T of this chapter must comply with the requirements of the applicable alternative bonding system.
(c)
(2) If you elect to post a collateral bond or surety bond under paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the bond amount must be no less than the present value of the funds needed to pay for—
(i) Treatment of the discharge in perpetuity, unless you demonstrate, and the regulatory authority finds, based upon available evidence, that treatment will be needed for a lesser time, either because the discharge will attenuate or because its quality will improve;
(ii) Treatment of the discharge during the time required to forfeit and collect the bond;
(iii) Maintenance, renovation, and replacement of treatment and support facilities as needed;
(iv) Final reclamation of sites upon which treatment facilities are located and areas used in support of those facilities; and
(v) Administrative costs borne by the regulatory authority.
(d)
(i) Treatment of discharges in perpetuity, unless the permittee demonstrates, and the regulatory authority finds, based upon available evidence, that treatment will be needed for a lesser time, either because the discharge will attenuate or because its quality will improve. The regulatory authority may accept arrangements that allow the permittee to build the amount of the trust or annuity over time, provided—
(A) The permittee continues to treat the discharge during that time; and
(B) The regulatory authority retains all performance bonds posted for the permit or permit increment until the trust or annuity reaches a self-sustaining level as determined by the regulatory authority.
(ii) Maintenance, renovation, and replacement of treatment and support facilities as needed.
(iii) Final reclamation of the sites upon which treatment facilities are located and areas used in support of those facilities.
(iv) Administrative costs borne by the regulatory authority or trustee to implement paragraphs (d)(1)(i) through (iii) of this section.
(2) The regulatory authority must require that the investment portfolio held by the trust or annuity prudently account for:
(i) The expected duration of the treatment obligation;
(ii) The need to provide a guarantee of uninterrupted treatment; and
(iii) Whether any other financial guarantee covers a portion of the treatment obligation. If the financial assurance will provide the only financial guarantee of treatment, the regulatory authority must require that the trust or annuity hold a low-risk investment portfolio.
(3) In determining the required amount of the trust or annuity, the regulatory authority must base present value calculations on a conservative anticipated real rate of return on the proposed investments. The rate of return must be net of management or trustee fees.
(4)(i) The trust or annuity must be in a form approved by the regulatory authority and contain all terms and conditions required by the regulatory authority.
(ii) When appropriate, the terms and conditions must include a mechanism whereby the regulatory authority may require the permittee to grant the trustee the real and personal property rights necessary to continue treatment in the event that the permittee ceases treatment. These rights include, but are not limited to, access to and use of the treatment site and ownership of treatment facilities and equipment.
(5) The trust or annuity must irrevocably establish the regulatory authority as the beneficiary of the trust or of the proceeds from the annuity for the purpose of treating mine drainage or other mining-related discharges to protect the environment and users of surface water.
(6) The trust or annuity must provide that disbursement of money from the trust or annuity may be made only upon written authorization of the regulatory authority or according to a schedule established in the agreement accompanying the trust or annuity.
(7) A financial institution or company serving as a trustee or issuing an annuity must be one of the following:
(i) A national bank chartered by the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency.
(ii) An operating subsidiary of a national bank chartered by the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency.
(iii) A bank or trust company chartered by the state in which the operation is located.
(iv) An insurance company licensed or authorized to do business in the state in which the operation is located or designated by the pertinent regulatory body of that state as an eligible surplus lines insurer.
(v) Any other financial institution or company authorized to do business in the state in which the operation is located, provided that—
(A) The institution's or company's activities are examined or regulated by a state or federal agency; and
(B) The institution or company has trust powers satisfactory to the regulatory authority.
(8) The regulatory authority may allow a not-for-profit organization under section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code to serve as a trustee if—
(i) The organization maintains appropriate professional liability insurance coverage; and
(ii) The regulatory authority determines that the organization has demonstrated the financial and technical capability to manage trusts and assume day-to-day operation of the trust and treatment facility in the event of a default.
(9) The permittee or the regulatory authority must procure a new trustee when the trustee's administration of the trust or annuity is unsatisfactory to the regulatory authority.
(e)
(1) No further treatment or other reclamation measures are necessary, in which case paragraph (h) of this section will apply.
(2) A satisfactory replacement financial assurance or bond has been posted in accordance with paragraph (g) of this section.
(3) The terms of the trust or annuity establish conditions for termination and those conditions have been met.
(f)
(2) The regulatory authority must require that the permittee provide additional resources to the trust or annuity whenever the review conducted under paragraph (f)(1) of this section or any other information available to the regulatory authority at any time demonstrates that the financial assurance is no longer adequate to meet the purpose for which it was established.
(g)
(h)
(i)
(1) The financial assurance is both in place and fully funded.
(2) The permit or permit increment fully meets all applicable reclamation requirements, with the exception of the discharge and the presence of associated treatment and support facilities.
(3) The financial assurance will serve as the bond for reclamation of the portion of the permit area required for postmining water treatment facilities and access to those facilities.
(a) A surety bond must be executed by the permittee and a corporate surety licensed to do business in the state where the operation is located.
(b) Surety bonds must be noncancellable during their terms, except that surety bond coverage for undisturbed lands may be cancelled with the prior consent of the regulatory authority. Within 30 days after receipt of a notice to cancel bond, the regulatory authority will advise the surety whether the bond may be cancelled on an undisturbed area.
(c) The regulatory authority may decline to accept a surety bond if, in the judgment of the regulatory authority, the surety does not have resources sufficient to cover the default of one or more mining companies for which the surety has provided bond coverage.
(a) Collateral bonds, except for letters of credit, cash accounts, and real property, are subject to the following conditions:
(1) The regulatory authority must keep custody of collateral deposited by the applicant or permittee until authorized for release or replacement as provided in this part.
(2) The regulatory authority must value collateral at its current market value, not at face value.
(3) The regulatory authority must require that certificates of deposit be made payable to or assigned to the regulatory authority, both in writing and upon the records of the bank or other financial institution issuing the certificates. If assigned, the regulatory authority must require the bank or other financial institution issuing the certificate to waive all rights of setoff or liens against the certificate.
(4) The regulatory authority may not accept an individual certificate of deposit in an amount in excess of the maximum amount insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.
(b) Letters of credit are subject to the following conditions:
(1) The letter may be issued only by a bank organized or authorized to do business in the United States;
(2) Letters of credit must be irrevocable during their terms.
(3) The letter of credit must be payable to the regulatory authority upon demand, in part or in full, upon receipt from the regulatory authority of a notice of forfeiture issued in accordance with § 800.50 of this part.
(4) If the permittee has not replaced a letter of credit with another letter of credit or other suitable bond at least 30 days before the letter's expiration date, the regulatory authority must draw upon the letter of credit and use the cash received as a replacement bond.
(c) Real property posted as a collateral bond must meet the following conditions:
(1) The applicant or permittee must grant the regulatory authority a first mortgage, first deed of trust, or perfected first-lien security interest in real property with a right to sell or otherwise dispose of the property in the event of forfeiture under § 800.50 of this part.
(2) In order for the regulatory authority to evaluate the adequacy of the real property offered to satisfy collateral requirements, the applicant or permittee must submit a schedule of the real property to be mortgaged or pledged to secure the obligations under the indemnity agreement. The schedule must include—
(i) A description of the property;
(ii) The fair market value as determined by an independent appraisal conducted by a certified appraiser; and
(iii) Proof of possession and title to the real property.
(3) The property may include land that is part of the permit area. However, land pledged as collateral for a bond under this section may not be disturbed under any permit while it is serving as security under this section.
(4) The appraised fair market value determined under paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section is not the bond value of the real estate. In calculating the bond value of real estate, the regulatory authority must discount the appraised fair market value to account for the administrative costs of liquidating real estate, the probability of a forced sale in the event of forfeiture, and a contingency reserve for unanticipated costs including, but not limited to, unpaid real estate taxes, liens, property maintenance expenses, and insurance premiums.
(d) Cash accounts are subject to the following conditions:
(1) The regulatory authority may authorize the permittee to supplement the bond through the establishment of a cash account in one or more federally insured or equivalently protected accounts made payable upon demand to, or deposited directly with, the regulatory authority. The total bond, including the cash account, may not be less than the amount determined under § 800.14 of this part, as modified by any adjustments under § 800.15 of this part, less any amounts released under §§ 800.40 through 800.44 of this part.
(2) Any interest paid on a cash account will be retained in the account and applied to the bond value of the account unless the regulatory authority has approved the payment of interest to the permittee.
(3) Certificates of deposit may be substituted for a cash account with the approval of the regulatory authority.
(4) The regulatory authority may not accept an individual cash account in an amount in excess of the maximum amount insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.
(e)(1) The regulatory authority must determine the bond value of all collateral posted as assurance under this section. The bond value must reflect legal and liquidation fees, as well as value depreciation, marketability, and fluctuations that might affect the net cash available to the regulatory authority to complete reclamation.
(2)(i) The regulatory authority may evaluate the bond value of collateral at any time.
(ii) The regulatory authority must evaluate the bond value of collateral as part of the permit renewal process.
(iii) The regulatory authority must increase or decrease the performance bond amount required if an evaluation conducted under paragraph (e)(2)(i) or (ii) of this section determines that the bond value of collateral has increased or decreased.
(iv) In no case may the bond value of collateral exceed the market value of the collateral.
(f) Persons who have an interest in collateral posted as a bond, and who desire notification of actions pursuant to the bond, must request such notification in writing to the regulatory authority at the time that the collateral is offered.
(a)
(b) The regulatory authority may accept a self-bond from an applicant for a permit if all of the following conditions are met by the applicant or its parent corporation guarantor:
(1) The applicant designates a suitable agent to receive service of process in the state where the proposed surface coal mining operation is to be conducted.
(2) The applicant has been in continuous operation as a business entity for a period of not less than 5 years. Continuous operation means that business was conducted over the 5 years immediately preceding the date of application.
(i) The regulatory authority may allow a joint venture or syndicate with less than 5 years of continuous operation to qualify under this requirement, if each member of the joint venture or syndicate has been in continuous operation for at least 5 years immediately preceding the date of application.
(ii) When calculating the period of continuous operation, the regulatory authority may exclude past periods of interruption to the operation of the business entity that were beyond the applicant's control and that do not affect the applicant's likelihood of remaining in business during the proposed surface coal mining and reclamation operations.
(3) The applicant submits financial information in sufficient detail to show that the applicant meets one of the following criteria:
(i) The applicant has a current rating for its most recent bond issuance of “A” or higher as issued by either Moody's Investors Service or Standard and Poor's or an equivalent rating from any other nationally recognized statistical rating organization registered with the Securities and Exchange Commission.
(ii) The applicant has a tangible net worth of at least $10 million, a ratio of total liabilities to net worth of 2.5 times or less, and a ratio of current assets to current liabilities of 1.2 times or greater.
(iii) The applicant's fixed assets in the United States total at least $20 million, and the applicant has a ratio of total liabilities to net worth of 2.5 times or less, and a ratio of current assets to current liabilities of 1.2 times or greater.
(4) The applicant submits—
(i) Financial statements for the most recently completed fiscal year accompanied by a report prepared by an independent certified public accountant in conformity with generally accepted accounting principles and containing the accountant's audit opinion or review opinion of the financial statements with no adverse opinion;
(ii) Unaudited financial statements for completed quarters in the current fiscal year; and
(iii) Additional unaudited information as requested by the regulatory authority.
(c)(1) The regulatory authority may accept a written guarantee for an applicant's self-bond from a parent corporation guarantor, if the guarantor meets the conditions of paragraphs (b)(1) through (4) of this section as if it were the applicant. This written guarantee will be referred to as a “corporate guarantee.” The terms of the corporate guarantee must provide for the following:
(i) If the applicant fails to complete the reclamation plan, the guarantor must do so or the guarantor will be liable under the indemnity agreement to provide funds to the regulatory authority sufficient to complete the reclamation plan, but not to exceed the bond amount.
(ii) The corporate guarantee will remain in force unless the guarantor sends notice of cancellation by certified mail to the applicant and to the regulatory authority at least 90 days in advance of the cancellation date, and the regulatory authority accepts the cancellation.
(iii) The cancellation may be accepted by the regulatory authority if the applicant obtains suitable replacement bond before the cancellation date or if the lands for which the self-bond, or portion thereof, was accepted have not been disturbed.
(2) The regulatory authority may accept a written guarantee for an applicant's self-bond from any corporate guarantor, whenever the applicant meets the conditions of paragraphs (b)(1), (2), and (4) of this section, and the guarantor meets the conditions of paragraphs (b)(1) through (4) of this section. This written guarantee will be referred to as a “non-parent corporate guarantee.” The terms of this guarantee must provide for compliance with the conditions of paragraphs (c)(1)(i) through (iii) of this section. The regulatory authority may require the applicant to submit any information specified in paragraph (b)(3) of this section in order to determine the financial capabilities of the applicant.
(d)(1) For the regulatory authority to accept an applicant's self-bond, the total amount of the outstanding and proposed self-bonds of the applicant for surface coal mining and reclamation operations may not exceed 25 percent of the applicant's tangible net worth in the United States.
(2) For the regulatory authority to accept a corporate guarantee, the total amount of the parent corporation guarantor's present and proposed self-bonds and guaranteed self-bonds for surface coal mining and reclamation operations may not exceed 25 percent of the guarantor's tangible net worth in the United States.
(3) For the regulatory authority to accept a non-parent corporate guarantee, the total amount of the non-parent corporate guarantor's present and proposed self-bonds and guaranteed self-bonds may not exceed 25 percent of the guarantor's tangible net worth in the United States.
(e) If the regulatory authority accepts an applicant's self-bond, the applicant must submit an indemnity agreement subject to the following requirements:
(1) The indemnity agreement must be executed by all persons and parties who are to be bound by it, including the parent corporation guarantor. It must bind each party jointly and severally.
(2) Corporations applying for a self-bond, and parent and non-parent corporations guaranteeing an applicant's self-bond, must submit an indemnity agreement signed by two corporate officers who are authorized to bind their corporations. A copy of the authorization must be provided to the regulatory authority along with an affidavit certifying that the agreement is valid under all applicable federal and state laws. In addition, the guarantor must provide a copy of the corporate authorization demonstrating that the corporation may guarantee the self-bond and execute the indemnity agreement.
(3) If the applicant is a partnership, joint venture or syndicate, the agreement must bind each partner or party who has a beneficial interest, directly or indirectly, in the applicant.
(4) Pursuant to § 800.50 of this part, the applicant and the parent or non-parent corporate guarantor will be required to complete the approved reclamation plan for the lands in default or to pay to the regulatory authority an amount necessary to complete the approved reclamation plan, not to exceed the bond amount. If permitted under state law, the indemnity agreement, when under forfeiture, will operate as a judgment against those parties liable under the indemnity agreement.
(f) A regulatory authority may require self-bonded applicants and parent and non-parent corporate guarantors to submit an update of the information required under paragraphs (b)(3) and (4) of this section within 90 days after the close of each fiscal year following the issuance of the self-bond or corporate guarantee.
(g) If at any time during the period when a self-bond is posted, the financial conditions of the applicant or the parent or non-parent corporate guarantor change so that the criteria of paragraphs (b)(3) and (d) of this section are not satisfied, the permittee must notify the regulatory authority immediately and post an alternate form of bond in the same amount as the self-bond within 90 days. Should the permittee fail to post an adequate substitute bond, the provisions of § 800.30(b) of this part will apply.
(a)
(2) The regulatory authority may not release any existing performance bond or financial assurance until you have submitted, and the regulatory authority has approved, an acceptable replacement.
(b)
(2) Upon receipt of notification from a bank, surety, or other responsible financial entity under § 800.16(e) of this part or from you under paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the regulatory authority must issue an order requiring that you submit replacement bond or financial assurance coverage within a reasonable time, not to exceed 90 days.
(3) If you do not post adequate bond or financial assurance by the end of the time allowed under paragraph (b)(2) of this section, the regulatory authority must issue a notice of violation
(i) Post adequate bond or financial assurance coverage before you may resume surface coal mining operations; or
(ii) Reclaim the site in accordance with the provisions of § 816.132 or § 817.132 of this chapter.
(a)
(b)
(1) An application on a form prescribed by the regulatory authority.
(2) All other information required by the regulatory authority, which must include a detailed description of the results that you have achieved under the approved reclamation plan and an analysis of the results of the monitoring conducted under §§ 816.35 through 816.37 or §§ 817.35 through 817.37 of this chapter.
(3) A certified copy of an advertisement that you have placed at least once a week for four successive weeks in a newspaper of general circulation in the locality of the surface coal mining and reclamation operation. You must submit the copy within 30 days after you file the application form under paragraph (b)(1) of this section. The advertisement must contain—
(i) Your name.
(ii) The permit number and approval date.
(iii) The number of acres and the precise location of the land for which you are requesting bond release.
(iv) The amount of the performance bond filed and the portion for which you seek release.
(v) The type and dates of reclamation work performed.
(vi) A brief description of the results that you have achieved under the approved reclamation plan.
(vii) The name and address of the regulatory authority to which written comments, objections, or requests for public hearings and informal conferences on the bond release application may be submitted pursuant to § 800.44 of this section and the location at which the application may be reviewed.
(4) Copies of letters that you have sent to adjoining property owners, local governmental bodies, planning agencies, sewage and water treatment authorities, and water companies in the locality of the surface coal mining and reclamation operation, notifying them of your intention to seek release of the bond.
(5) A notarized statement certifying that all applicable reclamation activities have been accomplished in accordance with the requirements of the regulatory program and the approved reclamation plan. You must submit a separate certification for each application and each phase of bond release.
(a)(1) Upon receipt of a complete application for bond release, the regulatory authority will, within 30 days, or as soon thereafter as weather conditions permit, conduct an inspection of the site and an evaluation of the reclamation work performed and the reclamation work remaining. A complete application for bond release is one that includes all items required under § 800.40 of this part.
(2) The evaluation will consider, among other factors, the degree of difficulty to complete any remaining reclamation, whether pollution of surface and subsurface water is occurring, the probability of future occurrence of such pollution, and the estimated cost of abating such pollution.
(b)(1) The regulatory authority will notify the surface owner, agent, or lessee before conducting the inspection and will offer that person an opportunity to participate with the regulatory authority in making the inspection.
(2) The regulatory authority may arrange with you to allow access to the permit area, upon request by any person with an interest in bond release, for the purpose of gathering information relevant to the proceeding.
(a)
(2)(i) The regulatory authority must conduct a scientifically defensible trend analysis of the monitoring data submitted under §§ 816.35 through 816.37 or §§ 817.35 through 817.37 of this chapter before releasing any bond amount.
(ii) The regulatory authority may not approve a bond release application if the analysis conducted under paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section and other relevant information indicate that the operation is causing material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area or is likely to do so in the future.
(3) If you are responsible for a discharge requiring long-term treatment, regardless of whether the discharge emerges either on the permit area or at a point that is hydrologically connected to the permit area, you must post a separate financial assurance, collateral bond, or surety bond under § 800.18 of this part to guarantee treatment of the discharge before any portion of the existing performance bond for the permit area may be released, unless the type and amount of bond remaining after the release would be adequate to meet the requirements of § 800.18 of this part as well as any remaining land reclamation obligations.
(4) If the permit area or increment includes mountaintop removal mining operations under § 785.14 of this chapter or a variance from restoration of the approximate original contour under § 785.16 of this chapter, the amount of bond that may be released is subject to the limitation specified in § 785.14(c)(2) of this chapter for mountaintop removal mining operations or the limitation specified in § 785.16(b)(2) of this chapter for a variance from restoration of the approximate original contour.
(5) The bond amount described in § 780.24(d)(2) or § 784.24(d)(2) of this chapter may not be released either until the structure is in use as part of the postmining land use or until the structure is removed and the site upon which it was located is reclaimed in accordance with part 816 or part 817 of this chapter.
(6) The regulatory authority must consider the results of the evaluation conducted under § 800.41(a)(2) of this part when determining the amount of performance bond to release.
(b)
(2) The amount of performance bond that the regulatory authority retains after Phase I release must be adequate to ensure that the regulatory authority will have sufficient funds for a third party to complete the remaining portion of the reclamation plan, including restoration of the hydrologic function and ecological function of perennial and intermittent streams under § 816.57(f) and (g) or § 817.57(f) and (g) of this chapter and completion of any fish and wildlife enhancement measures required in the permit in accordance with § 780.16 or § 784.16 of this chapter, in the event of forfeiture.
(c)
(i) Soil replacement and redistribution of organic materials (if not accomplished as part of Phase I reclamation);
(ii) Restoration of the hydrologic function of perennial and intermittent streams under § 816.57(f) or § 817.57(f) of this chapter; and
(iii) Successfully establishing revegetation on the area in accordance with the approved reclamation plan, including any streamside vegetative corridors required by §§ 816.56(c), 816.57(d), 817.56(c), and 817.57(d) of this chapter. The regulatory authority must establish standards defining successful establishment of vegetation for Phase II reclamation.
(2) The amount of performance bond that the regulatory authority retains after Phase II release must be sufficient to cover the cost of having a third party reestablish revegetation for the revegetation responsibility period under § 816.115 or § 817.115 of this chapter. In addition, it must be adequate to ensure that the regulatory authority will have sufficient funds for a third party to complete the remaining portion of the reclamation plan, including restoration of the ecological function of perennial and intermittent streams under § 816.57(g) or § 817.57(g) of this chapter and completion of any fish and wildlife enhancement measures required in the permit in accordance with § 780.16 or § 784.16 of this chapter, in the event of forfeiture.
(3) The regulatory authority may not release any part of the performance bond under paragraph (c)(1) of this section if the lands to which the release would apply are contributing suspended solids to streamflow or runoff outside the permit area in excess of the requirements set by subchapter K of this chapter.
(4) The regulatory authority may not release any part of the performance bond under paragraph (c)(1) of this section until soil productivity for all prime farmland historically used for cropland on the area to which the release would apply has returned to levels of yield equivalent to yields from nonmined land of the same soil type in the surrounding area under equivalent management practices as determined from the soil survey performed under part 823 of this chapter.
(5) When the regulatory authority has approved retention of a silt dam as a permanent impoundment under § 816.49(b) or § 817.49(b) of this chapter, the regulatory authority may approve Phase II bond release for the area of the impoundment if the requirements of § 816.55 or § 817.55 of this chapter have been met and provisions for sound future maintenance by the operator or the landowner have been made with the regulatory authority.
(d)
(2) The regulatory authority may not fully release any performance bond under provisions of this section until all applicable reclamation requirements of the regulatory program and the permit are fully met. Among other things, those requirements include restoration of the ecological function of perennial and intermittent streams under § 816.57(g) or § 817.57(g) of this chapter and completion of any fish and wildlife enhancement measures required in the permit in accordance with § 780.16 or § 784.16 of this chapter.
(a) The regulatory authority will provide written notification of its decision on your bond release application to—
(1) You;
(2) The surety (if applicable);
(3) All other persons with an interest in bond collateral who have requested notification under § 800.21(f) of this part;
(4) Any person who filed objections in writing; and
(5) Objectors who were a party to the hearing proceedings, if any.
(b) The regulatory authority will provide notification under paragraph (a) of this section—
(1) Within 60 days after you file the application, if there is no public hearing under § 800.44 of this part, or
(2) Within 30 days after a public hearing has been held under § 800.44 of this part.
(c) If the regulatory authority disapproves your application for release of the bond or portion thereof, the regulatory authority must notify you, the surety, and any person with an interest in collateral as provided in § 800.21(f) of this part, in writing, stating the reasons for disapproval and recommending corrective actions necessary to secure the release and allowing an opportunity for a public hearing.
(d) When any application for total or partial bond release is filed with the regulatory authority, the regulatory authority must notify the municipality in which the surface coal mining operation is located by certified mail at least 30 days prior to the release of all or a portion of the bond.
(a)(1) Any person with a valid legal interest that might be adversely affected by release of the bond, or the responsible officer or head of any federal, state, tribal, or local governmental agency with jurisdiction by law or special expertise with respect to any environmental, social, or economic impact involved in the operation or which is authorized to develop and enforce environmental standards with respect to those operations, has the right to file written objections to the proposed bond release with the regulatory authority within 30 days after the last publication of the notice required by § 800.40(b)(2) of this part.
(2) If written objections are filed and a hearing is requested, the regulatory authority must inform all interested parties of the time and place of the hearing, and hold a public hearing within 30 days after receipt of the request for the hearing. The regulatory authority must advertise the date, time, and location of the public hearing in a newspaper of general circulation in the locality for two consecutive weeks.
(3) The public hearing must be held in the locality of the surface coal mining
(b)(1) For the purpose of the hearing under paragraph (a) of this section, the regulatory authority has the authority to administer oaths, subpoena witnesses or written or printed material, compel the attendance of witnesses or the production of materials, and take evidence including, but not limited to, inspection of the land affected and other surface coal mining operations carried on by the applicant in the general vicinity.
(2) A verbatim record of each public hearing must be made, and a transcript must be made available on the motion of any party or by order of the regulatory authority.
(c) Without prejudice to the right of an objector or the applicant for bond release, the regulatory authority may hold an informal conference as provided in section 513(b) of the Act, 30 U.S.C. 1263(b), to resolve written objections. The regulatory authority must make a record of the informal conference unless waived by all parties, which must be accessible to all parties. The regulatory authority also must furnish all parties to the informal conference with a written finding based on the informal conference, and the reasons for the finding.
(a) If a permittee or operator refuses or is unable to conduct reclamation of an unabated violation, if the terms of the permit are not met, or if the permittee or operator defaults on the conditions under which the bond was accepted, the regulatory authority must take the following action to forfeit all or part of a bond or bonds for any permit area or an increment of a permit area:
(1)(i) Send written notification by certified mail, return receipt requested, to the permittee and the surety on the bond, if any, informing them of the determination to forfeit all or part of the bond, including the reasons for the forfeiture and the amount to be forfeited.
(ii) If the amount to be forfeited under paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section is less than the total amount of bond posted, the amount forfeited must be no less than the estimated total cost of achieving the reclamation plan requirements. For a discharge that requires long-term treatment, the regulatory authority must calculate the estimated total cost of achieving the reclamation plan requirements for that discharge in a manner consistent with § 800.18(c) of this part.
(2) Advise the permittee and surety, if applicable, of the conditions under which forfeiture may be avoided. Those conditions may include, but are not limited to—
(i) Agreement by the permittee or another party to perform reclamation operations in accordance with a compliance schedule that meets the conditions of the permit, the reclamation plan, and the regulatory program and a demonstration that the party has the ability to satisfy the conditions; or
(ii) The regulatory authority may allow a surety to complete the reclamation plan, or the portion of the reclamation plan applicable to the bonded phase or increment if the surety can demonstrate an ability to complete the reclamation in accordance with the approved reclamation plan. Except where the reclamation work performed meets the criteria for partial bond release under § 800.42 of this part, no surety liability may be released until successful completion of all reclamation under the terms of the permit, including applicable liability periods of § 800.13 of this part.
(b) In the event forfeiture of the bond is required by this section, the regulatory authority shall—
(1) Proceed to collect the forfeited amount as provided by applicable laws for the collection of defaulted bonds or other debts if actions to avoid forfeiture have not been taken, or if rights of appeal, if any, have not been exercised within a time established by the regulatory authority, or if such appeal, if taken, is unsuccessful.
(2) Use funds collected from bond forfeiture to complete the reclamation plan, or the portion thereof covered by the bond, on the permit area or increment to which the bond applies.
(c) Upon default, the regulatory authority may cause the forfeiture of any and all bonds deposited to complete reclamation for which the bonds were posted. Unless specifically limited, as provided in § 800.11(c) of this part, bond liability will extend to the entire permit area under conditions of forfeiture.
(d)(1) In the event the estimated amount forfeited is insufficient to pay for the full cost of reclamation, the permittee or operator is liable for remaining costs. The regulatory authority may complete, or authorize completion of, reclamation of the bonded area and may recover from the permittee or operator all costs of reclamation in excess of the amount forfeited.
(2) In the event the amount of performance bond forfeited is more than the amount necessary to complete reclamation, the regulatory authority must return the unused funds to the party from whom they were collected.
(a) The regulatory authority must require the applicant to submit as part of its permit application a certificate issued by an insurance company authorized to do business in the United States certifying that the applicant has a public liability insurance policy in force for the surface coal mining and reclamation operations for which the permit is sought. The policy must provide for personal-injury and property-damage protection in an amount adequate to compensate any persons injured or property damaged as a result of the surface coal mining and reclamation operations, including the use of explosives, and who are entitled to compensation under the applicable provisions of state law. Minimum insurance coverage for bodily injury and property damage is $300,000 for each occurrence and $500,000 aggregate.
(b) The policy must be maintained in full force during the life of the permit or any renewal thereof and the liability period necessary to complete all reclamation operations under this chapter.
(c) The policy must include a rider requiring that the insurer notify the regulatory authority whenever substantive changes are made in the policy, including any termination or failure to renew.
(d) The regulatory authority may accept from the applicant, in lieu of a certificate for a public liability insurance policy, satisfactory evidence from the applicant that it satisfies applicable state self-insurance requirements approved as part of the regulatory program and the requirements of this section.
(a) All provisions of this subchapter apply to bonding and insuring anthracite surface coal mining and reclamation operations in Pennsylvania except that—
(1) The regulatory authority must determine specified bond limits in accordance with applicable provisions of Pennsylvania statutes, rules and regulations adopted thereunder, and implementing policies of the Pennsylvania regulatory authority.
(2) The period of liability for responsibility under each bond must be
(b) Upon amendment of the Pennsylvania permanent regulatory program with respect to specified bond limits and the period of revegetation responsibility for anthracite surface coal mining and reclamation operations, any person engaging in or seeking to engage in those operations must comply with additional regulations the Secretary may issue as are necessary to meet the purposes of the Act.
30 U.S.C. 1201
This part sets forth the minimum environmental protection performance standards for surface mining activities under the Act.
This part is intended to ensure that all surface mining activities are conducted in an environmentally sound manner in accordance with the Act.
In accordance with 44 U.S.C. 3501
(a)
(1) Be posted and maintained by the person who conducts the surface mining activities;
(2) Be of a uniform design throughout the operation;
(3) Be easily seen and read;
(4) Be made of durable material; and
(5) Conform to local ordinances and codes.
(b)
(c)
(2) The signs must show the name, business address, and telephone number of the person who conducts the surface mining activities and the identification number of the current SMCRA permit authorizing surface mining activities.
(3) You must retain and maintain the signs until the release of all bonds for the permit area.
(d)
(e)
(f)
(a) Except as provided in paragraph (f) of this section, you must case, line, otherwise manage each exploration hole, drilled hole, borehole, shaft, well, or other exposed underground opening in a manner approved by the regulatory authority to—
(1) Prevent acid or other toxic drainage from entering groundwater and surface water.
(2) Minimize disturbance to the prevailing hydrologic balance.
(3) Ensure the safety of people, livestock, fish and wildlife, and machinery in the permit area and the adjacent area.
(b) If the approved permit identifies an exploration hole, drilled hole, borehole, well, or other exposed underground opening for use to monitor groundwater or to return coal processing waste or water to underground workings, you must temporarily seal the hole or opening before use and protect it during use by installing barricades, fences, or other protective devices approved by the regulatory authority. You must periodically inspect these devices and maintain them in good operating condition.
(c) You may retain and transfer a drilled hole or groundwater monitoring well for use as a water well under the conditions established in § 816.39 of this part.
(d) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, you must permanently close each exploration hole, drilled hole, borehole, well, or underground opening that mining activities uncover or expose within the permit area, unless the regulatory authority—
(1) Approves use of the hole, well, or opening for water monitoring purposes; or
(2) Authorizes other management of the hole or well.
(e)(1) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, you must cap, seal, backfill, or otherwise properly manage each shaft, drift, adit, tunnel, exploratory hole, entryway or other opening to the surface from underground when no longer needed for monitoring or any other use that the regulatory authority approves after finding that the use will not adversely affect the environment or public health and safety.
(2) Permanent closure measures taken under paragraph (e)(1) of this section must be—
(i) Consistent with § 75.1771 of this title;
(ii) Designed to prevent access to the mine workings by people, livestock, fish and wildlife, and machinery; and
(iii) Designed to keep acid or toxic mine drainage from entering groundwater or surface water.
(f) The requirements of this section do not apply to holes drilled and used for blasting for surface mining purposes.
(a)
(ii) The soil handling plan approved in the permit under § 780.12(e) of this chapter will specify which soil horizons and underlying strata, or portions thereof, you must separately remove and salvage. The plan also will specify whether some or all of those soil horizons and soil substitute materials may or must be blended to achieve an improved plant growth medium.
(iii) Except as provided in the soil handling plan approved in the permit under § 780.12(e) of this chapter, you must complete removal and salvage of topsoil, subsoil, and organic matter in advance of any mining-related surface disturbance other than the minor disturbances identified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
(2) Unless otherwise specified by the regulatory authority, you need not remove and salvage topsoil and other soil materials for minor disturbances that—
(i) Occur at the site of small structures, such as power poles, signs, monitoring wells, or fence lines; or
(ii) Will not destroy the existing vegetation and will not cause erosion.
(b)
(2) Stockpiled materials must—
(i) Be selectively placed on a stable site within the permit area;
(ii) Be protected from contaminants and unnecessary compaction that would interfere with revegetation;
(iii) Be protected from wind and water erosion through prompt establishment and maintenance of an effective, quick-growing, non-invasive vegetative cover or through other measures approved by the regulatory authority; and
(iv) Not be moved until required for redistribution unless approved by the regulatory authority.
(3) When stockpiling of organic matter and soil materials removed under paragraphs (a) and (f) of this section would be detrimental to the quality or quantity of those materials, you may temporarily redistribute those soil materials on an approved site within the permit area to enhance the current use of that site until the materials are needed for later reclamation, provided that—
(i) Temporary redistribution will not permanently diminish the capability of the topsoil of the host site; and
(ii) The redistributed material will be preserved in a condition more suitable for redistribution than if it were stockpiled.
(c)
(d)
(e)
(i) Complies with the soil handling plan developed under § 780.12(e) of this chapter and approved as part of the permit.
(ii) Is consistent with the approved postmining land use, the final surface configuration, and surface water drainage systems.
(iii) Minimizes compaction of the topsoil and soil materials in the root zone to the extent possible and alleviates any excess compaction that may occur. You must limit your use of measures that result in increased compaction to those situations in which added compaction is necessary to ensure stability.
(iv) Protects the materials from wind and water erosion before and after seeding and planting to the extent necessary to ensure establishment of a successful vegetative cover and to avoid causing or contributing to a violation of applicable state or tribal water quality standards or effluent limitations, including, but not limited to, water quality standards established under the authority of section 303(c) of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1313(c), and effluent limitations established in any National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System permit issued for the operation under section 402 of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1342, or its state or tribal counterpart.
(v) Achieves an approximately uniform, stable thickness across the regraded area. The thickness may vary when consistent with the approved postmining land use, the final surface configuration, surface water drainage systems, and the requirement in § 816.133 of this part for restoration of all disturbed areas to conditions that are capable of supporting the uses they were capable of supporting before any mining or higher or better uses approved under § 780.24(b) of this chapter. The thickness also may vary when variations are necessary or desirable to achieve specific revegetation goals and ecological diversity, as set forth in the revegetation plan developed under § 780.12(g) of this chapter and approved as part of the permit.
(2) You must use a statistically valid sampling technique to document that soil materials have been redistributed in the locations and depths required by the soil handling plan developed under § 780.12(e) of this chapter and approved as part of the permit.
(3) The regulatory authority may choose not to require the redistribution of topsoil on the embankments of permanent impoundments or on the embankments of roads to be retained as part of the postmining land use if it determines that—
(i) Placement of topsoil on those embankments is inconsistent with the requirement to use the best technology currently available to prevent sedimentation, and
(ii) The embankments will be otherwise stabilized.
(f)
(ii) Paragraph (f)(1)(i) of this section does not apply to organic matter from areas identified under § 779.19(b) of this chapter as containing significant populations of invasive or noxious non-native species. You must bury organic matter from those areas in the backfill at a sufficient depth to prevent regeneration or proliferation of undesirable species.
(2)(i) Except as otherwise provided in paragraphs (f)(2)(ii) and (iii) and (3) of this section, you must redistribute the organic matter salvaged under paragraph (f)(1) of this section across the regraded surface or incorporate it into the soil to control erosion, promote growth of vegetation, serve as a source of native plant seeds and soil inoculants to speed restoration of the soil's ecological community, and increase the moisture retention capability of the soil.
(ii) You may use vegetative debris to construct stream improvement or fish and wildlife habitat enhancement features consistent with the approved postmining land use.
(iii) You may adjust the timing and pattern of redistribution of large woody debris to accommodate the use of mechanized tree-planting equipment on sites with a forestry postmining land use.
(3)(i) The redistribution requirements of paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section do not apply to those portions of the permit area—
(A) Upon which row crops will be planted as part of the postmining land use before final bond release under §§ 800.40 through 800.43 of this chapter;
(B) That will be intensively managed for hay production as part of the postmining land use before final bond release under §§ 800.40 through 800.43 of this chapter; or
(C) Upon which structures, roads, other impervious surfaces, or water impoundments have been or will be constructed as part of the postmining land use before final bond release under §§ 800.40 through 800.43 of this chapter.
(ii) When the circumstances described in paragraph (f)(3)(i) of this section apply, you must make reasonable efforts to redistribute the salvaged organic matter on other portions of the permit area or use woody debris to construct stream improvement or fish and wildlife habitat enhancement features consistent with the approved postmining land use. If you demonstrate, and the regulatory authority finds, that it is not reasonably possible to use all available organic matter for these purposes, you may bury it in the backfill.
(4)(i) You may not burn organic matter.
(ii) You may bury organic matter in the backfill only as provided in paragraphs (f)(1)(ii) and (3)(ii) of this section.
(a) You, the permittee, must conduct all surface mining and reclamation activities in a manner that will—
(1) Minimize disturbance of the hydrologic balance within the permit and adjacent areas.
(2) Prevent material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area.
(3) Protect streams in accordance with §§ 780.28 and 816.57 of this chapter.
(4) Assure the protection or replacement of water supplies to the extent required by § 816.40 of this part.
(5) Protect existing water rights under state law.
(6) Support approved postmining land uses in accordance with the terms and conditions of the approved permit and the performance standards of this part.
(7) Comply with the hydrologic reclamation plan as submitted under
(8) Protect groundwater quality by using best management practices to handle earth materials and runoff in a manner that avoids the formation of acid or toxic mine drainage and by managing excavations and other disturbances to prevent or control groundwater degradation. The regulatory authority will determine the meaning of the term “best management practices” on a site-specific basis. At a minimum, the term includes equipment, devices, systems, methods, and techniques that the Director determines to be best management practices.
(9) Protect groundwater quantity by handling earth materials and runoff in a manner that will restore the approximate premining recharge capacity of the reclaimed area as a whole, excluding coal mine waste disposal areas and excess spoil fills, so as to allow the movement of water into the groundwater system.
(10) Protect surface-water quality by using best management practices, as described in paragraph (a)(8) of this section, to handle earth materials, groundwater discharges, and runoff in a manner that—
(i) Prevents postmining discharges of acid or toxic mine drainage.
(ii) Prevents additional contribution of suspended solids to streamflow or runoff outside the permit area to the extent possible, using the best technology currently available.
(iii) Otherwise prevents water pollution.
(11) Protect surface-water quality and flow rates by handling earth materials and runoff in accordance with the steps outlined in the hydrologic reclamation plan and the surface-water runoff control plan approved in the permit in accordance with §§ 780.22 and 780.29 of this chapter, respectively.
(b)(1) To the maximum extent practicable, you must use mining and reclamation practices that minimize water pollution, changes in flow, and adverse impacts on stream biota rather than relying upon water treatment to minimize those impacts.
(2) You must install, use, and maintain any necessary water-treatment facilities or water-quality controls if drainage control, materials handling, stabilization and revegetation of disturbed areas, diversion of runoff, mulching, and other reclamation and remedial practices are not adequate to meet the requirements of this section and § 816.42 of this part.
(c) The regulatory authority may require that you take preventive, remedial, or monitoring measures in addition to those set forth in this part to prevent material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area.
(d)(1) You must examine the runoff-control structures identified under § 780.29 of this chapter within 72 hours of cessation of each occurrence of the following precipitation events:
(i) In areas with an average annual precipitation of more than 26.0 inches, an event of a size equal to or greater than that of a storm with a 2-year recurrence interval. You must use the appropriate regional Natural Resources Conservation Service synthetic storm distribution to determine peak flow for a storm with that recurrence interval.
(ii) In areas with an average annual precipitation of 26.0 inches or less, a significant event of a size specified by the regulatory authority.
(2)(i) You must prepare a report, which must be certified by a registered professional engineer, and submit the report to the regulatory authority within 30 days of cessation of the applicable precipitation event under paragraph (d)(1) of this section. The report must address the performance of the runoff-control structures, identify and describe any material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area that occurred, and identify and describe the remedial measures taken in response to that damage.
(ii) The report prepared under paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section may include all precipitation events that occur within 30 days of cessation of the applicable precipitation event under paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
(a)(1)(i) You, the permittee, must monitor groundwater in the manner specified in the groundwater monitoring plan approved in the permit in accordance with § 780.23(a) of this chapter.
(ii) You must adhere to the data collection, analysis, and reporting requirements of paragraphs (a) and (b) of § 777.13 of this chapter when conducting monitoring under this section.
(2) At a minimum, you must conduct monitoring through mining, reclamation, and the revegetation responsibility period under § 816.115 of this part for the monitored area. Monitoring must continue beyond that minimum for any additional time needed for monitoring results to demonstrate that the criteria of § 816.35(d)(1) and (2) of this section have been met, as determined by the regulatory authority.
(b)(1) You must submit groundwater monitoring data to the regulatory authority every 3 months, or more frequently if prescribed by the regulatory authority.
(2) Monitoring reports must include analytical results from each sample taken during the reporting period.
(c) When the analysis of any sample indicates noncompliance with the terms and conditions of the permit, you must promptly notify the regulatory authority, take any applicable actions required under § 773.17(e) of this chapter, and implement any applicable remedial measures required by the hydrologic reclamation plan approved in the permit in accordance with § 780.22 of this chapter.
(d) You may use the permit revision procedures of § 774.13 of this chapter to request that the regulatory authority modify the groundwater monitoring requirements, including the parameters covered and the sampling frequency. The regulatory authority may approve your request if you demonstrate, using the monitoring data obtained under this section, that—
(1) Future adverse changes in groundwater quantity or quality are unlikely to occur.
(2) The operation has—
(i) Minimized disturbance to the hydrologic balance in the permit and adjacent areas.
(ii) Prevented material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area.
(iii) Preserved or restored the biological condition of perennial and intermittent streams within the permit and adjacent areas for which baseline biological condition data was collected under § 780.19(c)(6)(vi) of this chapter when groundwater from the permit area provides all or part of the base flow of those streams.
(iv) Maintained or restored the availability and quality of groundwater to the extent necessary to support the approved postmining land uses within the permit area.
(v) Protected or replaced the water rights of other users.
(e) Whenever information available to the regulatory authority indicates that additional monitoring is necessary to protect the hydrologic balance, to detect hydrologic changes, or to meet other requirements of the regulatory program, the regulatory authority must issue an order under § 774.10(b) of this chapter requiring that you revise your permit to include the necessary additional monitoring.
(f) You must install, maintain, operate, and, when no longer needed, remove all equipment, structures, and
(a)(1)(i) You, the permittee, must monitor surface water in the manner specified in the surface-water monitoring plan approved in the permit in accordance with § 780.23(b) of this chapter.
(ii) You must adhere to the data collection, analysis, and reporting requirements of paragraphs (a) and (b) of § 777.13 of this chapter when conducting monitoring under this section.
(2) Monitoring must continue through mining and during reclamation until the regulatory authority releases the entire bond amount for the monitored area under §§ 800.40 through 800.43 of this chapter.
(b)(1) You must submit surface-water monitoring data to the regulatory authority every 3 months, or more frequently when prescribed by the regulatory authority.
(2) Monitoring reports must include analytical results from each sample taken during the reporting period.
(3) The reporting requirements of paragraph (b) of this section do not exempt you from meeting any National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (NPDES) reporting requirements.
(c) When the analysis of any sample indicates noncompliance with the terms and conditions of the permit, you must promptly notify the regulatory authority, take any applicable actions required under § 773.17(e) of this chapter, and implement any applicable remedial measures required by the hydrologic reclamation plan approved in the permit in accordance with § 780.22 of this chapter.
(d) You may use the permit revision procedures of § 774.13 of this chapter to request that the regulatory authority modify the surface-water monitoring requirements (except those required by the NPDES permitting authority), including the parameters covered and the sampling frequency. The regulatory authority may approve your request if you demonstrate, using the monitoring data obtained under this section, that—
(1) Future adverse changes in surface-water quantity or quality are unlikely to occur.
(2) The operation has—
(i) Minimized disturbance to the hydrologic balance in the permit and adjacent areas.
(ii) Prevented material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area.
(iii) Preserved or restored the biological condition of perennial and intermittent streams within the permit and adjacent areas for which baseline biological condition data was collected under § 780.19(c)(6)(vi) of this chapter.
(iv) Maintained or restored the availability and quality of surface water to the extent necessary to support the approved postmining land uses within the permit area.
(v) Not precluded attainment of any designated use of a surface water under section 303(c) of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1313(c).
(vi) Protected or replaced the water rights of other users.
(e) Whenever information available to the regulatory authority indicates that additional monitoring is necessary to protect the hydrologic balance, to detect hydrologic changes, or to meet other requirements of the regulatory program, the regulatory authority must issue an order under § 774.10(b) of this chapter requiring that you revise your permit to include the necessary additional monitoring.
(f) You must install, maintain, operate, and, when no longer needed, remove all equipment, structures, and other devices used in conjunction with monitoring surface water.
(a)(1)(i) You must monitor the biological condition of perennial and intermittent streams in the manner specified in the plan approved in the permit in accordance with § 780.23(c) of this chapter.
(ii) You must adhere to the data collection, analysis, and reporting requirements of paragraphs (a) and (b) of § 777.13 of this chapter and use a bioassessment protocol that complies with § 780.19(c)(6)(vii) of this chapter when conducting monitoring under this section.
(2) Monitoring must continue through mining and during reclamation until the regulatory authority releases the entire bond amount for the monitored area under §§ 800.40 through 800.43 of this chapter.
(b) You must submit biological condition monitoring data to the regulatory authority on an annual basis, or more frequently if prescribed by the regulatory authority.
(c) Whenever information available to the regulatory authority indicates that additional monitoring is necessary to meet the requirements of the regulatory program, the regulatory authority must issue an order under § 774.10(b) of this chapter requiring that you revise your permit to include the necessary additional monitoring.
(a) You, the permittee, must use the best technology currently available to handle acid-forming and toxic-forming materials in a manner that will avoid the creation of acid or toxic mine drainage into surface water and groundwater. At a minimum, you must comply with the plan approved in the permit in accordance with § 780.12(n) of this chapter and adhere to disposal, treatment, and storage practices that are consistent with other material handling and disposal provisions of this chapter.
(b) You may temporarily store acid-forming and toxic-forming materials only if the regulatory authority specifically approves temporary storage as necessary and finds in writing in the permit that the proposed storage method will protect surface water and groundwater by preventing erosion, the formation of polluted runoff, and the infiltration of polluted water into aquifers. The regulatory authority must specify a maximum time for temporary storage, which may not exceed the period until permanent disposal first becomes feasible. In addition, storage must not result in any risk of water pollution, adverse impacts to the biology of perennial or intermittent streams, or other environmental damage.
(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, you, the permittee, must permanently seal exploratory or monitoring wells in a safe and environmentally sound manner in accordance with § 816.13 of this part before the regulatory authority may approve full release of the bond posted for the land on which the wells are located under §§ 800.40 through 800.43 of this chapter.
(b) With the prior approval of the regulatory authority, you may transfer wells to another party for further use. The conditions of the transfer must comply with state and local laws. You will remain responsible for the proper management of the wells until full release of the bond posted for the land on which the wells are located under §§ 800.40 through 800.43 of this chapter.
(a)
(2) The replacement supply must be equivalent to the quantity and quality of the premining supply.
(3) Replacement includes provision of an equivalent water supply delivery system and payment of operation and maintenance expenses in excess of customary and reasonable delivery costs for the premining water supply. If you and the water supply owner agree, your obligation to pay operation and maintenance costs may be satisfied by a one-time payment in an amount that covers the present worth of the increased annual operation and maintenance costs for a period upon which you and the water supply owner agree.
(4) If the affected water supply was not needed for the land use in existence at the time of loss, contamination, or diminution, and if the supply is not needed to achieve the postmining land use, you may satisfy the replacement requirements by demonstrating that a suitable alternative water source is available and could feasibly be developed, provided you obtain written concurrence from the owner of the affected water supply.
(b)
(c)
(1) Provide an emergency temporary water supply within 24 hours of notification of the loss. The temporary supply must be adequate in quantity and quality to meet normal household needs.
(2) Develop and submit a plan for a permanent replacement supply to the regulatory authority within 30 days of receiving notice that an unanticipated loss of or damage to a protected water supply has occurred.
(3) Provide a permanent replacement water supply within 2 years of the date of receiving notice of an unanticipated loss of or damage to a protected water supply. The regulatory authority may grant an extension if you have made a good-faith effort to meet this deadline, but have been unable to do so for reasons beyond your control.
(d)
(a) You may not discharge any water or other materials from a surface coal mining and reclamation operation into an underground mine unless the regulatory authority specifically approves the discharge in writing, based upon a demonstration that—
(1) The discharge will be made in a manner that—
(i) Minimizes disturbances to the hydrologic balance within the permit area;
(ii) Prevents material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area, including the hydrologic balance of the area in which the underground mine receiving the discharge is located;
(iii) Does not adversely impact the biology of perennial or intermittent streams; and
(iv) Otherwise eliminates public hazards resulting from surface mining activities.
(2) The discharge will not cause or contribute to a violation of applicable state or tribal water quality standards or effluent limitations, including, but not limited to, water quality standards established under the authority of section 303(c) of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1313(c), and effluent limitations established in any National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System permit issued for the operation under section 402 of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1342, or its state or tribal counterpart.
(3)(i) The discharge will be at a known rate and of a quality that will meet the effluent limitations for pH and total suspended solids in 40 CFR part 434.
(ii) The regulatory authority may approve discharges of water that exceed the effluent limitations for pH and total suspended solids in 40 CFR part 434 if the available evidence indicates that there is no direct hydrologic connection between the underground mine and other waters and that those exceedances will not be inconsistent with paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
(4) The discharge will not cause or contribute to a violation of applicable state or tribal water quality standards for groundwater.
(5) The Mine Safety and Health Administration has approved the discharge.
(6) You have obtained written permission from the owner of the mine into which the discharge is to be made and you have provided a copy of that authorization to the regulatory authority.
(b) Discharges are limited to the following materials:
(1) Water.
(2) Coal processing waste.
(3) Fly ash from a coal-fired facility.
(4) Sludge from an acid-mine-drainage treatment facility.
(5) Flue-gas desulfurization sludge.
(6) Inert materials used for stabilizing underground mines.
(7) Underground mine development waste.
(a) Nothing in this section, nor any action taken pursuant to this section, supersedes or modifies—
(1) The authority or jurisdiction of federal, state, or tribal agencies responsible for administration, implementation, and enforcement of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1251
(2) The decisions that those agencies make under the authority of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1251
(b) Discharges of water from surface mining activities and from areas disturbed by surface mining activities must—
(1) Be made in compliance with all applicable water quality laws and regulations, including the effluent limitations established in the National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System permit for the operation under section 402 of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1342, or its state or tribal counterpart. The regulatory authority must notify the appropriate Clean Water Act authority whenever it takes action to enforce a permit condition required by § 773.17(i) of this chapter with respect to an effluent limitation in a National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System permit. The regulatory authority must initiate coordination with the Clean Water Act authority before taking enforcement action if coordination is needed to determine whether a violation of the National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System permit exists.
(2) Not cause or contribute to a violation of applicable water quality standards established under the authority of section 303(c) of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1313(c), or other applicable state or tribal water quality standards.
(c) Discharges of overburden, coal mine waste, and other materials into waters subject to the jurisdiction of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1251
(d) The regulatory authority will coordinate an investigation with the appropriate Clean Water Act authority whenever information available to the regulatory authority indicates that mining activities may be causing or contributing to a violation of the water quality standards to which paragraph (b)(2) of this section refers, or to a violation of section 404 of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1344, and its implementing regulations. If, after coordination with the appropriate Clean Water Act authority, it is determined that mining activities are causing or contributing to a Clean Water Act violation, the regulatory authority must, in addition to any action taken by the appropriate Clean Water Act authority, independently take enforcement or other appropriate action to correct the cause of the violation.
(e) You must construct water treatment facilities for discharges from the operation as soon as the need for those facilities becomes evident.
(f)(1) You must remove precipitates and otherwise maintain all water treatment facilities requiring the use of settling ponds or lagoons as necessary to maintain the functionality of those facilities.
(2) You must dispose of all precipitates removed from facilities under paragraph (f)(1) of this section either in an approved solid waste landfill or within the permit area in accordance with a plan approved by the regulatory authority.
(g) You must operate and maintain water treatment facilities until the regulatory authority authorizes removal based upon monitoring data demonstrating that influent to the facilities meets all applicable effluent limitations without treatment and that discharges would not cause or contribute to a violation of applicable water quality standards established under the authority of section 303(c) of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1313(c), or other applicable state or tribal water quality standards if left untreated.
(a)
(1)
(i) You must remove a temporary diversion ditch as soon as it is no longer needed. You must restore the land disturbed by the removal process in accordance with the approved permit and § 816.55 of this part. Before removing a temporary diversion ditch, you must modify or remove downstream water treatment facilities previously protected by the ditch to prevent overtopping or failure of the facilities. You must continue to maintain water treatment facilities until they are no longer needed.
(ii) You may retain a
(A) Be environmentally beneficial;
(B) Meet the requirements of the reclamation plan approved under § 780.12 of this chapter; and
(C) Be consistent with the surface drainage pattern restoration requirements of §§ 816.56 and 816.57 of this part.
(iii) When approved in the permit, you may divert the following flows away from the disturbed area by means of temporary or permanent diversion ditches without treatment:
(A) Any surface runoff or other flows from mined areas abandoned before May 3, 1978.
(B) Any surface runoff or other flows from undisturbed areas.
(C) Any surface runoff or other flows from reclaimed areas for which the criteria of § 816.46 of this part for siltation structure removal have been met.
(2)
(i) You must remove
(ii)
(3)
(i) You must remove temporary conveyances or channels when they are no longer needed for their intended purpose.
(ii) When approved in the permit, you may retain conveyances or channels that support or enhance the approved postmining land use.
(b)
(1) You must design all diversions to—
(i) Ensure the safety of the public.
(ii) Minimize adverse impacts to the hydrologic balance, including the biology of perennial and intermittent streams, within the permit and adjacent areas.
(iii) Prevent material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area.
(2) You must design, locate, construct, maintain, and use each diversion and its appurtenant structures to—
(i) Be stable.
(ii) Provide and maintain the capacity to safely pass the peak flow of surface runoff from a 2-year, 6-hour precipitation event for a temporary diversion and a 10-year, 6-hour precipitation event for a permanent diversion. Flow capacity for stream diversions includes both the in-channel capacity and the flood-prone area overbank capacity. Flow capacity for diversion ditches and conveyances or channels includes only in-channel capacity, with adequate freeboard to prevent out-of-channel flow. You must use the appropriate regional Natural Resources Conservation Service synthetic storm distribution to determine peak flows.
(iii) Prevent, to the extent possible using the best technology currently available, additional contributions of
(iv) Comply with all applicable federal, state, tribal, and local laws and regulations.
(c)
(d)
(a) You must design, construct, and maintain appropriate sediment control measures, using the best technology currently available to—
(1) Prevent, to the extent possible, additional contributions of sediment to streamflow or to runoff outside the permit area.
(2) Meet the applicable effluent limitations referenced in § 816.42(a) of this part.
(3) Minimize erosion to the extent possible.
(b) Sediment control measures include practices carried out within the disturbed area. Sediment control measures consist of the use of proper mining and reclamation methods and sediment control practices, singly or in combination. Sediment control methods include but are not limited to—
(1) Disturbing the smallest practicable area at any one time during the mining operation through progressive backfilling, grading, and prompt revegetation.
(2) Shaping and stabilizing the backfilled material to promote a reduction in the rate and volume of runoff.
(3) Retaining sediment within disturbed areas.
(4) Diverting surface runoff from undisturbed areas away from disturbed areas.
(5) Using protected channels or pipes to convey surface runoff from undisturbed areas through disturbed areas so as not to cause additional erosion.
(6) Using straw dikes, riprap, check dams, mulches, vegetative sediment filters, dugout ponds, and other measures that reduce overland flow velocity, reduce runoff volume, or trap sediment.
(7) Treating surface runoff collected in sedimentation ponds with flocculants or other chemicals.
(a)
(1) In which the only surface mining activities consist of diversions, siltation structures, or roads that are designed, constructed, and maintained in accordance with this part; and
(2) For which you do not plan to otherwise disturb the land surface upgradient of the diversion, siltation structure, or road.
(b)
(2) Upon completion of construction of a siltation structure, a qualified registered professional engineer, or, in any state that authorizes land surveyors to prepare and certify plans in accordance with § 780.25(a) of this chapter, a qualified registered professional land surveyor, must certify that the structure has been constructed as designed and as approved in the reclamation plan in the permit.
(3) Any siltation structure that impounds water must be designed, constructed and maintained in accordance with § 816.49 of this chapter.
(4) You must maintain siltation structures until removal is authorized by the regulatory authority and the disturbed area has been stabilized and revegetated.
(5)(i) When a siltation structure is removed, you must regrade the land upon which the structure was located and revegetate the land in accordance with the reclamation plan and §§ 816.111 and 816.116 of this chapter.
(ii) Paragraph (b)(5)(i) of this section does not apply to sedimentation ponds approved by the regulatory authority for retention as permanent impoundments under § 816.49(b) of this part if the maintenance requirements of § 800.42(c)(5) of this chapter are met.
(c)
(i) Be located as near as possible to the disturbed area and outside perennial or intermittent stream channels unless approved by the regulatory authority in the permit in accordance with §§ 780.28 and 816.57(c) of this chapter.
(ii) Be designed, constructed, and maintained to—
(A) Provide adequate sediment storage volume.
(B) Provide adequate detention time to allow the effluent from the ponds to meet applicable effluent limitations.
(C) Contain or treat the 10-year, 24-hour precipitation event (“design event”) unless a lesser design event is approved by the regulatory authority based on terrain, climate, other site-specific conditions, and a demonstration that the effluent limitations referenced in § 816.42 of this part will be met.
(D) Provide a nonclogging dewatering device adequate to maintain the detention time required under paragraph (c)(1)(ii)(B) of this section.
(E) Minimize short circuiting to the extent possible.
(F) Provide periodic sediment removal sufficient to maintain adequate volume for the design event.
(G) Ensure against excessive settlement.
(H) Be free of sod, large roots, frozen soil, and acid-forming or toxic-forming materials.
(I) Be compacted properly.
(2)
(d)
(2) You must design other treatment facilities in accordance with the applicable requirements of paragraph (c) of this section.
(e)
(1) The disturbed drainage area within the total disturbed area is small; and
(2) You demonstrate that neither siltation structures nor alternate sediment control measures are necessary for drainage from the disturbed drainage area to comply with § 816.42 of this part.
You must control discharges from sedimentation ponds, permanent and temporary impoundments, coal mine waste impounding structures, and diversions by energy dissipators, riprap channels, and other devices when necessary to reduce erosion, to control meander migration, to prevent deepening or enlargement of stream channels, or to minimize disturbance of
(a)
(1)
(2)
(ii) Impoundments not included in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section, except for a coal mine waste impounding structure, must have a minimum static safety factor of 1.3 for a normal pool with steady state seepage saturation conditions or meet the requirements of § 780.25(e)(2) of this chapter.
(3)
(ii) An impoundment that includes a dam with a significant or high hazard potential classification under § 780.25(a) of this chapter must comply with the freeboard hydrograph criteria in the following table:
(4)
(ii) You must conduct foundation and abutment investigations, as well as any necessary laboratory testing of foundation material, to determine the design requirements for foundation stability and control of underseepage for an impoundment that includes a dam with a significant or high hazard potential classification under § 780.25(a) of this chapter.
(iii) You must remove all vegetative and organic materials from the foundation area and excavate and prepare the foundation area to resist failure. You must install cutoff trenches if necessary to ensure stability.
(5)
(6)
(7)
(i) The regulatory authority may approve a single open-channel spillway that is:
(A) Of nonerodible construction and designed to carry sustained flows; or
(B) Earth- or grass-lined and designed to carry short-term, infrequent flows at non-erosive velocities where sustained flows are not expected.
(ii) Except as specified in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, the required design precipitation event for an impoundment meeting the spillway requirements of paragraph (a)(7) of this section is:
(A) For an impoundment that includes a dam with a significant or high hazard potential classification under § 780.25(a) of this chapter, the design precipitation event specified in the auxiliary spillway hydrograph column in the table in paragraph (a)(3)(ii) of this section, or any greater event specified by the regulatory authority.
(B) For an impoundment meeting the criteria of § 77.216(a) of this title, the 100-year, 6-hour event, or any greater event specified by the regulatory authority.
(C) For an impoundment not included in paragraphs (a)(7)(ii)(A) and (B) of this section, the 25-year, 6-hour event, or any greater event specified by the regulatory authority.
(8)
(9)
(i) Inspections must be made regularly during construction, upon completion of construction, and at least yearly until removal of the structure or release of the performance bond.
(ii) After each inspection required by paragraph (a)(9)(i) of this section, the qualified registered professional engineer, or qualified registered professional land surveyor as specified in paragraph (a)(9)(iv) of this section, must promptly provide to the regulatory authority a certified report that the impoundment has been constructed and/or maintained as designed and in accordance with the approved plan and this chapter. The report must include a discussion of any appearance of instability, any structural weakness or other hazardous condition, the depth and elevation of any impounded waters, the existing storage capacity, any
(iii) You must retain a copy of the report at or near the minesite.
(iv) In any state that authorizes land surveyors to prepare and certify plans in accordance with § 780.25(b)(1) of this chapter, a qualified registered professional land surveyor may inspect any temporary or permanent impoundment that does not meet the criteria of § 77.216(a) of this title, or that is not classified as having a significant or high hazard potential under § 780.25(a) of this chapter, and certify and submit the report required by paragraph (a)(9)(ii) of this section, except that a qualified registered professional engineer must certify all coal mine waste impounding structures covered by § 816.84 of this chapter. The professional land surveyor must be experienced in the construction of impoundments.
(10)
(ii) Impoundments that are not subject to § 77.216 of this title, or that are not classified as having a significant or high hazard potential under § 780.25(a) of this chapter, must be examined at least quarterly. A qualified person designated by the operator must examine impoundments for the appearance of structural weakness and other hazardous conditions.
(11)
(b)
(1) The size and configuration of the impoundment will be adequate for its intended purposes.
(2) The quality of impounded water will be suitable on a permanent basis for its intended use and, after reclamation, discharges from the impoundment will not cause or contribute to a violation of applicable state or tribal water quality standards or effluent limitations, including, but not limited to, water quality standards established under the authority of section 303(c) of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1313(c), and effluent limitations established in the National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System permit for the operation under section 402 of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1342, or its state or tribal counterpart.
(3) The water level will be sufficiently stable and be capable of supporting the intended use.
(4) Final grading will provide for adequate safety and access for proposed water users.
(5) The impoundment will not result in diminution of the quality or quantity of surface water or groundwater used by surrounding landowners for agricultural, industrial, recreational, or domestic uses.
(6) The impoundment will be suitable for the approved postmining land use.
(7) Approval of the impoundment will not result in retention of spoil piles or ridges that are inconsistent with the definition of approximate original contour.
(8) Approval of the impoundment will not result in the creation of an excess spoil fill elsewhere within the permit area.
(9) The impoundment has been designed with dimensions, features, and other characteristics that will enhance fish and wildlife habitat to the extent that doing so is not inconsistent with the intended use.
(c)
(2) You must use current prudent engineering practices to safely remove the water from an impoundment constructed in accordance with paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
(3) An impoundment constructed in accordance with paragraph (c)(1) of this section must be located where failure would not be expected to cause loss of life or serious property damage, unless the impoundment meets one of the following exceptions:
(i) An impoundment that meets the criteria of § 77.216(a) of this title, or that is classified as having a significant or high hazard potential under § 780.25(a) of this chapter, and is designed to control the precipitation of the probable maximum precipitation of a 6-hour event, or any greater event specified by the regulatory authority.
(ii) An impoundment not included in paragraph (c)(3)(i) of this section that is designed to control the precipitation of the 100-year, 6-hour event, or any greater event specified by the regulatory authority.
(a) Before seeking final bond release under § 800.42(d) of this chapter, you must—
(1) Remove all temporary structures and reclaim the land upon which those structures were located in accordance with the approved permit; and
(2) Ensure that all sedimentation ponds, diversions, and impoundments approved for retention after final bond release have been maintained properly and meet all applicable requirements of the approved permit and this chapter for retention as permanent structures. You must renovate the structures if necessary to meet the requirements for retention.
(b) [Reserved]
(a)
(2) Surface mining activities must comply with all applicable state and tribal laws and regulations concerning surface water and groundwater.
(b)
(c)
(2) When planting the streamside vegetative corridors required by paragraph (c)(1) of this section, you must—
(i) Use appropriate native species adapted to the area, unless an agency responsible for implementing section 404 of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1344, requires the use of non-native species.
(ii) Ensure that the species planted are consistent with the revegetation plan approved in the permit.
(iii) Include appropriate native hydrophytic vegetation, vegetation typical of floodplains, or hydrophilic vegetation characteristic of riparian areas and wetlands to the extent that the corridor contains suitable habitat for those species and the stream and the geomorphology of the area are capable of supporting vegetation of that nature.
(iv) Use native trees and shrubs when planting areas within the streamside corridor that were forested at the time of application or that would revert to forest under conditions of natural succession.
(3) Paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) of this section do not require planting of hydrophytic or hydrophilic species within those portions of streamside corridors where the stream, soils, or climate are incapable of providing the moisture or other growing conditions needed to support and sustain hydrophytic or hydrophilic species. In those situations, you must plant the corridor with appropriate native species that are consistent with the baseline information concerning natural streamside vegetation included in the permit application under § 779.19 of this chapter, unless otherwise directed by an agency responsible for implementing section 404 of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1344.
(4) Paragraphs (c)(1) through (3) of this section do not apply to—
(i) Prime farmland historically used for cropland; or
(ii) Situations in which establishment of a streamside vegetative corridor comprised of native species would be incompatible with an approved postmining land use that is implemented before final bond release under §§ 800.40 through 800.43 of this chapter.
(a)
(2) Surface mining activities must comply with all applicable state and tribal laws and regulations concerning surface water and groundwater.
(b)
(c)
(2) Upon completion of construction of a stream-channel diversion for a perennial or intermittent stream, or reconstruction of a stream channel after mining through a perennial or intermittent stream, you must obtain a certification from a qualified registered professional engineer that the stream-channel diversion or reconstructed stream channel has been constructed in accordance with the design approved in the permit and that it meets all engineering-related requirements of this section. This certification may be limited to the location, dimensions, and physical characteristics of the stream channel.
(d)
(ii) You must establish a vegetative corridor on any land that you disturb within 100 feet of a perennial or intermittent stream. The corridor must be consistent with natural vegetation patterns.
(iii) If you divert a perennial or intermittent stream, you must establish a vegetative corridor at least 100 feet wide along each bank of the stream-channel diversion, with the exception of temporary diversions that will be in place less than 3 years. The corridor must be consistent with natural vegetation patterns.
(iv) The 100-foot distance mentioned in paragraphs (d)(1)(i) through (iii) of this section must be measured horizontally on a line perpendicular to the stream, beginning at the ordinary high water mark.
(2) When planting the streamside vegetative corridors required by paragraph (d)(1) of this section, you must—
(i) Use appropriate native species adapted to the area, unless an agency responsible for implementing section 404 of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1344, requires the use of non-native species.
(ii) Ensure that the species planted are consistent with the revegetation plan approved in the permit.
(iii) Include appropriate native hydrophytic vegetation, vegetation typical of floodplains, or hydrophilic vegetation characteristic of riparian areas and wetlands to the extent that the corridor contains suitable habitat for those species and the stream and the geomorphology of the area are capable of supporting vegetation of that nature.
(iv) Use native trees and shrubs when planting areas within the streamside corridor that were forested at the time of application or that would revert to forest under conditions of natural succession.
(3) Paragraphs (d)(1) and (2) of this section do not require planting of hydrophytic or hydrophilic species within those portions of streamside corridors where the stream, soils, or climate are incapable of providing the moisture or other growing conditions needed to support and sustain hydrophytic or hydrophilic species. In those situations, you must plant the corridor with appropriate native species that are consistent with the baseline information concerning natural
(4) Paragraphs (d)(1) through (3) of this section do not apply to—
(i) Prime farmland historically used for cropland; or
(ii) Situations in which establishment of a streamside vegetative corridor comprised of native species would be incompatible with an approved postmining land use that is implemented before final bond release under §§ 800.40 through 800.43 of this chapter.
(e)
(f)
(g)
(h)
(ii) Paragraph (h)(1)(i) of this section does not prohibit the construction of a siltation structure in a stream channel immediately downstream of a stream segment that is mined through.
(2) If approved in the permit, the prohibition in paragraph (h)(1) of this section will not apply to excess spoil fills, coal mine waste refuse piles, or coal mine waste impounding structures in steep-slope areas when you demonstrate, and the regulatory authority finds in writing, that use of a perennial or intermittent stream segment as a waste treatment system for sediment control or construction of a sedimentation pond or other siltation structure in a perennial or an intermittent stream would have less overall adverse impact on fish, wildlife, and related environmental values than construction of diversions and sedimentation ponds or other siltation structures on slopes above the stream.
(3) When the circumstances described in paragraph (h)(2) of this section exist, the following requirements apply:
(i) You must minimize the length of stream used as a waste treatment system to the extent possible and, when practicable, maintain an undisturbed buffer along that stream segment in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section.
(ii) You must place the sedimentation pond or other siltation structure as close to the toe of the excess spoil fill, coal mine waste refuse pile, or coal mine waste impounding structure as possible.
(iii) Following the completion of construction and revegetation of the fill or coal mine waste structure, you must—
(A) Remove and properly dispose of accumulated sediment in the siltation structure and any stream segment between the inlet of the siltation structure and the toe of the excess spoil fill or coal mine waste structure;
(B) Remove the sedimentation pond or other siltation structure; and
(C) Restore the stream segment in accordance with paragraphs (e) through (g) of this section.
(i)
You must conduct surface mining activities so as to maximize the utilization and conservation of the coal, while using the best appropriate technology currently available to maintain environmental integrity, so that reaffecting the land in the future through surface coal mining operations is minimized.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(2) Certificates of blaster certification must be carried by blasters or be on file at the permit area during blasting operations.
(3) A blaster and at least one other person shall be present at the firing of a blast.
(4) Any blaster who is responsible for conducting blasting operations at a blasting site must:
(i) Be familiar with the blasting plan and site-specific performance standards; and
(ii) Give direction and on-the-job training to persons who are not certified and who are assigned to the blasting crew or who assist in the use of explosives.
(d)
(i) 1,000 feet of any building used as a dwelling, public building, school, church, or community or institutional building outside the permit area; or
(ii) 500 feet of an active or abandoned underground mine.
(2) You must submit the blast design required by paragraph (d)(1) of this section either as part of the permit application or, if approved by the regulatory authority, at a later date before blasting begins. Regulatory authority approval of the blast design is not required, but, as provided in paragraph (d)(5) of this section, the regulatory authority may require changes to the design.
(3) The blast design must contain—
(i) Sketches of the drill patterns, delay periods, and decking.
(ii) The type and amount of explosives to be used.
(iii) Critical dimensions.
(iv) The location and general description of structures to be protected.
(v) A discussion of design factors to be used to protect the public and meet the applicable airblast, flyrock, and ground-vibration standards in § 816.67 of this part.
(4) A certified blaster must prepare and sign the blast design.
(5) The regulatory authority may require changes to the design submitted.
(a) At least 30 days before initiation of blasting, you must notify, in writing, all residents or owners of dwellings or other structures located within
(b)(1) A resident or owner of a dwelling or structure within
(2) You must promptly conduct a preblasting survey of the dwelling or structure and promptly prepare a written report of the survey.
(3) You must conduct an updated survey of any subsequent additions, modifications, or renovations to the dwelling or structure, if requested by the resident or owner.
(c) You must determine the condition of the dwelling or structure and document any preblasting damage and other physical factors that could reasonably be affected by the blasting. Structures such as pipelines, cables, transmission lines, and cisterns, wells, and other water systems warrant special attention; however, the assessment of these structures may be limited to surface conditions and other readily available data.
(d)(1) The person who conducted the survey must sign the written report of the survey.
(2) You must promptly provide copies of the report to the regulatory authority and to the person requesting the survey.
(3) If the person requesting the survey disagrees with the contents or recommendations of the survey, he or she may submit a detailed description of the specific areas of disagreement to both you and the regulatory authority.
(e) You must complete any surveys requested more than 10 days before the planned initiation of blasting before the initiation of blasting.
(a)
(2) You must conduct all blasting between sunrise and sunset, unless the regulatory authority approves night-time blasting based upon a showing that the public will be protected from adverse noise and other impacts. The regulatory authority may specify more restrictive time periods for blasting.
(3)(i) You may conduct unscheduled blasts only where public or operator health and safety so require and for emergency blasting actions.
(ii) When you conduct an unscheduled blast, you must use audible signals to notify residents within
(iii) You must document the reason for the unscheduled blast in accordance with § 816.68(c)(16) of this part.
(b)
(2) You must distribute copies of the schedule to local governments and public utilities and to each local residence within
(3) You must republish and redistribute the schedule at least every 12 months and revise and republish the schedule at least 10 days, but not more than 30 days, before blasting whenever the area covered by the schedule changes or actual times for blasting significantly differ from the prior announcement.
(c)
(1) Name, address, and telephone number of the operator;
(2) Identification of the specific areas in which blasting will take place;
(3) Dates and times when explosives are to be detonated;
(4) Methods to be used to control access to the blasting area; and
(5) Type and patterns of audible blast warning and all-clear signals to be used before and after blasting.
(a)
(1) You must place conspicuous signs reading “Blasting Area” along the edge of any blasting area that comes within 100 feet of any public road right-of-way and at the point where any other road provides access to the blasting area.
(2) You must place conspicuous signs reading “Warning! Explosives in Use” at all entrances to the permit area from public roads or highways. The signs must clearly list and describe the meaning of the audible blast warning and all-clear signals that are in use and explain the marking of blasting areas and charged holes awaiting firing within the permit area.
(b)
(c)
(1) No unusual hazards, such as imminent slides or undetonated charges, exist; and
(2) Access to and travel within the blasting area can be safely resumed.
(a)
(1) Injury to persons;
(2) Damage to public or private property outside the permit area;
(3) Adverse impacts on any underground mine; or
(4) Change in the course, channel, or availability of surface water or groundwater outside the permit area.
(b)
(ii) If necessary to prevent damage, the regulatory authority must specify lower maximum allowable airblast levels than those of paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section for use in the vicinity of a specific blasting operation.
(2)
(ii) The measuring systems must have an upper-end flat-frequency response of at least 200 Hz.
(c)
(1) More than one-half the distance to the nearest dwelling or other occupied structure;
(2) Beyond the area of control required under § 816.66(c) of this part; or
(3) Beyond the permit boundary.
(d)
(ii) The maximum ground vibration for protected structures listed in paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section must be established in accordance with either the maximum peak-particle-velocity limits of paragraph (d)(2) of this section, the scaled-distance equation of paragraph (d)(3) of this section, the blasting-level chart of paragraph (d)(4) of this section, or by the regulatory authority under paragraph (d)(5) of this section.
(iii) All structures in the vicinity of the blasting area not listed in paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section, such as water towers, pipelines and other utilities, tunnels, dams, impoundments, and underground mines, must be protected from damage by
(2)
(ii) You must provide a seismographic record for each blast.
(3)
(ii) The regulatory authority may authorize development of a modified scaled-distance factor upon receipt of a written request by the operator, supported by seismographic records of blasting at the minesite. The modified scale-distance factor must be determined such that the particle velocity of the predicted ground vibration will not exceed the prescribed maximum allowable peak particle velocity of paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section at a 95-percent confidence level.
(4)
(ii) If the Figure 1 limits are used, you must provide a seismographic record including both particle velocity and vibration-frequency levels for each blast. The regulatory authority must approve the method for the analysis of the predominant frequency contained in the blasting records before application of this alternative blasting criterion.
(5) The regulatory authority must reduce the maximum allowable ground vibration beyond the limits otherwise provided by this section, if determined necessary to provide damage protection.
(6) The regulatory authority may require that you conduct seismic monitoring of any or all blasts or may specify the location at which the measurements are taken and the degree of detail necessary in the measurement.
(e) The maximum airblast and ground-vibration standards of paragraphs (b) and (d) of this section do not apply at the following locations:
(1) At structures owned by the permittee and not leased to another person.
(2) At structures owned by the permittee and leased to another person, if a written waiver by the lessee is submitted to the regulatory authority before blasting.
(a) You must retain a record of all blasts for at least 3 years.
(b) Upon request, you must make copies of these records available to the regulatory authority and to the public for inspection.
(c) The records must contain the following data:
(1) Name of the operator conducting the blast.
(2) Location, date, and time of the blast.
(3) Name, signature, and certification number of the blaster conducting the blast.
(4) Identification, direction, and distance, in feet, from the nearest blast hole to the nearest dwelling, public building, school, church, community or institutional building outside the permit area, except those described in § 816.67(e) of this part.
(5) Weather conditions, including those which may cause possible adverse blasting effects.
(6) Type of material blasted.
(7) Sketches of the blast pattern, including number of holes, burden, spacing, decks, and delay pattern.
(8) Diameter and depth of holes.
(9) Types of explosives used.
(10) Total weight of explosives used per hole.
(11) The maximum weight of explosives detonated in an 8-millisecond period.
(12) Initiation system.
(13) Type and length of stemming.
(14) Mats or other protections used.
(15) Seismographic and airblast records, if required, which must include—
(i) Type of instrument, sensitivity, and calibration signal or certification of annual calibration;
(ii) Exact location of instrument and the date, time, and distance from the blast;
(iii) Name of the person and firm taking the reading;
(iv) Name of the person and firm analyzing the seismographic record; and
(v) The vibration and/or airblast level recorded.
(16) Reasons and conditions for each unscheduled blast.
(a)
(1) Minimize the adverse effects of leachate and surface water runoff from the fill on groundwater and surface water, including aquatic life, within the permit and adjacent areas.
(2) Ensure mass stability and prevent mass movement during and after construction.
(3) Ensure that the final surface configuration of the fill is suitable for revegetation and the approved postmining land use or uses and is compatible with the natural drainage pattern and surroundings.
(4) Minimize disturbances to, and adverse impacts on, fish, wildlife, and related environmental values to the extent possible, using the best technology currently available.
(5) Ensure that the fill will not change the size or frequency of peak flows from precipitation events or thaws in a way that would result in an increase in flooding when compared with the impacts of premining peak flows.
(6) Ensure that the fill will not cause or contribute to a violation of applicable state or tribal groundwater standards or preclude any premining use of groundwater.
(7) Ensure that the fill will not cause or contribute to a violation of applicable state or tribal water quality standards for surface water located downstream of the toe of the fill, including, but not limited to, water quality standards established under the authority of section 303(c) of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1313(c).
(b)
(2)
(c)
(d)
(e)
(i) Meet the requirements of § 816.43 of this part; and
(ii) Safely pass the runoff from the 100-year, 6-hour precipitation event. You must use the appropriate regional Natural Resources Conservation Service synthetic storm distribution to determine the peak flow from surface runoff from this event.
(2) You must grade the top surface of a completed fill such that the final slope after settlement will be toward properly designed drainage channels. You may not direct uncontrolled surface runoff over the outslope of the fill.
(f)
(2)
(3)
(ii) You must design and construct underdrains using current, prudent engineering practices and any design criteria established by the regulatory authority.
(iii) In constructing rock underdrains, you may use only hard rock that is resistant to weathering, such as well-cemented sandstone and massive limestone, and that is not acid-forming or toxic-forming. The underdrain must be free of soil and fine-grained, clastic rocks such as siltstone, shale, mudstone, and claystone. All rock used to construct underdrains must meet the criteria in the following table:
(iv) The underdrain system must be designed and constructed to carry the maximum anticipated infiltration of water due to precipitation, snowmelt, and water from seeps and springs in the foundation of the disposal area away from the excess spoil fill.
(v) To provide a safety factor against future changes in local surface-water and groundwater hydrology, perforated pipe may be embedded within the rock underdrain to enhance the underdrain capacity to carry water in excess of the anticipated maximum infiltration away from the excess spoil fill. The pipe must be manufactured of materials that are not susceptible to corrosion and must be demonstrated to be suitable for the deep burial conditions commonly associated with excess spoil fill underdrains.
(vi) The underdrain system must be protected from material piping, clogging, and contamination by an adequate filter system designed and constructed using current, prudent engineering practices to ensure the long-term functioning of the underdrain system.
(g)
(2) You may not use any excess spoil transport and placement technique that involves end-dumping, wing-dumping, cast-blasting, gravity placement, or casting spoil downslope.
(3)
(ii) You must cover combustible materials with noncombustible materials in a manner that will prevent sustained combustion and minimize adverse effects on plant growth and the approved postmining land use.
(h)
(2) You may construct terraces on the outslope of the fill if required for stability, to control erosion, to conserve soil moisture, or to facilitate the approved postmining land use. The grade of the outslope between terrace benches may not be steeper than 2h: 1v (50 percent).
(3)(i) You must configure the top surface of the fill to create a topography that includes ridgelines and valleys with varied hillslope configurations when practicable, compatible with stability and postmining land use considerations, and generally consistent with the topography of the area before any mining.
(ii) The final surface elevation of the fill may exceed the elevation of the surrounding terrain when necessary to minimize placement of excess spoil in perennial and intermittent streams, provided the final configuration complies with the requirements of paragraphs (a)(3) and (h)(1) of this section.
(iii) The geomorphic reclamation requirements of paragraph (h)(3)(i) of this section do not apply in situations in which they would result in burial of a greater length of perennial or intermittent streams than traditional fill design and construction techniques.
(i)
(1) Are needed to retain moisture, minimize erosion, create or enhance wildlife habitat, or assist revegetation;
(2) Are not incompatible with the stability of the fill;
(3) Are consistent with the hydrologic reclamation plan approved in the permit in accordance with § 780.22 of this chapter;
(4) Will not result in elevated levels of parameters of concern in discharges from the fill; and
(5) Are approved by the regulatory authority.
(j)
(k)
(i) Foundation preparation, including the removal of all organic matter and soil materials.
(ii) Placement of underdrains and protective filter systems.
(iii) Installation of final surface drainage systems.
(2) An engineer or specialist meeting the qualifications of paragraph (k)(1) of this section also must—
(i) Conduct daily examinations during placement and compaction of fill materials or, when more than one lift is completed per day, upon completion of each 4-foot lift. As an alternative, the engineer or specialist may conduct examinations on a weekly basis if a mine representative takes photographs on a daily basis to document the lift thickness and elevation with visual reference features. The certified report required by paragraph (k)(3) of this section must include this photographic documentation.
(ii) Maintain a log recording the examinations conducted under paragraph (k)(2)(i) of this section for each 4-foot lift in each fill. The log must include a description of the specific work locations, excess spoil placement methods, compaction adequacy, lift thickness, suitability of fill material, special handling of acid-forming and toxic-forming materials, deviations from the approved permit, and remedial measures taken.
(3)(i) The qualified registered professional engineer to which paragraph (k)(1) of this section refers must provide a certified report to the regulatory authority on a quarterly basis.
(ii) In each report prepared under paragraph (k)(3)(i) of this section, the engineer must certify that the fill has been constructed and maintained as designed and in accordance with the approved plan and this chapter.
(iii) The report prepared under paragraph (k)(3)(i) of this section must identify and discuss any evidence of instability, structural weakness, or other hazardous conditions. If one of more of those conditions exists, you must submit an application for a permit revision that includes appropriate remedial design specifications.
(iv) The report prepared under paragraph (k)(3)(i) of this section must contain—
(A) A review and summary of all complete inspections conducted during the quarter under paragraph (k)(1) of this section.
(B) A review and summary of all examinations conducted during the quarter under paragraph (k)(2) of this section, including the logs maintained under paragraph (k)(2)(ii) of this section.
(C) The photographs taken under paragraph (k)(2)(i) of this section.
(v) Each certified report prepared under paragraph (k)(3) of this section for a quarter in which construction activities include placement of underdrains and protective filter systems must include color photographs taken during and after construction, but before underdrains are covered with excess spoil. If the underdrain system is constructed in phases, each phase must be certified separately. The photographs must be taken in adequate size and number with enough terrain or other physical features of the site shown to provide a relative scale to the photographs and to specifically and clearly identify the site.
(4) You must retain a copy of each certified report prepared under paragraph (k)(3) of this section at or near the mine site.
(l)
(1) You demonstrate, and the regulatory authority finds in writing, that the disposal of coal mine waste in the excess spoil fill will not—
(i) Cause or contribute to a violation of applicable state or tribal water quality standards or effluent limitations, including, but not limited to, water quality standards established under the authority of section 303(c) of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1313(c), and effluent limitations established in any National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System permit issued for the operation under section 402 of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1342, or its state or tribal counterpart;
(ii) Cause or contribute to a violation of applicable state or tribal water quality standards for groundwater; or
(iii) Result in material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area.
(2) The waste is placed in accordance with §§ 816.81 and 816.83 of this part.
(3) The waste is nontoxic-forming, nonacid-forming, and non-combustible.
(4) The waste is of the proper characteristics to be consistent with the design stability of the fill.
(m)
(a)
(1) The proposed permit area includes the portion of the preexisting bench on which the spoil will be placed;
(2) The proposed operation will comply with the applicable requirements of § 816.102 of this part; and
(3) The requirements of this section are met.
(b)
(c)(1) The fill must be designed and constructed using current, prudent engineering practices.
(2) The design must be certified by a registered professional engineer.
(3) If the disposal area contains springs, natural or manmade water courses, or wet weather seeps, the fill design must include underdrains and temporary diversions as necessary to control erosion, prevent water infiltration into the fill, and ensure stability. Underdrains must comply with the requirements of § 816.71(f)(3) of this part.
(d)(1) The spoil must be placed on the solid portion of the bench in a controlled manner and concurrently compacted as necessary to attain a long-term static safety factor of 1.3 for all portions of the fill.
(2) Any spoil deposited on any fill portion of the bench must be treated as an excess spoil fill under § 816.71 of this part.
(e) You must grade the spoil placed on the preexisting bench to—
(1) Achieve a stable slope that does not exceed the angle of repose.
(2) Eliminate the preexisting highwall to the maximum extent technically practical, using all reasonably available spoil, as that term is defined in § 701.5 of this chapter.
(3) Minimize erosion and water pollution both on and off the site.
(f) All disturbed areas, including diversion channels that are not riprapped or otherwise protected, must be revegetated upon completion of construction.
(g) You may not construct permanent impoundments on preexisting benches on which excess spoil is placed under this section.
(h) The final configuration of the fill on the preexisting bench must—
(1) Be compatible with natural drainage patterns and the surrounding area.
(2) Support the approved postmining land use.
No surface mining activities may be conducted closer than 500 feet to any point of either an active or abandoned underground mine, except to the extent that—
(a) The activities result in improved resource recovery, abatement of water pollution, or elimination of hazards to the health and safety of the public; and
(b) The nature, timing, and sequence of the activities that propose to mine closer than 500 feet to an active underground mine are jointly approved by the regulatory authority, the Mine Safety and Health Administration, and the state agency, if any, responsible for the safety of underground mine workers.
(a)
(b)
(1) Minimize the adverse effects of leachate and surface-water runoff on groundwater and surface water, including aquatic life, within the permit and adjacent areas to the extent possible, using the best technology currently available.
(2) Ensure mass stability and prevent mass movement during and after construction.
(3) Ensure that the final disposal facility is suitable for revegetation, compatible with the natural surroundings, and consistent with the approved postmining land use.
(4) Not create a public hazard.
(5) Prevent combustion.
(6) Ensure that the disposal facility will not change the size or frequency of peak flows from precipitation events or thaws in a way that would result in an increase in flooding when compared with the impacts of premining peak flows.
(7) Ensure that the disposal facility will not cause or contribute to a violation of applicable state or tribal groundwater standards or preclude any premining use of groundwater.
(8) Ensure that the disposal facility will not cause or contribute to a violation of applicable state or tribal water quality standards for surface water located downstream of the toe of the fill, including, but not limited to, water quality standards established under the authority of section 303(c) of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1313(c).
(9) Ensure that the disposal facility will not discharge acid or toxic mine drainage.
(c)
(d)
(ii) A qualified registered professional engineer, experienced in the design and construction of similar earth and waste structures, must certify the design of the disposal facility. The engineer must specifically certify that any existing and planned underground mine workings in the vicinity of the disposal facility will not adversely impact the stability of the structure.
(iii) You must construct the disposal facility in accordance with the design and plans submitted under § 780.25 of this chapter and approved in the permit.
(2) You must design and construct the disposal facility to attain a minimum long-term static safety factor of 1.5. The foundation and abutments must be stable under all conditions of construction.
(e)
(f)
(g)
(2) If adequate procedures cannot be formulated or implemented, you must notify the regulatory authority immediately. The regulatory authority then must notify the appropriate agencies that other emergency procedures are required to protect the public.
(h)
(a)
(b)
(2) You may not direct or divert uncontrolled surface runoff over the outslope of the refuse pile.
(3) You must direct runoff from areas above the refuse pile and runoff from the surface of the refuse pile into stabilized channels designed to meet the requirements of § 816.43 of this part and to safely pass the runoff from the 100-year, 6-hour precipitation event. You must use the appropriate regional Natural Resources Conservation Service synthetic storm distribution to determine the peak flow from surface runoff from this event.
(4) Runoff diverted from undisturbed areas need not be commingled with runoff from the surface of the refuse pile.
(5) Underdrains must comply with the requirements of § 816.71(f) of this part.
(c)
(d)
(2) No permanent impoundments or depressions are allowed on the completed refuse pile.
(3) Following final grading of the refuse pile, you must cover the coal mine waste with a minimum of 4 feet of the best available, nontoxic, and noncombustible material in a manner that does not impede drainage from the underdrains. The regulatory authority may allow less than 4 feet of cover material based on physical and chemical analyses showing that the revegetation requirements of §§ 816.111 and 816.116 of this part will be met.
(e)
(a) Impounding structures constructed of coal mine waste or intended to impound coal mine waste must meet the requirements of § 816.81 of this part.
(b) You may not use coal mine waste to construct impounding structures unless you demonstrate, and the regulatory authority finds in writing, that the stability of such a structure conforms to the requirements of this part and that the use of coal mine waste will not have a detrimental effect on downstream water quality or the environment as a result of acid drainage or toxic seepage through the impounding structure. You must discuss the stability of the structure and the prevention and potential impact of acid drainage or toxic seepage through the impounding structure in detail in the design plan submitted to the regulatory authority in accordance with § 780.25 of this chapter.
(c)(1) You must design, construct, and maintain each impounding structure constructed of coal mine waste or intended to impound coal mine waste in accordance with paragraphs (a) and (c) of § 816.49 of this part.
(2) You may not retain these structures permanently as part of the approved postmining land use.
(3) Each impounding structure constructed of coal mine waste or intended to impound coal mine waste that meets the criteria of § 77.216(a) of this title must have sufficient spillway capacity to safely pass, adequate storage capacity to safely contain, or a combination of storage capacity and spillway capacity to safely control, the probable maximum precipitation of a 6-hour precipitation event or greater event as specified by the regulatory authority.
(d) You must design spillways and outlet works to provide adequate protection against erosion and corrosion. Inlets must be protected against blockage.
(e) You must direct surface runoff from areas above the disposal facility and runoff from the surface of the facility that may cause instability or erosion of the impounding structure into stabilized channels designed and constructed to meet the requirements of § 816.43 of this part and to safely pass the runoff from a 100-year, 6-hour precipitation event. You must use the appropriate regional Natural Resources Conservation Service synthetic storm distribution to determine the peak flow from surface runoff from this event.
(f) For an impounding structure constructed of or impounding coal mine waste, you must remove at least 90 percent of the water stored during the design precipitation event within the 10-day period following the design precipitation event.
(a) You must extinguish coal mine waste fires in accordance with a plan approved by the regulatory authority and the Mine Safety and Health Administration. The plan must contain, at a minimum, provisions to ensure that only those persons authorized by the operator, and who have an understanding of the procedures to be used, are involved in the extinguishing operations.
(b) You may not remove burning or burned coal mine waste from a permitted coal mine waste disposal area without a removal plan approved by the regulatory authority. Consideration must be given to potential hazards to persons working or living in the vicinity of the structure.
(a)(1) You must place and store noncoal mine wastes including, but not limited to, grease, lubricants, paints, flammable liquids, garbage, abandoned mining machinery, lumber, and other combustible materials generated during mining activities, in a controlled manner in a designated portion of the permit area.
(2) Placement and storage of noncoal wastes must ensure that leachate and surface runoff do not degrade surface water or groundwater, that fires are prevented, and that the area remains stable and suitable for reclamation and revegetation compatible with the natural surroundings.
(b)(1) Final disposal of noncoal mine wastes must be in a designated disposal site within the permit area or in a state-approved solid waste disposal area.
(2) Disposal sites within the permit area must meet the following requirements:
(i) The site must be designed and constructed to ensure that leachate and drainage from the noncoal mine waste area does not degrade surface water or groundwater.
(ii) Wastes must be routinely compacted and covered to prevent combustion and wind-borne waste.
(iii) When the disposal of noncoal wastes is completed, the site must be covered with a minimum of 2 feet of soil, slopes must be stabilized, and the site must be revegetated in accordance with §§ 816.111 through 816.116 of this part.
(iv) The disposal site must be operated in accordance with all local, state and federal requirements.
(c) At no time may any noncoal mine waste be deposited in a coal mine waste refuse pile or impounding structure, nor may an excavation for a noncoal mine waste disposal site be located within 8 feet of any coal outcrop or coal storage area.
(a) You must protect and stabilize all exposed surface areas to effectively control erosion and air pollution attendant to erosion.
(b)(1) You must fill, regrade, or otherwise stabilize rills and gullies that form in areas that have been regraded and upon which soil or soil substitute materials have been redistributed. This requirement applies only to rills and gullies that—
(i) Disrupt the approved postmining land use or reestablishment of the vegetative cover;
(ii) Cause or contribute to a violation of applicable state or tribal water quality standards or effluent limitations, including, but not limited to, water quality standards established under the authority of section 303(c) of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1313(c), and effluent limitations established in any National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System permit issued for the operation under section 402 of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1342, or its state or tribal counterpart;
(iii) Cause or contribute to a violation of applicable state or tribal water quality standards for groundwater; or
(iv) Result in material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area.
(2) You must reapply soil materials to the filled or regraded rills and gullies when necessary to reestablish a vegetative cover. You must then replant those areas.
(a)
(b)
(ii) You must promptly report to the regulatory authority the presence of any previously unreported species listed as threatened or endangered, or any previously unreported species proposed for listing as threatened or endangered, under the Endangered Species Act of 1973, 16 U.S.C. 1531
(iii)(A) Upon receipt of a notification under paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section, the regulatory authority will contact and coordinate with the appropriate state, tribal, and federal fish and wildlife agencies.
(B) The regulatory authority, in coordination with the appropriate state, tribal, and federal fish and wildlife agencies, will identify whether, and under what conditions, you may proceed. When necessary to ensure compliance with the Endangered Species Act of 1973, 16 U.S.C. 1531
(iv) You must comply with any species-specific protection measures required by the regulatory authority in coordination with the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service or the National Marine Fisheries Service, as applicable.
(2)
(ii)(A) Upon receipt of a notification under paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section, the regulatory authority will contact and coordinate with the appropriate state or tribal fish and wildlife agencies.
(B) The regulatory authority, in coordination with the appropriate state or tribal fish and wildlife agencies, will
(c)
(2) You must promptly report to the regulatory authority any golden or bald eagle nest within the permit area of which you become aware.
(3) Upon notification, the regulatory authority will contact and coordinate with the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service and, when appropriate, the state or tribal fish and wildlife agency to identify whether, and under what conditions, you may proceed.
(4) Nothing in this chapter authorizes the taking of a bald or golden eagle, its nest, or any of its eggs in violation of the Bald and Golden Eagle Protection Act, 16 U.S.C. 668-668d.
(d)
(1) Ensure that electric power transmission lines and other transmission facilities used for, or incidental to, surface mining activities on the permit area are designed and constructed to minimize electrocution hazards to raptors and other avian species with large wingspans.
(2) Locate, construct, operate, and maintain haul and access roads and sedimentation control structures in a manner that avoids or minimizes impacts on important fish and wildlife species or other species protected by state or federal law.
(3) Design fences, overland conveyors, and other potential barriers to permit passage for large mammals, except where the regulatory authority determines that such requirements are unnecessary.
(4) Fence, cover, or use other appropriate methods to exclude wildlife from ponds that contain hazardous concentrations of toxic or toxic-forming materials.
(5) Reclaim and reforest lands that were forested at the time of application and lands that would revert to forest under conditions of natural succession in a manner that enhances recovery of the native forest ecosystem as expeditiously as practicable.
(e)
(2) Nothing in paragraph (e)(1) of this section authorizes destruction or degradation of wetlands in violation of section 404 of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1344.
(f)
(g)
(1) Their proven nutritional value for fish or wildlife.
(2) Their value as cover for fish or wildlife.
(3) Their ability to support and enhance fish or wildlife habitat after the release of performance bonds.
(4) Their ability to sustain natural succession by allowing the establishment and spread of plant species across ecological gradients. You may not use invasive plant species that are known to inhibit natural succession.
(h)
(i)
(j)
(1) Greenbelts comprised of non-invasive native plants that provide food or cover for wildlife, unless greenbelts would be inconsistent with the approved postmining land use plan for that site.
(2)(i) A vegetated buffer at least 100 feet wide along each bank of all perennial and intermittent streams within the permit area. The width of the buffer must be measured horizontally on a line perpendicular to the stream, beginning at the ordinary high water mark. The buffer must be planted with species native to the area, including species adapted to and suitable for planting in any floodplains or other riparian habitat located within the buffer. The species planted must consist of native tree and understory species if the land was forested at the time of application or if it would revert to forest under conditions of natural succession.
(ii) Paragraph (j)(2)(i) of this section does not apply to situations in which a vegetated buffer comprised of native species would be incompatible with an approved postmining land use that is implemented before final bond release under §§ 800.40 through 800.43 of this chapter.
(k)
(a) You, the permittee or operator, must provide an undisturbed natural barrier beginning at the elevation of the lowest coal seam to be mined and extending from the outslope for the distance that the regulatory authority determines is needed to assure stability. The barrier must be retained in place to prevent slides.
(b)(1) You must notify the regulatory authority by the fastest available means whenever a landslide occurs that has the potential to adversely affect public property, health, safety, or the environment.
(2) You must comply with any remedial measures that the regulatory authority requires in response to the notification provided in paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
You must reclaim all land disturbed by surface mining activities as contemporaneously as practicable with the mining operations, except when the mining operations are conducted in accordance with a variance for concurrent surface and underground mining activities under § 785.18 of this chapter. Reclamation activities include, but are not limited to, backfilling, grading, soil replacement, revegetation, and stream restoration.
(a) You, the permittee or operator, must backfill all mined areas and grade all disturbed areas in compliance with the plan approved in the permit in accordance with § 780.12(d) of this chapter to—
(1) Restore the approximate original contour as the final surface configuration, except in the following situations:
(i) Mountaintop removal mining operations approved under § 785.14 of this chapter.
(ii) Sites for which the regulatory authority has approved a variance under § 785.16 of this chapter.
(iii) Operations to which the thin overburden standards of § 816.104 of this part apply.
(iv) Operations to which the thick overburden standards of § 816.105 of this part apply.
(v) Remining operations on previously mined areas, but only to the extent specified in § 816.106(b) of this part.
(vi) Excess spoil fills constructed in accordance with § 816.71 or § 816.74 of this part.
(vii) Refuse piles constructed in accordance with § 816.83 of this part.
(viii) Permanent impoundments that meet the requirements of paragraph (a)(3)(ii) of this section and § 780.35(b)(4) of this chapter.
(ix) The placement, in accordance with § 780.35(b)(3) of this chapter, of what would otherwise be excess spoil on the mined-out area to heights in excess of the premining elevation when necessary to avoid or minimize construction of excess spoil fills on undisturbed land.
(2) Minimize the creation of uniform slopes and cut-and-fill terraces. The regulatory authority may approve cut-and-fill terraces only if—
(i) They are compatible with the approved postmining land use and are needed to conserve soil moisture, ensure stability, or control erosion on final-graded slopes; or
(ii) Specialized grading, foundation conditions, or roads are required for the approved postmining land use, in which case the final grading may include a terrace of adequate width to ensure the safety, stability, and erosion control necessary to implement the postmining land use.
(3) Eliminate all highwalls, spoil piles, impoundments, and depressions, except in the following situations:
(i) You may construct or retain small depressions if—
(A) They are needed to retain moisture, minimize erosion, create or enhance wildlife habitat, or assist revegetation;
(B) They are consistent with the hydrologic reclamation plan approved in the permit in accordance with § 780.22 of this chapter; and
(C) You demonstrate that they will not result in elevated levels of parameters of concern in discharges from the backfilled and graded area.
(ii) The regulatory authority may approve the retention of permanent impoundments if—
(A) They meet the requirements of §§ 816.49 and 816.55 of this part;
(B) They are suitable for the approved postmining land use;
(C) You demonstrate compliance with the future maintenance provisions of § 800.42(c)(5) of this chapter; and
(D) You have obtained all necessary approvals and authorizations under section 404 of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1344, when the impoundment is located in waters subject to the jurisdiction of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1251
(iii) You may retain highwalls on previously mined areas to the extent provided in § 816.106(b) of this part.
(iv) You may retain modified highwall segments to the extent necessary to replace similar natural landforms removed by the mining operation. The regulatory program must establish the conditions under which these highwall segments may be retained and the modifications that must be made to the highwall to ensure that—
(A) The retained segment resembles similar landforms that existed before any mining and restores the ecological niches that those landforms provided. Nothing in this paragraph authorizes the retention of modified highwall segments in excess of the number, length, and height needed to replace similar landforms that existed before any mining.
(B) The retained segment is stable. Features that result in the creation of talus slopes for wildlife habitat are acceptable if they meet the requirements of paragraph (a)(3)(iv)(A) of this section.
(C) The retained segment does not create an increased safety hazard compared to the features that existed before any mining.
(D) The exposure of water-bearing strata, if any, in the retained segment does not adversely impact the hydrologic balance.
(4) Achieve a postmining slope that does not exceed either the angle of repose or such lesser slope as is necessary to achieve a minimum long-term static safety factor of 1.3 and to prevent slides.
(5) Minimize erosion and water pollution, both on and off the site.
(6) Support the approved postmining land use.
(b) You must return all spoil to the mined-out area. This requirement does not apply to—
(1) Excess spoil disposed of in accordance with § 816.71 or § 816.74 of this part.
(2) Mountaintop removal mining operations approved under § 785.14 of this chapter.
(3) Spoil placed outside the mined-out area in non-steep slope areas to restore the approximate original contour by blending the spoil into the surrounding terrain, provided that you comply with the following requirements:
(i) You must remove all vegetation and other organic matter from the area outside the mined-out area before spoil placement begins. You may not burn these materials; you must store, redistribute, use, or bury them in the manner specified in § 816.22(f) of this part.
(ii) You must remove, segregate, store, and redistribute topsoil on the area outside the mined-out area in accordance with § 816.22 of this part.
(c) You must compact spoil and waste materials when necessary to ensure stability or to prevent the formation of acid or toxic mine drainage, but, to the extent possible, you must avoid compacting spoil, soil, and other materials placed in what will be the root zone of the species planted under the revegetation plan approved in the permit in accordance with § 780.12(g) of this chapter.
(d)(1) You must cover all exposed coal seams with material that is noncombustible, nonacid-forming, and nontoxic-forming.
(2) You must handle and dispose of all other combustible materials exposed, used, or produced during mining in accordance with § 816.89 of this part in a manner that will prevent sustained combustion, as approved in the permit
(3) You must handle all other acid-forming and toxic-forming materials—
(i) In compliance with the plan approved in the permit in accordance with § 780.12(n) of this chapter;
(ii) In compliance with § 816.38 of this part;
(iii) In compliance with the hydrologic reclamation plan approved in the permit in accordance with § 780.22(a) of this chapter; and
(iv) In a manner that will minimize adverse effects on plant growth and the approved postmining land use.
(e) You must dispose of any coal mine waste placed in the mined-out area in accordance with §§ 816.81 and 816.83 of this part, except that a long-term static safety factor of 1.3 will apply instead of the 1.5 factor specified in § 816.81(d)(2) of this part.
(f) You must prepare final-graded surfaces in a manner that minimizes erosion and provides a surface for replacement of soil materials that will minimize slippage.
(a)
(1) Closely resembles the surface configuration of the mined area prior to any mining; and
(2) Blends into and complements the drainage pattern of the surrounding terrain.
(b)
(1) Use all spoil and waste materials available from the entire permit area to attain the lowest practicable grade that does not exceed the angle of repose.
(2) Comply with the requirements of paragraphs (a)(2) through (f) of § 816.102 of this part.
(3) Ensure that the final surface configuration blends into and complements the drainage pattern of the surrounding terrain to the extent possible.
(a)
(b)
(1) Backfill the mined-out area to the approximate original contour and then place the remaining spoil and waste materials on top of the backfilled area to the extent possible, as determined in accordance with the excess spoil minimization requirements of § 780.35(b) of this chapter.
(2) Grade the backfilled area to the lowest practicable grade that is ecologically sound, consistent with the postmining land use, and compatible with the surrounding region. No slope may exceed the angle of repose.
(3) Comply with the requirements of paragraphs (a)(2) through (f) of § 816.102 of this part.
(4) Dispose of any excess spoil in accordance with § 816.71 or § 816.74 of this part.
(5) Ensure that the final surface configuration blends into and complements the drainage pattern of the surrounding terrain to the extent possible.
(a) Remining operations on previously mined areas that contain a preexisting highwall must comply with the requirements of §§ 816.102 through 816.107 of this part, except as provided in this section.
(b) The highwall elimination requirements of § 816.102(a) of this part do not apply to remining operations for which you demonstrate in writing, to the regulatory authority's satisfaction, that the volume of all reasonably available spoil is insufficient to completely backfill the reaffected or enlarged highwall. Instead, for those operations, you must eliminate the highwall to the maximum extent technically practical in accordance with the following criteria:
(1) You must use all spoil generated by the remining operation and any other reasonably available spoil to backfill the area. You must include reasonably available spoil in the immediate vicinity of the remining operation within the permit area.
(2) You must grade the backfilled area to a slope that is compatible with the approved postmining land use and that provides adequate drainage and long-term stability.
(3) Any highwall remnant must be stable and not pose a hazard to the public health and safety or to the environment. You must demonstrate, to the satisfaction of the regulatory authority, that the highwall remnant is stable.
(4) You must not disturb spoil placed on the outslope during previous mining operations if disturbance would cause instability of the remaining spoil or otherwise increase the hazard to the public health and safety or to the environment.
(a) Surface mining activities on steep slopes must comply with this section and the requirements of §§ 816.102 through 816.106 of this part, except where—
(1) Mining is conducted on flat or gently rolling terrain with an occasional steep slope through which the mining proceeds and leaves a plain or predominantly flat area; or
(2) Operations are conducted in accordance with part 824 of this chapter.
(b) You may not place the following materials on the downslope:
(1) Spoil.
(2) Waste materials of any type.
(3) Debris, including debris from clearing and grubbing, except for woody materials used to enhance fish and wildlife habitat.
(4) Abandoned or disabled equipment.
(c) You may not disturb land above the highwall unless the regulatory authority finds that disturbance will facilitate compliance with the environmental protection standards of this subchapter and the disturbance is limited to that necessary to facilitate compliance.
(d) You must handle woody materials in accordance with § 816.22(f) of this part.
(a) You, the permittee, must establish a diverse, effective, permanent vegetative cover on regraded areas and on all other disturbed areas except—
(1) Water areas approved as a postmining land use or in support of the postmining land use.
(2) The surfaces of roads approved for retention to support the postmining land use.
(3) Rock piles, water areas, and other non-vegetative features created to restore or enhance wildlife habitat under the fish and wildlife protection and enhancement plan approved in the permit in accordance with § 780.16 of this chapter.
(4) Any other impervious surface, such as a building or a parking lot, approved as part of or in support of the postmining land use. This provision applies only to structures and facilities constructed before expiration of the revegetation responsibility period.
(b) The reestablished vegetative cover must—
(1) Comply with the revegetation plan approved in the permit in accordance with § 780.12(g) of this chapter.
(2) Be consistent with the approved postmining land use and, except as provided in the revegetation plan approved in the permit in accordance with § 780.12(g) of this chapter, the native plant communities described in § 779.19 of this chapter.
(3) Be at least equal in extent of cover to the natural vegetation of the area.
(4) Be capable of stabilizing the soil surface and, in the long term, preventing erosion in excess of what would have occurred naturally had the site not been disturbed.
(5) Not inhibit the establishment of trees and shrubs when the revegetation plan approved in the permit requires the use of woody plants.
(c) Volunteer plants of species that are desirable components of the plant communities described in the permit application under § 779.19 of this chapter and that are not inconsistent with the postmining land use may be considered in determining whether the requirements of §§ 816.111 and 816.116 have been met.
(d) You must stabilize all areas upon which you have redistributed soil or soil substitute materials. You must use one or a combination of the following methods, unless the regulatory authority determines that neither method is necessary to stabilize the surface and control erosion—
(1) Establishing a temporary vegetative cover consisting of noncompetitive and non-invasive species, either native or domesticated or a combination thereof.
(2) Applying a suitable mulch free of weed and noxious plant seeds.
(e) You must plant all disturbed areas with the species needed to establish a permanent vegetative cover during the first normal period for favorable planting conditions after redistribution of the topsoil or other plant-growth medium. The normal period for favorable planting conditions is the generally accepted local planting time for the type of plant materials approved in the permit as part of the revegetation plan under § 780.12(g) of this chapter.
(a)
(2) The initial planting of small areas that are regraded and planted as a result of the removal of sediment control structures and associated structures and facilities, including ancillary roads used to access those structures, need not be considered an augmented seeding necessitating an extended or separate revegetation responsibility period. This paragraph also applies to areas upon which accumulated sediment and materials resulting from removal of sedimentation pond embankments are spread.
(b)
(1) Five full years, except as provided in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
(i) The vegetation parameters for grazing land, pasture land, or cropland must equal or exceed the approved success standard during the growing season of any 2 years of the responsibility period, except the first year.
(ii) On all other areas, the parameters must equal or exceed the applicable success standard during the growing season of the last year of the responsibility period.
(2) Two full years for lands eligible for remining included in a permit approved under § 785.25 of this chapter. The lands must equal or exceed the applicable ground cover standard during the growing season of the last year of the responsibility period.
(c)
(1) Ten full years, except as provided in paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
(i) The vegetation parameters for grazing land, pasture land, or cropland must equal or exceed the approved success standard during the growing season of any two years after year six of the responsibility period.
(ii) On all other areas, the parameters must equal or exceed the applicable success standard during the growing season of the last year of the responsibility period.
(2) Five full years for lands eligible for remining included in a permit approved under § 785.25 of this chapter. The lands must equal or exceed the applicable ground cover standard during the growing seasons of the last two consecutive years of the responsibility period.
(d)
(2) Approved practices must be normal husbandry practices within the region for unmined lands having land uses similar to the approved postmining land use of the disturbed area, including such practices as disease, pest, and vermin control; and any pruning, reseeding, and transplanting specifically necessitated by such actions.
(a) The regulatory authority must select standards for revegetation success and statistically valid sampling techniques for measuring revegetation success. The standards and techniques must be made available to the public in written form.
(b) The standards for success applied to a specific permit must reflect the revegetation plan requirements of § 780.12(g) of this chapter. They must be based upon the following data—
(1) The plant community and vegetation information required under § 779.19 of this chapter.
(2) The soil type and productivity information required under § 779.21 of this chapter.
(3) The land use capability and productivity information required under § 779.22 of this chapter.
(4) The postmining land use approved under § 780.24 of this chapter, but only to the extent that the approved postmining land use will be implemented before final bond release under §§ 800.40 through 800.43 of this chapter. Otherwise, the site must be revegetated in a manner that will restore native plant communities and the revegetation success standards for the site must reflect that requirement.
(c) Except for the areas identified in § 816.111(a) of this part, standards for success must include—
(1) Species diversity.
(2) Areal distribution of species.
(3) Ground cover, except for land actually used for cropland after the completion of regrading and redistribution of soil materials.
(4) Production, for land used for cropland, pasture, or grazing land either before permit issuance or after the completion of regrading and redistribution of soil materials.
(5) Stocking, for areas revegetated with woody plants.
(d) The ground cover, production, or stocking of the revegetated area will be considered equal to the approved success standard for those parameters when the measured values are not less than 90 percent of the success standard, using a 90-percent statistical confidence interval (
(e) For all areas revegetated with woody plants, regardless of the postmining land use, the regulatory authority must specify minimum stocking and planting arrangements on the basis of local and regional conditions and after coordination with and approval by the state agencies responsible for the administration of forestry and wildlife programs. Coordination and approval may occur on either a program-wide basis or a permit-specific basis.
(f)(1) Only those species of trees and shrubs approved in the permit as part of the revegetation plan under § 780.12(g) of this chapter or volunteer trees and shrubs of species that meet the requirements of § 816.111(c) of this part may be counted in determining whether stocking standards have been met.
(2)(i) At the time of final bond release under §§ 800.40 through 800.43 of this chapter, at least 80 percent of the trees and shrubs used to determine success must have been in place for 60 percent of the applicable minimum period of responsibility under § 816.115 of this part.
(ii) Trees and shrubs counted in determining revegetation success must be healthy and have been in place for not less than two growing seasons. Any replanting must be done by means of transplants to allow for proper accounting of plant stocking.
(iii)(A) For purposes of paragraph (f)(2)(ii) of this section, volunteer trees and shrubs of species that meet the requirements of § 816.111(c) of this part may be deemed equivalent to planted specimens two years of age or older.
(B) Suckers on shrubby vegetation can be counted as volunteer plants when it is evident that the shrub community is vigorous and expanding.
(iv) The requirements of paragraphs (f)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section will be deemed met when records of woody vegetation planted show that—
(A) No woody plants were planted during the last two growing seasons of the responsibility period; and
(B) If any replanting of woody plants took place earlier during the responsibility period, the total number planted during the last 60 percent of that period is less than 20 percent of the total number of woody plants required to meet the stocking standard.
(3) Vegetative ground cover on areas planted with trees or shrubs must be of a nature that allows for natural establishment and succession of native plants, including trees and shrubs.
(g)
(h)
(i)
(a)(1) Each person who temporarily ceases to conduct surface mining activities at a particular site must effectively secure surface facilities in areas in which there are no current operations, but where operations are to be resumed under an approved permit.
(2) Temporary cessation does not relieve a person of his or her obligation to comply with any provisions of the approved permit.
(b)(1) You must submit a notice of intent to temporarily cease operations to the regulatory authority before ceasing mining and reclamation operations for 30 or more days, or as soon as you know that a temporary cessation will extend beyond 30 days.
(2) The notice of temporary cessation must include a statement of the—
(i) Exact number of surface acres disturbed within the permit area prior to temporary cessation;
(ii) Extent and kind of reclamation accomplished before temporary cessation; and
(iii) Backfilling, regrading, revegetation, environmental monitoring, and water treatment activities that will continue during temporary cessation.
(a) Persons who permanently cease surface mining activities at a particular site must close, backfill, or otherwise permanently reclaim all disturbed areas in accordance with this chapter and the permit approved by the regulatory authority.
(b) All equipment, structures, underground openings, or other facilities must be removed and the affected land reclaimed, unless the regulatory authority approves retention of those features because they are suitable for the postmining land use or environmental monitoring.
You, the permittee, must restore all disturbed areas in a timely manner to conditions that are capable of supporting—
(a) The uses they were capable of supporting before any mining, as described under § 779.22 of this chapter; or
(b) Higher or better uses approved under § 780.24(b) of this chapter.
(a)
(2) A primary road is any road that is—
(i) Used for transporting coal or spoil;
(ii) Frequently used for access or other purposes for a period in excess of 6 months; or
(iii) To be retained for an approved postmining land use.
(3) An ancillary road is any road not classified as a primary road.
(b)
(1) Control or prevent erosion, siltation, and air pollution attendant to erosion, including road dust and dust occurring on other exposed surfaces, by measures such as vegetating, watering, using chemical or other dust suppressants, or otherwise stabilizing all exposed surfaces in accordance with current, prudent engineering practices.
(2) Control or prevent damage to fish, wildlife, or their habitat and related environmental values.
(3) Control or prevent additional contributions of suspended solids to streamflow or runoff outside the permit area;
(4) Neither cause nor contribute, directly or indirectly, to a violation of applicable state or tribal water quality standards for surface water and groundwater, including, but not limited to, surface water quality standards established under the authority of section 303(c) of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1313(c).
(5) Refrain from seriously altering the normal flow of water in streambeds or drainage channels.
(6) Prevent or control damage to public or private property, including the prevention or mitigation of adverse effects on lands within the boundaries of units of the National Park System, the National Wildlife Refuge System, the National System of Trails, the National Wilderness Preservation System, the Wild and Scenic Rivers System, including designated study rivers, and National Recreation Areas designated by Act of Congress.
(7) Use nonacid- and nontoxic-forming substances in road surfacing.
(c)
(d)
(2) Roads must be located to minimize downstream sedimentation and flooding.
(e)
(2) A road damaged by a catastrophic event, such as a flood or earthquake, must be repaired as soon as is practicable after the damage has occurred.
(f)
(1) Closing the road to traffic.
(2) Removing all bridges and culverts unless approved as part of the postmining land use.
(3) Removing or otherwise disposing of road-surfacing materials that are incompatible with the postmining land use and revegetation requirements.
(4) Reshaping the slopes of road cuts and fills as necessary to be compatible with the postmining land use and to complement the natural drainage pattern of the surrounding terrain.
(5) Protecting the natural drainage patterns by installing dikes or cross-drains as necessary to control surface runoff and erosion.
(6) Scarifying or ripping the roadbed, replacing topsoil or substitute material in accordance with § 816.22 of this part, and revegetating disturbed surfaces in accordance with §§ 816.111, 816.115, and 816.116 of this chapter.
(a) Primary roads must meet the requirements of § 816.150 of this part and the additional requirements of this section.
(b)
(c)
(d)
(2) Fords of perennial or intermittent streams are prohibited unless they are specifically approved by the regulatory authority as temporary routes during periods of road construction.
(e)
(1) Each primary road must be constructed, or reconstructed, and maintained to have adequate drainage control, using structures such as, but not limited to, bridges, ditches, cross drains, and ditch relief drains. The drainage control system must be designed to safely pass the peak runoff from the 10-year, 6-hour precipitation event, or any greater event specified by the regulatory authority.
(2) Drainage pipes and culverts must be installed as designed, and maintained in a free and operating condition and to prevent or control erosion at inlets and outlets.
(3) Drainage ditches must be constructed and maintained to prevent uncontrolled drainage over the road surface and embankment.
(4) Culverts must be installed and maintained to sustain the vertical soil pressure, the passive resistance of the foundation, and the weight of vehicles using the road.
(5) Natural stream channels must not be altered or relocated without the prior approval of the regulatory authority in
(6) Except as provided in paragraph (d)(2) of this section, structures for perennial or intermittent stream channel crossings must be made using bridges, culverts, low-water crossings, or other structures designed, constructed, and maintained using current prudent engineering practices. The regulatory authority must ensure that low-water crossings are designed, constructed, and maintained to prevent erosion of the structure or streambed and additional contributions of suspended solids to streamflow.
(f)
You must conduct all surface coal mining operations in a manner that minimizes damage, destruction, or disruption of services provided by oil, gas, and water wells; oil, gas, and coal-slurry pipelines; railroads; electric and telephone lines; and water and sewage lines that pass over, under, or through the permit area, unless otherwise approved by the owner of those facilities and the regulatory authority.
(a) You must operate each support facility in accordance with the permit issued for the mine or coal preparation plant to which the facility is incident or from which its operation results.
(b) In addition to the other provisions of this part, you must locate, maintain, and use support facilities in a manner that—
(1) Prevents or controls erosion and siltation, water pollution, and damage to public or private property; and
(2) To the extent possible using the best technology currently available—
(i) Minimizes damage to fish, wildlife, and related environmental values; and
(ii) Minimizes additional contributions of suspended solids to streamflow or runoff outside the permit area. Any such contributions may not be in excess of limitations of state or federal law.
30 U.S.C. 1201
This part sets forth the minimum environmental protection performance standards for underground mining activities under the Act.
This part is intended to ensure that all underground mining activities are conducted in an environmentally sound manner in accordance with the Act.
In accordance with 44 U.S.C. 3501
(a)
(1) Be posted and maintained by the person who conducts the underground mining activities;
(2) Be of a uniform design throughout the operation;
(3) Be easily seen and read;
(4) Be made of durable material; and
(5) Conform to local ordinances and codes.
(b)
(c)
(2) The signs must show the name, business address, and telephone number of the person who conducts the underground mining activities and the identification number of the current SMCRA permit authorizing underground mining activities.
(3) You must retain and maintain the signs until the release of all bonds for the permit area.
(d)
(e)
(f)
(a) Except as provided in paragraph (f) of this section, you must case, line, otherwise manage each exploration hole, drilled hole, borehole, shaft, well, or other exposed underground opening in a manner approved by the regulatory authority to—
(1) Prevent acid or other toxic drainage from entering groundwater and surface water.
(2) Minimize disturbance to the prevailing hydrologic balance.
(3) Ensure the safety of people, livestock, fish and wildlife, and machinery in the permit area and the adjacent area.
(b) You must prevent access to each temporarily inactive mine entry by constructing fences and barricades or other covering devices and posting signs that identify the hazardous nature of the opening. You must periodically inspect and maintain these fences and barricades in good operating condition.
(c) You must temporarily seal each exploration hole, drilled hole, borehole, shaft, well, or other exposed underground opening that the approved permit identifies for use to monitor groundwater or to return underground development waste, coal processing waste, or water to underground workings until you are ready to actually use the hole or opening for that purpose.
(d) You may retain a drilled hole or groundwater monitoring well for use as a water well under the conditions established in § 817.39 of this part.
(e) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, you must permanently close each exploration hole, drilled hole, borehole, well, or underground opening that mining activities uncover or expose within the permit area, unless the regulatory authority—
(1) Approves use of the hole, well, or opening for water monitoring purposes; or
(2) Authorizes other management of the hole or well.
(f)(1) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, you must cap, seal, backfill, or otherwise properly manage each shaft, drift, adit, tunnel, exploratory hole, entryway or other opening to the surface when no longer needed for monitoring or any other use that the regulatory authority approves after finding that the use would not adversely affect the environment or public health and safety.
(2) Permanent closure measures taken under paragraph (f)(1) of this section must be—
(i) Consistent with § 75.1771 of this title;
(ii) Designed to prevent access to the mine workings by people, livestock, fish and wildlife, and machinery; and
(iii) Designed to keep acid or toxic mine drainage from entering groundwater or surface water.
(g) The requirements of this section do not apply to holes drilled and used for blasting as part of surface operations.
(a)
(ii) The soil handling plan approved in the permit under § 784.12(e) of this chapter will specify which soil horizons and underlying strata, or portions thereof, you must separately remove and salvage. The plan also will specify whether some or all of those soil horizons and soil substitute materials may or must be blended to achieve an improved plant growth medium.
(iii) Except as provided in the soil handling plan approved in the permit under § 784.12(e) of this chapter, you must complete removal and salvage of topsoil, subsoil, and organic matter in advance of any mining-related surface disturbance other than the minor disturbances identified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
(2) Unless otherwise specified by the regulatory authority, you need not remove and salvage topsoil and other soil materials for minor disturbances that—
(i) Occur at the site of small structures, such as power poles, signs, monitoring wells, or fence lines; or
(ii) Will not destroy the existing vegetation and will not cause erosion.
(b)
(2) Stockpiled materials must—
(i) Be selectively placed on a stable site within the permit area;
(ii) Be protected from contaminants and unnecessary compaction that would interfere with revegetation;
(iii) Be protected from wind and water erosion through prompt establishment and maintenance of an effective, quick-growing, non-invasive vegetative cover or through other measures approved by the regulatory authority; and
(iv) Not be moved until required for redistribution unless approved by the regulatory authority.
(3) When stockpiling of organic matter and soil materials removed under paragraphs (a) and (f) of this section would be detrimental to the quality or quantity of those materials, you may temporarily redistribute those soil materials on an approved site within the permit area to enhance the current use of that site until the materials are needed for later reclamation, provided that—
(i) Temporary redistribution will not permanently diminish the capability of the topsoil of the host site; and
(ii) The redistributed material will be preserved in a condition more suitable for redistribution than if it were stockpiled.
(c)
(d)
(e)
(i) Complies with the soil handling plan developed under § 784.12(e) of this chapter and approved as part of the permit.
(ii) Is consistent with the approved postmining land use, the final surface configuration, and surface water drainage systems.
(iii) Minimizes compaction of the topsoil and soil materials in the root zone to the extent possible and alleviates any excess compaction that may occur. You must limit your use of measures that result in increased compaction to those situations in which added compaction is necessary to ensure stability.
(iv) Protects the materials from wind and water erosion before and after seeding and planting to the extent necessary to ensure establishment of a successful vegetative cover and to avoid causing or contributing to a violation of applicable state or tribal water quality standards or effluent limitations, including, but not limited to, water quality standards established under the authority of section 303(c) of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1313(c), and effluent limitations established in any National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System permit issued for the operation under section 402 of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1342, or its state or tribal counterpart.
(v) Achieves an approximately uniform, stable thickness across the regraded area. The thickness may vary when consistent with the approved postmining land use, the final surface configuration, surface water drainage systems, and the requirement in § 817.133 of this part for restoration of all disturbed areas to conditions that are capable of supporting the uses they were capable of supporting before any mining or higher or better uses approved under § 784.24(b) of this chapter. The thickness also may vary when variations are necessary or desirable to achieve specific revegetation goals and ecological diversity, as set forth in the revegetation plan developed under § 784.12(g) of this chapter and approved as part of the permit.
(2) You must use a statistically valid sampling technique to document that soil materials have been redistributed in the locations and depths required by the soil handling plan developed under § 784.12(e) of this chapter and approved as part of the permit.
(3) The regulatory authority may choose not to require the redistribution of topsoil on the embankments of permanent impoundments or on the embankments of roads to be retained as part of the postmining land use if it determines that—
(i) Placement of topsoil on those embankments is inconsistent with the requirement to use the best technology currently available to prevent sedimentation, and
(ii) The embankments will be otherwise stabilized.
(f)
(ii) Paragraph (f)(1)(i) of this section does not apply to organic matter from areas identified under § 783.19(b) of this chapter as containing significant populations of invasive or noxious non-native species. You must bury organic matter from those areas in the backfill at a sufficient depth to prevent regeneration or proliferation of undesirable species.
(2)(i) Except as otherwise provided in paragraphs (f)(2)(ii) and (iii) and (3) of this section, you must redistribute the organic matter salvaged under paragraph (f)(1) of this section across the regraded surface or incorporate it into the soil to control erosion, promote growth of vegetation, serve as a source of native plant seeds and soil inoculants to speed restoration of the soil's ecological community, and increase the moisture retention capability of the soil.
(ii) You may use vegetative debris to construct stream improvement or fish and wildlife habitat enhancement features consistent with the approved postmining land use.
(iii) You may adjust the timing and pattern of redistribution of large woody debris to accommodate the use of mechanized tree-planting equipment on sites with a forestry postmining land use.
(3)(i) The redistribution requirements of paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section do not apply to those portions of the permit area—
(A) Upon which row crops will be planted as part of the postmining land use before final bond release under §§ 800.40 through 800.43 of this chapter;
(B) That will be intensively managed for hay production as part of the postmining land use before final bond release under §§ 800.40 through 800.43 of this chapter; or
(C) Upon which structures, roads, other impervious surfaces, or water impoundments have been or will be constructed as part of the postmining land use before final bond release under §§ 800.40 through 800.43 of this chapter.
(ii) When the circumstances described in paragraph (f)(3)(i) of this section apply, you must make reasonable efforts to redistribute the salvaged organic matter on other portions of the permit area or use woody debris to construct stream improvement or fish and wildlife habitat enhancement features consistent with the approved postmining land use. If you demonstrate, and the regulatory authority finds, that it is not reasonably possible to use all available organic matter for these purposes, you may bury it in the backfill.
(4)(i) You may not burn organic matter.
(ii) You may bury organic matter in the backfill only as provided in paragraphs (f)(1)(ii) and (3)(ii) of this section.
(a) You, the permittee, must conduct all underground mining and reclamation activities in a manner that will—
(1) Minimize disturbance of the hydrologic balance within the permit and adjacent areas.
(2) Prevent material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area. Material damage resulting from subsidence may not constitute material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area if that damage is repaired or corrected under § 817.40 or § 817.121(c) of this part.
(3) Protect streams in accordance with §§ 784.28 and 817.57 of this chapter.
(4) Assure the replacement of water supplies to the extent required by § 817.40 of this part.
(5) Protect existing water rights under state law.
(6) Support approved postmining land uses in accordance with the terms and conditions of the approved permit and the performance standards of this part.
(7) Comply with the hydrologic reclamation plan as submitted under § 784.22 of this chapter and approved in the permit.
(8) Protect groundwater quality by using best management practices to handle earth materials and runoff in a manner that avoids the formation of acid or toxic mine drainage and by managing excavations and other disturbances to prevent or control groundwater degradation. The regulatory authority will determine the meaning of the term “best management practices” on a site-specific basis. At a minimum, the term includes equipment, devices, systems, methods, and techniques that the Director determines to be best management practices.
(9) Protect surface-water quality by using best management practices, as described in paragraph (a)(8) of this section, to handle earth materials, groundwater discharges, and runoff in a manner that—
(i) Prevents postmining discharges of acid or toxic mine drainage.
(ii) Prevents additional contribution of suspended solids to streamflow or runoff outside the permit area to the extent possible, using the best technology currently available.
(iii) Otherwise prevents water pollution.
(10) Protect surface-water quality and flow rates by handling earth materials and runoff in accordance with the steps outlined in the hydrologic reclamation plan and the surface-water runoff control plan approved in the permit in accordance with §§ 784.22 and 780.29 of this chapter, respectively.
(b)(1) To the maximum extent practicable, you must use mining and reclamation practices that minimize water pollution, changes in flow, and adverse impacts on stream biota rather than relying upon water treatment to minimize those impacts.
(2) You must install, use, and maintain any necessary water-treatment facilities or water-quality controls if drainage control, materials handling, stabilization and revegetation of disturbed areas, diversion of runoff, mulching, and other reclamation and remedial practices are not adequate to meet the requirements of this section and § 817.42 of this part.
(c) The regulatory authority may require that you take preventive, remedial, or monitoring measures in addition to those set forth in this part to prevent material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area.
(d)(1) You must examine the runoff-control structures identified under § 784.29 of this chapter within 72 hours of cessation of each occurrence of the following precipitation events:
(i) In areas with an average annual precipitation of more than 26.0 inches, an event of a size equal to or greater than that of a storm with a 2-year recurrence interval. You must use the appropriate regional Natural Resources Conservation Service synthetic storm distribution to determine peak flow for a storm with that recurrence interval.
(ii) In areas with an average annual precipitation of 26.0 inches or less, a significant event of a size specified by the regulatory authority.
(2)(i) You must prepare a report, which must be certified by a registered professional engineer, and submit the report to the regulatory authority within 30 days of cessation of the applicable precipitation event under paragraph (d)(1) of this section. The report must address the performance of the runoff-control structures, identify and describe any material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area that occurred, and identify and describe the remedial measures taken in response to that damage.
(ii) The report prepared under paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section may include all precipitation events that occur within 30 days of cessation of the applicable precipitation event under paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
(a)(1)(i) You, the permittee, must monitor groundwater in the manner specified in the groundwater monitoring plan approved in the permit in accordance with § 784.23(a) of this chapter.
(ii) You must adhere to the data collection, analysis, and reporting requirements of paragraphs (a) and (b) of § 777.13 of this chapter when conducting monitoring under this section.
(2) At a minimum, you must conduct monitoring through mining, reclamation, and the revegetation responsibility period under § 817.115 of this part for the monitored area. Monitoring must continue beyond that minimum for any additional time needed for monitoring results to demonstrate that the criteria of § 817.35(d)(1) and (2) of this section have been met, as determined by the regulatory authority.
(b)(1) You must submit groundwater monitoring data to the regulatory authority every 3 months, or more frequently if prescribed by the regulatory authority.
(2) Monitoring reports must include analytical results from each sample taken during the reporting period.
(c) When the analysis of any sample indicates noncompliance with the terms and conditions of the permit, you must promptly notify the regulatory authority, take any applicable actions required under § 773.17(e) of this chapter, and implement any applicable
(d) You may use the permit revision procedures of § 774.13 of this chapter to request that the regulatory authority modify the groundwater monitoring requirements, including the parameters covered and the sampling frequency. The regulatory authority may approve your request if you demonstrate, using the monitoring data obtained under this section, that—
(1) Future adverse changes in groundwater quantity or quality are unlikely to occur.
(2) The operation has—
(i) Minimized disturbance to the hydrologic balance in the permit and adjacent areas.
(ii) Prevented material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area.
(iii) Preserved or restored the biological condition of perennial and intermittent streams within the permit and adjacent areas for which baseline biological condition data was collected under § 784.19(c)(6)(vi) of this chapter when groundwater from the permit area provides all or part of the base flow of those streams.
(iv) Maintained or restored the availability and quality of groundwater to the extent necessary to support the approved postmining land uses within the permit area.
(v) Protected or replaced the water rights of other users.
(e) Whenever information available to the regulatory authority indicates that additional monitoring is necessary to protect the hydrologic balance, to detect hydrologic changes, or to meet other requirements of the regulatory program, the regulatory authority must issue an order under § 774.10(b) of this chapter requiring that you revise your permit to include the necessary additional monitoring.
(f) You must install, maintain, operate, and, when no longer needed, remove all equipment, structures, and other devices used in conjunction with monitoring groundwater, consistent with §§ 817.13 and 817.39 of this part.
(a)(1)(i) You, the permittee, must monitor surface water in the manner specified in the surface-water monitoring plan approved in the permit in accordance with § 784.23(b) of this chapter.
(ii) You must adhere to the data collection, analysis, and reporting requirements of paragraphs (a) and (b) of § 777.13 of this chapter when conducting monitoring under this section.
(2) Monitoring must continue through mining and during reclamation until the regulatory authority releases the entire bond amount for the monitored area under §§ 800.40 through 800.43 of this chapter.
(b)(1) You must submit surface-water monitoring data to the regulatory authority every 3 months, or more frequently when prescribed by the regulatory authority.
(2) Monitoring reports must include analytical results from each sample taken during the reporting period.
(3) The reporting requirements of paragraph (b) of this section do not exempt you from meeting any National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (NPDES) reporting requirements.
(c) When the analysis of any sample indicates noncompliance with the terms and conditions of the permit, you must promptly notify the regulatory authority, take any applicable actions required under § 773.17(e) of this chapter, and implement any applicable remedial measures required by the hydrologic reclamation plan approved in the permit in accordance with § 784.22 of this chapter.
(d) You may use the permit revision procedures of § 774.13 of this chapter to request that the regulatory authority modify the surface-water monitoring requirements (except those required by the NPDES permitting authority), including the parameters covered and the sampling frequency. The regulatory authority may approve your request if you demonstrate, using the monitoring data obtained under this section, that—
(1) Future adverse changes in surface-water quantity or quality are unlikely to occur.
(2) The operation has—
(i) Minimized disturbance to the hydrologic balance in the permit and adjacent areas.
(ii) Prevented material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area.
(iii) Preserved or restored the biological condition of perennial and intermittent streams within the permit and adjacent areas for which baseline biological condition data was collected under § 784.19(c)(6)(vi) of this chapter.
(iv) Maintained or restored the availability and quality of surface water to the extent necessary to support the approved postmining land uses within the permit area.
(v) Not precluded attainment of any designated use of surface water under section 303(c) of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1313(c).
(vi) Protected or replaced the water rights of other users.
(e) Whenever information available to the regulatory authority indicates that additional monitoring is necessary to protect the hydrologic balance, to detect hydrologic changes, or to meet other requirements of the regulatory program, the regulatory authority must issue an order under § 774.10(b) of this chapter requiring that you revise your permit to include the necessary additional monitoring.
(f) You must install, maintain, operate, and, when no longer needed, remove all equipment, structures, and other devices used in conjunction with monitoring surface water.
(a)(1)(i) You must monitor the biological condition of perennial and intermittent streams in the manner specified in the plan approved in the permit in accordance with § 784.23(c) of this chapter.
(ii) You must adhere to the data collection, analysis, and reporting requirements of paragraphs (a) and (b) of § 777.13 of this chapter and use a bioassessment protocol that complies with § 784.19(c)(6)(vii) of this chapter when conducting monitoring under this section.
(2) Monitoring must continue through mining and during reclamation until the regulatory authority releases the entire bond amount for the monitored area under §§ 800.40 through 800.43 of this chapter.
(b) You must submit biological condition monitoring data to the regulatory authority on an annual basis, or more frequently if prescribed by the regulatory authority.
(d) Whenever information available to the regulatory authority indicates that additional monitoring is necessary to meet the requirements of the regulatory program, the regulatory authority must issue an order under § 774.10(b) of this chapter requiring that you revise your permit to include the necessary additional monitoring.
(a) You, the permittee, must use the best technology currently available to handle acid-forming and toxic-forming materials and underground development waste in a manner that will avoid the creation of acid or toxic mine drainage into surface water and groundwater. At a minimum, you must comply with the plan approved in the permit in accordance with § 784.12(n) of this chapter and adhere to disposal,
(b) You may temporarily store acid-forming and toxic-forming materials only if the regulatory authority specifically approves temporary storage as necessary and finds in writing in the permit that the proposed storage method will protect surface water and groundwater by preventing erosion, the formation of polluted runoff, and the infiltration of polluted water into aquifers. The regulatory authority must specify a maximum time for temporary storage, which may not exceed the period until permanent disposal first becomes feasible. In addition, storage must not result in any risk of water pollution, adverse impacts to the biology of perennial or intermittent streams, or other environmental damage.
(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, you, the permittee, must permanently seal exploratory or monitoring wells in a safe and environmentally sound manner in accordance with § 817.13 of this part before the regulatory authority may approve full release of the bond posted for the land on which the wells are located under §§ 800.40 through 800.43 of this chapter.
(b) With the prior approval of the regulatory authority, you may transfer wells to another party for further use. The conditions of the transfer must comply with state and local laws. You will remain responsible for the proper management of the wells until full release of the bond posted for the land on which the wells are located under §§ 800.40 through 800.43 of this chapter.
(a)
(2) The replacement supply must be equivalent to the quantity and quality of the premining supply.
(3) Replacement includes provision of an equivalent water supply delivery system and payment of operation and maintenance expenses in excess of customary and reasonable delivery costs for the premining water supply. If you and the water supply owner agree, your obligation to pay operation and maintenance costs may be satisfied by a one-time payment in an amount that covers the present worth of the increased annual operation and maintenance costs for a period upon which you and the water supply owner agree.
(4) If the affected water supply was not needed for the land use in existence at the time of loss, contamination, or diminution, you may satisfy the replacement requirements by demonstrating that a suitable alternative water source is available and could feasibly be developed, provided you obtain written concurrence from the owner of the affected water supply.
(b)
(c)
(1) Provide an emergency temporary water supply within 24 hours of notification of the loss. The temporary supply must be adequate in quantity and quality to meet normal household needs.
(2) Develop and submit a plan for a permanent replacement supply to the regulatory authority within 30 days of receiving notice that an unanticipated loss of or damage to a protected water supply has occurred.
(3) Provide a permanent replacement water supply within 2 years of the date of receiving notice of an unanticipated loss of or damage to a protected water supply. The regulatory authority may grant an extension if you have made a good-faith effort to meet this deadline, but have been unable to do so for reasons beyond your control.
(d)
(a) You may not discharge any water or other materials from your operation into an underground mine unless the regulatory authority specifically approves the discharge in writing, based upon a demonstration that—
(1) The discharge will be made in a manner that—
(i) Minimizes disturbances to the hydrologic balance within the permit area;
(ii) Prevents material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area, including the hydrologic balance of the area in which the underground mine receiving the discharge is located;
(iii) Does not adversely impact the biology of perennial or intermittent streams; and
(iv) Otherwise eliminates public hazards resulting from surface mining activities.
(2) The discharge will not cause or contribute to a violation of applicable state or tribal water quality standards or effluent limitations, including, but not limited to, water quality standards established under the authority of section 303(c) of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1313(c), and effluent limitations established in any National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System permit issued for the operation under section 402 of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1342, or its state or tribal counterpart.
(3)(i) The discharge will be at a known rate and of a quality that will meet the effluent limitations for pH and total suspended solids in 40 CFR part 434.
(ii) The regulatory authority may approve discharges of water that exceed the effluent limitations for pH and total suspended solids in 40 CFR part 434 if the available evidence indicates that there is no direct hydrologic connection between the underground mine and other waters and that those exceedances will not be inconsistent with paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
(4) The discharge will not cause or contribute to a violation of applicable state or tribal water quality standards for groundwater.
(5) The Mine Safety and Health Administration has approved the discharge.
(6) You have obtained written permission from the owner of the mine into which the discharge is to be made and you have provided a copy of that authorization to the regulatory authority.
(b) Discharges are limited to the following materials:
(1) Water.
(2) Coal processing waste.
(3) Fly ash from a coal-fired facility.
(4) Sludge from an acid-mine-drainage treatment facility.
(5) Flue-gas desulfurization sludge.
(6) Inert materials used for stabilizing underground mines.
(7) Underground mine development waste.
(a) Nothing in this section, nor any action taken pursuant to this section, supersedes or modifies—
(1) The authority or jurisdiction of federal, state, or tribal agencies responsible for administration, implementation, and enforcement of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1251
(2) The decisions that those agencies make under the authority of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1251
(b) Discharges of water from underground mining activities and from areas disturbed by underground mining activities must—
(1) Be made in compliance with all applicable water quality laws and regulations, including the effluent limitations established in the National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System permit for the operation under section 402 of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1342, or its state or tribal counterpart. The regulatory authority must notify the appropriate Clean Water Act authority whenever it takes action to enforce a permit condition required by § 773.17(i) of this chapter with respect to an effluent limitation in a National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System permit. The regulatory authority must initiate coordination with the Clean Water Act authority before taking enforcement action if coordination is needed to determine whether a violation of the National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System permit exists.
(2) Not cause or contribute to a violation of applicable water quality standards established under the authority of section 303(c) of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1313(c), or other applicable state or tribal water quality standards.
(c) Discharges of overburden, coal mine waste, and other materials into waters subject to the jurisdiction of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1251
(d) The regulatory authority will coordinate an investigation with the appropriate Clean Water Act authority whenever information available to the regulatory authority indicates that mining activities may be causing or contributing to a violation of the water quality standards to which paragraph (b)(2) of this section refers, or to a violation of section 404 of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1344, and its implementing regulations. If, after coordination with the appropriate Clean Water Act authority, it is determined that mining activities are causing or contributing to a Clean Water Act violation, the regulatory authority must, in addition to any action taken by the appropriate Clean Water Act authority, independently take enforcement or other appropriate action to correct the cause of the violation.
(e) You must construct water treatment facilities for discharges from the operation as soon as the need for those facilities becomes evident.
(f)(1) You must remove precipitates and otherwise maintain all water treatment facilities requiring the use of settling ponds or lagoons as necessary to maintain the functionality of those facilities.
(2) You must dispose of all precipitates removed from facilities under paragraph (f)(1) of this section either in an approved solid waste landfill or within the permit area in accordance with a plan approved by the regulatory authority.
(g) You must operate and maintain water treatment facilities until the regulatory authority authorizes removal based upon monitoring data demonstrating that influent to the facilities meets all applicable effluent limitations without treatment and that discharges would not cause or contribute to a violation of applicable water quality standards established under the authority of section 303(c) of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1313(c), or other applicable state or tribal water quality standards if left untreated.
(a)
(1)
(i) You must remove a temporary diversion ditch as soon as it is no longer needed. You must restore the land disturbed by the removal process in accordance with the approved permit and § 817.55 of this part. Before removing a temporary diversion ditch, you must modify or remove downstream water treatment facilities previously protected by the ditch to prevent overtopping or failure of the facilities. You must continue to maintain water treatment facilities until they are no longer needed.
(ii) You may retain a
(A) Be environmentally beneficial;
(B) Meet the requirements of the reclamation plan approved under § 784.12 of this chapter; and
(C) Be consistent with the surface drainage pattern restoration requirements of §§ 817.56 and 817.57 of this part.
(iii) When approved in the permit, you may divert the following flows away from the disturbed area by means of temporary or permanent diversion ditches without treatment:
(A) Any surface runoff or other flows from mined areas abandoned before May 3, 1978.
(B) Any surface runoff or other flows from undisturbed areas.
(C) Any surface runoff or other flows from reclaimed areas for which the criteria of § 817.46 of this part for siltation structure removal have been met.
(2)
(i) You must remove t
(ii)
(3)
(i) You must remove temporary conveyances or channels when they are no longer needed for their intended purpose.
(ii) When approved in the permit, you may retain conveyances or channels that support or enhance the approved postmining land use.
(b)
(1) You must design all diversions to—
(i) Ensure the safety of the public.
(ii) Minimize adverse impacts to the hydrologic balance, including the biology of perennial and intermittent streams, within the permit and adjacent areas.
(iii) Prevent material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area.
(2) You must design, locate, construct, maintain, and use each diversion and its appurtenant structures to—
(i) Be stable.
(ii) Provide and maintain the capacity to safely pass the peak flow of surface runoff from a 2-year, 6-hour precipitation event for a temporary diversion and a 10-year, 6-hour precipitation event for a permanent diversion. Flow capacity for stream diversions includes both the in-channel capacity and the flood-prone area overbank capacity. Flow capacity for diversion ditches and conveyances or channels includes only in-channel capacity, with adequate freeboard to prevent out-of-channel flow. You must use the appropriate regional Natural Resources Conservation Service synthetic storm distribution to determine peak flows.
(iii) Prevent, to the extent possible using the best technology currently available, additional contributions of suspended solids to streamflow or runoff outside the permit area.
(iv) Comply with all applicable federal, state, tribal, and local laws and regulations.
(c)
(d)
(a)(1) You must locate and manage surface entries and accesses to underground workings to prevent or control gravity discharge of water from the mine.
(2) The regulatory authority may approve gravity discharges of water from an underground mine, other than a drift mine subject to paragraph (b) of this section, if you—
(i) Demonstrate that the untreated or treated discharge will comply with the performance standards of this part and any additional National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System permit requirements under the Clean Water Act.
(ii) Design the discharge control structure to prevent a mine pool blowout.
(3) You must construct and maintain the discharge control structure in accordance with the design approved by the regulatory authority and any other conditions imposed by the regulatory authority.
(b) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in paragraph (a) of this section, you must locate the surface entries and accesses of drift mines first used after the implementation of a state, federal, or federal lands program under this chapter and located in acid-producing or iron-producing coal seams in such a manner as to prevent any gravity discharge from the mine.
(a) You must design, construct, and maintain appropriate sediment control measures, using the best technology currently available to—
(1) Prevent, to the extent possible, additional contributions of sediment to streamflow or to runoff outside the permit area.
(2) Meet the applicable effluent limitations referenced in § 817.42(a) of this part.
(3) Minimize erosion to the extent possible.
(b) Sediment control measures include practices carried out within the disturbed area. Sediment control measures consist of the use of proper mining and reclamation methods and sediment control practices, singly or in combination. Sediment control methods include but are not limited to—
(1) Disturbing the smallest practicable area at any one time during the mining operation through progressive backfilling, grading, and prompt revegetation.
(2) Shaping and stabilizing the backfilled material to promote a reduction in the rate and volume of runoff.
(3) Retaining sediment within disturbed areas.
(4) Diverting surface runoff from undisturbed areas away from disturbed areas.
(5) Using protected channels or pipes to convey surface runoff from undisturbed areas through disturbed areas so as not to cause additional erosion.
(6) Using straw dikes, riprap, check dams, mulches, vegetative sediment filters, dugout ponds, and other measures that reduce overland flow velocity, reduce runoff volume, or trap sediment.
(7) Treating surface runoff collected in sedimentation ponds with flocculants or other chemicals.
(a)
(1) In which the only underground mining activities conducted on the land surface consist of diversions, siltation structures, or roads that are designed, constructed, and maintained in accordance with this part; and
(2) For which you do not plan to otherwise disturb the land surface upgradient of the diversion, siltation structure, or road.
(b)
(2) Upon completion of construction of a siltation structure, a qualified registered professional engineer, or, in any state that authorizes land surveyors to prepare and certify plans in accordance with § 784.25(a) of this chapter, a qualified registered professional land surveyor, must certify that the structure has been constructed as designed and as approved in the reclamation plan in the permit.
(3) Any siltation structure that impounds water must be designed, constructed and maintained in accordance with § 817.49 of this chapter.
(4) You must maintain siltation structures until removal is authorized by the regulatory authority and the disturbed area has been stabilized and revegetated.
(5)(i) When a siltation structure is removed, you must regrade the land upon which the structure was located
(ii) Paragraph (b)(5)(i) of this section does not apply to sedimentation ponds approved by the regulatory authority for retention as permanent impoundments under § 817.49(b) of this part if the maintenance requirements of § 800.42(c)(5) of this chapter are met.
(c)
(i) Be located as near as possible to the disturbed area and outside perennial or intermittent stream channels unless approved by the regulatory authority in the permit in accordance with §§ 784.28 and 817.57(c) of this chapter.
(ii) Be designed, constructed, and maintained to—
(A) Provide adequate sediment storage volume.
(B) Provide adequate detention time to allow the effluent from the ponds to meet applicable effluent limitations.
(C) Contain or treat the 10-year, 24-hour precipitation event (“design event”) unless a lesser design event is approved by the regulatory authority based on terrain, climate, other site-specific conditions, and a demonstration that the effluent limitations referenced in § 817.42 of this part will be met.
(D) Provide a nonclogging dewatering device adequate to maintain the detention time required under paragraph (c)(1)(ii)(B) of this section.
(E) Minimize short circuiting to the extent possible.
(F) Provide periodic sediment removal sufficient to maintain adequate volume for the design event.
(G) Ensure against excessive settlement.
(H) Be free of sod, large roots, frozen soil, and acid-forming or toxic-forming materials.
(I) Be compacted properly.
(2)
(d)
(2) You must design other treatment facilities in accordance with the applicable requirements of paragraph (c) of this section.
(e)
(1) The disturbed drainage area within the total disturbed area is small; and
(2) You demonstrate that neither siltation structures nor alternate sediment control measures are necessary for drainage from the disturbed drainage area to comply with § 817.42 of this part.
You must control discharges from sedimentation ponds, permanent and temporary impoundments, coal mine waste impounding structures, and diversions by energy dissipators, riprap channels, and other devices when necessary to reduce erosion, to prevent deepening or enlargement of stream channels, to control meander migration, or to minimize disturbance of the hydrologic balance. You must design discharge structures according to standard engineering design procedures.
(a)
(1)
(2)
(ii) Impoundments not included in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section, except for a coal mine waste impounding structure, must have a minimum static safety factor of 1.3 for a normal pool with steady state seepage saturation conditions or meet the requirements of § 784.25(e)(2) of this chapter.
(3)
(ii) An impoundment that includes a dam with a significant or high hazard potential classification under § 784.25(a) of this chapter must comply with the freeboard hydrograph criteria in the following table:
(4)
(ii) You must conduct foundation and abutment investigations, as well as any necessary laboratory testing of foundation material, to determine the design requirements for foundation stability and control of underseepage for an impoundment that includes a dam with a significant or high hazard potential classification under § 784.25(a) of this chapter.
(iii) You must remove all vegetative and organic materials from the foundation area and excavate and prepare the foundation area to resist failure. You must install cutoff trenches if necessary to ensure stability.
(5)
(6)
(7)
(i) The regulatory authority may approve a single open-channel spillway that is:
(A) Of nonerodible construction and designed to carry sustained flows; or
(B) Earth- or grass-lined and designed to carry short-term, infrequent flows at non-erosive velocities where sustained flows are not expected.
(ii) Except as specified in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, the required design precipitation event for an impoundment meeting the spillway requirements of paragraph (a)(7) of this section is:
(A) For an impoundment that includes a dam with a significant or high hazard potential classification under § 784.25(a) of this chapter, the design precipitation event specified in the auxiliary spillway hydrograph column in the table in paragraph (a)(3)(ii) of this section, or any greater event specified by the regulatory authority.
(B) For an impoundment meeting the criteria of § 77.216(a) of this title, the 100-year, 6-hour event, or any greater event specified by the regulatory authority.
(C) For an impoundment not included in paragraphs (a)(7)(ii) (A) and (B) of this section, the 25-year, 6-hour event, or any greater event specified by the regulatory authority.
(8)
(9)
(i) Inspections must be made regularly during construction, upon completion of construction, and at least yearly until removal of the structure or release of the performance bond.
(ii) After each inspection required by paragraph (a)(9)(i) of this section, the qualified registered professional engineer, or qualified registered professional land surveyor as specified in paragraph (a)(9)(iv) of this section, must promptly provide to the regulatory authority a certified report that the impoundment has been constructed and/or maintained as designed and in accordance with the approved plan and this chapter. The report must include a discussion of any appearance of instability, any structural weakness or other hazardous condition, the depth and elevation of any impounded waters, the existing storage capacity, any existing or required monitoring procedures and instrumentation, and any other aspects of the structure affecting stability.
(iii) You must retain a copy of the report at or near the minesite.
(iv) In any state that authorizes land surveyors to prepare and certify plans in accordance with § 784.25(b)(1) of this chapter, a qualified registered professional land surveyor may inspect any temporary or permanent impoundment that does not meet the criteria of § 77.216(a) of this title, or that is not classified as having a significant or high hazard potential under § 784.25(a) of this chapter, and certify and submit the report required by paragraph (a)(9)(ii) of this section, except that a qualified registered professional engineer must certify all coal mine waste impounding structures covered by § 817.84 of this chapter. The professional land surveyor must be experienced in the construction of impoundments.
(10)
(ii) Impoundments that are not subject to § 77.216 of this title, or that are not classified as having a significant or high hazard potential under § 784.25(a) of this chapter, must be examined at least quarterly. A qualified person designated by the operator must examine impoundments for the appearance of structural weakness and other hazardous conditions.
(11)
(b)
(1) The size and configuration of the impoundment will be adequate for its intended purposes.
(2) The quality of impounded water will be suitable on a permanent basis for its intended use and, after reclamation, discharges from the impoundment will not cause or contribute to a violation of applicable state or tribal water quality standards or effluent limitations, including, but not limited to, water quality standards established under the authority of section 303(c) of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1313(c), and effluent limitations established in the National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System permit for the operation under section 402 of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1342, or its state or tribal counterpart.
(3) The water level will be sufficiently stable and be capable of supporting the intended use.
(4) Final grading will provide for adequate safety and access for proposed water users.
(5) The impoundment will not result in diminution of the quality or quantity of surface water or groundwater used by surrounding landowners for agricultural, industrial, recreational, or domestic uses.
(6) The impoundment will be suitable for the approved postmining land use.
(7) Approval of the impoundment will not result in retention of spoil piles or ridges that are inconsistent with the definition of approximate original contour.
(8) Approval of the impoundment will not result in the creation of an excess spoil fill elsewhere within the permit area.
(9) The impoundment has been designed with dimensions, features, and other characteristics that will enhance fish and wildlife habitat to the extent
(c)
(2) You must use current prudent engineering practices to safely remove the water from an impoundment constructed in accordance with paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
(3) An impoundment constructed in accordance with paragraph (c)(1) of this section must be located where failure would not be expected to cause loss of life or serious property damage, unless the impoundment meets one of the following exceptions:
(i) An impoundment that meets the criteria of § 77.216(a) of this title, or that is classified as having a significant or high hazard potential under § 784.25(a) of this chapter, and is designed to control the precipitation of the probable maximum precipitation of a 6-hour event, or any greater event specified by the regulatory authority.
(ii) An impoundment not included in paragraph (c)(3)(i) of this section that is designed to control the precipitation of the 100-year, 6-hour event, or any greater event specified by the regulatory authority.
(a) Before seeking final bond release under § 800.42(d) of this chapter, you must—
(1) Remove all temporary structures and reclaim the land upon which those structures were located in accordance with the approved permit; and
(2) Ensure that all sedimentation ponds, diversions, and impoundments approved for retention after final bond release have been maintained properly and meet all applicable requirements of the approved permit and this chapter for retention as permanent structures. You must renovate the structures if necessary to meet the requirements for retention.
(b) [Reserved]
(a)
(2) Mining activities must comply with all applicable state and tribal laws and regulations concerning surface water and groundwater.
(b)
(c)
(2) When planting the streamside vegetative corridors required by paragraph (c)(1) of this section, you must—
(i) Use appropriate native species adapted to the area, unless an agency responsible for implementing section 404 of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1344, requires the use of non-native species.
(ii) Ensure that the species planted are consistent with the revegetation plan approved in the permit.
(iii) Include appropriate native hydrophytic vegetation, vegetation typical of floodplains, or hydrophilic vegetation characteristic of riparian areas and wetlands to the extent that the corridor contains suitable habitat for those species and the stream and the geomorphology of the area are capable of supporting vegetation of that nature.
(iv) Use native trees and shrubs when planting areas within the streamside corridor that were forested at the time of application or that would revert to forest under conditions of natural succession.
(3) Paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) of this section do not require planting of hydrophytic or hydrophilic species within those portions of streamside corridors where the stream, soils, or climate are incapable of providing the moisture or other growing conditions needed to support and sustain hydrophytic or hydrophilic species. In those situations, you must plant the corridor with appropriate native species that are consistent with the baseline information concerning natural streamside vegetation included in the permit application under § 783.19 of this chapter, unless otherwise directed by an agency responsible for implementing section 404 of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1344.
(4) Paragraphs (c)(1) through (3) of this section do not apply to—
(i) Prime farmland historically used for cropland; or
(ii) Situations in which establishment of a streamside vegetative corridor comprised of native species would be incompatible with an approved postmining land use that is implemented before final bond release under §§ 800.40 through 800.43 of this chapter.
(a)
(2) Mining activities must comply with all applicable state and tribal laws and regulations concerning surface water and groundwater.
(b)
(c)
(2) Upon completion of construction of a stream-channel diversion for a perennial or intermittent stream, or reconstruction of a stream channel after mining through a perennial or intermittent stream, you must obtain a certification from a qualified registered professional engineer that the stream-channel diversion or reconstructed stream channel has been constructed in accordance with the design approved in the permit and that it meets all engineering-related requirements of this section. This certification may be limited to the location, dimensions, and physical characteristics of the stream channel.
(d)
(ii) You must establish a vegetative corridor on any land that you disturb within 100 feet of a perennial or intermittent stream. The corridor must be consistent with natural vegetation patterns.
(iii) If you divert a perennial or intermittent stream, you must establish a vegetative corridor at least 100 feet wide along each bank of the stream-channel diversion, with the exception of temporary diversions that will be in place less than 3 years. The corridor must be consistent with natural vegetation patterns.
(iv) The 100-foot distance mentioned in paragraphs (d)(1)(i) through (iii) of this section must be measured horizontally on a line perpendicular to the stream, beginning at the ordinary high water mark.
(2) When planting the streamside vegetative corridors required by paragraph (d)(1) of this section, you must—
(i) Use appropriate native species adapted to the area, unless an agency responsible for implementing section 404 of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1344, requires the use of non-native species.
(ii) Ensure that the species planted are consistent with the revegetation plan approved in the permit.
(iii) Include appropriate native hydrophytic vegetation, vegetation typical of floodplains, or hydrophilic vegetation characteristic of riparian areas and wetlands to the extent that the corridor contains suitable habitat for those species and the stream and the geomorphology of the area are capable of supporting vegetation of that nature.
(iv) Use native trees and shrubs when planting areas within the streamside corridor that were forested at the time of application or that would revert to forest under conditions of natural succession.
(3) Paragraphs (d)(1) and (2) of this section do not require planting of hydrophytic or hydrophilic species within those portions of streamside corridors where the stream, soils, or climate are incapable of providing the moisture or other growing conditions needed to support and sustain hydrophytic or hydrophilic species. In those situations, you must plant the corridor with appropriate native species that are consistent with the baseline information concerning natural streamside vegetation included in the permit application under § 783.19 of this chapter, unless otherwise directed by an agency responsible for implementing section 404 of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1344.
(4) Paragraphs (d)(1) through (3) of this section do not apply to—
(i) Prime farmland historically used for cropland; or
(ii) Situations in which establishment of a streamside vegetative corridor comprised of native species would be incompatible with an approved postmining land use that is implemented before final bond release under §§ 800.40 through 800.43 of this chapter.
(e)
(f)
(g)
(h)
(ii) Paragraph (h)(1)(i) of this section does not prohibit the construction of a siltation structure in a stream channel immediately downstream of a stream segment that is mined through.
(2) If approved in the permit, the prohibition in paragraph (h)(1) of this section will not apply to excess spoil fills, coal mine waste refuse piles, or coal mine waste impounding structures in steep-slope areas when you demonstrate, and the regulatory authority finds in writing, that use of a perennial or intermittent stream segment as a waste treatment system for sediment control or construction of a sedimentation pond or other siltation structure in a perennial or an intermittent stream would have less overall adverse impact on fish, wildlife, and related environmental values than construction of diversions and sedimentation ponds or other siltation structures on slopes above the stream.
(3) When the circumstances described in paragraph (h)(2) of this section exist, the following requirements apply:
(i) You must minimize the length of stream used as a waste treatment system to the extent possible and, when practicable, maintain an undisturbed buffer along that stream segment in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section.
(ii) You must place the sedimentation pond or other siltation structure as close to the toe of the excess spoil fill, coal mine waste refuse pile, or coal mine waste impounding structure as possible.
(iii) Following the completion of construction and revegetation of the fill or coal mine waste structure, you must—
(A) Remove and properly dispose of accumulated sediment in the siltation structure and any stream segment
(B) Remove the sedimentation pond or other siltation structure; and
(C) Restore the stream segment in accordance with paragraphs (e) through (g) of this section.
(i)
You must conduct underground mining activities so as to maximize the utilization and conservation of the coal, while using the best appropriate technology currently available to maintain environmental integrity, so that reaffecting the land in the future through surface coal mining operations is minimized.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(2) Certificates of blaster certification must be carried by blasters or be on file at the permit area during blasting operations.
(3) A blaster and at least one other person shall be present at the firing of a blast.
(4) Any blaster who is responsible for conducting blasting operations at a blasting site must:
(i) Be familiar with the site-specific performance standards; and
(ii) Give direction and on-the-job training to persons who are not certified and who are assigned to the blasting crew or who assist in the use of explosives.
(d)
(i) 1,000 feet of any building used as a dwelling, public building, school, church, or community or institutional building outside the permit area; or
(ii) 500 feet of an active or abandoned underground mine.
(2) You must submit the blast design required by paragraph (d)(1) of this section either as part of the permit application or, if approved by the regulatory authority, at a later date before blasting begins. Regulatory authority approval of the blast design is not required, but, as provided in paragraph (d)(5) of this section, the regulatory authority may require changes to the design.
(3) The blast design must contain—
(i) Sketches of the drill patterns, delay periods, and decking.
(ii) The type and amount of explosives to be used.
(iii) Critical dimensions.
(iv) The location and general description of structures to be protected.
(v) A discussion of design factors to be used to protect the public and meet the applicable airblast, flyrock, and ground-vibration standards in § 817.67 of this part.
(4) A certified blaster must prepare and sign the blast design.
(5) The regulatory authority may require changes to the design submitted.
(a) At least 30 days before initiation of blasting, you must notify, in writing, all residents or owners of dwellings or other structures located within
(b)(1) A resident or owner of a dwelling or structure within
(2) You must promptly conduct a preblasting survey of the dwelling or structure and promptly prepare a written report of the survey.
(3) You must conduct an updated survey of any subsequent additions, modifications, or renovations to the dwelling or structure, if requested by the resident or owner.
(c) You must determine the condition of the dwelling or structure and document any preblasting damage and other physical factors that could reasonably be affected by the blasting. Structures such as pipelines, cables, transmission lines, and cisterns, wells, and other water systems warrant special attention; however, the assessment of these structures may be limited to surface conditions and other readily available data.
(d)(1) The person who conducted the survey must sign the written report of the survey.
(2) You must promptly provide copies of the report to the regulatory authority and to the person requesting the survey.
(3) If the person requesting the survey disagrees with the contents or recommendations of the survey, he or she may submit a detailed description of the specific areas of disagreement to both you and the regulatory authority.
(e) You must complete any surveys requested more than 10 days before the planned initiation of blasting before the initiation of blasting.wit
(a)(1) You must notify, in writing, residents within
(2) You may provide this notice weekly, but in no case less than 24 hours before blasting will occur.
(b) You must conduct all blasting between sunrise and sunset, unless the regulatory authority approves night-time blasting based upon a showing that the public will be protected from adverse noise and other impacts. The regulatory authority may specify more restrictive time periods for blasting.
(c)(1) You may conduct unscheduled blasts only where public or operator health and safety so require and for emergency blasting actions.
(2) When you conduct an unscheduled blast, you must use audible signals to notify residents within
(3) You must document the reason for the unscheduled blast in accordance with § 817.68(c)(16) of this part.
(a)
(1) You must place conspicuous signs reading “Blasting Area” along the edge of any blasting area that comes within 100 feet of any public road right-of-way and at the point where any other road provides access to the blasting area.
(2) You must place conspicuous signs reading “Warning! Explosives in Use” at all entrances to the permit area from public roads or highways. The signs must clearly list and describe the meaning of the audible blast warning and all-clear signals that are in use and explain the marking of blasting areas and charged holes awaiting firing within the permit area.
(b)
(c)
(1) No unusual hazards, such as imminent slides or undetonated charges, exist; and
(2) Access to and travel within the blasting area can be safely resumed.
(a)
(1) Injury to persons;
(2) Damage to public or private property outside the permit area;
(3) Adverse impacts on any underground mine; or
(4) Change in the course, channel, or availability of surface water or groundwater outside the permit area.
(b)
(ii) If necessary to prevent damage, the regulatory authority must specify lower maximum allowable airblast levels than those of paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section for use in the vicinity of a specific blasting operation.
(2)
(ii) The measuring systems must have an upper-end flat-frequency response of at least 200 Hz.
(c)
(1) More than one-half the distance to the nearest dwelling or other occupied structure;
(2) Beyond the area of control required under § 817.66(c) of this part; or
(3) Beyond the permit boundary.
(d)
(ii) The maximum ground vibration for protected structures listed in paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section must be established in accordance with either the maximum peak-particle-velocity limits of paragraph (d)(2) of this section, the scaled-distance equation of paragraph (d)(3) of this section, the blasting-level chart of paragraph (d)(4) of this section, or by the regulatory authority under paragraph (d)(5) of this section.
(iii) All structures in the vicinity of the blasting area not listed in paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section, such as water towers, pipelines and other utilities, tunnels, dams, impoundments, and underground mines, must be protected from damage by establishment of a maximum allowable limit on the ground vibration, submitted by the operator in the blasting plan and approved by the regulatory authority.
(2)
(ii) You must provide a seismographic record for each blast.
(3)
(ii) The regulatory authority may authorize development of a modified scaled-distance factor upon receipt of a written request by the operator, supported by seismographic records of blasting at the minesite. The modified scale-distance factor must be determined such that the particle velocity of the predicted ground vibration will not exceed the prescribed maximum allowable peak particle velocity of paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section at a 95-percent confidence level.
(4)
(ii) If the Figure 1 limits are used, you must provide a seismographic record including both particle velocity and vibration-frequency levels for each blast. The regulatory authority must approve the method for the analysis of the predominant frequency contained in the blasting records before application of this alternative blasting criterion.
(5) The regulatory authority must reduce the maximum allowable ground vibration beyond the limits otherwise provided by this section, if determined necessary to provide damage protection.
(6) The regulatory authority may require that you conduct seismic monitoring of any or all blasts or may specify the location at which the measurements are taken and the degree of detail necessary in the measurement.
(e) The maximum airblast and ground-vibration standards of paragraphs (b) and (d) of this section do not apply at the following locations:
(1) At structures owned by the permittee and not leased to another person.
(2) At structures owned by the permittee and leased to another person, if a written waiver by the lessee is submitted to the regulatory authority before blasting.
(a) You must retain a record of all blasts for at least 3 years.
(b) Upon request, you must make copies of these records available to the regulatory authority and to the public for inspection.
(c) The records must contain the following data:
(1) Name of the operator conducting the blast.
(2) Location, date, and time of the blast.
(3) Name, signature, and certification number of the blaster conducting the blast.
(4) Identification, direction, and distance, in feet, from the nearest blast hole to the nearest dwelling, public building, school, church, community or institutional building outside the permit area, except those described in § 817.67(e) of this part.
(5) Weather conditions, including those which may cause possible adverse blasting effects.
(6) Type of material blasted.
(7) Sketches of the blast pattern, including number of holes, burden, spacing, decks, and delay pattern.
(8) Diameter and depth of holes.
(9) Types of explosives used.
(10) Total weight of explosives used per hole.
(11) The maximum weight of explosives detonated in an 8-millisecond period.
(12) Initiation system.
(13) Type and length of stemming.
(14) Mats or other protections used.
(15) Seismographic and airblast records, if required, which must include—
(i) Type of instrument, sensitivity, and calibration signal or certification of annual calibration;
(ii) Exact location of instrument and the date, time, and distance from the blast;
(iii) Name of the person and firm taking the reading;
(iv) Name of the person and firm analyzing the seismographic record; and
(v) The vibration and/or airblast level recorded.
(16) Reasons and conditions for each unscheduled blast.
(a)
(1) Minimize the adverse effects of leachate and surface water runoff from the fill on groundwater and surface water, including aquatic life, within the permit and adjacent areas.
(2) Ensure mass stability and prevent mass movement during and after construction.
(3) Ensure that the final surface configuration of the fill is suitable for revegetation and the approved postmining land use or uses and is compatible with the natural drainage pattern and surroundings.
(4) Minimize disturbances to, and adverse impacts on, fish, wildlife, and related environmental values to the extent possible, using the best technology currently available.
(5) Ensure that the fill will not change the size or frequency of peak flows from precipitation events or thaws in a way that would result in an increase in flooding when compared with the impacts of premining peak flows.
(6) Ensure that the fill will not cause or contribute to a violation of applicable state or tribal groundwater standards or preclude any premining use of groundwater.
(7) Ensure that the fill will not cause or contribute to a violation of applicable state or tribal water quality standards for surface water located downstream of the toe of the fill, including, but not limited to, water quality standards established under the authority of section 303(c) of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1313(c).
(b)
(2)
(c)
(d)
(e)
(i) Meet the requirements of § 817.43 of this part; and
(ii) Safely pass the runoff from a 100-year, 6-hour precipitation event. You must use the appropriate regional Natural Resources Conservation Service synthetic storm distribution to determine the peak flow from surface runoff from this event.
(2) You must grade the top surface of a completed fill such that the final slope after settlement will be toward properly designed drainage channels. You may not direct uncontrolled surface runoff over the outslope of the fill.
(f)
(2)
(3)
(ii) You must design and construct underdrains using current, prudent engineering practices and any design criteria established by the regulatory authority.
(iii) In constructing rock underdrains, you may use only hard rock that is resistant to weathering, such as well-cemented sandstone and massive limestone, and that is not acid-forming or toxic-forming. The underdrain must be free of soil and fine-grained, clastic rocks such as siltstone, shale, mudstone, and claystone. All rock used to construct underdrains must meet the criteria in the following table:
(iv) The underdrain system must be designed and constructed to carry the maximum anticipated infiltration of water due to precipitation, snowmelt, and water from seeps and springs in the foundation of the disposal area away from the excess spoil fill.
(v) To provide a safety factor against future changes in local surface-water and groundwater hydrology, perforated pipe may be embedded within the rock underdrain to enhance the underdrain capacity to carry water in excess of the anticipated maximum infiltration away from the excess spoil fill. The pipe must be manufactured of materials that are not susceptible to corrosion and must be demonstrated to be suitable for the deep burial conditions commonly associated with excess spoil fill underdrains.
(vi) The underdrain system must be protected from material piping, clogging, and contamination by an adequate filter system designed and constructed using current, prudent engineering practices to ensure the long-term functioning of the underdrain system.
(g)
(2) You may not use any excess spoil transport and placement technique that involves end-dumping, wing-dumping, cast-blasting, gravity placement, or casting spoil downslope.
(3)
(ii) You must cover combustible materials with noncombustible materials in a manner that will prevent sustained combustion and minimize adverse effects on plant growth and the approved postmining land use.
(h)
(2) You may construct terraces on the outslope of the fill if required for stability, to control erosion, to conserve soil moisture, or to facilitate the approved postmining land use. The grade of the outslope between terrace benches may not be steeper than 2h: 1v (50 percent).
(3)(i) You must configure the top surface of the fill to create a topography that includes ridgelines and valleys with varied hillslope configurations when practicable, compatible with stability and postmining land use considerations, and generally consistent with the topography that existed before any mining.
(ii) The final surface elevation of the fill may exceed the elevation of the surrounding terrain when necessary to minimize placement of excess spoil in perennial and intermittent streams, provided the final configuration complies with the requirements of paragraphs (a)(3) and (h)(1) of this section.
(iii) The geomorphic reclamation requirements of paragraph (h)(3)(i) of this section do not apply in situations in which they would result in burial of a greater length of perennial or intermittent streams than traditional fill design and construction techniques.
(i)
(1) Are needed to retain moisture, minimize erosion, create or enhance wildlife habitat, or assist revegetation;
(2) Are not incompatible with the stability of the fill;
(3) Are consistent with the hydrologic reclamation plan approved in the permit in accordance with § 784.22 of this chapter;
(4) Will not result in elevated levels of parameters of concern in discharges from the fill; and
(5) Are approved by the regulatory authority.
(j)
(k)
(i) Foundation preparation, including the removal of all organic matter and soil materials.
(ii) Placement of underdrains and protective filter systems.
(iii) Installation of final surface drainage systems.
(2) An engineer or specialist meeting the qualifications of paragraph (k)(1) of this section also must—
(i) Conduct daily examinations during placement and compaction of fill materials or, when more than one lift is completed per day, upon completion of each 4-foot lift. As an alternative, the engineer or specialist may conduct examinations on a weekly basis if a mine representative takes photographs on a daily basis to document the lift thickness and elevation with visual reference features. The certified report required by paragraph (k)(3) of this section must include this photographic documentation.
(ii) Maintain a log recording the examinations conducted under paragraph (k)(2)(i) of this section for each 4-foot lift in each fill. The log must include a description of the specific work locations, excess spoil placement methods, compaction adequacy, lift thickness, suitability of fill material, special handling of acid-forming and toxic-forming materials, deviations from the approved permit, and remedial measures taken.
(3)(i) The qualified registered professional engineer to which paragraph (k)(1) of this section refers must provide a certified report to the regulatory authority on a quarterly basis.
(ii) In each report prepared under paragraph (k)(3)(i) of this section, the engineer must certify that the fill has been constructed and maintained as designed and in accordance with the approved plan and this chapter.
(iii) The report prepared under paragraph (k)(3)(i) of this section must identify and discuss any evidence of instability, structural weakness, or other hazardous conditions. If one of more of those conditions exists, you must submit an application for a permit revision that includes appropriate remedial design specifications.
(iv) The report prepared under paragraph (k)(3)(i) of this section must contain—
(A) A review and summary of all complete inspections conducted during the quarter under paragraph (k)(1) of this section.
(B) A review and summary of all examinations conducted during the quarter under paragraph (k)(2) of this section, including the logs maintained under paragraph (k)(2)(ii) of this section.
(C) The photographs taken under paragraph (k)(2)(i) of this section.
(iv) Each certified report prepared under paragraph (k)(3) of this section for a quarter in which construction activities include placement of underdrains and protective filter systems must include color photographs taken during and after construction, but before underdrains are covered with excess spoil. If the underdrain system is constructed in phases, each phase must be certified separately. The photographs must be taken in adequate size and number with enough terrain or other physical features of the site shown to provide a relative scale to the photographs and to specifically and clearly identify the site.
(4) You must retain a copy of each certified report prepared under paragraph (k)(3) of this section at or near the mine site.
(l)
(1) You demonstrate, and the regulatory authority finds in writing, that the disposal of coal mine waste in the excess spoil fill will not—
(i) Cause or contribute to a violation of applicable state or tribal water quality standards or effluent limitations, including, but not limited to, water quality standards established under the authority of section 303(c) of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1313(c), and effluent limitations established in any
(ii) Cause or contribute to a violation of applicable state or tribal water quality standards for groundwater; or
(iii) Result in material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area.
(2) The waste is placed in accordance with §§ 817.81 and 817.83 of this part.
(3) The waste is nontoxic-forming, nonacid-forming, and non-combustible.
(4) The waste is of the proper characteristics to be consistent with the design stability of the fill.
(m)
(a)
(1) The proposed permit area includes the portion of the preexisting bench on which the spoil will be placed;
(2) The proposed operation will comply with the applicable requirements of § 817.102 of this part; and
(3) The requirements of this section are met.
(b)
(c)(1) The fill must be designed and constructed using current, prudent engineering practices.
(2) The design must be certified by a registered professional engineer.
(3) If the disposal area contains springs, natural or manmade water courses, or wet weather seeps, the fill design must include underdrains and temporary diversions as necessary to control erosion, prevent water infiltration into the fill, and ensure stability. Underdrains must comply with the requirements of § 817.71(f)(3) of this part.
(d)(1) The spoil must be placed on the solid portion of the bench in a controlled manner and concurrently compacted as necessary to attain a long-term static safety factor of 1.3 for all portions of the fill.
(2) Any spoil deposited on any fill portion of the bench must be treated as an excess spoil fill under § 817.71 of this part.
(e) You must grade the spoil placed on the preexisting bench to—
(1) Achieve a stable slope that does not exceed the angle of repose.
(2) Eliminate the preexisting highwall to the maximum extent technically practical, using all reasonably available spoil, as that term is defined in § 701.5 of this chapter.
(3) Minimize erosion and water pollution both on and off the site.
(f) All disturbed areas, including diversion channels that are not riprapped or otherwise protected, must be revegetated upon completion of construction.
(g) You may not construct permanent impoundments on preexisting benches on which excess spoil is placed under this section.
(h) The final configuration of the fill on the preexisting bench must—
(1) Be compatible with natural drainage patterns and the surrounding area.
(2) Support the approved postmining land use.
(a)
(b)
(1) Minimize the adverse effects of leachate and surface-water runoff on groundwater and surface water, including aquatic life, within the permit and adjacent areas to the extent possible, using the best technology currently available.
(2) Ensure mass stability and prevent mass movement during and after construction.
(3) Ensure that the final disposal facility is suitable for revegetation, compatible with the natural surroundings, and consistent with the approved postmining land use.
(4) Not create a public hazard.
(5) Prevent combustion.
(6) Ensure that the disposal facility will not change the size or frequency of peak flows from precipitation events or thaws in a way that would result in an increase in flooding when compared with the impacts of premining peak flows.
(7) Ensure that the disposal facility will not cause or contribute to a violation of applicable state or tribal groundwater standards or preclude any premining use of groundwater.
(8) Ensure that the disposal facility will not cause or contribute to a violation of applicable state or tribal water quality standards for surface water located downstream of the toe of the fill, including, but not limited to, water quality standards established under the authority of section 303(c) of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1313(c).
(9) Ensure that the disposal facility will not discharge acid or toxic mine drainage.
(c)
(d)
(ii) A qualified registered professional engineer, experienced in the design and construction of similar earth and waste structures, must certify the design of the disposal facility. The engineer must specifically certify that any existing and planned underground mine workings in the vicinity of the disposal facility will not adversely impact the stability of the structure.
(iii) You must construct the disposal facility in accordance with the design and plans submitted under § 784.25 of this chapter and approved in the permit. A qualified registered professional engineer experienced in the design and construction of similar earth and waste structures must certify that the facility has been constructed in accordance with the requirements of this paragraph.
(2) You must design and construct the disposal facility to attain a minimum long-term static safety factor of 1.5. The foundation and abutments must be
(e)
(f)
(g)
(2) If adequate procedures cannot be formulated or implemented, you must notify the regulatory authority immediately. The regulatory authority then must notify the appropriate agencies that other emergency procedures are required to protect the public.
(h)
(a)
(b)
(2) You may not direct or divert uncontrolled surface runoff over the outslope of the refuse pile.
(3) You must direct runoff from areas above the refuse pile and runoff from the surface of the refuse pile into stabilized channels designed to meet the requirements of § 817.43 of this part and to safely pass the runoff from the 100-year, 6-hour precipitation event. You must use the appropriate regional Natural Resources Conservation Service synthetic storm distribution to determine the peak flow from surface runoff from this event.
(4) Runoff diverted from undisturbed areas need not be commingled with runoff from the surface of the refuse pile.
(5) Underdrains must comply with the requirements of § 817.71(f) of this part.
(c)
(d)
(2) No permanent impoundments or depressions are allowed on the completed refuse pile.
(3) Following final grading of the refuse pile, you must cover the coal mine waste with a minimum of 4 feet of the best available, nontoxic, and noncombustible material in a manner that does not impede drainage from the underdrains. The regulatory authority may allow less than 4 feet of cover material based on physical and chemical analyses showing that the revegetation requirements of §§ 817.111 and 817.116 of this part will be met.
(e)
(a) Impounding structures constructed of coal mine waste or intended to impound coal mine waste must meet the requirements of § 817.81 of this part.
(b) You may not use coal mine waste to construct impounding structures unless you demonstrate, and the regulatory authority finds in writing, that the stability of such a structure conforms to the requirements of this part and that the use of coal mine waste will not have a detrimental effect on downstream water quality or the environment as a result of acid drainage or toxic seepage through the impounding structure. You must discuss the stability of the structure and the prevention and potential impact of acid drainage or toxic seepage through the impounding structure in detail in the design plan submitted to the regulatory authority in accordance with § 784.25 of this chapter.
(c)(1) You must design, construct, and maintain each impounding structure constructed of coal mine waste or intended to impound coal mine waste in accordance with paragraphs (a) and (c) of § 817.49 of this part.
(2) You may not retain these structures permanently as part of the approved postmining land use.
(3) Each impounding structure constructed of coal mine waste or intended to impound coal mine waste that meets the criteria of § 77.216(a) of this title must have sufficient spillway capacity to safely pass, adequate storage capacity to safely contain, or a combination of storage capacity and spillway capacity to safely control, the probable maximum precipitation of a 6-hour precipitation event, or greater event as specified by the regulatory authority.
(d) You must design spillways and outlet works to provide adequate protection against erosion and corrosion. Inlets must be protected against blockage.
(e) You must direct surface runoff from areas above the disposal facility and runoff from the surface of the facility that may cause instability or erosion of the impounding structure into stabilized channels designed and constructed to meet the requirements of § 817.43 of this part and to safely pass the runoff from a 100-year, 6-hour precipitation event. You must use the appropriate regional Natural Resources Conservation Service synthetic storm distribution to determine the peak flow from surface runoff from this event.
(f) For an impounding structure constructed of or impounding coal mine waste, you must remove at least 90 percent of the water stored during the design precipitation event within the 10-day period following the design precipitation event.
(a) You must extinguish coal mine waste fires in accordance with a plan approved by the regulatory authority and the Mine Safety and Health Administration. The plan must contain, at a minimum, provisions to ensure that only those persons authorized by the
(b) You may not remove burning or burned coal mine waste from a permitted coal mine waste disposal area without a removal plan approved by the regulatory authority. Consideration must be given to potential hazards to persons working or living in the vicinity of the structure.
(a)(1) You must place and store noncoal mine wastes, including, but not limited to, grease, lubricants, paints, flammable liquids, garbage, abandoned mining machinery, lumber, and other combustible materials generated during mining activities, in a controlled manner in a designated portion of the permit area.
(2) Placement and storage of noncoal wastes must ensure that leachate and surface runoff do not degrade surface water or groundwater, that fires are prevented, and that the area remains stable and suitable for reclamation and revegetation compatible with the natural surroundings.
(b)(1) Final disposal of noncoal mine wastes must be in a designated disposal site within the permit area or in a state-approved solid waste disposal area.
(2) Disposal sites within the permit area must meet the following requirements:
(i) The site must be designed and constructed to ensure that leachate and drainage from the noncoal mine waste area does not degrade surface water or groundwater.
(ii) Wastes must be routinely compacted and covered to prevent combustion and wind-borne waste.
(iii) When the disposal of noncoal wastes is completed, the site must be covered with a minimum of 2 feet of soil, slopes must be stabilized, and the site must be revegetated in accordance with §§ 817.111 through 817.116 of this part.
(iv) The disposal site must be operated in accordance with all local, state and federal requirements.
(c) At no time may any noncoal mine waste be deposited in a coal mine waste refuse pile or impounding structure, nor may an excavation for a noncoal mine waste disposal site be located within 8 feet of any coal outcrop or coal storage area.
(a) You must protect and stabilize all exposed surface areas to effectively control erosion and air pollution attendant to erosion.
(b)(1) You must fill, regrade, or otherwise stabilize rills and gullies that form in areas that have been regraded and upon which soil or soil substitute materials have been redistributed. This requirement applies only to rills and gullies that—
(i) Disrupt the approved postmining land use or reestablishment of the vegetative cover;
(ii) Cause or contribute to a violation of applicable state or tribal water quality standards or effluent limitations, including, but not limited to, water quality standards established under the authority of section 303(c) of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1313(c), and effluent limitations established in any National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System permit issued for the operation under section 402 of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1342, or its state or tribal counterpart;
(iii) Cause or contribute to a violation of applicable state or tribal water quality standards for groundwater; or
(iv) Result in material damage to the hydrologic balance outside the permit area.
(2) You must reapply soil materials to the filled or regraded rills and gullies when necessary to reestablish a vegetative cover. You must then replant those areas.
(a)
(b)
(ii) You must promptly report to the regulatory authority the presence of any previously unreported species listed as threatened or endangered, or any previously unreported species proposed for listing as threatened or endangered, under the Endangered Species Act of 1973, 16 U.S.C. 1531
(iii) (A) Upon receipt of a notification under paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section, the regulatory authority will contact and coordinate with the appropriate state, tribal, and federal fish and wildlife agencies.
(B) The regulatory authority, in coordination with the appropriate state, tribal, and federal fish and wildlife agencies, will identify whether, and under what conditions, you may proceed. When necessary to ensure compliance with the Endangered Species Act of 1973, 16 U.S.C. 1531
(iv) You must comply with any species-specific protection measures required by the regulatory authority in coordination with the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service or the National Marine Fisheries Service, as applicable.
(2)
(ii) (A) Upon receipt of a notification under paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section, the regulatory authority will contact and coordinate with the appropriate state or tribal fish and wildlife agencies.
(B) The regulatory authority, in coordination with the appropriate state or tribal fish and wildlife agencies, will identify whether, and under what conditions, you may proceed. When necessary, the regulatory authority will issue an order under § 774.10(b) of this chapter requiring that you revise the permit.
(c)
(2) You must promptly report to the regulatory authority any golden or bald eagle nest within the permit area of which you become aware.
(3) Upon notification, the regulatory authority will contact and coordinate with the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service and, when appropriate, the state or tribal fish and wildlife agency to identify whether, and under what conditions, you may proceed.
(4) Nothing in this chapter authorizes the taking of a bald or golden eagle, its nest, or any of its eggs in violation of the Bald and Golden Eagle Protection Act, 16 U.S.C. 668-668d.
(d)
(1) Ensure that electric power transmission lines and other transmission facilities used for, or incidental to, surface mining activities on the permit area are designed and constructed to minimize electrocution hazards to raptors and other avian species with large wingspans.
(2) Locate, construct, operate, and maintain haul and access roads and sedimentation control structures in a manner that avoids or minimizes impacts on important fish and wildlife species or other species protected by state or federal law.
(3) Design fences, overland conveyors, and other potential barriers to permit passage for large mammals, except where the regulatory authority determines that such requirements are unnecessary.
(4) Fence, cover, or use other appropriate methods to exclude wildlife from ponds that contain hazardous concentrations of toxic or toxic-forming materials.
(5) Reclaim and reforest lands that were forested at the time of application and lands that would revert to forest under conditions of natural succession in a manner that enhances recovery of the native forest ecosystem as expeditiously as practicable.
(e)
(2) Nothing in paragraph (e)(1) of this section authorizes destruction or degradation of wetlands in violation of section 404 of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1344.
(f)
(g)
(1) Their proven nutritional value for fish or wildlife.
(2) Their value as cover for fish or wildlife.
(3) Their ability to support and enhance fish or wildlife habitat after the release of performance bonds.
(4) Their ability to sustain natural succession by allowing the establishment and spread of plant species across ecological gradients. You may not use invasive plant species that are known to inhibit natural succession.
(h)
(i)
(j)
(1) Greenbelts comprised of non-invasive native plants that provide food or cover for wildlife, unless greenbelts would be inconsistent with the approved postmining land use plan for that site.
(2)(i) A vegetated buffer at least 100 feet wide along each bank of all perennial and intermittent streams within the permit area. The width of the buffer must be measured horizontally on a line perpendicular to the stream, beginning at the ordinary high water mark. The buffer must be planted with species native to the area, including species adapted to and suitable for planting in any floodplains or other riparian habitat located within the buffer. The species planted must consist of native tree and understory species if the land was forested at the time of application or if it would revert to forest under conditions of natural succession.
(ii) Paragraph (i)(2)(i) of this section does not apply to situations in which a vegetated buffer comprised of native species would be incompatible with an approved postmining land use that is implemented before final bond release under §§ 800.40 through 800.43 of this chapter.
(k)
(a) You must notify the regulatory authority by the fastest available means whenever a landslide occurs that has the potential to adversely affect public property, health, safety, or the environment.
(b) You must comply with any remedial measures that the regulatory authority requires in response to the notification provided in paragraph (a) of this section.
(a) You must reclaim all areas disturbed by surface impacts incident to an underground coal mine as contemporaneously as practicable with the mining operations, except when the mining operations are conducted in accordance with a variance for concurrent surface and underground mining activities under § 785.18 of this chapter. Reclamation activities include, but are not limited to, backfilling, grading, soil replacement, revegetation, and stream restoration.
(b) The regulatory authority may establish schedules that define contemporaneous reclamation.
(a) You, the permittee or operator, must backfill all surface excavations and grade all disturbed areas in compliance with the plan approved in the permit in accordance with § 784.12(d) of this chapter to—
(1) Restore the approximate original contour as the final surface configuration, except in the following situations:
(i) Sites for which the regulatory authority has approved a variance under § 785.16 of this chapter.
(ii) Remining operations on previously mined areas, but only to the extent specified in § 817.106(b) of this part.
(iii) Excess spoil fills constructed in accordance with § 817.71 or § 817.74 of this part.
(iv) Refuse piles constructed in accordance with § 817.83 of this part.
(v) Permanent impoundments that meet the requirements of paragraph (a)(3)(ii) of this section and § 784.35(b)(4) of this chapter.
(vi) The placement, in accordance with § 784.35(b)(3) of this chapter, of what would otherwise be excess spoil on the mined-out area to heights in excess of the premining elevation when necessary to avoid or minimize construction of excess spoil fills on undisturbed land.
(vii) Regrading of settled and revegetated spoil storage sites at the conclusion of underground mining activities, provided the following conditions are met:
(A) The settled and revegetated storage sites are composed of spoil or non-acid-forming or non-toxic-forming underground development waste.
(B) The spoil or underground development waste is not located so as to be detrimental to the environment, the health and safety of the public, or the approved postmining land use.
(C) You demonstrate, through standard geotechnical analysis, that the spoil or underground development waste has a 1.3 static safety factor for material placed on a solid bench and a 1.5 static safety factor for material not placed on a solid bench.
(D) The surface of the spoil or underground development waste is revegetated in accordance with §§ 817.111 and 817.116 of this part.
(E) Surface runoff is controlled in accordance with § 784.29 of this chapter and §§ 817.43 and 817.45 of this part.
(F) The regulatory authority determines that disturbance of the existing spoil or underground development waste would increase environmental harm or adversely affect the health or safety of the public.
(G) The spoil is not needed to eliminate the highwall or to meet other regulatory program requirements.
(2) Minimize the creation of uniform slopes and cut-and-fill terraces. The regulatory authority may approve cut-and-fill terraces only if—
(i) They are compatible with the approved postmining land use and are needed to conserve soil moisture, ensure stability, or control erosion on final-graded slopes; or
(ii) Specialized grading, foundation conditions, or roads are required for the approved postmining land use, in which case the final grading may include a terrace of adequate width to ensure the safety, stability, and erosion control necessary to implement the postmining land use.
(3) Eliminate all highwalls, spoil piles, impoundments, and depressions, except in the following situations:
(i) You may construct or retain small depressions if—
(A) They are needed to retain moisture, minimize erosion, create or enhance wildlife habitat, or assist revegetation;
(B) They are consistent with the hydrologic reclamation plan approved in the permit in accordance with § 784.22 of this chapter; and
(C) You demonstrate that they will not result in elevated levels of parameters of concern in discharges from the backfilled and graded area.
(ii) The regulatory authority may approve the retention of permanent impoundments if—
(A) They meet the requirements of §§ 817.49 and 817.55 of this part;
(B) They are suitable for the approved postmining land use; and
(C) You demonstrate compliance with the future maintenance provisions of § 800.42(c)(5) of this chapter.
(D) You have obtained all necessary approvals and authorizations under section 404 of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1344, when the impoundment is located in waters subject to the jurisdiction of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1251
(iii) You may retain highwalls on previously mined areas to the extent provided in § 817.106(b) of this part.
(iv) You may retain modified highwall segments to the extent necessary to replace similar natural landforms removed by the mining operation. The regulatory program must establish the conditions under which these highwall segments may be retained and the modifications that must be made to the highwall to ensure that—
(A) The retained segment resembles similar landforms that existed before any mining and restores the ecological niches that those landforms provided. Nothing in this paragraph authorizes the retention of modified highwall segments in excess of the number, length, and height needed to replace similar landforms that existed before any mining.
(B) The retained segment is stable. Features that result in the creation of talus slopes for wildlife habitat are acceptable if they meet the requirements of paragraph (a)(3)(iv)(A) of this section.
(C) The retained segment does not create an increased safety hazard compared to the features that existed before any mining.
(D) The exposure of water-bearing strata, if any, in the retained segment does not adversely impact the hydrologic balance.
(v) You may retain settled and revegetated spoil storage sites under the conditions specified in paragraph (a)(1)(vii) of this section.
(4) Achieve a postmining slope that does not exceed either the angle of repose or such lesser slope as is necessary to achieve a minimum long-term static safety factor of 1.3 and to prevent slides.
(5) Minimize erosion and water pollution, both on and off the site.
(6) Support the approved postmining land use.
(b) You must return all spoil to the surface excavations from which the spoil was removed. This requirement does not apply to—
(1) Excess spoil disposed of in accordance with § 817.71 or § 817.74 of this part.
(2) Spoil placed outside surface excavations in non-steep slope areas to restore the approximate original contour by blending the spoil into the surrounding terrain, provided that you comply with the following requirements:
(i) You must remove all vegetation and other organic matter from the area upon which you intend to place spoil for blending purposes. You may not burn these materials; you must store, redistribute, use, or bury them in the manner specified in § 817.22(f) of this part.
(ii) You must remove, segregate, store, and redistribute topsoil, in accordance with § 817.22 of this part, from the area upon which you intend to place spoil for blending purposes.
(3) Settled and revegetated spoil storage sites under the conditions
(c) You must compact spoil and waste materials when necessary to ensure stability or to prevent the formation of acid or toxic mine drainage, but, to the extent possible, you must avoid compacting spoil, soil, and other materials placed in what will be the root zone of the species planted under the revegetation plan approved in the permit in accordance with § 784.12(g) of this chapter.
(d)(1) You must cover all exposed coal seams with material that is noncombustible, nonacid-forming, and nontoxic-forming.
(2) You must handle and dispose of all other combustible materials exposed, used, or produced during mining in accordance with § 817.89 of this part in a manner that will prevent sustained combustion, as approved in the permit in accordance with § 784.12(j) of this chapter.
(3) You must handle all other acid-forming and toxic-forming materials—
(i) In compliance with the plan approved in the permit in accordance with § 784.12(n) of this chapter;
(ii) In compliance with § 817.38 of this part;
(iii) In compliance with the hydrologic reclamation plan approved in the permit in accordance with § 784.22(a) of this chapter; and
(iv) In a manner that will minimize adverse effects on plant growth and the approved postmining land use.
(e) You must dispose of any coal mine waste placed in the surface excavation in accordance with §§ 817.81 and 817.83 of this part, except that a long-term static safety factor of 1.3 will apply instead of the 1.5 factor specified in § 817.81(d)(2) of this part.
(f) You must prepare final-graded surfaces in a manner that minimizes erosion and provides a surface for replacement of soil materials that will minimize slippage.
(a) Remining operations on previously mined areas that contain a preexisting highwall must comply with the requirements of §§ 817.102 through 817.107 of this part, except as provided in this section.
(b) The highwall elimination requirements of § 817.102(a) of this part do not apply to remining operations for which you demonstrate in writing, to the regulatory authority's satisfaction, that the volume of all reasonably available spoil is insufficient to completely backfill the reaffected or enlarged highwall. Instead, for those operations, you must eliminate the highwall to the maximum extent technically practical in accordance with the following criteria:
(1) You must use all spoil generated by the remining operation and any other reasonably available spoil to backfill the area. You must include reasonably available spoil in the immediate vicinity of the remining operation within the permit area.
(2) You must grade the backfilled area to a slope that is compatible with the approved postmining land use and that provides adequate drainage and long-term stability.
(3) Any highwall remnant must be stable and not pose a hazard to the public health and safety or to the environment. You must demonstrate, to the satisfaction of the regulatory authority, that the highwall remnant is stable.
(4) You must not disturb spoil placed on the outslope during previous mining operations if disturbance would cause instability of the remaining spoil or otherwise increase the hazard to the public health and safety or to the environment.
(a) Underground mining activities on steep slopes must comply with this section and the requirements of §§ 817.102 through 817.106 of this part.
(b) You may not place the following materials on the downslope:
(1) Spoil.
(2) Waste materials of any type.
(3) Debris, including debris from clearing and grubbing, except for woody materials used to enhance fish and wildlife habitat.
(4) Abandoned or disabled equipment.
(c) You may not disturb land above the highwall unless the regulatory authority finds that disturbance will facilitate compliance with the environmental protection standards of this subchapter and the disturbance is limited to that necessary to facilitate compliance.
(d) You must handle woody materials in accordance with § 817.22(f) of this part.
(a) You, the permittee, must establish a diverse, effective, permanent vegetative cover on regraded areas and on all other disturbed areas except—
(1) Water areas approved as a postmining land use or in support of the postmining land use.
(2) The surfaces of roads approved for retention to support the postmining land use.
(3) Rock piles, water areas, and other non-vegetative features created to restore or enhance wildlife habitat under the fish and wildlife protection and enhancement plan approved in the permit in accordance with § 784.16 of this chapter.
(4) Any other impervious surface, such as a building or a parking lot, approved as part of or in support of the postmining land use. This provision applies only to structures and facilities constructed before expiration of the revegetation responsibility period.
(b) The reestablished vegetative cover must—
(1) Comply with the revegetation plan approved in the permit in accordance with § 784.12(g) of this chapter.
(2) Be consistent with the approved postmining land use and, except as provided in the revegetation plan approved in the permit in accordance with § 784.12(g) of this chapter, the native plant communities described in § 783.19 of this chapter.
(3) Be at least equal in extent of cover to the natural vegetation of the area.
(4) Be capable of stabilizing the soil surface and, in the long term, preventing erosion in excess of what would have occurred naturally had the site not been disturbed.
(5) Not inhibit the establishment of trees and shrubs when the revegetation plan approved in the permit requires the use of woody plants.
(c) Volunteer plants of species that are desirable components of the plant communities described in the permit application under § 783.19 of this chapter and that are not inconsistent with the postmining land use may be considered in determining whether the requirements of §§ 817.111 and 817.116 have been met.
(d) You must stabilize all areas upon which you have redistributed soil or soil substitute materials. You must use one or a combination of the following methods, unless the regulatory authority determines that neither method is necessary to stabilize the surface and control erosion—
(1) Establishing a temporary vegetative cover consisting of noncompetitive and non-invasive species, either native or domesticated or a combination thereof.
(2) Applying suitable mulch free of weed and noxious plant seeds.
(e) You must plant all disturbed areas with the species needed to establish a
(a)
(2) The initial planting of small areas that are regraded and planted as a result of the removal of sediment control structures and associated structures and facilities, including ancillary roads used to access those structures, need not be considered an augmented seeding necessitating an extended or separate revegetation responsibility period. This paragraph also applies to areas upon which accumulated sediment and materials resulting from removal of sedimentation pond embankments are spread.
(b)
(1) Five full years, except as provided in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
(i) The vegetation parameters for grazing land, pasture land, or cropland must equal or exceed the approved success standard during the growing season of any 2 years of the responsibility period, except the first year.
(ii) On all other areas, the parameters must equal or exceed the applicable success standard during the growing season of the last year of the responsibility period.
(2) Two full years for lands eligible for remining included in a permit approved under § 785.25 of this chapter. The lands must equal or exceed the applicable ground cover standard during the growing season of the last year of the responsibility period.
(c)
(1) Ten full years, except as provided in paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
(i) The vegetation parameters for grazing land, pasture land, or cropland must equal or exceed the approved success standard during the growing season of any two years after year six of the responsibility period.
(ii) On all other areas, the parameters must equal or exceed the applicable success standard during the growing season of the last year of the responsibility period.
(2) Five full years for lands eligible for remining included in a permit approved under § 785.25 of this chapter. The lands must equal or exceed the applicable ground cover standard during the growing seasons of the last two consecutive years of the responsibility period.
(d)
(2) Approved practices must be normal husbandry practices within the region for unmined lands having land uses similar to the approved postmining land use of the disturbed area, including such practices as disease, pest, and vermin control; and any pruning, reseeding, and transplanting specifically necessitated by such actions.
(a) The regulatory authority must select standards for revegetation success and statistically valid sampling techniques for measuring revegetation success. The standards and techniques must be made available to the public in written form.
(b) The standards for success applied to a specific permit must reflect the revegetation plan requirements of § 784.12(g) of this chapter. They must be based upon the following data—
(1) The plant community and vegetation information required under § 783.19 of this chapter.
(2) The soil type and productivity information required under § 783.21 of this chapter.
(3) The land use capability and productivity information required under § 783.22 of this chapter.
(4) The postmining land use approved under § 784.24 of this chapter, but only to the extent that the approved postmining land use will be implemented before final bond release under §§ 800.40 through 800.43 of this chapter. Otherwise, the site must be revegetated in a manner that will restore native plant communities and the revegetation success standards for the site must reflect that requirement.
(c) Except for the areas identified in § 817.111(a) of this part, standards for success must include—
(1) Species diversity.
(2) Areal distribution of species.
(3) Ground cover, except for land actually used for cropland after the completion of regrading and redistribution of soil materials.
(4) Production, for land used for cropland, pasture, or grazing land either before permit issuance or after the completion of regrading and redistribution of soil materials.
(5) Stocking, for areas revegetated with woody plants.
(d) The ground cover, production, or stocking of the revegetated area will be considered equal to the approved success standard for those parameters when the measured values are not less than 90 percent of the success standard, using a 90-percent statistical confidence interval (
(e) For all areas revegetated with woody plants, regardless of the postmining land use), the regulatory authority must specify minimum stocking and planting arrangements on the basis of local and regional conditions and after coordination with and approval by the state agencies responsible for the administration of forestry and wildlife programs. Coordination and approval may occur on either a program-wide basis or a permit-specific basis.
(f)(1) Only those species of trees and shrubs approved in the permit as part of the revegetation plan under § 784.12(g) of this chapter or volunteer trees and shrubs of species that meet the requirements of § 817.111(c) of this part may be counted in determining whether stocking standards have been met.
(2)(i) At the time of final bond release under §§ 800.40 through 800.43 of this chapter, at least 80 percent of the trees and shrubs used to determine success must have been in place for 60 percent of the applicable minimum period of
(ii) Trees and shrubs counted in determining revegetation success must be healthy and have been in place for not less than two growing seasons. Any replanting must be done by means of transplants to allow for proper accounting of plant stocking.
(iii)(A) For purposes of paragraph (f)(2)(ii) of this section, volunteer trees and shrubs of species that meet the requirements of § 817.111(c) of this part may be deemed equivalent to planted specimens two years of age or older.
(B) Suckers on shrubby vegetation can be counted as volunteer plants when it is evident the shrub community is vigorous and expanding.
(iv) The requirements of paragraphs (f)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section will be deemed met when records of woody vegetation planted show that—
(A) No woody plants were planted during the last two growing seasons of the responsibility period; and,
(B) If any replanting of woody plants took place earlier during the responsibility period, the total number planted during the last 60 percent of that period is less than 20 percent of the total number of woody plants required to meet the stocking standard.
(3) Vegetative ground cover on areas planted with trees or shrubs must be of a nature that allows for natural establishment and succession of native plants, including trees and shrubs.
(g)
(h)
(i)
(a)
(i) Adopt measures consistent with known technology that prevent subsidence from causing material damage to the extent technologically and economically feasible, maximize mine stability, and maintain the value and reasonably foreseeable use of surface lands; or
(ii) Adopt mining technology that provides for planned subsidence in a predictable and controlled manner.
(2) If you employ mining technology that provides for planned subsidence in a predictable and controlled manner under paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section, you must take necessary and prudent measures, consistent with the mining method employed, to minimize material damage to the extent technologically and economically feasible to non-commercial buildings and occupied residential dwellings and structures related thereto unless—
(i) You have obtained the written consent of the owners of those structures; or
(ii) The costs of those measures would exceed the anticipated costs of repair. This exception does not apply if the anticipated damage would constitute a threat to health or safety.
(3) Nothing in this part prohibits the standard method of room-and-pillar mining.
(b) You must comply with all provisions of the subsidence control plan prepared pursuant to § 784.30 of this chapter and approved in the permit.
(c)
(2) When correction of subsidence-related material damage to wetlands or a perennial or intermittent stream is technologically and economically infeasible, you must implement fish and wildlife enhancement measures, as approved by the regulatory authority in a permit revision, to offset the material damage.
(d)
(2) If you select the repair option, you must fully rehabilitate, restore, or replace the damaged structure.
(3) If you select the compensation option, you must compensate the owner of the damaged structure for the full amount of the decrease in value resulting from the subsidence-related damage. You may provide compensation by the purchase, before mining, of a non-cancellable, premium-prepaid insurance policy.
(4) The requirements of paragraph (d) of this section apply only to subsidence-related damage caused by underground mining activities conducted after October 24, 1992.
(e)
(f)
(g)
(2)(i) For structures protected under paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section, the amount of additional bond required
(A) Estimated cost of the repairs if the repair option is selected.
(B) Decrease in value if the compensation option is selected.
(ii) For water supplies protected under § 817.40 of this part, the amount of additional bond required under paragraph (g)(1) of this section must equal the estimated cost to replace the protected water supply, unless the conditions described in § 817.40(a)(4) of this part apply.
(iii) For surface lands and waters to which paragraph (c) of this section applies, the amount of additional bond required under paragraph (g)(1) of this section must equal the estimated cost of restoring the land and waters to a condition capable of maintaining the value and reasonably foreseeable uses that they were capable of supporting before the material damage from subsidence occurred.
(3)(i) The requirements of paragraph (g)(1) of this section do not apply if repair, compensation, or replacement is completed within 90 days of the occurrence of damage. The regulatory authority may extend the 90-day time frame, provided that the total time allowed does not exceed one year, if you demonstrate, and the regulatory authority finds in writing, that repair of subsidence-related material damage to lands, waters, or protected structures or replacement of an adversely impacted protected water supply within 90 days would be unreasonable because—
(A) Subsidence is not complete;
(B) All probable subsidence-related material damage to lands, waters, or protected structures has not yet occurred; or
(C) All reasonably anticipated changes that may affect an adversely impacted protected water supply have not yet occurred.
(ii)(A) If you have not completed correction or repair of subsidence-related material damage to surface lands or waters or replaced adversely impacted protected water supplies within 2 years following the occurrence of that damage, the regulatory authority must initiate bond forfeiture proceedings under § 800.50 of this chapter and use the funds collected to repair the surface lands and waters or replace the protected water supplies.
(B) Paragraph (g)(3)(ii)(A) of this section does not apply if—
(
(
(h)
(i) Public buildings and facilities.
(ii) Churches, schools, and hospitals.
(iii) Impoundments with a storage capacity of 20 acre-feet or more or bodies of water with a volume of 20 acre-feet or more.
(2) The prohibitions of paragraph (h)(1) of this section do not apply if the subsidence control plan demonstrates that subsidence will not cause material damage to, or reduce the reasonably foreseeable use of, the features or facilities listed in paragraphs (h)(1)(i) through (iii) of this section.
(3) The regulatory authority may limit the percentage of coal extracted under or adjacent to the features and facilities listed in paragraphs (h)(1)(i) through (iii) of this section if it determines that the limitation is necessary to minimize the potential for material damage to those features or facilities or to any aquifer or body of water that serves as a significant water source for any public water supply system.
(i) If subsidence causes material damage to any of the features or facilities listed in paragraphs (h)(1)(i) through (iii) of this section, the regulatory authority may suspend mining under or adjacent to those features or facilities until the subsidence control plan is modified to ensure prevention of further material damage to those features or facilities.
(j) The regulatory authority must suspend underground mining activities under urbanized areas, cities, towns, and communities, and adjacent to industrial or commercial buildings, major impoundments, or perennial streams, if it finds that the mining activities pose an imminent danger to inhabitants of the urbanized areas, cities, towns, or communities.
(k) You must submit a detailed plan of the underground workings of your mine in accordance with a schedule approved by the regulatory authority. The detailed plan must include maps and descriptions, as appropriate, of significant features of the underground mine, including the size, configuration, and approximate location of pillars and entries, extraction ratios, measures taken to prevent or minimize subsidence and related damage, areas of full extraction, and other information required by the regulatory authority. The regulatory authority may hold the information submitted with the detailed plan as confidential, in accordance with § 773.6(d) of this chapter, upon your request.
(a) At least 6 months prior to mining, or within that period if approved by the regulatory authority, you, the underground mine operator, must mail a notification to all owners and occupants of surface property and structures above the planned underground workings.
(b) The notification must include, at a minimum—
(1) Identification of specific areas in which mining will take place;
(2) Dates that specific areas will be undermined; and
(3) The location or locations where the subsidence control plan may be examined.
(a)(1) Each person who temporarily ceases to conduct underground mining activities at a particular site must effectively support and maintain all surface access openings to underground operations and secure surface facilities in areas in which there are no current operations, but where operations are to be resumed under an approved permit.
(2) Temporary cessation does not relieve a person of his or her obligation to comply with any provisions of the approved permit.
(b)(1) You must submit a notice of intent to temporarily cease operations to the regulatory authority before ceasing mining and reclamation operations for 30 or more days, or as soon as you know that a temporary cessation will extend beyond 30 days.
(2) The notice of temporary cessation must include a statement of the—
(i) Exact number of surface acres disturbed within the permit area prior to temporary cessation;
(ii) Extent and kind of reclamation accomplished before temporary cessation; and
(iii) Backfilling, regrading, revegetation, environmental monitoring, underground opening closures, and water treatment activities that will continue during temporary cessation.
(a) Persons who permanently cease conducting underground mining activities at a particular site must close, backfill, or otherwise permanently reclaim all disturbed areas in accordance with this chapter and the
(b) All underground openings, surface equipment, surface structures, or other surface facilities must be removed and the affected land reclaimed, unless the regulatory authority approves retention of those features because they are suitable for the postmining land use or environmental monitoring.
You, the permittee, must restore all disturbed areas in a timely manner to conditions that are capable of supporting—
(a) The uses they were capable of supporting before any mining; as described under § 783.22 of this chapter; or
(b) Higher or better uses approved under § 784.24(b) of this chapter.
(a)
(2) A primary road is any road that is—
(i) Used for transporting coal or spoil;
(ii) Frequently used for access or other purposes for a period in excess of 6 months; or
(iii) To be retained for an approved postmining land use.
(3) An ancillary road is any road not classified as a primary road.
(b)
(1) Control or prevent erosion, siltation, and air pollution attendant to erosion, including road dust and dust occurring on other exposed surfaces, by measures such as vegetating, watering, using chemical or other dust suppressants, or otherwise stabilizing all exposed surfaces in accordance with current, prudent engineering practices.
(2) Control or prevent damage to fish, wildlife, or their habitat and related environmental values.
(3) Control or prevent additional contributions of suspended solids to streamflow or runoff outside the permit area.
(4) Neither cause nor contribute, directly or indirectly, to a violation of applicable state or tribal water quality standards for surface water and groundwater, including, but not limited to, surface water quality standards established under the authority of section 303(c) of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1313(c).
(5) Refrain from seriously altering the normal flow of water in streambeds or drainage channels.
(6) Prevent or control damage to public or private property, including the prevention or mitigation of adverse effects on lands within the boundaries of units of the National Park System, the National Wildlife Refuge System, the National System of Trails, the National Wilderness Preservation System, the Wild and Scenic Rivers System, including designated study rivers, and National Recreation Areas designated by Act of Congress.
(7) Use nonacid- and nontoxic-forming substances in road surfacing.
(c)
(d)
(2) Roads must be located to minimize downstream sedimentation and flooding.
(e)
(2) A road damaged by a catastrophic event, such as a flood or earthquake, must be repaired as soon as is practicable after the damage has occurred.
(f)
(1) Closing the road to traffic.
(2) Removing all bridges and culverts unless approved as part of the postmining land use.
(3) Removing or otherwise disposing of road-surfacing materials that are incompatible with the postmining land use and revegetation requirements.
(4) Reshaping the slopes of road cuts and fills as necessary to be compatible with the postmining land use and to complement the natural drainage pattern of the surrounding terrain.
(5) Protecting the natural drainage patterns by installing dikes or cross-drains as necessary to control surface runoff and erosion.
(6) Scarifying or ripping the roadbed, replacing topsoil or substitute material in accordance with § 817.22 of this part, and revegetating disturbed surfaces in accordance with §§ 817.111, 817.115, and 817.116 of this chapter.
(a) Primary roads must meet the requirements of § 817.150 of this part and the additional requirements of this section.
(b)
(c)
(d)
(2) Fords of perennial or intermittent streams are prohibited unless they are specifically approved by the regulatory authority as temporary routes during periods of road construction.
(e)
(1) Each primary road must be constructed (or reconstructed) and maintained to have adequate drainage control, using structures such as, but not limited to bridges, ditches, cross drains, and ditch relief drains. The drainage control system must be designed to safely pass the peak runoff from the 10-year, 6-hour precipitation event, or any greater event specified by the regulatory authority.
(2) Drainage pipes and culverts must be installed as designed, and maintained in a free and operating condition and to prevent or control erosion at inlets and outlets.
(3) Drainage ditches must be constructed and maintained to prevent
(4) Culverts must be installed and maintained to sustain the vertical soil pressure, the passive resistance of the foundation, and the weight of vehicles using the road.
(5) Natural stream channels must not be altered or relocated without the prior approval of the regulatory authority in accordance with § 784.28 of this chapter and § 817.57 of this part.
(6) Except as provided in paragraph (d)(2) of this section, structures for perennial or intermittent stream channel crossings must be made using bridges, culverts, low-water crossings, or other structures designed, constructed, and maintained using current prudent engineering practices. The regulatory authority must ensure that low-water crossings are designed, constructed, and maintained to prevent erosion of the structure or streambed and additional contributions of suspended solids to streamflow.
(f)
You must conduct all underground coal mining operations in a manner that minimizes damage, destruction, or disruption of services provided by oil, gas, and water wells; oil, gas, and coal-slurry pipelines; railroads; electric and telephone lines; and water and sewage lines that pass over, under, or through the permit area, unless otherwise approved by the owner of those facilities and the regulatory authority.
(a) You must operate each support facility in accordance with the permit issued for the mine or coal preparation plant to which the facility is incident or from which its operation results.
(b) In addition to the other provisions of this part, you must locate, maintain, and use support facilities in a manner that—
(1) Prevents or controls erosion and siltation, water pollution, and damage to public or private property; and
(2) To the extent possible using the best technology currently available—
(i) Minimizes damage to fish, wildlife, and related environmental values; and
(ii) Minimizes additional contributions of suspended solids to streamflow or runoff outside the permit area. Any such contributions may not be in excess of limitations of state or federal law.
30 U.S.C. 1201
(a)
(b)
(2)(i) You must retain an outcrop barrier, consisting of the toe of the lowest coal seam and its associated overburden, of sufficient width to prevent slides and erosion. You must construct drains through the barrier to the extent necessary to prevent saturation of the backfill.
(ii) The outcrop barrier requirement in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section does not apply if the proposed mine site was mined prior to May 3, 1978, and the toe of the lowest coal seam has already been removed.
(iii) You may remove a coal barrier adjacent to a head-of-hollow fill after the elevation of the fill attains the elevation of the coal barrier if the head-of-hollow fill provides the stability otherwise ensured by the retention of a coal barrier.
(iv) The regulatory authority may allow removal of the outcrop barrier required by paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section if the regulatory program establishes standards for and requires construction of a barrier comprised of alternative materials that will provide equivalent stability.
(3) The final graded slopes must be less than 1v:5h, so as to create a level plateau or gently rolling configuration. The outslopes of the plateau may not exceed 1v:2h except where engineering data substantiate, and the regulatory authority finds in writing and includes in the permit under § 785.14 of this chapter that an alternative configuration will achieve a minimum static safety factor of 1.5.
(4) You must grade the plateau or gently rolling contour to drain inward from the outslope, except at specified points where it drains over the outslope in stable and protected channels.
(5) You must place sufficient spoil on the mountaintop bench to achieve the approved postmining land use. You must place all spoil material not retained on the mountaintop bench in accordance with the excess spoil disposal requirements of § 816.71 or § 816.74 of this chapter.
(6) You must prevent damage to natural watercourses in accordance with the finding made by the regulatory authority under § 785.14 of this chapter.
30 U.S.C. 1201
Except as provided in § 827.13 of this part, construction, operation, maintenance, modification, reclamation, and removal activities at coal preparation plants must comply with the following provisions of part 816 of this chapter: §§ 816.11, 816.22, 816.34 through 816.57, 816.71, 816.74, 816.79, 816.81 through 816.97, 816.100, 816.102, 816.104, 816.106, 816.111 through 816.116, 816.131 through 816.133, 816.150, 816.151, and 816.181.
Federal Highway Administration (FHWA), Federal Transit Administration (FTA); U.S. Department of Transportation (DOT).
Final rule.
This final rule revises the transportation planning regulations to promote more effective regional planning by States and metropolitan planning organizations (MPO). The goal of the revisions is to better align the planning regulations with statutory provisions concerning the establishment of metropolitan planning area (MPA) boundaries and the designation of MPOs.
This final rule is effective January 19, 2017.
For FHWA: Mr. Harlan W. Miller, Planning Oversight and Stewardship Team (HEPP-10), (202) 366-0847; or Ms. Janet Myers, Office of the Chief Counsel (HCC-30), (202) 366-2019. For FTA: Ms. Sherry Riklin, Office of Planning and Environment, (202) 366-5407; Mr. Dwayne Weeks, Office of Planning and Environment, (202) 493-0316; or Mr. Christopher Hall, Office of Chief Counsel, (202) 366-5218. Both agencies are located at 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Washington, DC 20590. Office hours are from 8 a.m. to 4:30 p.m., ET for FHWA, and 9 a.m. to 5:30 p.m., ET for FTA, Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
This rule clarifies that an MPA must include an entire urbanized area (UZA) and the contiguous area expected to become urbanized within a 20-year forecast period for the metropolitan transportation plan. The MPOs will have several options to achieve compliance. The MPOs may need to adjust their boundaries, consider mergers, or, if there are multiple MPOs designated within a single MPA, coordinate with the other MPOs to create unified planning products for the MPA. Specifically, the rule requires MPOs within the same MPA to develop a single metropolitan transportation plan (MTP), a single transportation improvement program (TIP), and a jointly established set of performance targets for the MPA (referred to herein as unified planning products). The rule also clarifies operating procedures, and it adopts certain coordination and decisionmaking requirements where more than one MPO serves an MPA. Requiring unified planning products for an MPA with multiple MPOs will result in planning products that reflect the regional needs of the entire UZA.
The final rule includes an exception that, if approved by the Secretary, allows multiple MPOs in an MPA to continue to generate separate planning products if the affected Governor(s) and all MPOs in the MPA submit a joint written request and justification to FHWA and FTA that (1) explains why it is not feasible for the MPOs to produce unified planning products for the MPA, and (2) demonstrates how each MPO is already achieving the goals of the rule through an existing coordination mechanism with all other MPOs in the MPA that achieves consistency of planning documents.
The final rule phases in implementation of these coordination requirements and the requirements for MPA boundary and MPO jurisdiction agreements, with full compliance required not later than 2 years after the date the Census Bureau releases its notice of Qualifying Urban Areas following the 2020 census.
The purpose of this rulemaking is to improve the transportation planning process by strengthening the coordination of MPOs and States and promoting the use of regional approaches to planning and decisionmaking. To achieve this purpose, the rulemaking incorporates the 23 U.S.C. 134 requirements that the boundaries of MPAs at a minimum include an urbanized area in its entirety and include the contiguous area expected to become urbanized within a 20-year forecast period for the metropolitan transportation plan. The rule emphasizes the importance of undertaking the planning process from a regional perspective. The rule includes new coordination and decisionmaking requirements for MPOs that share an MPA, to better ensure that transportation investments reflect the needs and priorities of an entire region. Recognizing the critical role MPOs play in providing for the well-being of a region, this rule will strengthen the voice of MPOs in the transportation planning process in a State by promoting unified decisionmaking within an MPA and better-coordinated regional decisionmaking so that the affected MPOs speak with “one voice” about the area's transportation needs and priorities.
This final rule retains many of the major provisions of the NPRM. The rule revises the regulatory definition of “metropolitan planning area” to better align with the statutory requirements in 23 U.S.C. 134, specifically to require that the MPA, at a minimum, must include the entire UZA and the contiguous area expected to become urbanized within a 20-year forecast period for the metropolitan transportation plan. Under this final rule, if compliance with the MPA boundary requirements would result in more than one MPO in the MPA, the Governor(s) and affected MPOs may decide it is appropriate for multiple MPOs to serve the MPA because of the size and complexity of the MPA. In such cases, the MPOs will need to jointly develop unified planning products (a single MTP and TIP, and jointly established performance targets). If the Governor(s) and MPOs do not decide to have multiple MPOs serve the MPA, then the Governor(s) and the MPOs will consolidate or establish or adjust conforming MPA boundaries for each MPO by agreement. In response to comments received on the NPRM, FHWA and FTA are making the following significant changes in the final rule:
1. Adding an exception to the requirements for unified planning products. Section 450.312(i) allows multiple MPOs in an MPA to continue to generate separate planning products if the exception is approved by the Secretary. The exception is discussed in detail under
2. Changing the time period for adjustment of MPA boundaries following a decennial census, as required under § 450.312(j) (as redesignated in this rule) from 180 days to 2 years.
3. Extending the implementation period for MPA boundary and MPO jurisdiction agreement provisions; documentation of the determination of the Governor and MPO(s) that the size
The FHWA and FTA believe that the benefits of the rule justify the costs. The total costs for merging 142 MPOs,
The FHWA and FTA were unable to quantify the benefits for this rulemaking. The primary benefit of this rulemaking is to ensure that the MPO(s) is making transportation investment decisions for the entire metropolitan area as envisioned by the statute. If the MPOs within a metropolitan area consolidate or develop unified planning products, FHWA and FTA anticipate that the cost to develop the Metropolitan Transportation Plan (MTP) for the metropolitan area would decrease. We also expect this rule will result in some cost savings for State DOTs, which will benefit from having fewer TIPs to incorporate into their statewide transportation improvement programs (STIPs). There will also be benefits to the public if the coordination requirements result in a planning process in which public participation opportunities are transparent and unified for the entire region, and if members of the public have an easier ability to engage in the planning process.
The metropolitan planning statute defines an MPA as “the geographic area determined by agreement between the metropolitan planning organization for the area and the Governor under subsection [134](e).” 23 U.S.C. 134(b)(1).
In 1991, Congress enacted the Intermodal Surface Transportation Efficiency Act (ISTEA), which included provisions intended to strengthen metropolitan planning. In particular, the law gave MPOs responsibility for coordinated planning to address the challenges of regional congestion and air quality issues. The 1993 planning regulation implemented these statutory changes by defining this enhanced planning role for MPOs. The 1993 planning regulation described a coordinated planning process for the MPA resulting in an overall MTP for the MPA. In several locations, the 1993 regulation recognized the possibility of multiple MPOs serving an MPA, and provided expectations for coordination that would result in an overall transportation plan for the entire area. See 58 FR 58040 (October 28, 1993).
The 1993 regulation stated in the former § 450.310(g) that “where more than one MPO has authority within a metropolitan planning area or a nonattainment or maintenance area, there shall be an agreement between the State departments(s) of transportation (State DOT) and the MPOs describing how the processes will be coordinated to assure the development of an overall transportation plan for the metropolitan planning area.” Further, that regulation stated in former § 450.312(e) that where “more than one MPO has authority in a metropolitan planning area . . . the MPOs and the Governor(s) shall cooperatively establish the boundaries of the metropolitan planning area . . . and the respective jurisdictional responsibilities of each metropolitan planning area.” In practice, however, many MPOs interpreted the MPA to be synonymous with the boundaries of their MPO's jurisdiction, even in those areas where multiple MPOs existed within a single UZA, resulting in multiple “MPAs” within a single urbanized area.
In 2007, FHWA and FTA updated the regulations to align with changes made in the Safe, Accountable, Flexible, Efficient Transportation Equity Act: A Legacy for Users (SAFETEA-LU) and its predecessor, the Transportation Equity Act for the 21st Century (TEA-21). The revised regulations reflected the practice of having multiple “MPAs” within a single UZA, even though the statute pertaining to this issue had not changed. The 2007 regulation refers to multiple MPOs within an UZA rather than multiple MPOs within an MPA, and the term “metropolitan planning area” was used to refer synonymously to the boundaries of an MPO. The regulations stated “if more than one MPO has been designated to serve an urbanized area, there shall be a written agreement among the MPOs, the State(s), and the public transportation operator(s) describing how the metropolitan transportation planning processes will be coordinated to assure the development of consistent metropolitan transportation plans and TIPs across the MPA boundaries, particularly in cases in which a transportation investment extends across the boundaries of more than one MPA.” 72 FR 7224, February 14, 2007. The FHWA and FTA adopted that language as § 450.314(d), and redesignated it in a 2016 rulemaking as § 450.314(e). The 2007 rule also added § 450.312(h), which explicitly recognizes that, over time, a UZA may extend across multiple MPAs. The 2007 rulemaking did not address how to reconcile these regulatory changes with the statutory minimum requirement that an MPA include the UZA in its entirety.
As a result, since 2007, the language of the regulation has supported the possibility of multiple MPOs within a UZA rather than within an MPA. The FHWA and FTA have concluded that this 2007 change in the regulatory
The metropolitan planning statute calls for each metropolitan planning organization to “prepare and update a transportation plan for its metropolitan planning area” and “develop a TIP for the metropolitan planning area[.]” 23 U.S.C. 134(i)(1)(A) and (j)(1)(A).
For these reasons, FHWA and FTA have determined that joint decisionmaking leading to unified planning products is necessary where there are multiple MPOs in an MPA in order to best ensure effective regional coordination. Accordingly, this rulemaking addresses coordination and decisionmaking requirements for MPOs that are subject to the 23 U.S.C. 134(d)(7) exception to the one-MPO-per-MPA structure of the metropolitan planning statute.
The statewide planning statute calls for a continuing, cooperative, and comprehensive process for developing the long-range statewide transportation plan and the statewide transportation improvement program (STIP). 23 U.S.C. 135(a)(3). The statute requires States to develop the long-range statewide transportation plan and the STIP in cooperation with MPOs designated under 23 U.S.C. 134. 23 U.S.C. 135(f)(2)(A) and (g)(2)(A). While these statutes require that States work in cooperation with the MPOs on long-range statewide transportation plans and STIPs, the extent to which MPO voices are heard varies significantly. The nature of decisionmaking authority of MPOs and States varies due to numerous factors, including the extent of local funding for transportation projects. The MPOs will be strengthened by having a single coordinated MTP and TIP in order to create a united position on transportation needs and priorities for each MPA. Ultimately, each relationship between a State and MPO is unique, and there may not be a single coordination process that is appropriate for all areas of the country. However, there must be adequate cooperation between States and MPOs. Therefore, this rule requires that States and MPOs demonstrate evidence of cooperation, including the existence of an agreed upon dispute resolution process.
The FHWA and FTA published the NPRM on June 27, 2016, with a comment period ending on August 26.
An exception in 23 U.S.C. 134(d)(7) allows multiple MPOs to be designated within a single MPA if the Governor(s) and MPO(s) determine that the size and complexity of the area makes multiple MPOs appropriate. The NPRM proposed certain requirements applicable in such instances where multiple MPOs serve a single MPA, including instances in which adjustments to urbanized areas, as a result of a U.S. Census Bureau decennial census, will result in multiple MPOs serving a single MPA. First, the NPRM proposed to clarify that MPA boundaries are not necessarily synonymous with MPO boundaries. Second, the NPRM proposed to amend § 450.310(e) of the regulation to clarify that, where more than one MPO serves an MPA, the Governor(s) and affected MPOs must establish or adjust the jurisdiction for each MPO within the MPA by agreement. Third, the NPRM proposed additional coordination requirements for areas where multiple MPOs are designated within the MPA. Under the NPRM, the Governor(s) and MPOs would determine whether the size and complexity of the MPA make the designation of multiple MPOs appropriate; if they were to determine it is not appropriate to have more than one MPO, then the MPOs would be required to merge or adjust their jurisdiction such that there would be only one MPO within the MPA. If they were to determine that designation of multiple MPOs is appropriate, then the MPOs could remain separate, with separate jurisdictions of responsibility within the MPA, as established by the affected MPOs and the Governor(s).
The NPRM proposed to require those multiple separate MPOs in the same MPA to jointly develop unified planning products: A single long-range MTP, a single TIP, and a jointly established set of performance targets for the MPA. These requirements for unified planning products to accommodate the intended growth of a region would enable individuals within that region to better engage in the planning process and facilitate their efforts to ensure that the growth trajectory matches their visions and goals. In order to support the development of these unified planning products, the NPRM proposed to require MPOs to establish procedures for joint decisionmaking, including a process for resolving disagreements.
Additionally, the NPRM proposed to strengthen the role that MPOs would
This final rule is based on FHWA's and FTA's review and analysis of comments received. The FHWA received 660 letters to the docket, which includes 21 duplicate submissions, 4 submissions to the wrong docket, and 23
Sixteen commenters expressed support for the NPRM. The FHWA and FTA received 156 comments in support of the stated purpose of the proposed rule, which is to improve the transportation planning process by strengthening the coordination of MPOs and States and promoting the use of regional approaches to planning and decisionmaking to ensure that transportation investments reflect the needs and priorities of an entire region. While these commenters supported the stated purpose of the rulemaking, they did not support the specific requirements and procedures articulated in the proposed rule because the commenters believe the rule will not strengthen coordination efforts beyond current practices. The FHWA and FTA received 299 comments in opposition to the NPRM, of which 249 requested that FHWA and FTA withdraw the rulemaking. Commenters expressed various concerns about the NPRM.
The FHWA and FTA appreciate the substantial response to the NPRM and have reviewed and carefully considered all of the comments submitted to the docket. The FHWA and FTA believe the rule addresses important aspects of the metropolitan transportation planning process. As such, and as described in the previous section, FHWA and FTA have amended several parts of the proposed rule in response to comments but decline to withdraw the rule.
A number of commenters stated that their MPOs are already engaged in the types of regional coordination activities described in the NPRM, and they questioned the need for this regulation. Many commenters expressing opposition to the proposed rule stated that they believe their current coordination processes are successful; they achieve their local goals and objectives, involve strong coordination with adjacent MPOs and States in urbanized areas, and include many of the activities proposed in the NPRM. A total of 151 commenters stated that they currently have good working relationships with adjacent MPOs, coordinate with States and other MPOs and jurisdictions, or have formal agreements for coordinated planning activities.
Many commenters provided examples from their respective regions, discussed how their current planning processes achieved goals similar to those proposed in the proposed rulemaking, and indicated the proposed changes would disrupt existing coordination efforts. Six commenters stated their existing working agreements for coordinated planning with neighboring MPOs and States would be disrupted by the proposed requirements. Some commenters stated they could not identify a problem the requirements would resolve. Fifteen commenters stated that they currently coordinate with adjacent jurisdictions on regional planning activities, so the proposed requirement for unified, merged planning documents (MTPs, TIPs) is not necessary. Several commenters indicated the success of current MPO practices means additional regulation is not needed to improve MPO coordination. Several commenters stated that the proposed requirements would require them to re-do a recently completed merger of MPOs in Connecticut. One commenter stated that before the MPO is required to merge with another MPO, its current process and agreements with neighboring MPOs should be considered as meeting the proposed requirements.
In response, FHWA and FTA agree that many MPOs are coordinating planning activities with adjacent MPOs and across State and other jurisdictional boundaries. Many of the examples provided exemplify the type of coordinated transportation planning activities that FHWA and FTA are seeking by adopting the final rule. The existence of such exemplary planning practices in some MPOs, however, does not eliminate the need for consistency with statutory MPA boundary requirements or for improvement in the planning practices of other MPOs. This rule adds clarity to those and other planning requirements that FHWA and FTA evaluate when carrying out certification reviews for transportation management areas (TMAs) under 23 U.S.C. 134(k)(5), and when making planning findings in connection with STIP approvals under 23 U.S.C. 135(g)(7)-(8). In particular, this rule will benefit UZAs that presently are under the jurisdiction of more than one MPO. This rule will eliminate the risk of adverse consequences for the UZA that can arise when the MPOs adopt inconsistent or competing planning decisions.
The FHWA and FTA recognize that some regions have formal agreements for MPO coordination that may need to be revisited as a result of the rule, and that the implementation process for this rule could be disruptive in some cases. The FHWA and FTA considered this burden in adopting the final rule. Specifically, the final rule addresses situations where it is not feasible for the multiple MPOs in an MPA to comply with the unified planning requirements. In such situations, MPOs may demonstrate to the Secretary that they already have effective coordination processes that will achieve the purposes of the rule. If adequately demonstrated,
The FHWA and FTA also remain sensitive to, and supportive of, the principle and value of local decisionmaking. One purpose of this rule is to support local decisionmaking and involvement in a planning process that increasingly takes place in a regional context. There is a need for better coordinated local decisionmaking, however. Issues like air pollution and traffic congestion do not stop at State boundaries or MPO jurisdictional lines, but planning often does. Planning in jurisdictional silos can occur where two or more MPOs plan for the MPA but do not coordinate effectively and do not produce a single overall plan and TIP for the MPA. Such a situation can interfere with essential coordination of regional transportation planning solutions. In turn, that can lead to project delays, process inconsistencies, and reduced freight reliability.
This rule places a greater emphasis on regional planning to help communities maximize economic opportunities while also addressing the externalities of growth, such as congestion, air and water quality impacts, and impacts on resilience. The FHWA and FTA have long promoted regional planning because of the increasing size, economic interdependence, and quality of life challenges of metropolitan areas. The elimination of possible confusion about MPA boundary requirements is one step toward better regional planning. By clarifying the metropolitan planning regulations implementing the language on boundaries in 23 U.S.C. 134(e)(2), the MPA will include the entire urbanized area plus the areas forecasted to become urbanized over the 20-year period of the transportation plan. This clarification will promote more efficient and effective planning for the MPA as a whole.
Based on experience, FHWA and FTA know that having two or more separate metropolitan transportation planning processes in a single MPA (as defined under 23 U.S.C. 134) can make the planning process confusing and burdensome for the affected public. For example, members of the public may be affected by projects in multiple MPO jurisdictions, either because they live in the area of one MPO and work or regularly travel to another, or because the MPOs' jurisdictional lines bisect a community. Such members of the public, therefore, can find it necessary to participate in each MPO's separate planning process in order to have their regional concerns adequately considered. Having to participate in the planning processes of multiple MPOs, however, can be burdensome and discourage public participation. Where communities have been so bifurcated that they are not able to fully participate in the greater regional economy, this rule will help weave those communities together through new opportunities for regional investments in transportation.
Where regional coordination is already strong, this rule supports those efforts. Multi-jurisdictional planning encourages stakeholders to think beyond traditional borders and adopt a coordinated approach to transportation planning that combines many perspectives to improve coordination and implement effective planning across wide geographic areas. In addition, the requirement for the State and MPO to have a documented dispute resolution process in their metropolitan planning agreement will help ensure the MPOs have an effective means to be heard when investment decisions affecting the MPA are made. With the revisions that FHWA and FTA have made in response to comments received, this rule will serve as a strong tool for State DOTs, MPOs, and providers of public transportation to work together to enhance efficiency and be more responsive to the entire community.
When FHWA and FTA issued the NPRM, the agencies were involved in ongoing non-regulatory planning initiatives to improve MPO coordination. The Fiscal Year 2015 and 2016 FHWA and FTA Planning Emphasis Areas letters from the Administrators of FHWA and FTA to MPO executive directors and heads of State DOTs discussed three planning priorities, including
The FHWA, as part of its
Many commenters stated that the current system fosters an environment that allows for right-sized collaboration and is working well. Many contended that their MPOs are properly sized for their respective regions and that they efficiently program their resources in a manner that cannot be achieved at a larger scale. Some commenters expressed concern that, by increasing the size and scope of individual MPOs, the proposed rule would make the transportation planning process less accessible and more confusing to stakeholders and the general public, many of whom are already overwhelmed by the process. Others commented that the rule would not reduce confusion, increase public participation, or increase efficiency in regional planning, arguing that residents who live far away from other residents do not, by default, have the same transportation planning priorities simply because they reside in the same MPA. Others expressed concern that a large MPA with multiple major and minor cities and differing economic bases would limit the potential for common interests and issues, potentially diluting the planning process and limiting locally applicable guidelines. Some commenters asserted
Several commenters stated that the proposed rule ignored the complex nature of existing regional coordination mechanisms and instead would create an unworkable coordination framework that likely would present challenges to capital planning and project delivery. Some commenters also raised concerns that the proposed rule would significantly change how neighboring communities and States work together, which could have potentially long-lasting negative consequences. Commenters also stated that the proposed rule would weaken the regional planning process by requiring it to be done at such a large scale that it no longer would be reasonably considered as regional planning as Congress intended and would result in MPO policy boards making decisions on transportation investments and policies for geographic areas with which they are unfamiliar.
Several commenters expressed the view that smaller, contiguous MPOs in a shared metropolitan region can be as effective, or more effective, than larger or consolidated MPOs. For instance, smaller organizations are generally more nimble and responsive to members of the public than larger, more artificially stitched-together organizations. These commenters also contended that smaller contiguous MPOs may often be better able to factor in land use, smaller scale projects such as pedestrian and bicycle needs, intersections, and transit, while still maintaining an appropriate focus and cooperation on major system elements such as the National Highway System and long distance freight.
The FHWA and FTA considered the concerns expressed by these commenters but disagree with the view that the rule will lead to the negative results described in their comments. In locations where MPOs have undertaken efforts to merge and rationalize the planning process for their regions, the results have been positive.
The vast majority of commenters concluded that the proposed rule would result in excessively large planning regions that cover extensive geographic areas, including multiple States and millions of people. The commenters believed this would cause complex and lengthy negotiations among MPOs and States. Many commenters raised concerns that the NPRM would lead to the formation of extremely large MPAs in certain parts of the country and result in either multiple MPOs merging to form a single MPO responsible for a very large geographical area or multiple MPOs in an MPA being required to coordinate to produce unified planning products. Many of these commenters asserted that transportation planning at such a large scale likely would be unmanageable. Miami Valley Regional Planning Commission stated that, if combined, the 10+ MPOs in its region would have a 300+ member MPO policy board, and there would be “unmanageable” results of a “super MPO” spanning multiple (in some cases five to seven) States. A number of other commenters also suggested the rule would result in “super MPOs.” The Connecticut Councils of Governments, including the Western Connecticut Council of Governments, Housatonic Valley MPO, and South Western Region MPO, Naugatuck Valley Council of Governments, and Central Naugatuck Valley Metropolitan Planning Organization cited the example of the Tri-State Regional Planning Commission, a particularly large MPO that formerly served parts of New York, New Jersey, and Connecticut but was deemed unsuccessful and ultimately dissolved. This comment suggested that the proposed rule could result in re-creating a large MPO like that, apparently without learning the lessons of why it failed. The comment stated that following dissolution of the Tri-State Regional Planning Commission, Connecticut and its neighbors developed structures and mechanisms to provide for inter-MPO coordination, and this structure enables MPOs to maintain vigorous local involvement in the context of statewide and multistate corridors.
Several commenters also responded to FHWA's and FTA's request for comments on potential exceptions that should be included in the final rule and criteria for applying such exceptions.
The FHWA and FTA appreciate the comments submitted and understand commenters' concerns about the potential for extremely large MPAs. The FHWA and FTA believe that some of these concerns are based on a misreading of the proposed rule, particularly relating to UZAs with common boundaries and MPAs with 20-year forecast areas that may overlap. The FHWA and FTA do not intend this rule to require the establishment of extremely large MPAs or to require transportation planning on such a large scale as to be unworkable. The intent is to ensure MPAs comply with statutory boundary requirements, and, if there are multiple MPOs serving an MPA, all such MPOs work together to plan for the
The NPRM presented MPOs with three compliance options, all of which the final rule retains. First, MPOs may adjust the boundaries of their MPAs to encompass the entire urbanized area plus the contiguous area forecast (by the MPOs) to become urbanized over the 20 years of the metropolitan transportation plan. While the situations of individual areas may vary, many MPOs would be able to adjust MPA boundaries in such a way that they remain separate from contiguous MPOs. For example, in cases where an MPO's current jurisdiction includes a portion of a UZA primarily served by another MPO, the two MPOs can work together to adjust their jurisdictions so each MPO serves an MPA with the appropriate UZA. If the forecasted growth areas for two MPAs overlap, the affected Governor(s) and MPOs can work together to determine the most appropriate way to allocate that growth area between the MPAs. Although Governors and MPOs are encouraged to consider merging multiple MPAs into a single MPA under these circumstances, the rule does not require a merger. Second, multiple MPOs located in a single MPA can merge. Third, if MPOs and their respective Governor(s) determine that the size and complexity of the MPA justifies maintaining multiple MPOs in a single MPA, then they can remain separate MPOs but coordinate to prepare unified planning products.
To address comments stating that in some areas compliance with the rule would be infeasible, overly cumbersome, or contrary to the goal of effective and participatory regional planning, the final rule includes a new compliance option in § 450.312(i) for MPAs with multiple MPOs. This option offers, under certain conditions, an exception to the requirement for unified planning products. The exception is discussed in detail below, under
Commenters raised similar concerns about the potential for large MPAs that cross State lines but cited even greater coordination challenges in that scenario. Commenters expressed concern that if an MPO serves a larger geographical area, particularly in the case of a multistate MPA, the planning discussions will inevitably take place at the State planning level and will not empower MPOs. Commenters stated the result would remove local constituent voices from identifying and implementing projects that provide connectivity and access, and spur economic development initiatives across all areas in the MPA. Commenters stated that the rule should provide greater flexibility where MPAs cross State lines to account for significant differences in transportation planning processes that may exist between two or more States. Some commenters expressed concern that each Governor in a multistate MPA would exercise veto power over the TIP and MTP in the neighboring State, which would delay approval of these products, jeopardizing access to Federal highway and transit funds. Commenters also highlighted differences in State transportation planning processes, planning statutes, budgetary cycles, project prioritization processes, land use authorities, vastly different relationships and involvement of State legislatures in the planning process, and various governance and MPO policy body structures in neighboring States as factors that would further complicate the production of unified planning products across State lines.
In response, FHWA and FTA acknowledge that a multistate MPA typically presents greater coordination challenges than an MPA contained entirely within a single State. For multistate MPAs where the Governors and the MPOs agree it is not feasible to comply with the unified planning products requirements adopted in this rule, the Governors and MPOs may seek an exception under the provision added in § 450.312(i) of the final rule.
Several commenters indicated concerns about the use of UZAs, which are determined by the U.S. Census Bureau, as the basis for establishing MPA boundaries. Commenters noted that UZAs do not necessarily reflect transportation realities for regional roadway and transit networks, and regional travel patterns. Commenters expressed concerns about the UZAs changing after each decennial census, requiring new configurations every 10 years. In response, FHWA and FTA note that Congress required in 23 U.S.C. 134 that UZAs be used to establish MPAs. The MPA boundaries provision in 23 U.S.C. 134(e)(2)(A) states that each MPA “shall encompass at least the existing urbanized area,” and 23 U.S.C. 134(b)(7) provides that urbanized area “means a geographic area with a population of 50,000 or more, as determined by the Bureau of the Census.” However, FHWA and FTA appreciate the concerns that UZAs may not reflect regional transportation patterns and systems, and, therefore, FHWA and FTA intend to engage with the U.S. Census Bureau to provide input into how UZAs should be delineated following the 2020 decennial census.
Several commenters requested additional guidance on the responsibilities and methodology for determining 20-year growth projections; determining the parameters for designating MPA boundaries when UZAs are contiguous, or when the 20-year forecast growth from two UZAs overlaps; developing dispute resolution agreements; and determining when the size and complexity of an MPA warrants the designation of multiple MPOs. To support efficient and effective implementation of the rule, FHWA and FTA plan to issue guidance and will offer technical assistance to help States and MPOs understand their options for complying with the rule. In addition, not later than 5 years following the compliance dates in § 450.226(g) and § 450.340(h), FHWA and FTA will review how implementation of the new requirements is working and whether the new requirements are proving effective in achieving the intended outcomes. The FHWA and FTA are committed to ensuring the transportation planning process is successful. Through this review, FHWA and FTA will identify any necessary changes to the regulation.
Some commenters raised questions about how the proposed rule would impact existing air quality conformity boundaries and relationships. Two MPOs, the American Association of State Highway and Transportation Officials (AASHTO), the National Association of Regional Councils (NARC), a State health organization and a transit operator noted that there are separately designated nonattainment and/or maintenance areas with air quality boundaries that do not coincide with UZA designations that cross State lines. The concern expressed is that by joining these separate areas into one MPO, or requiring joint planning
Furthermore, if it is not feasible for multiple MPOs serving the same MPA to comply with the unified planning products requirements because of conformity issues, the affected MPOs and the Governor(s) may request an exception under § 450.312(i) of the rule. The exception is discussed in detail under
The FHWA and FTA received a total of 44 comments on the proposed requirement in § 450.208(a)(1) that States and MPOs establish dispute resolution procedures in their metropolitan planning agreements. Three commenters expressed support for the development of a written dispute resolution process to provide for fair, objective, and consistent resolution of disputes. One commenter asserted that because the FAST Act does not require a dispute resolution process, this is a matter that should be addressed legislatively rather than through a rulemaking. Thirteen commenters noted concern that the inflexibility of a formal dispute resolution process would make it cumbersome and confusing and would create conflict where none existed previously. Five commenters suggested a formal dispute resolution process would unfairly favor States, based on speculation that States would have no incentive to support local control for separate MPOs and would not enter into the dispute resolution process in good faith. Two commenters stated that a formal dispute resolution process would allow for some parties to use the dispute resolution process to hold up the planning process in order to leverage particular outcomes.
The FHWA and FTA view the local planning process as a partnership among the MPOs, the States, and providers of public transportation. The dispute resolution requirement is a tool that, when used correctly, fosters this partnership. Dispute resolution establishes the path for all parties to follow in delivering the planning program, even when consensus is not readily reached. A well-crafted and well-executed dispute resolution process allows the parties to work through disagreements in an objective, fair, and transparent manner that should expedite delivery of planning products in an effective and inclusive fashion. The FHWA and FTA agree that if any party to the planning agreement fails to negotiate in good faith, the result will be suboptimal and not in accord with the intent of the planning statutes. The establishment of an objective, fair, and transparent process, however, will subject all participants to public scrutiny, which is likely to be a strong disincentive to bad-faith negotiation. Further, the type of failure described by the commenters would not be consistent with the “continuing, cooperative, and comprehensive” planning requirements in 23 U.S.C. 134-135. Finally, in response to the comment suggesting that requiring a dispute resolution process exceeds FHWA's and FTA's authority, FHWA and FTA believe the requirement is within the scope of the agencies' discretion to interpret the meaning of the statutory requirements for coordination among States, MPOs, and providers of public transportation.
Seven commenters requested that FHWA and FTA provide model dispute resolution language, best practices, or guidance on how to develop a formal dispute resolution agreement. Thirteen commenters noted that the rule is silent on how disputes are to be resolved prior to establishment of a dispute resolution process between Governor(s) and MPOs.
The FHWA and FTA appreciate the request for more specific language, guidance, or best practices. The development of a dispute resolution process is a local decision that will vary depending on the particular needs and relationships that exist in each area. The FHWA and FTA are committed to providing MPOs and States with the technical assistance they need to effectively meet this requirement while taking local conditions and needs into account. The rule is purposely not prescriptive about the contents of a dispute resolution process. The FHWA and FTA do not believe that establishing a default dispute resolution process would further the desired collaboration. The FHWA and FTA understand it will take time to develop the required dispute resolution process, which is addressed by the final rule's compliance deadline of the next MTP update occurring on or after the date 2 years after the date the Census Bureau releases its notice of Qualifying Urban Areas following the 2020 census. Until the process is developed and contained in the metropolitan planning agreements, the parties may continue to use existing practices.
A number of commenters expressed concern that requiring unified planning products would increase the complexity of the planning process because developing unified planning products through coordination among multiple MPOs in an MPA would be more complicated, take more time, and extend the timeline for approvals, resulting in delays in project funding and delivery. Many asserted that this would require a multi-layered approval process that could jeopardize access to Federal funding. Some also expressed concern that working across State lines on TIPs (and STIPs) would be particularly challenging because different States have different legislative and budget schedules, and different project ranking and funding mechanisms. They also contended that the number of STIP/TIP modifications would increase, and that the multilayered approval process would make it less efficient to make such modifications. Several commenters stated that the sheer volume of projects, size, and diversity of geographical area, and the need to coordinate decisionmaking among multiple jurisdictions, and in some cases across State lines, will impair the region's ability to develop a single MTP and TIP, thus jeopardizing their ability to advance projects and secure FTA grant funds that are critical to maintenance and expansion of transit networks.
The Southeastern Massachusetts Metropolitan Planning Organization (SMMPO) expressed concern that a single TIP and MTP for a larger MPA would require consistent project eligibility and scoring criteria to ensure that the distribution of Federal funds is equitable. The SMMPO commented that even if an agreement can be reached among MPOs on the eligibility for Federal funds, it is unlikely that the MPOs will be able to agree on the requirements to receive State matching funds, because the criteria are established by the legislative bodies of each State and not under the authority of the Governors.
Eight commenters expressed confusion regarding the proposed amendments to the joint planning rule. One respondent requested assistance to understand how the proposed rule would affect its UZA. Two respondents expressed confusion about how the proposed amendments would improve the planning process, citing the complexity of attempting to develop unified planning products for an area that could potentially cover hundreds of municipalities, millions of people, and dozens of counties. Five respondents stated that implementation of the proposed amendments would result in more confusion for the public, locally elected officials, and local units of governments because they would need to plan for such large areas and attempt to work through a very complicated, overwhelming, and inefficient process to approve unified planning products. Several commenters expressed concerns about unintended consequences of the proposed rule. Some commenters indicated that the proposed rule would negatively disrupt existing coordination and collaboration efforts, particularly for transit, economic development, land use, and local planning. Some commenters believed the proposed rule would make the existing transportation planning process more complex, less efficient, and more difficult for MPOs to meet the requirements of Federal and State laws. Other commenters expressed concern about States gaining more power in the metropolitan transportation planning process and the potential increase in competition for funding and resources. Commenters also questioned the impacts to MPO staff employment and the participation of MPO members. One commenter expressed concern about potential conflicts with FHWA's other performance management rulemakings.
In the notice of the reopening of the comment period for this rulemaking, FHWA and FTA asked for comments on potential exceptions that should be included in the final rule and the criteria for applying such exceptions. Commenters recommended several criteria for exceptions to the rule's unified planning products requirements. Eighteen commenters recommended exceptions if multiple MPOs in an MPA can demonstrate a history of coordination, including the existence of formal agreements like memoranda of understanding and/or established processes for neighboring MPOs to consider the content of other MPO's long-range transportation plans when developing their own long-range transportation plan that provide for coordination among contiguous MPOs. Four commenters recommended providing an exception to the rule's requirement for multiple MPOs in an MPA to develop unified planning products if all of the MPOs in the MPA agree to opt out of this requirement. Twelve commenters suggested an exception from this requirement if the MPA crosses State lines. Seven commenters recommended that exceptions be made for MPAs with a population over a certain threshold, with suggested thresholds ranging widely from 300,000 to 2.5 million persons.
In response, FHWA and FTA recognize that many MPOs will have to make adjustments in their jurisdictional boundaries and their planning processes under this rule. A multistate MPA typically will face greater coordination challenges than an MPA contained entirely within a single State. There likely will be a need for additional coordination, as described by commenters. The FHWA and FTA considered the potential impacts cited by commenters when developing this final rule, and decided the benefits of the rule in terms of comprehensive, unified decisionmaking in the transportation planning process outweighed such potential impacts. The FHWA and FTA also carefully considered commenters' recommendations for exceptions to the rule's requirements and have revised the rule by adding an exception from the new unified planning requirements. This exception will not allow multiple MPOs in a single MPA to simply opt out of the requirement to develop unified planning products, but it establishes criteria under which MPOs may seek an exception from this requirement. The exception will address those cases where it is not feasible for MPOs to prepare unified planning products due to conditions affecting coordination or other aspects of the unified planning process. The FHWA and FTA decline to provide an exception for MPAs that cross State lines because effective regional coordination requires coordination across a variety of jurisdictional boundaries, and there are examples of MPOs effectively coordinating across State lines, such as the Delaware Valley Regional Planning Commission (Philadelphia and Trenton), the Memphis Metropolitan Planning Organization (Tennessee and Mississippi), and the Kentucky-Ohio-West Virginia Interstate Planning Commission. The final rule, however, provides flexibility where producing unified planning products is not feasible. The new provision balances the concerns raised by commenters against the need for unified planning to ensure the MTP and TIP appropriately address the needs of the MPA as a whole. The exception is in § 450.312(i) of the rule. To be granted this exception, all MPOs in the MPA and their Governor(s) must submit, and the Secretary must approve, a joint written request and justification. The submittal to the Secretary must: (1) Explain why it is not feasible, for
If the Secretary determines that the request does not meet the requirements established under § 450.312(i), the Secretary will send the Governor(s) and MPOs a written notice of the denial of the exception, including a description of the deficiencies. The Governor(s) and the MPOs have 90 days from receipt of the notice to address the deficiencies identified in the notice and submit supplemental information addressing the identified deficiencies for review and a final determination by the Secretary. The Secretary may extend the 90-day period to cure deficiencies upon request.
The FHWA and FTA intend to provide guidance regarding the types of situations where an exception may be appropriate. Examples in the guidance may include situations where the Governor(s) and MPOs show that the number of MPOs in the MPA, the number of political jurisdictions within separate MPOs serving a single MPA, the involvement of multiple States with differing interests and legal requirements, or transportation conformity issues make it infeasible to develop unified planning products; or they might show there would be unintended consequences of using unified planning products in the MPA that would produce results contrary to the purposes of the rule. The guidance also will address how Governor(s) and MPOs can demonstrate their current coordination procedures meet the exception requirements, such as by (1) documenting a history of effective regional coordination and decisionmaking with other MPOs in the MPA that has resulted in consistent plans and TIPs across the MPA; (2) submitting procedures used by the multiple MPOs in the MPA to achieve consistency on regional priorities and projects of regional impact through plans, TIPs, air quality conformity analyses, project planning, performance targets, and other planning processes to address regional transportation and air quality issues; and (3) demonstrating the technical capacity to support regional coordination.
Many commenters expressed concern about the costs, both in terms of financial resources and staff time associated with merging MPOs or coordinating among multiple MPOs in an MPA on unified planning products. Although many commenters did not cite cost estimates, several cited a voluntary MPO merger in Connecticut that cost $1.7 million dollars and took 4 years. Some stated that implementing the proposed rule would divert both financial and staff resources away from core transportation responsibilities because no additional funds would be provided for MPOs to implement the proposed rule. Some commenters cited an expected increase in the cost of the planning process, including longer travel distances and time and travel expenses of MPO board and committee members. The FHWA and FTA address these and other comments on the costs resulting from this rule in the discussion of Executive Order 12866 (Regulatory Planning and Review).
The FHWA and FTA received 217 comments expressing concern that the proposed rule would decrease local influence and decisionmaking in the transportation planning processes. Many of these comments included concern that the proposed rule would increase the size of MPAs and MPOs, which would diminish the role and influence of local governments and make the transportation planning and decisionmaking process less responsive to local input. Commenters noted that a larger planning area with more jurisdictions would mean that many local governments and smaller transit systems would not be represented on policy boards or committees. Some stated the belief that this would lead to a focus on funding larger, more expensive projects and decrease the amount of funding available to smaller communities, resulting in local transportation needs not being fully addressed. Several commenters expressed concern that the proposed rule would shift power among jurisdictions, either from rural areas and small towns to urban areas, or from urban areas to suburbs. Nine commenters said larger MPAs, with unified MTPs and TIPs would create more, not fewer, conflicts among neighboring communities and between States, and this would make it more difficult to build consensus.
The FHWA and FTA acknowledge that the rule could have the effect of increasing the size of some MPAs, and that complying with MPA boundary requirements may lead to changes in how the MPOs operate. Commenters may be correct when they suggest decisionmaking under the rule might result in different types of investments than in the past; however, FHWA and FTA believe that this rule will allow MPOs to make more efficient and effective planning decisions by focusing on the overall needs of the MPA. Focusing on the overall needs of the MPA also will support progress towards the national goals described in 23 U.S.C. 150(b). The FHWA and FTA disagree with comments suggesting the rule will necessarily disenfranchise local governments and small transit agencies, but FHWA and FTA also emphasize that the rule provides options for addressing such concerns, including (1) dividing an MPA that contains multiple UZAs into multiple MPAs, each of which contains an urbanized area in its entirety; and (2) retaining the multiple MPOs to serve the MPA. The NPRM provided three compliance options, all of which the final rule retains. First, many MPOs, including those that adjoin other MPOs, may be able to adjust their jurisdiction so each MPO's jurisdiction encompasses an entire MPA—the urbanized area plus the contiguous area forecast (by the MPOs) to become urbanized over the next 20 years. If the forecasted growth areas for two MPAs overlap, the affected Governor(s) and MPOs can work together to determine the most appropriate way to allocate that growth area between the MPAs. Second, multiple MPOs located in a single MPA can merge. Third, if MPOs and their respective Governor(s) determine that the size and complexity of the MPA justifies maintaining multiple MPOs in a single MPA, then they can remain as separate MPOs in the MPA but coordinate to prepare unified planning products. The final rule provides an additional option in § 450.312(i) under which Governor(s) and MPOs can seek an exception to the requirement for unified planning products. The exception is discussed in detail under
Some commenters asserted the proposed rule would result in significantly larger MPOs and that would negatively impact public involvement. Fourteen MPOs and local governments, as well as a public transit agency, State DOT, national association, chamber of commerce, and a member of Congress noted that large planning entities with unified MTPs and TIPs would dilute the impact of local public input. A few commenters stated that the scale of large MPOs would make public involvement unmanageable and less meaningful. Thirteen MPOs and local governments as well as two associations and one State DOT said the large planning areas would create equity issues for populations unable to travel long distances for public meetings due to time, cost, and accessibility. A number of these commenters noted that this would present Title VI and environmental justice (EJ) concerns because it would be harder to ensure that individuals from low income communities, individuals from minority communities, individuals with limited English proficiency, and individuals with transportation limitations are meaningfully involved in the process.
Twelve commenters suggested the changes proposed in the NPRM would result in disruption to the public involvement process and confusion among the public and may increase the cost of public involvement and/or delay the process. One council of governments commented that the rule would disproportionately negatively impact central cities with Title VI and EJ communities as compared to suburban areas. One transit agency indicated that the changes could cause a mismatch of transit provider districts and the planning functions tied to current MPO jurisdictional boundaries, and this would impact Title VI and EJ populations. One member of Congress said the NPRM did not address the changes that would be required to public involvement plans if multiple MPOs have to coordinate on unified planning documents.
In response, as detailed above in “Impacts on the Local Role in Planning and Programming Decisions,” FHWA and FTA believe the rule provides options for addressing concerns about one MPO being responsible for too large a geographic area. Even in cases where MPOs merge, or the decision to have multiple MPOs in an MPA triggers the requirement for unified planning documents, the size of the MPO's planning jurisdiction does not determine the effectiveness of its public involvement. Best practices from existing large MPOs covering both urban and suburban areas indicate that public involvement, including meeting the goals of the Title VI process and EJ requirements, can be effective and can be carried out in a manner that addresses differences between these communities.
The FHWA and FTA recognize that the rule will require changes to ensure an effective public involvement process but believe that these changes are consistent with DOT's encouragement of continuous improvements in all public involvement efforts. The FHWA and FTA have addressed the issue of a more effective consensus building process through Planning Emphasis Areas,
The FHWA and FTA nevertheless recognize that in some cases, large and complex urban areas may have difficulty effectively addressing these concerns, and FHWA and FTA modified the proposed rule to allow an exception to the requirement for unified planning in § 450.312(i). If applicable, the request for an exception should provide evidence of public involvement, Title VI, or EJ concerns.
The FHWA and FTA received input from 60 commenters on the proposed timeframe for the implementation of the proposed requirements in the NPRM. Many commenters, including 26 MPOs, 11 State DOTs, 9 municipalities, 5 professional associations, 4 COGs, 2 State legislators, 1 member of Congress, and 1 transit agency, raised concerns that the NPRM would require extensive and time-consuming coordination among MPOs and States, and they expressed that it would be unrealistic to complete this coordination within the 2 years required under the proposed rule. Many commenters stated that because of the complex nature of their particular MPA, the requirement to revise MPA boundaries and negotiate agreements among multi-MPO or multistate jurisdictions would be difficult to accomplish within 2 years. Many commenters noted that it would take longer than 2 years to complete new MTPs and TIPs among geographically-large MPAs, particularly in multistate areas.
Four MPOs and one member of Congress noted that 2 years is not enough time for State legislative action and gubernatorial approval that would be required to refine the MPO jurisdictional boundaries and member composition. Two MPOs stated that 2 years for compliance was not sufficient time for MPOs that are organized based upon State legislation, or are part of a Regional Planning Agency (RPA) or Council of Governments (COG) that would require re-establishment of roles through the State legislative process. One State DOT and numerous MPOs commented that the 2-year timeframe proposed in the NPRM was insufficient to draft new agreements and receive approval through multiple agencies. One State DOT commented that if there are disputes between the State and MPOs, it would significantly lengthen the timeframe for implementation. Three MPOs stated that a 2-year phase in period was not sufficient for a large, multistate area to draft new agreements and develop new structures, new rules and new planning processes.
Two COGs and eight local governments commented that 2 years was too aggressive given the extent of the required changes, resignations, and coordination agreements. They cited the experience of merging MPOs to form the Lower Connecticut River Valley Council of Governments, which took 4 years despite being a voluntary merger. Based upon this experience, they expressed doubt that the 2-year timeframe proposed in the NPRM would provide adequate time to complete a merger of MPOs to comply with the proposed rule.
Many commenters cited the complexity of implementing performance-based planning, and of requirements to prepare a new MTP and TIP, in concluding that the 2-year phase-in period was not sufficient. One transit agency noted that the 2-year timeline would be difficult to meet given the requirement to coordinate performance targets, particularly where a UZA crosses State boundaries and the MPOs must reconcile multiple goals and objectives. Two MPOs and one State DOT stated that if the MPOs are on different MTP cycles and need to develop a unified MTP and TIP, the proposed 2-year timeframe would be very tight. One State DOT and one MPO noted that in the case of an expanded
One association noted that the phase-in period of 180 days for the metropolitan planning agreements and the phase-in period of 2 years for the coordinated planning products were not aligned, and that the metropolitan planning agreements could not be updated until the MPO boundaries are determined. The commenter proposed that the timeframes for revision of the MPO jurisdictional boundaries and metropolitan planning agreements need to be aligned. Two MPOs recommended that the new requirements be phased in to support the air quality attainment deadlines and requirements that will be established for the phase-in of the revised 2015 National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) for Ozone, designations which are to occur by October 1, 2017, in accordance with the Clean Air Act (CAA), recognizing that the nonattainment areas will have to conform their TIPs and MTPs to the SIP.
Eleven MPOs, three State DOTs, two COGs, and three associations requested FHWA and FTA delay the requirement until after the 2020 decennial census to allow more time for implementation and avoid duplication of effort resulting from undertaking MPO coordination activities within 2 years after the effective date of the final rule and another set of MPO coordination activities after the release of the U.S. Census Bureau notice of new UZA boundaries following the 2020 decennial census.
Two State legislators and one local government commented that if the MPOs in Connecticut that recently completed a voluntary merger would be required to do another round of mergers within 2 years as a result of the proposed rule, and then be required to merge again after the 2020 census, it would be inefficient and waste staff time used for the previous MPO merger.
One State DOT commented that the proposed requirement should be suspended until the dispute resolution process could be fully developed. One association recommended that the implementation time should be extended to 4 years.
The FHWA and FTA recognize the challenges involved in defining MPA boundaries, negotiating new agreements, and implementing new planning processes in large and complex MPAs. The FHWA and FTA agree that it would be burdensome for MPOs and local planning partners to reconsider MPA boundaries 2 years after the date of the final rule, and then reconsider the boundaries and agreements after the 2020 census. Therefore, in the final rule FHWA and FTA have changed the compliance date in §§ 450.266(g) and 450.340(h) to the next MTP update occurring on or after the date that is 2 years after the date the Census Bureau releases its notice of Qualifying Urban Areas following the 2020 census. The FHWA and FTA also changed the 180-day deadline, now in redesignated § 450.312(j), to 2 years after the release of the U.S. Bureau of the Census notice of the Qualifying Urban Areas for a decennial census.
The FHWA and FTA received a number of comments questioning the proposed requirement that the MPA include the entire urbanized area and contiguous area expected to become urbanized within a 20-year forecast period for the transportation plan. Commenters indicated Congress intended the statute to leave all MPA boundary determinations to Governors and local governments. The Capital Region Council of Governments stated that the current planning regulations reflect the flexibility of MPA boundaries implicit in the statute, and the proposed rule removed that flexibility. The Sherman-Denison MPO commented that the statutory language on MPA boundaries has not changed since ISTEA and suggested new statutory language would be required to support a change in interpretation by FHWA and FTA. Commenters cited 23 U.S.C. 134(e)(3)
In response to these comments, FHWA and FTA point to the statutory provisions defining MPA boundaries. The statute is explicit with regard to the minimum required inclusions: The existing urbanized area, as designated by the Census Bureau, plus the contiguous area expected to become urbanized within a 20-year forecast period for the transportation plan. 23 U.S.C. 134(e)(2)(A). While setting the boundaries of the 20-year forecast area may be subject to some discretion given the need to make judgments about future events, the statute leaves no room for interpretation about what constitutes the Census Bureau-designated urbanized area. The FHWA and FTA acknowledge their joint metropolitan planning regulations have not been clear with regard to the treatment of urbanized areas under this statutory boundary provision. Due to this lack of clarity, FHWA and FTA have been aware for some time that the practices of some MPOs have not been consistent with these statutory MPA boundary requirements. This rule is intended to correct these problems by more closely aligning the regulatory boundary provisions with 23 U.S.C. 134(e)(2). An agency has discretion to alter a prior interpretation of a statute it administers if the agency follows the proper procedures (
The FHWA and FTA do not agree that this rule conflicts with 23 U.S.C. 134(d)(4) and (5). First, if the MPO designation provisions controlled the determination of MPA boundaries, there would be no need for the separate boundary-setting provisions in 23 U.S.C. 134(e). As a matter of statutory interpretation, FHWA and FTA decline
Moreover, 23 U.S.C. 134(e)(3) is instructive with respect to the relationship between the designation/redesignation provisions in 23 U.S.C. 134(d) and the MPA boundary provisions in 23 U.S.C. 134(e). The inclusion of the redesignation exception in 23 U.S.C. 134(e)(3) confirms that Congress viewed the MPA boundary provisions to operate independently of the designation/redesignation provisions. Thus, questions about the need for designation or redesignation, and how that would occur, are separate from, and do not alter the effects of, MPA boundary provisions in 23 U.S.C. 134(e).
This rule also does not conflict with 23 U.S.C. 134(e)(3), which provides that if the Bureau of the Census designates a new urbanized area within an existing MPA, a redesignation of the existing MPO is not required. The rule does not alter provisions pertaining to designation of new urbanized areas by the Census Bureau, and it retains the regulatory version found in 23 CFR 450.312(e).
Commenters asked about the effect of 23 CFR 450.312(b) (implementing 23 U.S.C. 134(e)) concerning boundary retention for MPAs in urbanized area designated as nonattainment for ozone or carbon monoxide as of August 10, 2005. The commenters asked what the effect of the rule would be if UZAs extended into two MPAs and whether, if such MPAs kept their August 10, 2005, boundaries under the proposed rule, the MPOs serving such MPAs would be subject to the unified planning requirements in the proposed rule. In response, FHWA and FTA continue to give the same meaning to 23 CFR 450.312(b) and 23 U.S.C. 134(e)(4) as they have since Congress enacted the provision in TEA-21 (1998) and modified it in SAFETEA-LU (2005). The FHWA and FTA conclude that Congress intended the provision to be time-limited to address issues that had arisen at the time these statutes were enacted, not to create a permanent or global exemption from other boundary requirements under the statute, including those in 23 U.S.C. 134(e)(2). Their purpose and effect have lapsed; the exemption found in subsection (e)(4) are bounded by the life of the nonattainment designations for ozone and carbon monoxide that were in effect as of August 10, 2005. In 2012, EPA made new ozone nonattainment designations under the 2008 ozone standards.
A number of commenters stated that the proposed requirement for unified planning products is not found in the metropolitan planning statute and exceeds congressional intent. Some cited language in 23 U.S.C. 134(i)(1)(A) as evidence that the proposed requirement conflicts with the statute.
Several commenters stated that DOT's long-standing interpretation of the planning statute as allowing separate MTPs and TIPs for MPOs sharing an urbanized area confirms that the NPRM proposal for unified planning products is contrary to the existing statute. Commenters stated that the DOT reauthorization proposal, the Generating Renewal, Opportunity and Work with Accelerated Mobility, Efficiency, and Rebuilding of Infrastructure and Communities throughout America Act (GROW AMERICA Act), contained provisions like those in the NPRM. According to the commenters, the GROW AMERICA Act provisions serve as an admission by DOT that new statutory authority is required to support the NPRM's proposals. Some commenters stated that Congress has had a number of opportunities over the years to adopt provisions like those in the NPRM, specifically including enactment of the MAP-21 and the FAST Act, but has chosen not to do so.
The FHWA and FTA have fully considered the comments stating the proposals conflict with 23 U.S.C. 134 in general; conflict specifically with 23 U.S.C. 134(b), (e), (i), (f)(1), (g), (h), and (j); and conflict with existing metropolitan planning practices. The FHWA and FTA understand that the commenters believe the statute makes it evident that: (1) Each MPO is allowed to prepare its own MTP and TIP, regardless of whether the MPO is the sole MPO in its MPA or is one of two or more MPOs in the MPA; and (2) where an MPA crosses State lines, the Secretary's authority is limited to encouraging the affected MPOs to coordinate for the entire MPA.
The FHWA and FTA do not agree that the statute constrains the agencies' authority in the manner commenters suggest. Nothing in 23 U.S.C. 134(f)(1) and (g)(1) or any other part of Section 134 clearly establishes the applicable coordination requirements.
The FHWA and FTA first considered whether 23 U.S.C. 134(f)(1) and (g)(1) expressly address the question of how multiple MPOs in the same MPA handle coordination and decisionmaking within the MPA. The answer rests on whether the use of the term “metropolitan area” in the two provisions means “metropolitan planning area” as defined in 23 U.S.C. 134(b)(1). The FHWA and FTA believe that the term “metropolitan area” in 23 U.S.C. 134(f)(1) and (g)(1) is ambiguous, thus providing FHWA and FTA authority to interpret the vague statutory language.
The enactment of ISTEA in 1991 produced the first detailed metropolitan planning statute, codified in 23 U.S.C. 134. The ISTEA version of the metropolitan planning statute used the term “metropolitan area” in various provisions governing planning area boundaries, multistate coordination, and coordination among planning entities.
In SAFETEA-LU (2005), Congress again reenacted the entire metropolitan planning statute. Congress added a statutory definition for the term “metropolitan planning area” that remains in effect today. The statutory definition states “[t]he term metropolitan planning area means the geographic area determined by agreement between the metropolitan planning organization for the area and the Governor under subsection (e).” 23 U.S.C. 134(b)(1). Subsection (e), which limits the discretion of the Governor and the MPO in setting MPA boundaries, defines minimum and optional MPA boundaries. As in TEA-21, Congress retained the use of “metropolitan area” in a number of provisions, including in (1) the multistate coordination provision, which was redesignated from section 134(d) to section 134(f); and (2) the coordination provision, which was redesignated from section 134(e) to section 134(g). Congress did not adopt a definition of “metropolitan area” in SAFETEA-LU or in subsequent legislation.
This history leads FHWA and FTA to conclude that Congress intended the two terms to have different meanings. Even if FHWA and FTA treat the statutory history as insufficient evidence of congressional intent, the conclusion is the same. Under conventions of statutory interpretation, where congressional intent is unclear, if a word is not statutorily defined or a term of art, it is typically given its ordinary meaning.
The Census Bureau describes the term “metropolitan area” as having been adopted in 1990 to collectively refer to the metropolitan statistical areas, consolidated metropolitan statistical areas, and primary metropolitan statistical areas.
Based on this analysis, FHWA and FTA have concluded that the coordination provisions of 23 U.S.C. 134(f)(1) and (g)(1) establish the coordination requirements applicable when there are two or more MPOs in a general metropolitan area. Neither provision prescribes requirements that govern coordination among MPOs where more than one MPO has been designated in the same MPA. This interpretation gives meaning to both the undefined term “metropolitan area” and the statutorily-defined term “metropolitan planning area.”
The remaining parts of 23 U.S.C. 134 also do not definitively establish how multiple MPOs in the same MPA are to coordinate their plans and TIPs. The FHWA and FTA considered both individual provisions in 23 U.S.C. 134, and the statute as a whole, and considered the statute in the context of metropolitan transportation planning practices. Many sections of 23 U.S.C. 134, including those specific to MTP and TIP preparation, reference the responsibilities of MPOs in the singular. The language on MTPs and TIPs refers to “each” MPO and “the” MPO. Commenters state this use of the singular form means that each MPO has the right to prepare its own plan and TIP, regardless of the presence of other MPOs in the statutorily-defined MPA.
However, the use of the singular in those statutory provisions is subject to different interpretations. First, as a matter of statutory construction, absent clear language to the contrary, the use of the singular in statutory language includes the plural and vice-versa.
The FHWA and FTA have thus determined that Congress did not directly address the question of how multiple MPOs in the same MPA ought to coordinate and make planning decisions for the MPA. This determination includes the situation where the MPA (as defined in 23 U.S.C. 134(b)(1)) crosses State lines. Accordingly, FHWA and FTA are charged with deciding how such coordination ought to occur. This rule addresses that question.
The FHWA and FTA disagree with comments stating the proposed rule exceeds FHWA's and FTA's authority because the rule would change long-standing FHWA/FTA statutory interpretations of MPA boundary requirements that Congress has tacitly endorsed. While FHWA and FTA acknowledge that there is a general presumption that Congress acts with knowledge of agency regulatory interpretations of a statute,
The FHWA and FTA also disagree with comments stating that the proposed rule exceeds FHWA's and FTA's authority because Congress rejected or failed to adopt the same provisions in MAP-21 and the FAST Act, including not adopting DOT's GROW AMERICA proposals. An agency's submission of a proposal for legislation does not constitute an admission that additional statutory authority is needed in order to accomplish the objectives of the regulatory proposal. An agency submits legislative proposals for a variety of reasons, including a desire to have Congress clarify existing authority in order to overcome potential opposition from the public or other stakeholders to the agency's exercise of the authority. Similarly, the absence of an agency's submitted legislative proposal in subsequently enacted legislation does not constitute affirmative evidence that Congress rejected the proposal or determined the agency lacked sufficient authority under existing law. There may be many reasons for the legislative outcome, including a congressional decision that existing law is sufficient to authorize the proposal.
Finally, FHWA and FTA considered the comments stating that Congress's enactment of performance-based planning requirements in 23 U.S.C. 134(h) proves the statute requires each MPO to produce its own planning products. The FHWA and FTA believe Congress crafted the provisions in 23 U.S.C. 134(h), like those in other parts of the statute, to establish the process for the typical MPA structure of one MPO per MPA. For the reasons previously discussed, FHWA and FTA believe Congress did not explicitly address the question of how MPOs are to establish targets where there is more
The final rule includes the changes proposed in the NPRM, but with the revisions and additions described below, which FHWA and FTA made in response to comments.
Under this final rule, the implementation deadline for the requirement that States, MPOs and operators of public transportation have a current metropolitan planning agreement, which will identify coordination strategies that support cooperative decisionmaking and the resolution of disagreements, is changed from not later than 2 years after the date of publication of the rule to not later than 2 years after the date the Census Bureau releases its notice of Qualifying Urban Areas following the 2020 census.
Section 450.312(i) (as redesignated)—The final rule creates an exception, in new § 450.312(i), to the unified planning products requirements applicable where there are two or more MPOs in the same MPA. The exception allows the multiple MPOs in an MPA to continue to generate separate, but coordinated and consistent, planning products if FHWA and FTA approve a request from the affected Governor(s) and all MPOs in the MPA that meets the requirements established in § 450.450(i). The exception is discussed in detail under
Section 450.312(j) (as redesignated)—The final rule changes the time period MPOs have to adjust MPA boundaries after a U.S. Census Bureau designation that defines two previously separate UZAs as a single UZA. The final rule changes the time period for review and adjustment of MPA boundaries, so that one MPA includes the entire new UZA area, from 180 days to 2 years after the date the Census Bureau releases its notice of Qualifying Urban Areas following a decennial census.
In the final rule, FHWA and FTA changed the deadline in § 450.340(h) to provide additional time for compliance and to clarify the scope of the phase-in provision. The deadline for compliance proposed in the NPRM was the next MTP update occurring on or after 2 years after the effective date of the rule. The deadline for compliance in the final rule is the next MTP update occurring on or after the date that is 2-years after the date the U.S. Census Bureau releases its notice of Qualifying Urban Areas following the 2020 census. For clarity, the final rule lists the sections to which this phase-in provision applies.
The rule provides a phase-in provision for the requirement in 23 CFR 450.208(a)(1) that metropolitan planning agreement must include strategies for coordination and the resolution of disagreements. In § 450.226(h), the rule provides a phase-in period ending 2 years after the date the Census Bureau releases its notice of Qualifying Urban Areas following the 2020 census.
The rule removes the first sentence of § 450.312(b), which is outdated grandfathering language concerning MPAs with August 10, 2005, nonattainment designations for ozone and carbon monoxide. Comments received in response to the NPRM showed the provision causes confusion about the applicability of other parts of the regulation. The FHWA and FTA have concluded the statutory provision on which the grandfather provision was based no longer has any effect.
The rule adds § 450.312(i) as a result of comments received on the NPRM. The new paragraph creates an exception from the unified planning products requirements established by the rule. The exception is discussed in detail under
The rule changes the § 450.312(j) (as redesignated) time period for review and adjustment of MPA boundaries after a U.S. Census Bureau designation that defines two previously separate UZAs as a single UZA, so that one MPA includes the entire new UZA area, from 180 days to 2 years after the date the Census Bureau releases its notice of Qualifying Urban Areas following a decennial census. The rule also clarifies that Governor(s) and MPO(s) are responsible for reviewing MPA boundaries after each census and taking action to adjust MPA boundaries as needed to comply with boundary requirements.
The rule adds phase-in provisions to § 450.340 for certain parts of Subchapter C. In a new paragraph (h), States and MPOs are given a longer time period than proposed in the NPRM to become fully compliant with the new MPA boundary and MPO boundaries agreement provisions, and with the requirements for jointly established performance targets and a single MTP and TIP for the entire MPA. To address comments on implementation timelines and the need for greater clarity in the rule, the phase-in provision lists the specific parts of Subchapter C subject to delayed compliance. Section 450.340 requires the Governor(s) and MPOs to document their determination of whether the size and complexity of the MPA justifies the designation of multiple MPOs; however, that decision is not subject to approval by FHWA and FTA. Full compliance for all MPOs within the MPA will be required before the next regularly scheduled update of an MTP for any MPO within the MPA, following the date that is 2 years after the date the Census Bureau releases its notice of Qualifying Urban Areas following the 2020 census.
The FHWA and FTA have determined that this rulemaking is a significant regulatory action within the meaning of Executive Order 12866 and within the meaning of DOT regulatory policies and procedures due to significant public interest in the area of MPO reform.
This final rule improves the clarity of the joint FHWA and FTA planning rules by better aligning the regulations with the statute. Additionally, the MPOs within the same MPA must establish procedures for joint decisionmaking as well as a process for resolving disagreements. These changes also are intended to result in better outcomes for the MPOs, State agencies, providers of public transportation, and the public by promoting a regional focus for metropolitan planning, and by unifying MPO processes within an urbanized area in order to improve the ability of the public to understand and participate in the transportation planning process.
The unified planning requirements of this rule affect primarily urbanized areas with multiple MPOs planning for parts of the same UZA, or 142 of the 409 MPOs in the country. The affected MPOs are: (1) MPOs that have been designated for an urbanized area for which other MPOs also have been designated; and/or (2) MPOs where an adjacent urbanized area has spread into its MPA boundary as a result of the periodic U.S. Census Bureau redesignation of UZAs. An MPO designated as an MPO in multiple MPAs, in which one or more other MPOs are also designated, would be required to participate in the planning processes for each MPA. Thus, under this rule, MPOs that have jurisdiction in more than one MPA would be required to participate in multiple separate planning processes. However, the affected MPOs could exercise several options to reduce or eliminate these impacts, including adjusting MPA boundaries to eliminate overlap, or by merging MPOs. In some cases, a Governor (or Governors in the case of multistate urbanized areas) and MPOs could determine that the size and complexity of the area make designation of multiple MPOs in a single MPA appropriate. In that case, the rule requires those multiple MPOs to jointly develop unified planning products: A single MTP, a single TIP, and a jointly-established set of performance targets for the MPA. The final rule includes a new option for MPAs with multiple MPOs that offers, under certain conditions, an exception to the requirement for unified planning products. Further, the final rule requires all MPOs to ensure their agreements with State DOTs and providers of public transportation include written procedures for joint decisionmaking and dispute resolution.
The FHWA and FTA have estimated that the maximum annual cost of implementation of the provisions of this action would be $86.3 million. This estimate used high cost estimates to avoid any risk of underestimation. After evaluating the costs and benefits of this final action, FHWA and FTA conclude that the maximum nationwide impact does not exceed the $100 million annual threshold that defines a significant economic impact.
When extending the comment period FHWA and FTA requested additional comments on the potential costs of the rule, and the analysis conducted drew upon these submitted comments. One hundred fifty-eight respondents commented on FHWA's and FTA's evaluation of the costs and benefits of these proposed amendments. All of the respondents who commented on this section indicated that the evaluation underestimated the cost to implement the proposed regulatory provisions. Some respondents noted the following: The analysis of the costs of the proposed changes seems simplistic and inadequate; the NPRM provides no calculations or evidence to justify its assertion that costs will be minimal; the proposed rule does not fully contemplate the level of additional work that will be required for State DOTs and MPOs to comply with the changes; and evidence suggests that the costs will not be minimal. Others claimed that the increased costs would be considerable or significant and that merging MPOs is a time-consuming, complex and costly process. One stated that merging MPOs would require the involvement of multiple boards, commissions, and councils, as well as cost time and money, highlighting that the attorney fees alone for the multiple organizations in the process of any merger would be daunting. Many claimed that the NPRM would impose immense budgetary and administrative burdens on their jurisdictions, and that the administrative effort and expense would be huge. Thirteen respondents noted that the formation of the Lower Connecticut River Valley Council of Governments resulting from the voluntary merger of Connecticut River Estuary Regional Planning Agency and Midstate Regional Planning Agency cost approximately $1.7 million in staff time and direct costs and took 4 years to complete. The Michigan Department of Transportation noted that the process to establish a new MPO for the Midland UZA took 18 months and approximately $300,000. The Richmond Regional Transportation Planning Organization stated that FHWA and FTA should consider the direct capital costs, lost productivity and opportunity costs for staff and elected officials, and other indirect costs in analyzing the financial impact of the proposed rule upon affected MPOs.
The AASHTO noted that the NPRM does not take into account the additional resources needed to implement the proposed provisions. Others pointed out that no additional funding is proposed and suggested that additional Federal funds should be provided to MPOs to offset the cost of implementing the proposed requirements.
In response, FHWA and FTA note that the total Federal, State, and local cost in FY 2016 of the planning program is approximately $1.5 billion. Generally, 80 percent of these eligible costs are directly reimbursable through Federal transportation funds; however, AMPO's 2013 MPO Salary Survey Results
Multiple respondents emphasized that requiring MPOs to merge and re-organize or to develop new memoranda of understanding (MOUs), representation selection processes, and unified planning products without additional funds would only serve to undermine transportation planning because it would require them to redirect considerable resources from core planning functions. Federal funding spent to implement the proposed rule would reduce the amount of planning funds now being used by MPOs and States to meet their current responsibilities. Seven respondents asserted that implementation of the proposed amendments would increase the cost of the planning process, as conducting metropolitan planning over
In response to these comments, FHWA and FTA have estimated the maximum average annual costs of the implementation of the provisions of this final rule using the assumption that all 142 MPOs would choose the option to merge. While this scenario produces the highest cost estimates of all the options for compliance with the rule, and it is considered to be highly unlikely since the final rule provides three options in addition to a merger: To adjust boundaries, to develop unified planning products, or to seek an exception from the unified planning products requirement. The FHWA and FTA have estimated the cost to merge on the basis of information provided by the Michigan Transportation Planning Association, the Midland Area Transportation Study (MATS), the Genesee County Metropolitan Alliance, and the Lower Connecticut River Valley Council of Governments (River COG) in response to the NPRM. The total cost to merge is assumed to be equivalent to the combined annual budget of each agency involved in the merger. As suggested by MATS in their response to the NPRM, cost of the merger would include direct, indirect, and opportunity costs, such as merger process development, merger formal agreements, legal counsel, MPO structure/organization development, merged MPO administrative issues, merged MPO committees development, merged MPO task development, loss of institutional knowledge, funding instability costs, loss of public participation, and delays and loss of projects.
To estimate the annual operating budget for the MPOs subject to this regulation, FHWA and FTA relied upon the Association of Metropolitan Planning Organizations' (AMPO) 2013 MPO Salary Survey Results, published January 23, 2014 (Table 1: MPO Survey Data). The AMPO Salary Survey included 135 MPOs; however, only 35 of the 142 affected MPOs were included in the survey results. While this survey represents 25 percent of the affected MPOs, FHWA and FTA determined that it would provide an adequate indication of MPO operating budgets.
Applying the operating budget information from the AMPO Survey, FHWA and FTA estimated the average annual operating budget for the MPOs affected by this rulemaking on the basis of the size of the MPO: MPOs with greater than 1 million population; MPOs with populations from 200,000 to 1 million; and MPOs with populations less than 200,000 (non-TMAs). The resulting distribution is shown in Table 2: MPO Average Annual Operating Budgets. As the survey was undertaken in 2013, FHWA and FTA escalated the average annual operating budgets to 2015 using the Consumer Price Index.
On the basis of the estimated 2016 MPO operating budgets, and assuming that the merger process will be undertaken over 4 years and be completed within 2 years after the U.S. Census Bureau publishes the delineation of new UZA boundaries based on the 2020 Census of the Population, FHWA and FTA estimated the average annual cost to an MPO choosing the option to merge. The estimated average annual cost to an MPO to merge, presented in Table 3 below, is: $1.6 million for very large MPOs with populations greater than 1 million; $460,000 for MPOs with populations from 200,000 to 1 million; and $106,000 for small MPOs with a population less than 200,000. In essence, these assumptions suggest that the cost of the merge option would be 25 percent of an MPO's annual operating budget for each of the four years of the merger process. The estimates are presented in Table 3: Estimated Average Annual Cost of Option to Merge.
To test the methodology, FHWA and FTA applied this approach to estimate the merger cost for the River COG. The methodology produced a total estimated cost of the merger of approximately $1.83 million. The actual total cost of the River COG merger was $1.7 million. The FHWA and FTA also applied the methodology to a prospective merger of the Midland Area Transportation Study (population 83,629), Saginaw Area Transportation Study (population 200,169), and the Bay City Transportation Study (population 107,771). The estimated cost of the merger based on the methodology would be $2.6 million. This amount is significantly higher than the merger cost estimated by MATS in its comments for these three contiguous MPOs (which was $1.05 to $1.8 million).
Thus, based on the assumption that the total cost to merge is equivalent to the combined annual operating budgets and that a merger would be implemented over a 4-year period, the total annual cost for 142 MPOs to choose the option to merge over a 4-year period is estimated to be approximately $86 million.
The FHWA and FTA note that to estimate the cost to MPOs that choose the option to develop unified planning products in lieu of merging, FHWA and FTA applied the assumption proposed by MATS: That the cost to develop unified planning products would be up to 50 percent of the cost to merge. The MATS commented that the cost to develop the unified planning products, as proposed in the NPRM, includes unified processes development, supplemental formal documentation, legal counsel, joint unified planning work program (UPWP) development, UPWP administration/amendment processing, joint TIP development, TIP administration and amendment processing, joint metropolitan transportation planning development, metropolitan transportation plan administration and amendment processing, loss of public participation and the delay and/or loss of projects.
There may be costs associated with this rule that would be related to transportation conformity activities. The costs associated with transportation conformity would be captured in the future in the Information Collection Request done by EPA for its transportation conformity regulations.
It also was unclear whether the cost to address the rule's dispute resolution requirements was included in the MATS cost estimating approach. The FHWA and FTA estimated the one-time cost to develop a dispute resolution process, as required by Section 450.208(a)(1). This estimate assumes it will take 100 person-hours for an average State and an average MPO to craft written dispute resolution procedures. The average loaded wage for a planner is $50.19.
The total costs for merging all 142 MPOs, and the one-time cost of developing a dispute resolution process results in an estimated maximum average annual cost of this rule of $86.3 million. The actual average annual cost will range from $578,500 (if all 142 MPOs were to request and receive an exception from the unified product requirement) to a maximum of $86.3 million (if all 142 affected MPOs were to choose the merger option). On the basis of this analysis, FHWA and FTA conclude that the economic impact of the final rule would not exceed the $100 million annual threshold that defines a significant economic impact.
The FHWA and FTA have not been able to locate data or empirical studies to assist in monetizing or quantifying the benefits of the final rule. Given the limited quantitative information on these benefits of coordination, FHWA and FTA used a break-even analysis as the primary approach to quantify benefits. This approach determines the point at which the benefits from the final rule exceed the annual costs of compliance. The total FAST Act annual funding programmed for surface transportation investments subject to the metropolitan and statewide and non-metropolitan transportation planning process in FY2016 is $39.7 billion in FHWA funds and $11.7 billion in FTA funds. This is the entire FHWA Federal-aid Highway Program and FTA Transit Program. The maximum annual average cost for implementing this final rule,
The FHWA and FTA believe the benefits of the regulation exceed the cost due to the following reasons. The rule will enhance efficiency in planning processes for some areas, and generate cost-savings by creating single rather than multiple documents and through the greater pooling of resources and increased sharing data, models and other tools. Because multiple MPOs within the same UZA will produce unified planning products, there will be less overlapping and duplicative work, such as developing multiple MTPs and TIPs for a single UZA. The FHWA and FTA also expect there will be some cost savings for State DOTs, which will benefit from having fewer TIPs to incorporate into their STIPs. There will also be benefits to the public if the coordination requirements result in a planning process in which public participation opportunities are transparent and unified for an entire region.
Based on experience, FHWA and FTA know that having two or more separate metropolitan transportation planning processes in a single MPA (as defined under 23 U.S.C. 134) can make the planning process confusing and burdensome for the affected public. For example, members of the public may be affected by projects in multiple MPO jurisdictions, either because they live in the area of one MPO and work or regularly travel to another, or because the MPOs' jurisdictional lines bisect a community. Such members of the public, therefore, can find it necessary to participate in each MPO's separate planning process in order to have their regional concerns adequately considered. Having to participate in the planning processes of multiple MPOs, however, can be burdensome and discourage public participation. Where communities have been so bifurcated that they are not able to fully participate in the greater regional economy, this rule will help weave those communities together through new opportunities for regional investments in transportation.
The FHWA and FTA have conservatively estimated that the maximum annual cost of implementation of the provisions of this action would be $86.3 million. After evaluating the costs and benefits of this final action, FHWA and FTA conclude that the maximum nationwide impact does not exceed the $100 million annual threshold that defines a significant economic impact. These changes are not anticipated to adversely affect, in any material way, any sector of the economy. In addition, these changes will not create a serious inconsistency with any other agency's action or materially alter the budgetary impact of any entitlements, grants, user fees, or loan programs.
In compliance with the Regulatory Flexibility Act (Pub. L. 96-354, 5 U.S.C. 601-612), FHWA and FTA have evaluated the effects of this rule on small entities and have determined that the rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. The rule addresses the obligation of Federal funds to State DOTs for Federal-aid highway projects. The rule affects two types of entities: State governments and MPOs. State governments do not meet the definition of a small entity under 5 U.S.C. 601, which have a population of less than 50,000.
The MPOs are considered governmental jurisdictions, and to qualify as a small entity they need to serve less than 50,000 people. The MPOs serve urbanized areas with populations of 50,000 or more. Therefore, the MPOs that might incur economic impacts under this rule do not meet the definition of a small entity.
I hereby certify that this rule will not have a significant impact on a substantial number of small entities.
The FHWA and FTA have determined that this rule does not impose unfunded mandates, as defined by the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4, March 22, 1995, 109 Stat. 48). This rule does not include a Federal
Three commenters (Chicago Metropolitan Agency for Planning (CMAP); Wisconsin congressional delegation, Southeastern Wisconsin Regional Planning Commission (SEWRPC), Kenosha County, Wisconsin; and one individual) submitted comments pertaining to federalism. The CMAP and Wisconsin congressional delegation, SEWRPC, Kenosha County, commented that the proposed rule would exceed the Secretary's authority and contradict congressional intent. These two commenters also asserted that the proposed rule would appear to override the intent of the State laws that created CMAP, Northwestern Indiana Regional Planning Commission (NIRPC), and SEWRPC, noting that the direction of these organizations and the contents of their plans are influenced by State law and asserting that the proposed rule would make it difficult for these organizations to meet certain State mandates. The CMAP and Wisconsin congressional delegation, SEWRPC, Kenosha County, also commented that the proposed rule would require CMAP, NIPRC, and SEWRPC to set identical targets for certain performance measures for peak hour travel time and traffic congestion for the UZA, and if States cannot agree on a UZA target, then the MPO(s) would violate Federal law.
The individual commented that the proposed rule would constitute an unnecessary Federal Government overreach into planning decisions and would adversely impact the ability of regional planners to carry out their work and contribute to decisions regarding projects carried out in their communities and areas of jurisdiction.
The FHWA and FTA have analyzed this rule in accordance with the principles and criteria contained in Executive Order 13132. The FHWA and FTA have determined that this rule does not have sufficient federalism implications to warrant the preparation of a federalism assessment. The FHWA and FTA also have determined that this rule does not preempt any State law or State regulation or affect a State's ability to discharge traditional State governmental functions. The FHWA and FTA do not agree that the statute constraints the Secretary's authority in the manner commenters suggest. Rather, this rule is intended to better align the planning regulations with existing statutory provisions concerning the establishment of MPA boundaries and the designation of MPOs. For multistate MPAs where the Governors and the MPOs agree it is not feasible to comply with the unified planning requirements adopted in this rule, the Governors and MPOs may seek an exception. Further, FHWA and FTA do not agree that this rule expands the Federal Government's role in planning decisions. While this rule is intended to improve regional collaboration and guide decisionmaking, planning decisions will remain in the hands of States, MPOs, and local authorities.
The regulations implementing Executive Order 12372 regarding intergovernmental consultation on Federal programs and activities apply to this program. Local entities should refer to the Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance Program Number 20.205, Highway Planning and Construction, for further information.
Federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct, sponsor, or require through regulations. The FHWA and FTA have analyzed this rule under the PRA and believe that this final rule does not impose additional information collection requirements for the purposes of the Paperwork Reduction Act above and beyond existing information collection clearances from OMB. The FHWA and FTA, however, invite commenters to document and submit estimates of any incremental burdens that they believe would be imposed under this final rule when FHWA and FTA publish its Notice of Request for Comments seeking OMB renewal of the currently approved information collection activities (OMB Control Number 2132-0529) in early 2017.
Federal agencies are required to adopt implementing procedures for the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) that establish specific criteria for, and identification of, three classes of actions: (1) Those that normally require preparation of an Environmental Impact Statement, (2) those that normally require preparation of an Environmental Assessment, and (3) those that are categorically excluded from further NEPA review (40 CFR 1507.3(b)). This rule qualifies for categorical exclusions under 23 CFR 771.117(c)(20) (promulgation of rules, regulations, and directives) and 771.117(c)(1) (activities that do not involve or lead directly to construction) for FHWA, and 23 CFR 771.118(c)(4) (planning and administrative activities that do not involve or lead directly to construction) for FTA. The FHWA and FTA have evaluated whether the rule will involve unusual or extraordinary circumstances and have determined that this rule will not.
The FHWA and FTA have analyzed this rule under Executive Order (E.O.) 12630, Governmental Actions and Interference with Constitutionally Protected Property Rights. The FHWA and FTA do not believe this rule affects a taking of private property or otherwise has taking implications under E.O. 12630.
This rule meets applicable standards in sections 3(a) and 3(b)(2) of E.O. 12988, Civil Justice Reform, to minimize litigation, eliminate ambiguity, and reduce burden.
The FHWA and FTA have analyzed this rule under E.O. 13045, Protection of Children from Environmental Health Risks and Safety Risks. The FHWA and FTA certify that this rule will not cause an environmental risk to health or safety that might disproportionately affect children.
The FHWA and FTA have analyzed this rule under E.O. 13175, dated November 6, 2000, and believe that the rule will not have substantial direct effects on one or more Indian tribes; will not impose substantial direct compliance costs on Indian tribal governments; and will not preempt tribal laws. The rule addresses obligations of Federal funds to State DOTs for Federal-aid highway projects and will not impose any direct
The FHWA and FTA have analyzed this rule under E.O. 13211, Actions Concerning Regulations That Significantly Affect Energy Supply, Distribution, or Use. The FHWA and FTA have determined that this rule is not a significant energy action under that order and is not likely to have a significant adverse effect on the supply, distribution, or use of energy. Therefore, a Statement of Energy Effects is not required.
The E.O. 12898 (Federal Actions to Address Environmental Justice in Minority Populations and Low-Income Populations) and DOT Order 5610.2(a) (77 FR 27534, May 10, 2012) (available online at
The FHWA and FTA have issued additional documents relating to administration of E.O. 12898 and the DOT Order. On June 14, 2012, FHWA issued an update to its EJ order, FHWA Order 6640.23A (FHWA Actions to Address Environmental Justice in Minority Populations and Low Income Populations (available online at
The FHWA and FTA have evaluated the final rule under the Executive order, the DOT Order, the FHWA Order, and the FTA Circular. The EJ principles, in the context of planning, should be considered when the planning process is being implemented at the State and local level. As part of their stewardship and oversight of the federally aided transportation planning process of the States, MPOs, and operators of public transportation, FHWA and FTA encourage these entities to incorporate EJ principles into the statewide and metropolitan planning processes and documents, as appropriate and consistent with the applicable orders and the FTA Circular. When FHWA and FTA make a future funding or other approval decision on a project basis, they will consider EJ.
Nothing inherent in the rule will disproportionately impact minority or low-income populations. The rule establishes procedures and other requirements to guide future State and local decisionmaking on programs and projects. Neither the rule nor 23 U.S.C. 134 and 135 dictate the outcome of those decisions. The FHWA and FTA have determined that the rule will not cause disproportionately high and adverse human health and environmental effects on minority or low-income populations.
A Regulation Identifier Number (RIN) is assigned to each regulatory action listed in the Unified Agenda of Federal Regulations. The Regulatory Information Service Center publishes the Unified Agenda in April and October of each year. The RIN number contained in the heading of this document can be used to cross-reference this rule with the Unified Agenda.
Grant programs—transportation, Highway and roads, Mass transportation, Reporting and record keeping requirements.
Grant programs—transportation, Highways and roads, Mass transportation.
In consideration of the foregoing, FHWA and FTA amend title 23, Code of Federal Regulations, part 450, and title 49, Code of Federal Regulations, part 613, as set forth below:
23 U.S.C. 134, 135, and 315; 42 U.S.C. 7410
(a) * * *
(1) Coordinate planning carried out under this subpart with the metropolitan transportation planning activities carried out under subpart C of this part for metropolitan areas of the State. When carrying out transportation planning activities under this part, the State and MPOs shall coordinate on information, studies, or analyses for portions of the transportation system located in MPAs. The State(s), the MPO(s), and the operators of public transportation must have a current metropolitan planning agreement, which will identify coordination strategies that support cooperative decisionmaking and the resolution of disagreements;
(g) With respect to requirements added in § 450.208(a)(1) on January 19, 2017: On and after the date 2 years after the date that the U.S. Census Bureau releases its notice of Qualifying Urban Areas following the 2020 census, the State(s), the MPO(s) and the operators of public transportation must comply with the new requirements, including the requirement for a current metropolitan planning agreement that identifies coordination strategies that support cooperative decision-making and the resolution of disagreements.
The revision reads as follows:
(a) Set forth the national policy that the MPO designated for each UZA is to carry out a continuing, cooperative, and comprehensive performance-based multimodal transportation planning process for its MPA, including the development of a metropolitan transportation plan and a TIP, that encourages and promotes the safe and efficient development, management, and operation of surface transportation systems to serve the mobility needs of people and freight (including accessible pedestrian walkways, bicycle transportation facilities, and intermodal facilities that support intercity transportation, including intercity buses and intercity bus facilities and commuter vanpool providers) and foster economic growth and development, and takes into consideration resiliency needs, while minimizing transportation-related fuel consumption and air pollution; and
(d) * * *
(5) In MPAs in which multiple MPOs have been designated, the MPOs shall jointly establish, for the MPA, the performance targets that address performance measures or standards established under 23 CFR part 490 (where applicable), 49 U.S.C. 5326(c) and 49 U.S.C. 5329(d).
(i) In an UZA not designated as a TMA that is an air quality attainment area, the MPO(s) may propose and submit to the FHWA and the FTA for approval a procedure for developing an abbreviated metropolitan transportation plan and TIP. In developing proposed simplified planning procedures, consideration shall be given to whether the abbreviated metropolitan transportation plan and TIP will achieve the purposes of 23 U.S.C. 134, 49 U.S.C. 5303, and this part, taking into account the complexity of the transportation problems in the area. The MPO(s) shall develop simplified procedures in cooperation with the State(s) and public transportation operator(s).
(e) Except as provided in this paragraph, only one MPO shall be designated for each MPA. More than one MPO may be designated to serve an MPA only if the Governor(s) and the existing MPO(s), if applicable, determine that the size and complexity of the MPA make designation of more than one MPO in the MPA appropriate. In those cases where the Governor(s) and existing MPO(s) determine that the size and complexity of the MPA do make it appropriate that two or more MPOs serve within the same MPA, the Governor and affected MPOs by agreement shall jointly establish or adjust the boundaries for each MPO within the MPA, and the MPOs shall establish official, written agreements that clearly identify areas of coordination, the division of transportation planning responsibilities within the MPA among and between the MPOs, and procedures for joint decisionmaking and the resolution of disagreements. If multiple MPOs were designated in a single MPA prior to this rule or in multiple MPAs that merged into a single MPA following a Decennial Census by the Bureau of the Census, and the Governor(s) and the existing MPOs determine that the size and complexity do not make the designation of more than one MPO in the MPA appropriate, then those MPOs must merge together in accordance with the redesignation procedures in this section.
(m) Each Governor with responsibility for a portion of a multistate metropolitan area and the appropriate MPOs shall, to the extent practicable, provide coordinated transportation planning for the entire metropolitan area. The consent of Congress is granted to any two or more States to:
(a) At a minimum, the boundaries of an MPA shall encompass the entire existing UZA (as defined by the Bureau of the Census) plus the contiguous area expected to become urbanized within a 20-year forecast period for the metropolitan transportation plan.
(1) Subject to this minimum requirement, the boundaries of an MPA shall be determined through an agreement between the MPO and the Governor.
(2) If two or more MPAs otherwise include the same non-urbanized area that is expected to become urbanized within a 20-year forecast period for the transportation plan, the Governor and the relevant MPOs are required to agree on the final boundaries of the MPA or MPAs such that the boundaries of the MPAs do not overlap. In such situations, the Governor and MPOs are encouraged, but not required, to combine the MPAs into a single MPA. Merger into a single MPA also require the MPOs to merge in accordance with the redesignation procedures described in § 450.310(h), unless the Governor and MPO(s) determine that the size and
(3) The MPA boundaries may be further expanded to encompass the entire metropolitan statistical area or combined statistical area, as defined by the Office of Management and Budget.
(b) The boundaries for an MPA that includes an UZA designated as a nonattainment area for ozone or carbon monoxide under the Clean Air Act (42 U.S.C. 7401
(c) An MPA boundary may encompass more than one UZA, but each UZA must be included in its entirety.
(d) MPA boundaries may be established to coincide with the geography of regional economic development and growth forecasting areas.
(e) Identification of new UZAs within an existing MPA by the Bureau of the Census shall not require redesignation of the existing MPO.
(f) In multistate metropolitan areas, the Governors with responsibility for a portion of the multistate metropolitan area, the appropriate MPO(s), and the public transportation operator(s) are strongly encouraged to coordinate transportation planning for the entire multistate metropolitan area. States involved in such multistate transportation planning may:
(1) Enter into agreements or compacts, not in conflict with any law of the United States, for cooperative efforts and mutual assistance in support of activities authorized under this section as the activities pertain to interstate areas and localities within the States; and
(2) Establish such agencies, joint or otherwise, as the States may determine desirable for making the agreements and compacts effective.
(g) The MPA boundaries shall not overlap with each other.
(h) Subject to paragraph (i) of this section, where the Governor(s) and MPO(s) have determined that the size and complexity of the MPA make it appropriate to have more than one MPO designated for an MPA, the MPOs within the same MPA shall, at a minimum:
(1) Establish written agreements that clearly identify coordination processes, the division of transportation planning responsibilities among and between the MPOs, and procedures for joint decisionmaking and the resolution of disagreements;
(2) Through a joint decisionmaking process, develop a single TIP and a single metropolitan transportation plan for the entire MPA as required under §§ 450.324(c) and 450.326(a); and
(3) Establish the boundaries for each MPO within the MPA, by agreement among all affected MPOs and the Governor(s).
(i) Upon written request from all MPOs in an MPA and the Governor(s) of each State in the MPA, the Secretary may approve an exception to the requirements for a single metropolitan transportation plan, a single TIP, and jointly-established targets if the request satisfies the following requirements.
(1) The written request must include documentation showing compliance with the requirements in paragraph (h)(2) of this section is not feasible for reasons beyond the reasonable control of the Governor(s) and MPOs, such as clear and convincing evidence that
(i) The MPOs cannot meet paragraph (h)(2) requirements because of the extraordinary size of the MPA, the large number of MPOs or State/local governmental jurisdictions required to participate, and/or because of Clean Air Act planning requirements; or
(ii) Complying with paragraph (h)(2) requirements would produce adverse results that contravene the effective regional planning purposes of paragraph (h)(2).
(2) The request must include documentation demonstrating that:
(i) The MPOs already use coordinated planning procedures that result in consistent plans, TIPs, performance targets, and air quality conformity analyses and other planning products that effectively address regional transportation and air quality issues;
(ii) The MPOs have jointly adopted a formal written agreement with adequate procedures for coordination among the MPOs to achieve the effective regional planning purposes of paragraph (h)(2) of this section; and
(iii) Coordination and decisionmaking during at least the two most recent STIP update cycles that produced results consistent with the effective planning purposes of paragraph (h)(2) of this section.
(3) Based on the documentation provided with the request, the Secretary will determine whether to approve an exception to the requirements of paragraph (h)(2) of this section. If the Secretary determines that the request does not meet the requirements established under this paragraph, the Secretary will send the MPOs and Governor(s) a written notice of the denial of the exception, including a description of the deficiencies. The Governor(s) and MPOs shall have 90 days from receipt of the notice to address the deficiencies identified in the notice and submit supplemental information addressing the identified deficiencies to the Secretary for review and a final determination. The Secretary may extend the 90-day period to cure deficiencies upon request.
(4) An approved exception is permanent. When FHWA and FTA do certification reviews and make planning findings, FHWA and FTA will evaluate whether the MPOs covered by the exception are sustaining effective coordination processes that meet the requirements in paragraphs (i)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section.
(j) The Governor(s) and MPO(s) (in cooperation with the State and public transportation operator(s)) shall review the MPA boundaries after each Census to determine if existing MPA boundaries meet the minimum statutory requirements for new and updated UZA(s), and the Governor(s) and MPOs shall adjust them as necessary in order to encompass the entire existing UZA(s) plus the contiguous area expected to become urbanized within the 20-year forecast period of the metropolitan transportation plan. If after a Census, two previously separate UZAs are defined as a single UZA, not later than 2 years after the release of the U.S. Bureau of the Census notice of the Qualifying Urban Areas for a decennial census, the Governor(s) and MPO(s) shall redetermine the affected MPAs as a single MPA that includes the entire new UZA plus the contiguous area expected to become urbanized within the 20-year forecast period of the metropolitan transportation plan. As appropriate, additional adjustments should be made to reflect the most comprehensive boundary to foster an effective planning process that ensures connectivity between modes, improves access to modal systems, and promotes efficient overall transportation investment strategies. If more than one MPO is designated for UZAs that are merged following a Decennial Census by the Bureau of the Census, the Governor(s) and the MPOs shall comply with the MPA boundary and MPO boundaries agreement provisions in §§ 450.310 and 450.312, and the Governor(s) and MPOs shall determine whether the size and complexity of the MPA make it appropriate for there to be more than one MPO designated within the MPA. If the size and complexity of the MPA do not make it appropriate to have multiple MPOs, the MPOs shall merge, in accordance with the
(k) The Governor and MPOs are encouraged to consider merging multiple MPAs into a single MPA when:
(1) Two or more UZAs are adjacent to each other;
(2) Two or more UZAs are expected to expand and become adjacent within a 20-year forecast period for the transportation plan; or
(3) Two or more neighboring MPAs otherwise both include the same non-UZA that is expected to become urbanized within a 20-year forecast period for the metropolitan transportation plan.
(l) Following MPA boundary approval by the MPO(s) and the Governor, the MPA boundary descriptions shall be provided for informational purposes to the FHWA and the FTA. The MPA boundary descriptions shall be submitted either as a geo-spatial database or described in sufficient detail to enable the boundaries to be accurately delineated on a map.
(a) The MPO(s), the State(s), and the providers of public transportation shall cooperatively determine their mutual responsibilities in carrying out the metropolitan transportation planning process. These responsibilities shall be clearly identified in written agreements among the MPO(s), the State(s), and the providers of public transportation serving the MPA. To the extent possible, a single agreement among all responsible parties should be developed. The written agreement(s) shall include specific provisions for the development of financial plans that support the metropolitan transportation plan (see § 450.324) and the metropolitan TIP (see § 450.326), and development of the annual listing of obligated projects (see § 450.334).
(b) The MPO(s), the State(s), and the providers of public transportation should periodically review and update the agreement, as appropriate, to reflect effective changes.
(c) If the MPA does not include the entire nonattainment or maintenance area, there shall be a written agreement among the State department of transportation, State air quality agency, affected local agencies, and the MPO(s) describing the process for cooperative planning and analysis of all projects outside the MPA within the nonattainment or maintenance area. The agreement must also indicate how the total transportation-related emissions for the nonattainment or maintenance area, including areas outside the MPA, will be treated for the purposes of determining conformity in accordance with the EPA's transportation conformity regulations (40 CFR part 93, subpart A). The agreement shall address policy mechanisms for resolving conflicts concerning transportation related emissions that may arise between the MPA and the portion of the nonattainment or maintenance area outside the MPA.
(d) In nonattainment or maintenance areas, if the MPO is not the designated agency for air quality planning under section 174 of the Clean Air Act (42 U.S.C. 7504), there shall be a written agreement between the MPO and the designated air quality planning agency describing their respective roles and responsibilities for air quality related transportation planning.
(e) If more than one MPO has been designated to serve an MPA, there shall be a written agreement among the MPOs, the State(s), and the public transportation operator(s) describing how the metropolitan transportation planning processes will be coordinated to assure the development of a single metropolitan transportation plan and TIP for the MPA. In cases in which a transportation investment extends across the boundaries of more than one MPA, the MPOs shall coordinate to assure the development of consistent metropolitan transportation plans and TIPs with respect to that transportation improvement. If any part of the UZA is a nonattainment or maintenance area, the agreement also shall include State and local air quality agencies. If more than one MPO has been designated to serve an MPA, the metropolitan transportation planning processes for affected MPOs must reflect coordinated data collection, analysis, and planning assumptions across the MPA. Coordination of data collection, analysis, and planning assumptions is also strongly encouraged for neighboring MPOs that are not within the same MPA. Coordination efforts and outcomes shall be documented in subsequent transmittals of the UPWP and other planning products, including the metropolitan transportation plan and TIP, to the State(s), the FHWA, and the FTA.
(f) Where the boundaries of the MPA extend across two or more States, the Governors with responsibility for a portion of the multistate MPA, the appropriate MPO(s), and the public transportation operator(s) shall coordinate transportation planning for the entire multistate MPA, including jointly developing planning products for the MPA. States involved in such multistate transportation planning may:
(1) Enter into agreements or compacts, not in conflict with any law of the United States, for cooperative efforts and mutual assistance in support of activities authorized under this section as the activities pertain to interstate areas and localities within the States; and
(2) Establish such agencies, joint or otherwise, as the States may determine desirable for making the agreements and compacts effective.
(g) If an MPA includes a UZA that has been designated as a TMA in addition to an UZA that is not designated as a TMA, the non-TMA UZA shall not be treated as a TMA. However, if more than one MPO serves the MPA, a written agreement shall be established between the MPOs within the MPA boundaries, which clearly identifies the roles and responsibilities of each MPO in meeting specific TMA requirements (
(h) The MPO(s), State(s), and the providers of public transportation shall jointly agree upon and develop specific written provisions for cooperatively developing and sharing information related to transportation performance data, the selection of performance targets, the reporting of performance targets, the reporting of performance to be used in tracking progress toward attainment of critical outcomes for the region of the MPO (see § 450.306(d)), and the collection of data for the State asset management plans for the NHS for each of the following circumstances: When one MPO serves an UZA, when more than one MPO serves an UZA, and when an MPA includes an UZA that has been designated as a TMA as well as a UZA that is not a TMA. These provisions shall be documented either as part of the metropolitan planning agreements required under paragraphs (a), (e), and (g) of this section, or documented it in some other means outside of the metropolitan planning agreements as determined cooperatively
The revisions read as follows:
(c) If more than one MPO has been designated to serve an MPA, those MPOs within the MPA shall:
(1) Jointly develop a single metropolitan transportation plan for the MPA; and
(2) Jointly establish, for the MPA, the performance targets that address the performance measures described in 23 CFR part 490 (where applicable), 49 U.S.C. 5326(c) and 49 U.S.C. 5329(d).
The revision reads as follows:
(a) The MPO, in cooperation with the State(s) and any affected public transportation operator(s), shall develop a TIP for the MPA. If more than one MPO has been designated to serve an MPA, those MPOs within the MPA shall jointly develop a single TIP for the MPA. The TIP shall reflect the investment priorities established in the current metropolitan transportation plan and shall cover a period of no less than 4 years, be updated at least every 4 years, and be approved by the MPO(s) and the Governor(s). However, if the TIP covers more than 4 years, the FHWA and the FTA will consider the projects in the additional years as informational. The MPO(s) may update the TIP more frequently, but the cycle for updating the TIP must be compatible with the STIP development and approval process. The TIP expires when the FHWA/FTA approval of the STIP expires. Copies of any updated or revised TIPs must be provided to the FHWA and the FTA. In nonattainment and maintenance areas subject to transportation conformity requirements, the FHWA and the FTA, as well as the MPO(s), must make a conformity determination on any updated or amended TIP, in accordance with the Clean Air Act requirements and the EPA's transportation conformity regulations (40 CFR part 93, subpart A).
The addition reads as follows:
(h) With respect to requirements added in §§ 450.306(d)(5); 450.310(e); 450.312(a), (h), (i), and (j); 450.314(e), (f), (g), and (h); 450.324(c), (d), (e), (f), (h), (k), (l), and (n); 450.326; 450.330; 450.332(c); 450.334(a); and 450.336(b) on January 19, 2017: States and MPOs shall comply with the MPA boundary and MPO boundaries agreement provisions, shall document the determination of the Governor and MPO(s) whether the size and complexity of the MPA make multiple MPOs appropriate, and the MPOs shall comply with the requirements for jointly established performance targets, and a single metropolitan transportation plan and TIP for the entire MPA, prior to the next metropolitan transportation plan update occurring on or after the date that is 2 years after the date the U.S. Census Bureau releases its notice of Qualifying Urban Areas following the 2020 census.
23 U.S.C. 134, 135, and 217(g); 42 U.S.C. 3334, 4233, 4332, 7410
Department of Defense (DoD), General Services Administration (GSA), and National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA).
Summary presentation of final rules.
This document summarizes the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) rules agreed to by the Civilian Agency Acquisition Council and the Defense Acquisition Regulations Council (Councils) in this Federal Acquisition Circular (FAC) 2005-94. A companion document, the
For effective dates see the separate documents, which follow.
The analyst whose name appears in the table below in relation to the FAR case. Please cite FAC 2005-94 and the specific FAR case number. For information pertaining to status or publication schedules, contact the Regulatory Secretariat Division at 202-501-4755.
Summaries for each FAR rule follow. For the actual revisions and/or amendments made by these rules, refer to the specific item numbers and subjects set forth in the documents following these item summaries. FAC 2005-94 amends the FAR as follows:
This final rule amends the Federal Acquisition Regulation to clarify the training requirements for contractors whose employees will have access to a system of records on individuals or handle personally identifiable information. These training requirements are consistent with the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a, and OMB Circular A-130, Managing Federal Information as a Strategic Resource. Prime contractors are required to flow down these requirements to all applicable subcontracts.
This final rule amends the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) to implement section 1334 of the Small Business Jobs Act of 2010 and the Small Business Administration's (SBA) final rule, published July 16, 2013. If a contract requires a subcontracting plan, the prime contractor must notify the contracting officer in writing if the prime contractor pays a reduced payment to a small business subcontractor, or an untimely payment if the payment to a small business subcontractor is more than 90 days past due for supplies or services for which the Government has paid the contractor. The contractor is also to include the reason for the reduction in payment or failure to pay. A contracting officer will then use his or her best judgment in determining whether the reduced or untimely payments were justified. The contracting officer must record the identity of a prime contractor with a history of three or more unjustified reduced or untimely payments to subcontractors within a 12-month period under a single contract, in the Federal Awardee Performance and Integrity Information System (FAPIIS). This regulation will benefit small business subcontractors by encouraging large business prime contractors to pay small business
subcontractors in a timely manner and at the agreed upon contractual price.
Federal Acquisition Circular (FAC) 2005-94 is issued under the authority of the Secretary of Defense, the Administrator of General Services, and the Administrator for the National Aeronautics and Space Administration.
Unless otherwise specified, all Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) and other directive material contained in FAC 2005-94 is effective December 20, 2016 except for items I, and II, which are effective January 19, 2017.
Dated: December 9, 2016.
Dated: December 8, 2016.
Dated: December 8, 2016.
Department of Defense (DoD), General Services Administration (GSA), and National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA).
Final rule.
DoD, GSA, and NASA are issuing a final rule amending the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) to require that contractors, whose
Mr. Charles Gray, Procurement Analyst, at 703-795-6328 for clarification of content. For information pertaining to status or publication schedules, contact the Regulatory Secretariat Division at 202-501-4755. Please cite FAC 2005-94, FAR Case 2010-013.
DoD, GSA, and NASA published a proposed rule in the
Fifteen respondents submitted comments, including comments regarding the Initial Regulatory Flexibility Analysis (IRFA), and the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) analysis.
The Civilian Agency Acquisition Council and the Defense Acquisition Regulations Council (the Councils) reviewed the public comments in the development of the final rule. A discussion of the comments and the changes made to the rule as a result of those comments is provided as follows (comments pertaining to the IRFA and PRA analysis are addressed in sections V and VI of this preamble):
The final rule clarifies the responsibilities for contractors awarded contracts involving access to PII and streamlines the options for providing training. These clarifications include—
• Alternate I of the clause is amended to replace the proposed text, which gave the option to agencies to have contractors furnish their own training materials. The final rule no longer contains this option and what was Alternate II in the proposed rule now becomes Alternate I in the final rule; and
• The applicability of the rule to commercial items is clarified.
The final rule also provides a number of clarifications consistent with Office of Management and Budget (OMB) Circular A-130, which was revised on July 28, 2016. These clarifications address the substance of the minimal privacy training requirements, to include—
• A revised definition for PII;
• The requirement for foundational as well as more advanced levels of privacy training;
• The requirement for there to be measures in place to test the knowledge level of the employee; and
• The requirement for role-based privacy training.
Further, the increasing portability of data and various instances of loss or potential disclosure of protected information have resulted in greater scrutiny regarding the Government's information collection practices and information security management.
Finally, consistent with the revisions made to OMB Circular A-130, the requirements for privacy training at 24.301(b) and the clause at 52.224-3(c) are clarified to ensure privacy training is role-based, provides foundational as well as more advanced levels of training, and that measures are in place to test the knowledge level of users. At a minimum, privacy training shall cover—
• The provisions of the Privacy Act of 1974 (5 U.S.C. 552a), including penalties for violations of the Act;
• The appropriate handling and safeguarding of PII;
• The authorized and official use of a system of records or any other PII;
• Restrictions on the use of unauthorized equipment to create, collect, use, process, store, maintain, disseminate, disclose, dispose, or otherwise access, or store PII;
• The prohibition against the unauthorized use of a system of records or unauthorized disclosure, access, handling, or use of PII or systems of records; and
• Procedures to be followed in the event of a potential or confirmed breach of a system of records or unauthorized disclosure, access, handling, or use of PII.
Other areas include—
• The appropriate handling and safeguarding of PII; the authorized and official use of systems of records or any other PII; restrictions on the use of unauthorized equipment to create, collect, use, process, store, maintain, disseminate, disclose, dispose, or otherwise access, or store PII; the prohibition against unauthorized access, handling, or use of PII or systems of records; and
• Procedures to be followed in the event of a suspected or confirmed breach of a system of records or an unauthorized disclosure, access, handling, or use of PII.
This subject matter does not fit within either of the existing subparts of FAR part 24, therefore, a separate subpart 24.3 is needed.
The remaining editorial comments have been considered for inclusion in FAR subpart 24.
This rule is applicable to contracts and subcontracts at or below the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT) and to contracts and subcontracts for commercial-items, including contracts and subcontracts for commercially available off-the-shelf (COTS) items. The statutory authority for this rule, the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a, predates the exemptions in 41 U.S.C. 1905, 1906, and 1907, which stipulate that a provision of law enacted after October 13, 1994 shall not be made applicable to contracts or subcontracts, unless the FAR Council or the Administrator of the Office of Federal Procurement Policy makes a written determination that such exemption would not be in the best interests of the Federal Government.
Executive Orders (E.O.s) 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory
DoD, GSA, and NASA have prepared a final regulatory flexibility analysis (FRFA) consistent with the Regulatory Flexibility Act, 5 U.S.C. 601,
The objective of the rule is to ensure that contractor employees complete initial and annual privacy training if the employees have access to a system of records, handle personally identifiable information (PII), or design, develop, maintain, or operate a system of records involving PII on behalf of the Government.
One public comment was received in response to the Initial Regulatory Flexibility Analysis, which was published in the
The rule requires all contractors with contracts that require employees to have access to PII to complete training that addresses the statutory requirements for protection of privacy, in accordance with the Privacy Act (5 U.S.C. 552a), and the handling and safeguarding of PII.
In the IRFA, it was estimated that approximately 1,483 small businesses would be impacted. However, because the final rule clarifies its applicability to commercial item contracts, the number of small entities previously estimated to be impacted by this rule has been revised as described in the following paragraphs:
Information obtained from the Federal Procurement Data System (FPDS) for fiscal year (FY) 2015 reveals that approximately 10,607 unique vendors received contracts that most likely entailed the design, development, maintenance or operation of a system of records; required access to a system of records; or handled PII from individuals, on behalf of the Government. The estimated number of subcontractors who likewise will be involved in these activities is 21,214, or double the amount of prime contractors. In all, the total number of contractors and subcontractors (including contracts and subcontracts for commercial items) that may be subject to the requirements of this rule is 31,821. Examination of FY 2015 FPDS data also reveals that approximately 61 percent of these contractors and subcontractors are small business entities. Based on this information, the following analysis was used to determine the number of small businesses that may be impacted by this rule:
contracts = (10,607 × .61): 6,470
subcontracts = (21,214 × .61): 12,941
that may be impacted by rule: 19,411
There is minimal recordkeeping associated with this rule. Contractors will likely maintain employee training records for privacy training similar to how they maintain their employees' other training records. There are no required formats or templates for documentation, and documentation will be retained by the contractor in most cases. The Government will likely request a firm's training documentation only when necessary to ensure effective management and oversight.
The final rule addresses several steps to minimize the economic impact on small entities, most notably by clarifying responsibilities and streamlining the options for providing privacy training. This final rule also removes from the clause consideration of agency-specific training elements, while retaining the required minimum training elements. Agency-specific training elements are provided in Alternate I of the clause.
Interested parties may obtain a copy of the FRFA from the Regulatory Secretariat Division. The Regulatory Secretariat Division has submitted a copy of the FRFA to the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration.
The Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. chapter 35) applies. The rule contains information collection requirements. OMB has cleared the information collection requirement under OMB Control Number 9000-0182, entitled Privacy Training, in the amount of 97,670 public burden hours.
Two respondents submitted comments in response to the initial notice published in the preamble of the
However, since the analysis used in the proposed rule did not consider contracts involving the acquisition of commercial items, the methodology used to derive the estimated public burden needed to be adjusted to encompass these contracts. In addition, the estimated public burden hours vary from the estimates in the notice published in the
Government procurement.
Therefore, DoD, GSA, and NASA amend 48 CFR parts 1, 24, and 52 as set forth below:
40 U.S.C. 121(c); 10 U.S.C. chapter 137; and 51 U.S.C. 20113.
(a) Contractors are responsible for ensuring that initial privacy training, and annual privacy training thereafter, is completed by contractor employees who—
(1) Have access to a system of records;
(2) Create, collect, use, process, store, maintain, disseminate, disclose, dispose, or otherwise handle personally identifiable information on behalf of the agency; or
(3) Design, develop, maintain, or operate a system of records (see FAR subpart 24.1 and 39.105).
(b) Privacy training shall address the key elements necessary for ensuring the safeguarding of personally identifiable information or a system of records. The training shall be role-based, provide foundational as well as more advanced levels of training, and have measures in place to test the knowledge level of users. At a minimum, the privacy training shall cover—
(1) The provisions of the Privacy Act of 1974 (5 U.S.C. 552a), including penalties for violations of the Act;
(2) The appropriate handling and safeguarding of personally identifiable information;
(3) The authorized and official use of a system of records or any other personally identifiable information;
(4) The restriction on the use of unauthorized equipment to create, collect, use, process, store, maintain, disseminate, disclose, dispose, or otherwise access personally identifiable information;
(5) The prohibition against the unauthorized use of a system of records or unauthorized disclosure, access, handling, or use of personally identifiable information; and
(6) Procedures to be followed in the event of a suspected or confirmed breach of a system of records or unauthorized disclosure, access, handling, or use of personally identifiable information (see Office of Management and Budget guidance for Preparing for and Responding to a Breach of Personally Identifiable Information).
(c) The contractor may provide its own training or use the training of another agency unless the contracting agency specifies that only its agency-provided training is acceptable (see 24.302(b)).
(d) The contractor is required to maintain and, upon request, to provide documentation of completion of privacy training for all applicable employees.
(e) No contractor employee shall be permitted to have or retain access to a system of records, create, collect, use, process, store, maintain, disseminate, disclose, or dispose, or otherwise handle personally identifiable information, or design, develop, maintain, or operate a system of records, unless the employee has completed privacy training that, at a minimum, addresses the elements in paragraph (b) of this section.
(a) The contracting officer shall insert the clause at FAR 52.224-3, Privacy Training, in solicitations and contracts when, on behalf of the agency, contractor employees will—
(1) Have access to a system of records;
(2) Create, collect, use, process, store, maintain, disseminate, disclose, dispose, or otherwise handle personally identifiable information; or
(3) Design, develop, maintain, or operate a system of records.
(b) When an agency specifies that only its agency-provided training is acceptable, use the clause with its Alternate I.
The revisions and additions read as follows:
(b) * * *
(47)(i) 52.224-3, Privacy Training (JAN 2017) (5 U.S.C. 552a).
(ii) Alternate I (JAN 2017) of 52.224-3.
(e)(1) * * *
(xix)(A) 52.224-3, Privacy Training (JAN 2017) (5 U.S.C. 552a).
(B) Alternate I (JAN 2017) of 52.224-3.
(e)(1) * * *
(ii) * * *
(S)(1) 52.224-3, Privacy Training (JAN 2017) (5 U.S.C. 552a).
(2) Alternate I (JAN 2017) of 52.224-3.
The revisions read as follows:
(a) * * *
(2) * * *
(viii) 52.244-6, Subcontracts for Commercial Items (JAN 2017).
As prescribed in 24.302(a), insert the following clause:
(a)
(b) The Contractor shall ensure that initial privacy training, and annual privacy training thereafter, is completed by contractor employees who—
(1) Have access to a system of records;
(2) Create, collect, use, process, store, maintain, disseminate, disclose, dispose, or otherwise handle personally identifiable information on behalf of an agency; or
(3) Design, develop, maintain, or operate a system of records (see also FAR subpart 24.1 and 39.105).
(c)(1) Privacy training shall address the key elements necessary for ensuring the safeguarding of personally identifiable information or a system of records. The training shall be role-based, provide foundational as well as more advanced levels of training, and have measures in place to test the knowledge level of users. At a minimum, the privacy training shall cover—
(i) The provisions of the Privacy Act of 1974 (5 U.S.C. 552a), including penalties for violations of the Act;
(ii) The appropriate handling and safeguarding of personally identifiable information;
(iii) The authorized and official use of a system of records or any other personally identifiable information;
(iv) The restriction on the use of unauthorized equipment to create, collect, use, process, store, maintain, disseminate, disclose, dispose or otherwise access personally identifiable information;
(v) The prohibition against the unauthorized use of a system of records or unauthorized disclosure, access, handling, or use of personally identifiable information; and
(vi) The procedures to be followed in the event of a suspected or confirmed breach of a system of records or the unauthorized disclosure, access, handling, or use of personally identifiable information (see OMB guidance for Preparing for and Responding to a Breach of Personally Identifiable Information).
(2) Completion of an agency-developed or agency-conducted training course shall be deemed to satisfy these elements.
(d) The Contractor shall maintain and, upon request, provide documentation of completion of privacy training to the Contracting Officer.
(e) The Contractor shall not allow any employee access to a system of records, or permit any employee to create, collect, use, process, store, maintain, disseminate, disclose, dispose or otherwise handle personally identifiable information, or to design, develop, maintain, or operate a system of records unless the employee has completed privacy training, as required by this clause.
(f) The substance of this clause, including this paragraph (f), shall be included in all subcontracts under this contract, when subcontractor employees will—
(1) Have access to a system of records;
(2) Create, collect, use, process, store, maintain, disseminate, disclose, dispose, or otherwise handle personally identifiable information; or
(3) Design, develop, maintain, or operate a system of records.
(c) The contracting agency will provide initial privacy training, and annual privacy training thereafter, to Contractor employees for the duration of this contract.
The revisions and additions read as follows:
(c)(1) * * *
(xv)(A) 52.224-3, Privacy Training (JAN 2017) (5 U.S.C. 552a) if flow down is required in accordance with 52.224-3(f).
(B) Alternate I (JAN 2017) of 52.224-3, if flow down is required in accordance with 52.224-3(f) and the agency specifies that only its agency-provided training is acceptable).
Department of Defense (DoD), General Services Administration (GSA), and National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA).
Final rule.
DoD, GSA, and NASA are issuing a final rule amending the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) to implement a section of the Small Business Jobs Act of 2010. This statute requires contractors to notify the contracting officer, in writing, if the contractor pays a reduced price to a small business subcontractor or if the contractor's payment to a small business subcontractor is more than 90 days past due.
Mr. Curtis E. Glover, Sr., Procurement Analyst, at 202-501-1448 for clarification of content. For information pertaining to status or publication schedules, contact the Regulatory Secretariat Division at 202-501-4755. Please cite FAC 2005-94, FAR Case 2014-004.
DoD, GSA, and NASA are issuing a final rule to implement section 1334 of the Small Business Jobs Act of 2010 (Pub. L. 111-240, 15 U.S.C. 637(d)(12)) and the Small Business Administration (SBA) final rule published in the
The Civilian Agency Acquisition Council and the Defense Acquisition Regulations Council (the Councils) reviewed the public comments in the development of the final rule. A discussion of the comments and changes made to the rule as a result of those comments are provided as follows:
1. A reporting window of 14 days is added to FAR clause 52.242-5, Payments to Small Business Contractors, for prime contractors to report to the contracting officer an untimely or reduced payment, as defined in the rule, made to their small business subcontractors.
2. The following examples of payment and nonpayment situations not considered to be unjustified are added at FAR 42.1502(g)(2)(ii):
• There is a contract dispute on performance.
• Partial payment is made for amounts not in dispute.
• A payment is reduced due to past overpayments.
• There is an administrative mistake.
• Late performance by the subcontractor leads to later payment by the prime contractor.
3. A reference to FAR clause 52.242-5 was added to paragraph (b) of the clause at FAR 52.212-5, Contract Terms and Conditions Required to Implement Statutes or Executive Orders—Commercial Items.
1.
2.
3.
Multiple respondents commented on the reporting requirements of the proposed rule.
4.
5.
6.
Several respondents commented on the additional contracting officer responsibilities and offered alternate procedures.
7.
8.
9.
10.
According to the respondent, because the rule does not address when a prime contractor must report a reduced payment to the contracting officer, one might interpret the rule to require an immediate report by the prime contractor to the contracting officer upon making a reduced payment.
However, requiring the prime contractor to report a reduced payment immediately creates a disincentive for prime contractors to make a reduced rather than late payment, as the obligation to report a late payment does not arise for a minimum of 90 days past the original due date.
11.
12.
13.
The following changes were made, not as a result of public comments:
1. FAR 1.106 was amended to add the OMB Control Number associated with FAR clause 52.242-5.
2. Minor editorial changes were made for grammatical reasons or to conform to FAR drafting conventions.
The Federal Acquisition Regulatory (FAR) Council has made the following determinations with respect to the rule's application of Section 1334 of the Small Business Jobs Act of 2010, to contracts for the acquisition of commercial items and contracts for the acquisition of commercially available off-the-shelf (COTS) items.
Pursuant to 41 U.S.C. 1906, acquisitions of commercial items (other than acquisitions of COTS items, which are addressed in 41 U.S.C. 1907) are exempt from a provision of law unless the law (i) contains criminal or civil penalties; (ii) specifically refers to 41 U.S.C. 1906 and states that the law applies to acquisitions of commercial items; or (iii) the FAR Council makes a written determination and finding that it would not be in the best interest of the Federal Government to exempt contracts for the procurement of commercial items from the provision of law. If none of these conditions are met, the FAR is required to include the statutory requirement(s) on a list of provisions of law that are inapplicable to acquisitions of commercial items.
The purpose of this rule is to implement section 1334 of the Small Business Jobs Act of 2010. Section 1334 requires prime contractors to self-report late or reduced payments to their small business subcontractors. The rule also requires contracting officers to record the identity of contractors with a history of late or reduced payments to small business subcontractors in the Federal Awardee Performance and Integrity System (FAPIIS).
The statutory requirements are reflected in the Small Business Administration's (SBA's) final rule published at 78 FR 42391 on July 16, 2013, which did not exempt acquisitions of commercial items.
The law is silent on the applicability of these requirements to acquisitions of commercial items and does not independently provide for criminal or civil penalties; nor does it include terms making express reference to 41 U.S.C. 1906 and its application to acquisitions of commercial items. Therefore, it does not apply to acquisitions of commercial items unless the FAR Council makes a written determination as provided in 41 U.S.C. 1906.
The law furthers the administration's goal of supporting small business and advances the interests of small business subcontractors by discouraging reduced or untimely payments to small business subcontractors. Exclusion of acquisitions for commercial items from these requirements will limit the full implementation of these subcontracting-related objectives. Further, the primary FAR clauses implementing Federal procurement policies governing subcontracting with small business, FAR 52.219-8, Utilization of Small Business Concerns, and 52.219-9, Small Business Subcontracting Plan, are currently prescribed for use in solicitations for commercial items. Exclusion of acquisitions for commercial items from these requirements would create confusion among contractors and the Federal contracting workforce. Moreover, the rule may also increase the timeliness of payments to small business subcontractors.
For these reasons, it is in the best interest of the Federal Government to apply the requirements of the rule to the acquisition of commercial items.
Pursuant to 41 U.S.C. 1907, acquisitions of COTS items will be exempt from a provision of law unless the law (i) contains criminal or civil penalties; (ii) specifically refers to 41 U.S.C. 1907 and states that the law applies to acquisitions of COTS items; (iii) concerns authorities or responsibilities under the Small Business Act (15 U.S.C. 644) or bid protest procedures developed under the authority of 31 U.S.C. 3551
The purpose of this rule is to implement section 1334 of the Small Business Jobs Act of 2010. Section 1334 requires prime contractors to self-report late or reduced payments to their small business subcontractors. The rule also requires contracting officers to record the identity of contractors with a history of late or reduced payments to small business subcontractors in FAPIIS.
These statutory requirements are reflected in the SBA final rule published at 78 FR 42391 on July 16, 2013, which did not exempt acquisitions of COTS items.
The law is silent on the applicability of these requirements to acquisitions of COTS items and does not independently provide for criminal or civil penalties; nor does it include terms making express reference to 41 U.S.C. 1907 and its application to acquisitions of COTS items. Therefore, it does not apply to acquisitions of COTS items unless the Administrator for Federal Procurement Policy makes a written determination as provided in 41 U.S.C. 1907.
The law furthers the Administration's goal of supporting small business and advances the interests of small business subcontractors by discouraging reduced or untimely payments to small business subcontractors. Exclusion of a large segment of Federal contracting, such as acquisitions for COTS items, will limit the full implementation of these subcontracting-related objectives. Further, the primary FAR clauses implementing Federal procurement policies governing subcontracting with small business, FAR 52.219-8, Utilization of Small Business Concerns, and 52.219-9, Small Business Subcontracting Plan, are currently prescribed for use in solicitations for COTS items. Exclusion of acquisitions for COTS items from these requirements would create confusion among contractors and the Federal contracting workforce. Moreover, the rule may also increase the timeliness of payments to small business subcontractors.
For these reasons, it is in the best interest of the Federal Government to apply the subcontracting requirements to the acquisition of COTS items.
Executive Orders (E.O.s) 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, distributive impacts, and equity). E.O. 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, of reducing costs, of harmonizing rules, and of promoting flexibility. This is a significant regulatory action and, therefore, was subject to review under section 6(b) of E.O. 12866, Regulatory Planning and Review, dated September 30, 1993. This rule is not a major rule under 5 U.S.C. 804.
DoD, GSA, and NASA have prepared a final regulatory flexibility analysis (FRFA) consistent with the Regulatory Flexibility Act, 5 U.S.C. 601,
Section 1334 of the Small Business Jobs Act of 2010 (Pub. L. 111-240) and the Small Business Administration's final rule at 78 FR 42391, Small Business Subcontracting, published July 16, 2013, require that the prime contractor self-report when the prime contractor makes reduced or untimely payments to small business subcontractors. Section 1334 also requires the contracting officer to record the identity of contractors with a history of unjustified reduced or untimely payments in the Federal Awardee Performance and Integrity System (FAPIIS).
This final rule implements the self-reporting requirements of section 1334 by requiring contracting officers to include FAR clause 52.242-5, Payments to Small Business Subcontractors, in all solicitations and contracts containing the clause at 52.219-9, Small Business Subcontracting Plan. The new FAR clause requires prime contractors to notify the contracting officer of reduced or untimely payments to small business subcontractors.
The rule also amends FAR 42.1503(h) to require contracting officers to report to FAPIIS a contractor that has a history of three or more reduced or untimely payments to small business subcontractors within a 12-month period under a single contract that are unjustified. FAR 42.1503, Table 42-2 is also amended to include unjustified reduced or untimely payments to small business subcontractors as part of the definition of ratings for the “small business subcontracting” past performance evaluation factors.
There were no public comments received on the initial regulatory flexibility analysis.
The final rule applies to payments made to small businesses that are first-tier subcontractors to prime government contractors. There will be no burden on small businesses, as small businesses do not have subcontracting plans. This regulation will benefit small business subcontractors by encouraging large business prime contractors to pay small business subcontractors in a timely manner and the agreed upon contractual price.
This rule imposes new recordkeeping and reporting requirements and contains information collection requirements. Small businesses are not required to report under this information collection because it only applies to prime contractors whose contracts contain the clause 52.219-9, Small Business Subcontracting Plan, which is not applicable to small businesses.
The rule does not duplicate, overlap, or conflict with any other Federal rules.
Interested parties may obtain a copy of the FRFA from the Regulatory Secretariat Division. The Regulatory Secretariat Division has submitted a copy of the FRFA to the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration.
The Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35) applies. The rule contains information collection requirements. OMB has cleared this information collection requirement under OMB Control Number 9000-0196, titled: “Payments to Small Business Subcontractors.”
Government procurement.
Therefore, DoD, GSA, and NASA are amending 48 CFR parts 1, 19, 42, and 52 as set forth below:
40 U.S.C. 121(c); 10 U.S.C. chapter 137; and 51 U.S.C. 20113.
The addition reads as follows:
(a) * * *
(15) Assurances that the offeror will pay its small business subcontractors on time and in accordance with the terms and conditions of the subcontract, and notify the contracting officer if the offeror pays a reduced or an untimely payment to a small business subcontractor (see 52.242-5).
(g) Past performance evaluations shall include an assessment of the contractor's—
(1) Performance against, and efforts to achieve, the goals identified in the small business subcontracting plan when the contract includes the clause at 52.219-9, Small Business Subcontracting Plan; and
(2) Reduced or untimely payments (as defined in 19.701), made to small business subcontractors, determined by the contracting officer to be unjustified. The contracting officer shall—
(i) Consider and evaluate a contractor's written explanation for a reduced or an untimely payment when determining whether the reduced or untimely payment is justified; and
(ii) Determine that a history of unjustified reduced or untimely payments has occurred when the contractor has reported three or more occasions of unjustified reduced or untimely payments under a single contract within a 12-month period (see 42.1503(h)(1)(vi) and the evaluation ratings in Table 42-2). The following payment or nonpayment situations are not considered to be unjustified:
(A) There is a contract dispute on performance.
(B) A partial payment is made for amounts not in dispute.
(C) A payment is reduced due to past overpayments.
(D) There is an administrative mistake.
(E) Late performance by the subcontractor leads to later payment by the prime contractor.
The revisions and addition read as follows:
(b)(1) * * *
(2) * * *
(v) Small business subcontracting, including reduced or untimely payments to small business subcontractors when 19.702(a) requires a subcontracting plan (as applicable, see Table 42-2).
(vi) Other (as applicable) (
(h) * * *
(1) Agencies shall ensure information is accurately reported in the FAPIIS module of CPARS within 3 calendar days after a contracting officer—
(iv) Makes a subsequent withdrawal or a conversion of a termination for default to a termination for convenience;
(v) Receives a final determination after an administrative proceeding, in accordance with 22.1704(d)(1), that substantiates an allegation of a violation of the trafficking in persons prohibitions in 22.1703(a) and 52.222-50(b); or
(vi) Determines that a contractor has a history of three or more unjustified reduced or untimely payments to small business subcontractors under a single contract within a 12-month period (see 42.1502(g)(2)).
Insert the clause at 52.242-5, Payments to Small Business Subcontractors, in all solicitations and contracts containing the clause at 52.219-9, Small Business Subcontracting Plan.
The revisions and addition read as follows:
(b) * * *
_(17)(i) 52.219-9, Small Business Subcontracting Plan (JAN 2017) (15 U.S.C. 637(d)(4)).
_(60) 52.242-5, Payments to Small Business Subcontractors (JAN 2017)(15 U.S.C. 637(d)(12)).
The revisions and additions read as follows:
(b) * * *
(d) * * *
(15) Assurances that the offeror will pay its small business subcontractors on time and in accordance with the terms and conditions of the underlying subcontract, and notify the contracting officer when the prime contractor makes either a reduced or an untimely payment to a small business subcontractor (see 52.242-5).
(d) * * *
(15) Assurances that the offeror will pay its small business subcontractors on time and in accordance with the terms and conditions of the underlying subcontract, and notify the contracting officer when the prime contractor makes either a reduced or an untimely payment to a small business subcontractor (see 52.242-5).
As prescribed in 42.1504, insert the following clause:
(a)
(b)
(1) A small business subcontractor was entitled to payment under the terms and conditions of the subcontract; and
(2) The Contractor—
(i) Made a reduced or untimely payment to the small business subcontractor; or
(ii) Failed to make a payment, which is now untimely.
(c)
(End of clause)
Department of Defense (DoD), General Services Administration (GSA), and National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA).
Small Entity Compliance Guide.
This document is issued under the joint authority of DOD, GSA, and NASA. This
December 20, 2016.
For clarification of content, contact the analyst whose name appears in the table below. Please cite FAC 2005-94 and the FAR case number. For information pertaining to status or publication schedules, contact the Regulatory Secretariat Division at 202-501-4755.
Summaries for each FAR rule follow. For the actual revisions and/or amendments made by these rules, refer to the specific item numbers and subjects set forth in the documents following these item summaries. FAC 2005-94 amends the FAR as follows:
This final rule amends the Federal Acquisition Regulation to clarify the training requirements for contractors whose employees will have access to a system of records on individuals or handle personally identifiable information. These training requirements are consistent with the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a, and OMB Circular A-130, Managing Federal Information as a Strategic Resource. Prime contractors are required to flow down these requirements to all applicable subcontracts.
This final rule amends the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) to implement section 1334 of the Small Business Jobs Act of 2010 and the Small Business Administration's (SBA) final rule, published July 16, 2013. If a contract requires a subcontracting plan, the prime contractor must notify the contracting officer in writing if the prime contractor pays a reduced payment to a small business subcontractor, or an untimely payment if the payment to a small business subcontractor is more than 90 days past due for supplies or services for which the Government has paid the contractor. The contractor is also to include the reason for the reduction in payment or failure to pay. A contracting officer will then use his or her best judgment in determining whether the reduced or untimely payments were justified. The contracting officer must record the identity of a prime contractor with a history of three or more unjustified reduced or untimely payments to subcontractors within a 12-month period under a single contract, in the Federal Awardee Performance and Integrity Information System (FAPIIS). This regulation will benefit small business subcontractors by encouraging large business prime contractors to pay small business subcontractors in a timely manner and at the agreed upon contractual price.
Office of Child Support Enforcement (OCSE), Administration for Children and Families (ACF) and the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS), Department of Health and Human Services (HHS).
Final rule.
This rule is intended to carry out the President's directives in
This final rule is effective on January 19, 2017. States may comply any time after the effective date, but before the final compliance date,
The compliance date, or the date by which the States must follow the rule, will be February 21, 2017 except, as noted below:
•
• The requirements for reviewing guidelines for setting child support awards [§ 302.56(h)]: The compliance date is for the first quadrennial review of the guidelines commencing after the State's guidelines have initially been revised under this final rule.
• Continuation of service for IV-E cases [§ 302.33(a)(4)], Location of noncustodial parents in IV-D cases [§ 303.3], Mandatory notice under Review and adjustment of child support orders [§ 303.8(b)(7)(ii)], Mandatory provisions of
• Optional provisions (such as Paternity-only Limited Service [§ 302.33(a)(6)],
•
•
The OCSE Division of Policy and Training at
This final rule is published under the authority granted to the Secretary of the Department of Health and Human Services by section 1102 of the Social Security Act (Act), 42 U.S.C. 1302. Section 1102 of the Act authorizes the Secretary to publish regulations, not inconsistent with the Act, which may be necessary for the efficient administration of the functions for which the Secretary is responsible under the Act. Additionally, the Secretary has authority under section 452(a)(1) of the Act to “establish such standards for State programs for locating noncustodial parents, establishing paternity, and obtaining child support . . . as he[she] determines to be necessary to assure that such programs will be effective.” Rules promulgated under section 452(a)(1) must meet two conditions. First, the Secretary's designee must find that the rule meets one of the statutory objectives of “locating noncustodial parents, establishing paternity, and obtaining child support.” Second, the Secretary's designee must determine that the rule is necessary to “assure that such programs will be effective.”
Section 454(13) requires a State plan to “provide that the State will comply with such other requirements and standards as the Secretary determines to be necessary to the establishment of an effective program for locating noncustodial parents, establishing paternity, obtaining support orders, and collecting support payments and provide that information requests by parents who are residents of other States be treated with the same priority as requests by parents who are residents of the State submitting the plan.”
This final rule is published in accordance with the following sections of the Act: Section 451—Appropriation;
The Child Support Enforcement program was established to hold noncustodial parents accountable for providing financial support for their children. Child support payments play an important role in reducing child poverty, lifting approximately one million people out of poverty each year. In 2014, the Child Support Enforcement program collected $28.2 billion in child support payments for the families in State and Tribal caseloads. During this same period, 85 percent of the cases had child support orders, and nearly 71 percent of cases with support orders had at least some payments during the year. For current support, 64 percent of current collections are collected on time every month.
This final rule makes changes to strengthen the Child Support Enforcement program and update current practices in order to increase regular, on-time payments to all families, increase the number of noncustodial parents working and supporting their children, and reduce the accumulation of unpaid child support arrears. These changes remove regulatory barriers to cost-effective approaches for improving enforcement consistent with the current knowledge and practices in the field, and informed by many successful state-led innovations. In addition, given that almost three-fourths of child support payments are collected by employers through income withholding, this rule standardizes and streamlines payment processing so that employers are not unduly burdened by this otherwise highly effective support enforcement tool. The rule also removes outdated barriers to electronic communication and document management, updating existing child support regulations, which frequently limit methods of storing or communicating information to a written or paper format. Finally, the rule updates the program to reflect the recent Supreme Court decision in
This final rule recognizes and incorporates policies and practices that reflect the progress and positive results from successful program implementation by States and Tribes.
The section-by-section discussion below provides greater detail on the provisions of the rule. All references to regulations are related to 45 CFR Chapter III, except as specified in sections relating to the CMS regulations (42 CFR part 433). In general, this final rule only affects regulations governing State IV-D programs, and does not impact Tribal IV-D program rules under 45 CFR part 309, except for some minor technical changes.
The following is a summary of the regulatory provisions included in the final rule and how these provisions differ from what was initially included in the Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (NPRM). The NPRM was published in the
This final rule includes (1) procedures to promote program flexibility, efficiency, and modernization; (2) updates to account for advances in technology; and (3) technical corrections. The following is a discussion of all the regulatory provisions included in this rule. Please note the provisions are discussed in order by category. We present the revisions in these three categories to assist the reader in understanding the major concepts and rationale for the changes.
Section 302.32 mirrors Federal law which requires State Disbursement Units (SDUs) to collect and disburse child support payments in accordance with support orders in IV-D cases. Additionally, SDUs must collect and disburse child support payments in non-IV-D cases in which the support order was initially issued on or after January 1, 1994, and the income of the noncustodial parent is subject to withholding in accordance with section 466(a)(8)(B) of the Act. The provision also specifies timeframes for the disbursement of support payments.
Paragraph (a) describes the basic IV-D State plan requirement that each State must establish and operate an SDU for the collection and disbursement of child support payments.
Paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) identify the types of child support cases for which support payments must be collected and disbursed through the SDU. Paragraph (a)(1) specifies that support payments under support orders in all cases under the State IV-D plan must be collected and disbursed through the SDU. Paragraph (a)(2) requires that support payments under support orders in all cases not being enforced under the State IV-D plan (non-IV-D cases) in which the support order is initially issued in the State on or after January 1, 1994, and
Paragraph (b) is introductory language preceding timeframes for disbursement of various types of child support collections. Paragraph (b)(1) requires that in intergovernmental IV-D cases, child support collected on behalf of the initiating agency must be forwarded to the initiating agency within 2 business days of the date of receipt by the SDU in the responding State. The provision also includes an updated reference to the intergovernmental child support regulations at § 303.7(d)(6)(v) of this chapter. In response to comments regarding paragraph (b)(1), in the final rule we changed the term interstate to intergovernmental. We also used the term initiating agency instead of initiating State, recognizing that intergovernmental IV-D cases may be initiated by Tribal or foreign child support programs and not only States.
Section 302.33(a)(4) requires that whenever a family is no longer eligible for State's Title IV-A and Medicaid assistance, the IV-D agency must notify the family, within 5 working days of the notification of ineligibility, that IV-D services will be continued unless the family notifies the IV-D agency that it no longer wants services but instead wants to close the case. This notice must inform the family of the benefits and consequences of continuing to receive IV-D services, including the available services and the State's fees, cost recovery, and distribution policies. This notification requirement also applies when a child is no longer eligible for IV-E foster care, but only in those cases that the IV-D agency determines that such services and notice would be appropriate.
Under § 302.33(a)(6), the State has the option of providing limited services for paternity-only services in intrastate cases to any applicant who requests such services. In response to comments, we narrowed the scope of limited services to paternity-only intrastate cases, instead of allowing a wide range of limited services. Although several commenters expressed support for increasing the flexibility of services offered to applicants, the revisions are based on other comments expressing concerns about the difficulty and cost for States to implement a menu of limited services in the context of intergovernmental enforcement. Some commenters also expressed concerns about how limited enforcement services options might impact Federal reporting and the performance measures used for incentive payments.
In the preamble to the NPRM, OCSE specifically requested feedback from commenters regarding whether there are additional domestic violence safeguards that should be put in place with respect to limited services. Some commenters emphasized the need for domestic violence safeguards in this area. In response to these commenters, we added language to the final rule requiring States to include domestic violence safeguards when establishing and using paternity-only limited services procedures.
Section 302.38 reinforces the requirements found in section 454(11)(B) of the Act. The provision in the rule requires that a State's IV-D plan “shall provide that any payment required to be made under §§ 302.32 and 302.51 to a family will be made directly to the resident parent, legal guardian, caretaker relative having custody of or responsibility for the child or children, conservator representing the custodial parent and child directly with a legal and fiduciary duty, or alternate caretaker designated in a record by the custodial parent. An alternate caretaker is a nonrelative caretaker who is designated in a record by the custodial parent to take care of the children for a temporary time period. Based on comments received, we added “judicially-appointed conservator with a legal and fiduciary duty to the custodial parent and the child” and “alternate caretaker designated in a record by the custodial parent” to the list of individuals to whom payments can be made. We also clarified what is meant by an alternate caretaker.
Section 302.56(a) requires each State to establish one set of guidelines by law or by judicial or administrative action for setting and modifying child support order amounts within 1 year after completion of the State's next quadrennial review of its child support guidelines, that commences more than 1 year after publication of the final rule, in accordance with § 302.56(e), as a condition of approval of its State plan. Considering public comments requesting additional time to implement revised guidelines, we added “that commences more than 1 year after publication of the final rule” to provide more time to do research and prepare for those States that have a quadrennial review that would initiate shortly after the issuance of this final rule.
Section 302.56(b) requires the State to have procedures for making guidelines available to all persons in the State. Based on comments, we removed the phrase “whose duty it is to set child support award amounts” at the end of the sentence.
The introductory paragraph for section 302.56(c) indicates the minimum requirements for child support guidelines. Paragraph (c)(1) indicates that child support guidelines must provide the child support order is based on the noncustodial parent's earnings, income, and other evidence of ability to pay that: (i) Takes into consideration all earnings and income of the noncustodial parent (and at the State's discretion, the custodial parent); (ii) takes into consideration the basic subsistence needs of the noncustodial parent (and at the State's discretion, the custodial parent and children) who has a limited ability to pay by incorporating a low-income adjustment, such as a self-support reserve or some other method determined by the State; and (iii) if imputation of income is authorized, takes into consideration the specific circumstances of the noncustodial parent (and at the State's discretion, the custodial parent) to the extent known, including such factors as the noncustodial parent's assets, residence, employment and earnings history, job skills, educational attainment, literacy, age, health, criminal record and other employment barriers, and record of seeking work, as well as the local job market, the availability of employers willing to hire the noncustodial parent, prevailing earnings level in the local community, and other relevant background factors in the case.
Responding to comments, we made major revisions in paragraph (c)(1). We moved the phrase “and other evidence of ability to pay” from paragraph (c)(4) to paragraph (c)(1) based on comments to require child support guidelines to provide that the child support order is based on the noncustodial parent's earnings, income, and other evidence of ability to pay. This provision codifies the basic guidelines standard for setting order amounts, reflecting OCSE's longstanding interpretation of statutory guidelines requirements (See AT-93-04 and PIQ-00-03).
In paragraph (c)(1)(i), based on comments, we retained “all income and earnings” and did not change “all” to “actual” income and earnings as we had proposed in the NPRM. Based on comments, we also added “(and at the State's discretion, the custodial parent).”
Based on comments, we made the following revisions in paragraph (c)(1). We revised proposed paragraph (c)(4) and redesignated it as (c)(1)(ii). We added “basic” before subsistence needs to clarify scope. We also added “(and at the State's discretion, the custodial parent and children),” giving States the option of considering the custodial parent's and children's basic subsistence needs in addition to the subsistence needs of the noncustodial parent. We also granted more flexibility to States in how they will consider basic subsistence needs by adding “who has a limited ability to pay by incorporating a low-income adjustment, such as a self-support reserve or some other method determined by the State.” We also removed language from the NPRM that the guidelines “provide that any amount ordered for support be based upon available data related to the parent's actual earnings, income, assets, or other evidence of ability to pay, such as testimony that income or assets are not consistent with a noncustodial parent's current standard of living.” We also added paragraph (c)(1)(iii) related to imputed income.
We redesignated proposed paragraph (c)(3) as (c)(2). This provision requires that State child support guidelines address how the parents will provide for the child's health care needs through private or public health care coverage and/or through cash medical support. To conform to other medical support revisions in this final rule, we replaced “health insurance coverage” in the NPRM with “private or public health care coverage.” Based on comments, we also removed “in accordance with § 303.31 of this chapter” that was in the NPRM because § 303.31 only pertains to IV-D cases and this provision of the rule applies to both IV-D and non-IV-D cases.
OCSE redesignated proposed paragraph (c)(5) as paragraph (c)(3) in the final rule. This paragraph prohibits the treatment of incarceration as “voluntary unemployment” when establishing or modifying support orders because State policies that treat incarceration as voluntary unemployment effectively block application of the Federal review and adjustment law in section 466(a)(10) of the Act. This section of the Act requires review, and if appropriate, adjustment of an order upward or downward upon a showing of a substantial change in circumstances.
This rule redesignated proposed paragraph (c)(2) as (c)(4), which requires that the guidelines be based on specific descriptive and numeric criteria and result in a computation of the support obligation. Paragraph (d) requires States to include a copy of the guidelines in the State plan. Paragraph (e) requires that each State review, and revise its guidelines, if appropriate, at least once every 4 years to ensure that their application results in the determination of appropriate child support order amounts. Responding to comments, we added a sentence that requires each State to publish on the Internet and make accessible to the public all reports of the child support guidelines reviewing body, the membership of the reviewing body, the effective date of the guidelines, and the date of the next quadrennial review.
Paragraph (f) requires States to provide for a rebuttable presumption, in any judicial or administrative proceeding for the establishment and modification of a child support order, that the amount of the order which would result from the application of the child support guidelines established under paragraph (a) is the correct amount of child support to be ordered. We made a minor technical revision to both paragraphs (f) and (g) to specify that these paragraphs apply to the establishment and modification of a child support order.
Under paragraph (g) in this rule, a written or specific finding on the record of a judicial or administrative proceeding for the establishment or modification of a child support order that the application of the child support guidelines established under paragraph (a) of this section would be unjust or inappropriate in a particular case will be sufficient to rebut the presumption in that case, as determined under criteria established by the State. Such criteria must take into consideration the best interests of the child. Findings that rebut the child support guidelines shall state the amount of support that would have been required under the guidelines and include a justification of why the child support order varies from the guidelines.
In response to comments, we deleted proposed paragraph (h), which would have allowed States to recognize parenting time provisions in child support orders pursuant to State guidelines or when both parents have agreed to the parenting time provisions.
In the final rule, we redesignated proposed paragraph (i) as paragraph (h) and subdivided this paragraph into paragraphs (h)(1) through (h)(3) to make it easier to read. Paragraph (h)(1) requires, as part of the review of a State's child support guidelines required under paragraph (e) of this section, that a State must consider economic data on the cost of raising children, labor market data (such as unemployment rates, employment rates, hours worked, and earnings) by occupation and skill-level for the State and local job markets, the impact of guideline policies and amounts on custodial and noncustodial parents who have family incomes below 200 percent of the Federal poverty level, and factors that influence employment rates among noncustodial parents and compliance with current support orders. Based on comments, we added all of the factors to the existing requirement to consider the economic data on the cost of raising children.
Paragraph (h)(2) requires the State to analyze case data, gathered through sampling or other methods, on the application of and deviations from the child support guidelines, as well as the rates of default and imputed child support orders and orders determined using the low-income adjustment required under paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section. The analysis must also include a comparison of payments on child support orders by case characteristics, including whether the order was entered by default, based on imputed income, or determined using the low-income adjustment required under paragraph (c)(1)(ii). The analysis of the data must be used in the State's review of the child support guidelines to ensure that deviations from the guidelines are limited and guideline amounts are appropriate based on criteria established by the State under paragraph (g). Based on comments, we added “as well as the rates of default and imputed child support orders and orders determined using the low-income adjustment required under paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section.” We also added “and guideline amounts are appropriate based on criteria established by the State under paragraph (g).”
Considering public comments, we added the provisions in paragraph (h)(3) that the State's review of the child support guidelines must provide a meaningful opportunity for public input, including input from low-income custodial and noncustodial parents and their representatives. The State must also obtain the views and advice of the State child support agency funded under title IV-D.
Finally, OCSE made a technical change in the title and throughout this
Section 302.70(d)(2) provides the basis for granting an exemption from any of the State law requirements discussed in paragraph (a) of this section and extends the exemption period from 3 to 5 years.
In this section, OCSE maintains the authority to review and to revoke a State's exemption at any time [paragraphs (d)(2) and (3)]. States may also request an extension of an exemption 90 days prior to the end of the exemption period [paragraph (d)(4)].
This proposed provision received overwhelming support from states, Members of Congress, and the public, but it also was opposed by some Members of Congress who did not think the provision should be included in the final rule. While we appreciate the support the commenters expressed, we think allowing for federal IV-D reimbursement for job services needs further study and would be ripe for implementation at a later time. Therefore, we are not proceeding with finalizing the proposed provisions at §§ 302.76, 303.6(c)(5), and 304.20(b)(viii).
Section 303.3 requires IV-D agencies to attempt to locate all noncustodial parents or sources of income and/or assets where that information is necessary. Paragraph (b)(1) requires States to use appropriate location sources such as the Federal PLS; interstate location networks; local officials and employees administering public assistance, general assistance, medical assistance, Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program (SNAP), and social services (whether such individuals are employed by the State or a political subdivision); relatives and friends of the noncustodial parent; current or past employers; electronic communications and Internet service providers; utility companies; the U.S. Postal Service; financial institutions; unions; corrections institutions; fraternal organizations; police, parole, and probation records if appropriate; and State agencies and departments, as authorized by State law, including those departments which maintain records of public assistance, wages and employment, unemployment insurance, income taxation, driver's licenses, vehicle registration, and criminal records and other sources.
In response to comments, we made the following technical revisions to the list of locate sources in paragraph (b)(1): Changing “food stamps” to Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program (SNAP); adding “utility companies;” changing “the local telephone company” to “electronic communications and Internet service providers ;” and changing “financial references” to “financial institutions.”
The NPRM did not include any revisions to § 303.4; however, because we had numerous comments related to the general applicability of State guidelines, we moved the requirements specifically related to State IV-D agencies to § 303.4. We also had many comments related to the IV-D agency responsibilities in determining the noncustodial parent's income and imputation of income when establishing child support orders. Following this line of comments, we made revisions to § 303.4 that require State IV-D agencies to implement and use procedures in IV-D cases related to applying the guidelines regulation. To address several comments received in response to proposed changes to § 302.56 regarding establishment of support orders and imputation of income, we revised this section to address requirements for the State IV-D agencies when establishing support orders in IV-D cases that would not be applicable to non-IV-D cases.
In § 303.4(b), States are required to use appropriate State statutes, procedures, and legal processes in establishing and modifying support obligation in accordance with § 302.56 of this chapter. We added “procedures,” as well as “and modifying,” to the former paragraph. We also replaced “pursuant to” with “in accordance with” in this same paragraph.
We also added paragraphs (b)(1) through (b)(4) to provide additional requirements that State IV-D agencies must meet in establishing and modifying support obligations. Paragraph (b)(1) requires States to take reasonable steps to develop a sufficient factual basis for the support obligation, through such means as investigations, case conferencing, interviews with both parties, appear and disclose procedures, parent questionnaires, testimony, and electronic data sources. Paragraph (b)(2) requires States to gather information regarding the earnings and income of the noncustodial parent and, when earning and income information is unavailable in a case, gather available information about the specific circumstances of the noncustodial parent, including such factors as listed under § 302.56(c)(iii).
Additionally, paragraph (b)(3) requires basing the support obligation or recommended support obligation amount on the earnings and income of the noncustodial parent whenever available. If evidence of earnings and income is not available or insufficient to use as the measure of the noncustodial parent's ability to pay, then the support obligation or recommended support obligation amount should be based on available information about the specific circumstances of the noncustodial parent, including such factors as those listed under § 302.56(c)(iii).
Finally, paragraph (b)(4) requires documenting the factual basis for the support obligation or the recommended support obligation in the case record.
In the final rule, we amended § 303.6(c)(4) to require States to establish guidelines for the use of civil contempt citations in IV-D cases. The guidelines must include requirements that the IV-D agency must screen the case for information regarding the noncustodial parent's ability to pay or otherwise comply with the order. The IV-D agency must also provide the court with such information regarding the noncustodial parent's ability to pay, which may assist the court in making a factual determination regarding the noncustodial parent's ability to pay the purge amount or comply with the purge conditions. Finally, the IV-D agency must provide clear notice to the noncustodial parent that ability to pay constitutes the critical question in the civil contempt action.
We amended § 303.6 to remove “and” at the end of paragraph (c)(3) and redesignated paragraph (c)(4) as paragraph (c)(5). We made significant revisions to the NPRM for the final rule based on comments. As a result of comments, we revised the proposed new paragraph (c)(4) to require that State IV-D agencies must establish guidelines for the use of civil contempt citations in IV-D cases.
Based on these comments, we deleted the entire proposed paragraph (c)(4) that would have required procedures that would ensure that enforcement activity in civil contempt proceedings takes into consideration the subsistence needs of the noncustodial parent, and ensure that a purge amount the noncustodial parent must pay in order to avoid incarceration takes into consideration actual earnings and income and the subsistence needs of the noncustodial parent. We also
Instead we added that IV-D agency must provide the court with such information regarding the noncustodial parent's ability to pay, which may assist the court in making a factual determination regarding the noncustodial parent's ability to pay the purge amount or comply with the purge conditions. Finally, the IV-D agency must provide clear notice to the noncustodial parent that ability to pay constitutes the critical question in the civil contempt action. The Response to Comments section for
We redesignated former § 303.8(b)(2) through (5) as (b)(3) through (6). A new paragraph (b)(2) allows the IV-D agency to elect in its State plan the option to initiate the review of a child support order, after learning that a noncustodial parent will be incarcerated for more than 180 calendar days, without the need for a specific request, and upon notice to both parents, review and, if appropriate, adjust the order, in accordance with paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section. Based on comments, we revised the proposed regulatory language “after being notified” to “after learning” and increased the number of days from 90 to 180 days. We also added the word “calendar” after “180” to distinguish between calendar and business days.
In addition, we redesignated former paragraph (b)(6) which requires notice “not less than once every three years,” to paragraphs (b)(7) and (b)(7)(i). We added a new paragraph (b)(7)(ii) that indicates if a State has not elected to initiate review without the need for a specific request under paragraph (b)(2) of this section, within 15 business days of when the IV-D agency learns that the noncustodial parent will be incarcerated for more than 180 calendar days, the IV-D agency must send a notice to both parents informing them of the right to request a review and, if appropriate, adjust the order. The notice must specify, at minimum, the place and manner in which the parents must make the request for review.
Based on comments, we revised the proposed language in paragraph (b)(2) to: Add that the IV-D agency must send the notice within 15 business days of learning that the noncustodial parent will be incarcerated, add an incarceration timeframe of more than 180 calendar days to be consistent with paragraph (b)(2); and replace the phrase “upon request” with “if appropriate.” We also revised the proposed provision to use the phrase “both parents” instead of “incarcerated noncustodial parent and the custodial parent” for consistency with paragraphs (b)(7)(i) and (ii). In response to comments, we added a sentence at the end of paragraph (b)(7)(ii), based on comments, that recognizes existing comparable State law or rule that modifies child support obligations upon incarceration of the noncustodial parent.
Based on comments, we added a sentence to paragraph (c) to address incarceration as a significant change in circumstance when determining the standard for adequate grounds for petitioning review and adjustment of a child support order.
Finally, OCSE amends § 303.8(d) to make conforming changes with our revisions in § 303.31 to remove a previous requirement that, for purposes of review or adjustment of a child support order, a child's eligibility for Medicaid could not be considered sufficient to meet the child's health care needs. The final rule indicates that the need to provide for the child's health care needs in an order, through health insurance or other means, must be an adequate basis under State law to initiate an adjustment of an order, regardless of whether an adjustment in the amount of child support is necessary.
Section 303.11(b) adds language to clarify that a IV-D agency is not required to close a case that is otherwise eligible to be closed under that section. Case closure regulations in paragraph (b) are designed to give a State the option to close cases, if certain conditions are met, and to provide a State flexibility to manage its caseload. If a State elects to close a case under one of these criteria, the State must maintain supporting documentation for its decision in the case record.
Paragraph (b)(1) indicates that a case may be closed when there is no longer a current support order and arrearages are under $500 or unenforceable under State law. New paragraph (b)(2) adds a case closure criterion to permit a State to close a case where there is no current support order and all arrearages are owed to the State.
Paragraph (b)(3) adds a criterion to allow the IV-D agency to close an arrearages-only case against a noncustodial parent who is entering or has entered long-term care placement, and whose children have reached the age of majority if the noncustodial parent has no income or assets available above the subsistence level that could be levied or attached for support.
Paragraph (b)(4) permits closure of a case when the noncustodial parent or alleged father is deceased and no further action, including a levy against the estate, can be taken. Paragraph (b)(5) adds a criterion to allow a State to close a case when the noncustodial parent is either living with the minor children as the primary caregiver or is a part of an intact two-parent household, and the IV-D agency has determined that services either are not appropriate or are no longer appropriate. We added “or no longer appropriate” to the proposed language as a technical revision.
Paragraph (b)(6) indicates that a case may be closed when paternity cannot be established because: (i) The child is at least 18 years old and an action to establish paternity is barred by a statute of limitations that meets the requirements of § 302.70(a)(5) of this chapter; (ii) a genetic test or a court or an administrative process has excluded the alleged father and no other alleged father can be identified; (iii) in accordance with § 303.5(b), the IV-D agency has determined that it would not be in the best interests of the child to establish paternity in a case involving incest or rape, or in any case where legal proceedings for adoption are pending; or (iv) the identity of the biological father is unknown and cannot be identified after diligent efforts, including at least one interview by the IV-D agency with the recipient of services. Minor technical changes were made to this paragraph.
Paragraph (b)(7) allows case closure when the noncustodial parent's location is unknown, and the State has made diligent efforts using multiple sources, in accordance with § 303.3, all of which have been unsuccessful, to locate the noncustodial parent: Over a 2-year period when there is sufficient information to initiate an automated locate effort; over a 6-month period when there is not sufficient information to initiate an automated locate effort; or after a 1-year period when there is sufficient information to initiate an automated locate effort, but locate interfaces are unable to verify a Social Security Number.
Paragraph (b)(8) states that case closure is permitted when a IV-D agency has determined that throughout the duration of the child's minority (or after the child has reached the age of majority), the noncustodial parent cannot pay support and shows no
Section 303.11(b)(9) adds a new case closure criterion to permit a State to close a case when a noncustodial parent's sole income is (i) from Supplemental Security Income (SSI) payments, or (ii) from both SSI payments and Social Security Disability Insurance (SSDI) benefits under title II of the Act. In paragraph (b)(9)(ii), we added “payments” after “SSI” and, in response to comments, clarified that SSDI is the Title II benefit. Also, in paragraph (b)(9)(iii), we deleted the phrase “or other needs-based benefits” because these benefits may have limited duration and do not reflect a determination of an inability to work. In the absence of a disability that impairs the ability to work, the ability of the noncustodial parent to work and earn income may also fluctuate with time. Thus, it is important for the child support agencies to take efforts on these cases to remove the barriers to nonpayment and build the capacity of the noncustodial parents to pay by using tools such as referring noncustodial parents for employment services provided by another State program or community-based organization.
Paragraph (b)(10) allows case closure when the noncustodial parent is a citizen of, and lives in, a foreign country, does not work for the Federal government or a company with headquarters or offices in the United States, and has no reachable domestic income or assets; and there is no Federal or State reciprocity with the country. The final rule makes a technical change in this paragraph to clarify that reciprocity with a country could be through either a Federal or State treaty or reciprocal agreement. We added “treaty or” to the proposed language as a technical change.
Paragraph (b)(11) permits case closure if the IV-D agency has provided location-only services as requested under § 302.35(c)(3) of this chapter.
Paragraph (b)(12) indicates that a case may be closed where the non-IV-A recipient of services requests closure and there is no assignment to the State of medical support under 42 CFR 433.146 or of arrearages which accrued under a support order. Paragraph (b)(13) adds a criterion to allow the State to close a non-IV-A case after completion of a paternity-only limited service under § 302.33(a)(6) without providing the notice in accordance with § 303.11(d)(4).
Paragraph (b)(14) states that case closure is allowed if there has been a finding by the IV-D agency, or at the option of the State, by the responsible State agency of good cause or other exceptions to cooperation with theIV-D agency and the State or local assistance program, such as IV-A, IV-E, SNAP, and Medicaid, which has determined that support enforcement may not proceed without risk of harm to the child or caretaker relative. We added “IV-D agency, or at the option of the State, by the” as a technical change because this tracks the language of the statute. In response to comments, we also added SNAP to the list of assistance programs referenced in this paragraph.
Paragraph (b)(15) allows case closure in a non-IV-A case receiving services under § 302.33(a)(1)(i) or (iii) of this chapter, or under § 302.33(a)(1)(ii) when cooperation with the IV-D agency is not required of the recipient of services, when the IV-D agency is unable to contact the recipient of services despite a good faith effort to contact the recipient through at least two different methods.
Paragraph (b)(16) also permits closure when the IV-D agency documents the circumstances of the recipient's noncooperation and an action by the recipient is essential for the next step in providing IV-D services in a non-IV-A case receiving services under § 302.33(a)(1)(i) or (iii) of this chapter, or under § 302.33(a)(1)(ii) when cooperation with the IV-D agency is not required of the recipient of services.
Paragraphs (b)(17) through (b)(19) identify the case closure criteria when the responding State IV-D agency may close a case. Paragraph (b)(17) allows the responding agency to close a case when it documents failure by the initiating agency to take an action that is essential for the next step in providing services. We revised “IV-D” agency from the NPRM to “responding” agency to make the language more consistent with paragraphs (b)(18) and (b)(19). We also made a small editorial change for plain English to this paragraph.
Paragraph (b)(18) also allows the responding IV-D agency to close a case when the initiating agency has notified the responding State that the initiating State has closed its case under § 303.7(c)(11).
Paragraph (b)(19) indicates that the responding State may close a case if the initiating agency has notified the responding State that its intergovernmental services are no longer needed.
Paragraph (b)(20) adds a new criterion to provide a State with flexibility to close a case referred inappropriately by the IV-A, IV-E, SNAP, and Medicaid programs. In response to comments, SNAP is added to the list of referring agencies.
Paragraph (b)(21) adds a criterion to permit a State flexibility to close a case if the State has transferred it to a Tribal IV-D agency, regardless of whether there is a State assignment of arrears, based on the following procedures. First, before transferring the case to a Tribal IV-D agency and closing the State's case, either the recipient of services requested the State to transfer its case and close the State's case or the IV-D agency notified the recipient of its intent to transfer the case to the Tribal IV-D agency and the recipient did not respond to the notice within 60 calendar days of the date of the notice. Next, the State IV-D agency completely and fully transferred and closed the case. Third, the State IV-D agency notified the recipient that the case has been transferred to the Tribal IV-D agency and closed. Finally, paragraph (b)(21)(iv) indicates that if the TribalIV-D agency has a State-Tribal agreement approved by OCSE to transfer and close case, this agreement must include a provision for obtaining the consent from the recipient of services to transfer and close the case.
Responding to comments, we added “including a case with arrears assigned to the State” to the introductory sentence of paragraph (b)(21). We also clarified that the case transfer process includes transfer and closure. As a technical change, we added “State” before IV-D agency throughout this paragraph to clarify which IV-D agency had the responsibility. In response to comments, the rule added paragraph (b)(21)(iv) related to allowing a permissible case transfer in accordance with an OCSE-approved State-Tribal agreement that includes consent from the recipient of services.
Paragraph (c) adds a criterion to require a State IV-D agency to close a Medicaid reimbursement referral based solely upon health care services provided through an Indian Health Service Program, including through the Purchased/Referred Care program. Unlike the case closure criteria under paragraph (b), which are permissive, the case closure criterion under paragraph (c) is mandatory. In the final rule, we
In this joint rule, we also amend 42 CFR 433.152(b)(1), consistent with IHS policy, to require that State Medicaid agencies not refer cases for medical support enforcement services when the Medicaid referral is based solely upon health care services, including the Purchased/Referred Care program, provided through an Indian Health Program (as defined at 25 U.S.C. 1603(12) to a child who is eligible for health care services from the IHS. This policy remedies the current inequity of holding noncustodial parents personally liable for services provided through the Indian Health Programs to IHS-eligible families that qualify for Medicaid. The revision to 42 CFR 433.152(b)(1) also eliminates reference to 45 CFR part 306, which was repealed in 1996.
In the final rule, paragraphs (d)(1) through (3) had minor stylistic edits from the NPRM. Paragraph (d)(1) requires that a State must notify the recipient of services in writing 60 calendar days prior to closing a case of the State's intent to close the case meeting the criteria in paragraphs (b)(1) through (10) and (b)(15) through (16) of this section. Paragraph (d)(2) adds provisions that in an intergovernmental case meeting the criteria for closure under paragraph (b)(17), the responding State must notify the initiating agency 60 calendar days prior to closing the case of the State's intent to close the case.
Paragraph (d)(3) states that the case must be kept open if the recipient of services or the initiating agency supplies information, in response to the notice provided under paragraph (d)(1) or (2), which could lead to paternity or support being established or an order being enforced, or, in the instance of paragraph (b)(15) of this section, if contact is reestablished with the recipient of services.
Based on comments, we removed proposed paragraphs (d)(4) and (5) regarding the notice requirements for inappropriate referrals under paragraphs (b)(20) and (c).
Section 303.11(d)(4), which was proposed as (d)(6) in the NPRM, requires that for a case to be closed in accordance with paragraph (b)(13), the State must notify the recipient of services, in writing, 60 calendar days prior to closure of the case of the State's intent to close the case. This paragraph also specifies the notice content and lists steps the recipient must take if the recipient reapplies for child support services. Responding to comments, we revised the proposed language to require the notice prior to closure rather than after the limited services case has been closed. We also removed references to proposed paragraph (d)(5) and changed the number of days to 60 calendar days from 30 calendar days.
Section 303.11(d)(5) permits a former recipient of services to re-open a closed IV-D case by reapplying for IV-D services.
Finally, paragraph (e) requires a IV-D agency to retain all records for cases closed for a minimum of 3 years.
In this final rule OCSE amends § 303.31 to provide a State with flexibility to permit parents to meet their medical support obligations by providing health care coverage or payments for medical expenses that are reasonable in cost and best meet the health care needs of the child. In paragraph (a)(2), we clarify that health care coverage includes public and private insurance.
In paragraph (a)(3), we delete the requirement that the cost of health insurance be measured based on the marginal cost of adding the child to the policy. Therefore, this change gives a State additional flexibility to define reasonable medical support obligations.
Next, § 303.31(b) requires the State IV-D agency to petition the court or administrative authority to include health care coverage that is accessible to the parent and can be obtained for the child at a reasonable cost. OCSE removes the limitation in paragraphs (b)(1) and (2), (3)(i), and (4) restricting this to private health insurance to allow a State to take advantage of both private and public health care coverage options to meet children's health care needs, and emphasize the role of State child support guidelines in setting child support orders that address how parents will share the costs associated with covering their child. We also made an editorial change in paragraph (b)(1)(ii).
To be consistent with Department of Treasury regulations at 31 CFR 285.3(c)(6), the rule amends § 303.72(d)(1) to require the initiating State to notify other States only if it receives an offset amount. This change amends the former § 303.72(d)(1) by eliminating the phrase, “when it submits an interstate case for offset.”
We are adding a new paragraph (h) in section 303.100(e) to require use of the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) approved form to implement withholding for all child support orders regardless of whether the case is IV-D or non-IV-D. Section 303.100(e) clarifies that “the required OMB-approved Income Withholding for Support form” must be used when sending notice to employers to initiate income withholding for child support. Finally, the rule adds a new paragraph (i), which explicitly states that income withholding payments on non-IV-D cases must be directed through the State Disbursement Unit.
In the final rule, we are amending § 304.20 to increase the flexibility of State IV-D agencies to receive Federal reimbursement for cost-effective practices that increase the effectiveness of standard enforcement activities. We amend § 304.20(a)(1) to clarify that Federal financial participation (FFP) is available for expenditures for child support services and activities that are necessary and reasonable to carry out the State title IV-D plan. This change reflects 45 CFR part 75, “Uniform Administrative Requirements, Cost Principles, and Audit Requirements for Federal Awards,” subpart E—Cost Principles, which all State child support agencies must use in determining the allowable costs of work performed under Federal grants.
In paragraph (b), we added the phrase “including but not limited to” to make clear that FFP is available for, but not limited to, the activities listed in the regulation, consistent with OMB cost principles that allow for expenditures that are necessary and reasonable and can be attributed to the child support enforcement program.
Paragraphs (b)(1)(viii) and (ix) address the establishment of agreements with other agencies administering the titles IV-D, IV-E, XIX (Medicaid), and XXI (Children's Health Insurance Program (CHIP)) programs, to recognize activities related to cross-program coordination, client referrals, and data sharing when authorized by law. The provisions also include minor technical changes and specify the criteria States may include in these agreements. In paragraphs (b)(1)(viii)(A) and (b)(1)(ix)(A), we are adding “and from” before IV-D agency to provide States more flexibility to refer a case to and from the IV-D agency
For agreements with IV-A and IV-E agencies under paragraph (b)(1)(viii), we added paragraphs (b)(1)(viii)(D) and (E) to the list of criteria to include procedures to coordinate services and agreements to exchange data as authorized by law, respectively. The rule also adds these two new criteria under paragraph (b)(1)(ix) for agreements with State agencies administering Medicaid or CHIP programs as paragraphs (b)(1)(ix)(B) and (C).
In response to comments, under paragraph (b)(1)(ix), we added “appropriate” before criteria to provide States greater flexibility in which criteria or activities to include in their agreements with Medicaid or CHIP agencies. Also based on comments, we retained the provision regarding the transfer of assigned medical support collections to the Medicaid agency now at paragraph (b)(1)(ix)(D), and formerly at paragraph (b)(1)(ix)(C).
Section 304.20(b)(2) clarifies that FFP is available for services and activities for the establishment of paternity including, but not limited to the specific activities listed in paragraph (b)(2). The rule adds educational and outreach activities to § 304.20(b)(2)(vii) to explain that FFP is available for IV-D agencies to educate the public and to develop and disseminate information on voluntary paternity establishment.
In accordance with the requirement in section 454(23) of the Act to regularly and frequently publicize the availability of child support enforcement services, including voluntary paternity services, paragraph (b)(3) clarifies that FFP is available for services and activities for the establishment and enforcement of support obligations including, but not limited to the specific activities listed in paragraph (b)(3). The rule adds allowable services and activities under paragraph (b)(3) related to the establishment and enforcement of support obligations. A new paragraph (b)(3)(v) allows FFP for bus fare or other minor transportation expenses to allow participation by parents in child support proceedings and related activities such as genetic testing appointments. We redesignated the former § 304.20(b)(3)(v) as § 304.20(b)(3)(vii).
In addition, new paragraph (b)(3)(vi) recognizes that FFP is available to increase
In response to comments, we deleted the proposed paragraph (b)(3)(vii), which would have specifically allowed States to claim FFP for “
We also made minor editorial changes in paragraph (b)(5)(v) by deleting “;” and adding “.” at the end of the paragraph, and in paragraphs (b)(9) and proposed (b)(11) by deleting “; and” and adding “.” at the end of the sentence.
Finally, we added a new paragraph (b)(12) to allow FFP for the educational and outreach activities intended to inform the public, parents and family members, and young people who are not yet parents about the Child Support Enforcement program, responsible parenting and co-parenting, family budgeting, and other financial consequences of raising children when the parents are not married to each other.
Section 304.23(a) through (c) of the rule indicates that Federal financial participation at the applicable matching rate is not available for: (a) Activities related to administering titles I, IV-A, IV-B, IV-E, X, XIV, XVI, XIX, XX, or XXI of the Act or 7 U.S.C. Chapter 51; (b) purchased support enforcement services which are not secured in accordance with § 304.22; and (c) construction and major renovations.
For § 304.23(d), we added “State and county employees and court personnel” as a technical clarification that Federal financial participation is not available for the education and training of personnel except direct costs of short-term training provided to IV-D agency staff in accordance with § 304.20(b)(2)(vii) and § 304.21. This provision does not apply to other types of education and training activities (such as those provided to parents that are addressed in other rules) in this part. We also made a minor editorial change from the proposed language.
The final rule also clarifies that FFP is not available for any expenditures which have been reimbursed by fees collected as required by this chapter (§ 304.23(e)); any costs of those caseworkers described in § 303.20(e) of this chapter (§ 304.23(f)); any expenditures made to carry out an agreement under § 303.15 of this chapter (§ 304.23(g)); and the costs of counsel for indigent defendants in IV-D actions (§ 304.23(h)).
Paragraph (i) indicates that FFP is prohibited for any expenditures for the jailing of parents in child support enforcement cases. In the NPRM, OCSE inadvertently removed this restriction; however, we are correcting this error in the final rule. As a result, proposed paragraph (i), which addresses that costs of
In the final rule, we amend § 307.11(c)(3)(i) to include provisions requiring States to build automatic processes designed to preclude garnishing financial accounts of noncustodial parents who are recipients of Supplemental Security Income (SSI) payments or individuals concurrently receiving both SSI and Social Security Disability Insurance (SSDI) benefits under title II of the Act. We also amended § 307.11(c)(3)(ii) to provide that funds must be returned to a noncustodial parent's financial account, within 5 business days after the agency determines that SSI payments or concurrent SSI payments and SSDI benefits under title II of the Act, have been inappropriately garnished. Responding to comments, we increased the timeframe from 2 days in the NPRM to 5 business days.
In this final rule, the revisions remove barriers to using electronic communication and document management. Throughout the regulation, where appropriate, we removed the words “written” and “in writing” and insert “record” or “in a record.” These simple changes will allow OCSE, States, and others the flexibility to use cost-saving and efficient technologies, such as email or electronic document storage, wherever possible. The revisions to the regulation do not require a State to use electronic records for the specified purpose, but instead provide a State with the option to use electronic records, in accordance with State laws and procedures.
The definition of “record” used in this final regulation is taken from the Uniform Interstate Family Support Act (UIFSA) 2008, section 102(20). The
This is a standard definition designed to embrace all means of communicating or storing information except human memory. It includes any method for storing or communicating information, including “writings.” A record need not be indestructible or permanent, but the term does not include oral or other communications which are not stored or preserved by some means. Information that has not been retained other than through human memory does not qualify as a record. As in the case of the terms “writing” or “written,” the term “record” does not establish the purposes, permitted uses or legal effect which a record may have under any particular provision of substantive law.
Substituting the phrase “in a record” for “in writing” allows more flexibility for electronic options by preventing a record from being automatically denied legal effect or enforceability just because it is in an electronic format. In addition, the use of the word “record” is designed to be technologically neutral; the word equates an electronic signature with a hand signature and an electronic document (whether scanned or created electronically) with a paper document. It neither means that electronic documents or electronic signatures will be required, nor will it affect any Federal requirements for what documents must contain to be valid or enforceable, such as a signature.
We are aware that not everyone has access to the latest technology. For that reason, wherever individual members of the public are involved, we generally are not removing requirements that the information is provided in a written, paper format [
This final rule amends the definition of “Procedures” in § 301.1 by changing the phrase “written set of instructions” to “instructions in a record.” This will allow instructions set forth under the State's child support plan to be made in an electronic form that is retrievable and perceivable within the meaning of the Uniform Electronic Transactions Act, and is not limited to a written format.
In addition, we are inserting the definition for the term “record” in this section. The use of the term “record” is broader than the term “written” and encompasses different ways of storing information, including, for example, in a written or an electronic document.
In the first sentence of the introductory paragraph of § 301.13, we replace the words “written documents” with the word “records.” The intent of this change is to allow for electronic submission, transmission, and storage of the State child support plan. When a State submits a new State child support plan or plan amendment(s) electronically, it must ensure electronic signature(s) accompany the document(s).
In paragraphs (e) and (f) of this section, “Prompt approval of the State plan” and “Prompt approval of plan amendments,” respectively, we change the words “a written agreement” in both provisions to “an agreement, which is reflected in a record.” These changes will enable OCSE regional program offices to secure from IV-D agencies agreements to extend an approval deadline for either a State plan or State plan amendment(s) in an electronic record format. In addition, we are making a technical change to paragraph (f) to change “Regional Commissioner” to “Regional Office” for consistency with other references to the “Regional Office” in this section.
In § 302.33(d)(2), we change the phrase “written methodology” to “methodology, which is reflected in a record.” This change will afford a State record-keeping flexibility in maintaining the methodology developed for recovering standardized costs.
The first sentence under § 302.34 requires a State to enter into written agreements for cooperative arrangements under § 303.107 with appropriate courts, law enforcement officials, Indian tribes, or tribal organizations. The rule edits the phrase “written agreements” to read “agreements, which are reflected in a record.” This will ensure that any cooperative arrangements entered into by the IV-D agency can be maintained in a manner that is not limited to a written format. This amendment does not change any of the requirements for the document to be legally effective or enforceable, such as a signature.
In this final rule, we replace the word “writing” with the term “a record” in § 302.50(b)(2) so the State has greater flexibility in determining the format of the obligation amount, when there is no court or administrative order, and such amount is based on other legal process established under State law in accordance with State guidelines procedures.
This rule amends § 302.65(b) by changing the phrase “a written agreement” to “an agreement, which is reflected in a record.” Additionally, in paragraph (c)(3), we replaced the words “written criteria” with “criteria, which are reflected in a record.” These changes will establish that the agreements States develop with State workforce agencies (SWAs) and the criteria for selecting cases in which to pursue withholding of unemployment compensation are not limited to written agreements or written criteria. Again, these amendments do not impact any of the requirements for the documents to be legally effective or enforceable, such as a signature.
Section 302.70(a)(5) describes the procedures for paternity establishment. In the final rule, paragraph (a)(5)(v) discusses requirements for objecting to genetic testing results and states that if no objection is made, a report of the test results, which is reflected in a record, is admissible as evidence of paternity without the need for foundation testimony or other proof of authenticity or accuracy. We are changing the phrase “a written report of the test results” to “a report of the test results, which is reflected in a record” to provide greater flexibility and efficiency in admitting evidence of paternity. Please note that in this same paragraph, we are not eliminating the phrase “in writing” in the requirement regarding the notice to parents about the consequences of acknowledging paternity, paragraph (a)(5)(iii), and the requirement that any objection to genetic testing results must be made in writing within a specified number of days before any hearing at which such results may be introduced into evidence, paragraph (a)(5)(v). In these instances, the phrase “in writing” is statutorily prescribed, according to
This section describes the basis for OCSE to grant State waivers in regard to the mandatory computerized support enforcement system. Section 302.85(b)(2)(ii) requires the State to provide assurances, which are reflected in a record, that steps will be taken to otherwise improve the State's IV-D program. This change provides a State the option of communicating with OCSE electronically, rather than only in writing, when providing the required assurances under this provision.
In this rule, § 303.2(a)(2), requires the State IV-D agency to send an application to an individual within no more than 5 working days of a request received by telephone or in a record. We are replacing the phrase “a written or telephone request” with “a request received by telephone or in a record,” in order to allow for any requests for applications that are received by telephone or transmitted electronically, for example, by email or text message. In response to comments, we also changed the word “made” to “received” to clarify when the 5 working day timeframe begins.
Under paragraph (a)(3), the rule changes the requirements for applications for IV-D services, to define an application as a record provided by the State which is signed, electronically or otherwise, by the individual applying for IV-D services. We are lifting the restriction that applications only be in a written or paper format, as well as allowing for electronic signature, by inserting the phrase “electronically or otherwise” after the word “signature.” The acceptance of electronic signature is in accordance with PIQ 09-02,
Section 303.5(g)(6) requires the State to provide training, guidance, and instructions, which are reflected in a record, regarding voluntary acknowledgment of paternity to hospitals, birth record agencies, and other entities that participate in the State's voluntary acknowledgment program. The rule changes the phrase “written instructions” to “instructions, which are reflected in a record” to allow a State the flexibility to provide program instructions in electronic formats, in addition to, or in place of, written instructions.
Paragraph (d) describes the requirements for case closure notification and case reopening. Paragraph (d)(1) indicates that for cases meeting the case closure requirements in paragraphs (b)(1) through (10) and (b)(15) and (16) of this section, the State must notify service recipients in writing 60 calendar days prior to closure of the cases of the State's intent to close a case.
In order to allow for greater efficiency and flexibility, paragraph (d)(2) allows electronic notification in the instance of intergovernmental IV-D case closure when the responding agency is communicating with the initiating agency.
Paragraph (b)(4) states that for cases to be closed in accordance with paragraph (b)(13), the State must notify the recipient of services, in writing, 60 calendar days prior to closure of the case of the State's intent to close the case. In response to comments, we added the phrase “in writing” to clarify how the notices should be sent to the recipient.
We are not changing the State's “written” notification requirements to the recipients of services because of our general approach not to remove requirements to provide formal notices for all applicants and recipients of services in writing. However, as discussed in response to comments under § 303.11,
We amend the introductory language in § 303.31(b)(3) by changing the phrase “written criteria” to “criteria, which are reflected in a record,” so that criteria established to identify cases where there is a high potential for obtaining medical support can be either in an electronic or written format.
This rule amends paragraph (a) of § 304.21 by changing the words “written agreement” to “agreement, which is reflected in a record,” to provide flexibility in the format of the agreements between a State and courts or law enforcement officials.
Section 304.40(a)(2) requires a State to notify the OCSE Regional Office in a record of its intent to make installment repayments. We are changing the phrase “in writing” to “in a record” to give a State the option of notifying the Regional Office electronically of its intent to repay Federal funds in installments.
In § 305.64(c), we removed the phrase “by certified mail” from the second sentence of this paragraph since OCSE currently sends these reports electronically and by overnight mail. In this same paragraph, we change “written comments” to “comments, which are reflected in a record,” allowing IV-D agencies to submit comments on an interim audit report in an electronic format, if appropriate.
Paragraph § 305.66(a) replaces “in writing” with “in a record” so that OCSE can notify the State that it is subject to a penalty in an electronic format, not just in a written format.
The rule amends paragraph (c)(3) of § 307.5 by changing “written assurance” to “assurance, which is reflected in a record,” so that a State can provide assurance in an electronic format, if it so chooses.
We made a number of technical corrections that update, clarify, revise, or delete former regulations to ensure that the child support enforcement regulations are accurate, aligned, and up-to-date. In the NPRM, we proposed to update or replace obsolete references to administrative regulations by replacing 45 CFR part 74 with 45 CFR part 92 throughout the child support regulations. However, an Interim Final Rule effective December 26, 2014 (79 FR 75871),
Additionally, HHS issued an Interim Final Rule, effective January 20, 2016 (81 FR 3004),
Therefore, it is no longer necessary to make the proposed revisions and we will delete these proposed revisions in the final rule, except as otherwise noted.
This rule renames paragraph (a) as
We are also renaming paragraph (b)
Additionally, we are revising paragraph (c)
Finally, we are also deleting paragraphs (d)
In the NPRM, we had incorrectly added reference to parts 74 and 95 as exceptions. In this rule, we are correcting this paragraph by adding the reference to part 95 in paragraph (d) and indicating that this part establishes general administrative requirements for grants. We also moved the phrase “with the following exceptions” to the end of the paragraph to make it easier to understand.
In paragraph (d), as discussed in the introductory paragraph of Topic 3 in this section, the rule deletes the proposed revision in the NPRM to reference part 92. However, we are updating the Interim Final Rule technical corrections discussed in the introductory paragraph of Topic 3 to add paragraph levels for the regulatory cites that are excluded. Specifically, we added “(1)” before 45 CFR 75.306, and added “,” before the title,
As discussed in the introductory paragraph of Topic 3 in this section, we are deleting our proposed revision in the NPRM related to updating the reference to part 74 since this has been corrected. However, we are updating the reference in § 302.14 from 45 CFR 75 to 45 CFR 75.361 through 75.370 to specifically address the retention and custodial requirements for the fiscal records.
For clarity, we are redesignating the undesignated concluding paragraph of this section as § 302.15(a)(8). In paragraph (a)(8), as discussed in the introductory paragraph of Topic 3 in this section, we are deleting our proposed revision in the NPRM related to updating the reference to part 74 since this has been corrected. However, we are updating the reference in paragraph (8) from 45 CFR 75 to 45 CFR 75.361 through 45 CFR 75.370 to specifically address the retention and custodial requirements of the records.
In this final rule, we remove the outdated timeframes in the introductory paragraph. We also revise paragraph (b) to replace “State Disbursement Unit (SDU)” with “SDU” because the term was defined in paragraph (a). In response to comments, we replaced “interstate” with “intergovernmental” and “initiating State” with “initiating agency.” Finally, we replace an incorrect cross-reference in paragraph (b)(1) from § 303.7(c)(7)(iv) to § 303.7(d)(6)(v).
In the final rule we are clarifying that the term law enforcement officials includes “district attorneys, attorneys general, and similar public attorneys and prosecutors,” and adding “corrections officials” to the list of entities with which a State may enter into agreements for cooperative arrangements.
We replace the term “State employment security agency” with “State workforce agency,” and the term “SESA” with “SWA” throughout this regulation for consistency with the terminology used by the Department of Labor.
We are making a technical correction in paragraph (a)(8) by revising the cross-reference to § 303.100(g).
We are making a technical correction in paragraph (a)(1) by removing an out-of-date address. To be more user-friendly, we are indicating that the guide is available on the OCSE Web site.
In paragraph (b)(5), we are replacing the term “State employment security” with “State workforce” for consistency with revisions made elsewhere in the final rule.
Under this rule, as discussed under Topic 1, we renumber paragraphs in § 303.11 and update the cross references in paragraph (d)(10).
Additionally, we add paragraph (f), “Imposition and reporting of annual $25 fee in interstate cases,” to provide that the title IV-D agency in the initiating State must impose and report the annual $25 fee in accordance with § 302.33(e). This provision was added in the final rule related to the Deficit Reduction Act of 2005 (73 FR 74898, dated December 9, 2008), but it had been inadvertently omitted in the final intergovernmental child support regulation, published in the
Finally, we are making a conforming technical change to add § 302.38 to the list of regulatory sections cited related to the initiating State IV-D responsibilities to distribute and disburse any support collections received. This technical change was not proposed in the NPRM, but was recommended by a commenter.
We are making several technical changes to § 303.11, in addition to the numerous changes discussed under topics 1 and 2 of the final rule. In redesignated paragraphs (b)(4) and (b)(6)(ii), formerly paragraphs (b)(2) and (b)(3)(ii), respectively, we replace the outdated term “putative father” with the term “alleged father.” We also remove the word “or” at the end of the sentence in paragraph (b)(6)(ii) and add the word “or” to the end of the new paragraph (b)(6)(iii). Finally, in paragraph (e) we are updating our reference to 45 CFR 75.361.
As discussed earlier in the introductory paragraph of Topic 3 in this section, we are deleting our proposed revision in the NPRM related to updating the reference to part 74 since this has been corrected. However, we are updating the reference in paragraph (e) from 45 CFR 75 to 45 CFR 75.361 to specifically address the 3-year retention requirements for records.
We are adding after 45 CFR 75.306“, Cost sharing or matching” and after 45 CFR 75.341 “, Financial reporting”.
As discussed earlier in the introductory paragraph of Topic 3 in this section, we are deleting our proposed revision in the NPRM related to updating the reference to part 74 since this has been corrected. However, we are adding the titles for clarity for 45 CFR 75.306 through 75.341.
In the final rule, we delete outdated paragraphs 304.12(c)(4) and (5) as they applied to fiscal years 1985, 1986, and 1987.
In § 304.20(b)(1)(iii), we revised the language to allow FFP for the establishment of all necessary agreements with other Federal, State, and local agencies or private providers to carry out Child Support Enforcement program activities in accordance with Procurement Standards. Additionally, we deleted paragraphs (c) and (d), which apply to fiscal years 1997 and 1998.
As discussed in the introductory paragraph of Topic 3 in this section, we are deleting our proposed revision in the NPRM related to updating the reference to part 74 since this has been corrected.
We are clarifying in paragraph (a) that the term law enforcement officials includes “corrections officials” to be consistent with § 302.34.
Section 304.21(a)(1) lists activities for which FFP at the applicable matching rate is available in the costs of cooperative agreements with appropriate courts and law enforcement officials. We modified this section to include a reference to § 304.20(b)(11), regarding medical support activities.
In response to comments, we further revised § 304.21(a)(1) to cross reference § 304.20(b)(12) which allows FFP for education and outreach activities provided by the courts and law enforcement officials through cooperative agreements.
Section 304.23(a) lists various programs for which FFP is not available for administering these programs. We add the following Social Security Act programs to the list: Title IV-B, the Child Welfare Program; Title IV-E, the Foster Care Program; and Title XXI, the Children's Health Insurance Program (CHIP). We also add SNAP, which is administered under 7 U.S.C. Chapter 51.
In addition, we delete § 304.23(g) of the former rule because it is outdated. Paragraph (h) is redesignated as (g).
In § 304.25(b), we lengthen the timeframe from 30 to 45 days after the end of the quarter for States to submit quarterly statements of expenditures under § 301.15.
As discussed in the introductory paragraph of Topic 3 in this section, we are deleting our proposed revision in the NPRM related to updating the reference to part 74 since this has been corrected.
In this rule, § 304.26(a)(1) clarifies that the Federal medical assistance percentage rate is 75 percent for the distribution of retained IV-A collection. This paragraph also adds that the Federal medical assistance percentage rate is 55 percent for the distribution of retained IV-E Foster Care Program collections for Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, Guam, the Northern Mariana Islands, and American Samoa and 70 percent of retained IV-E collections for the District of Columbia. We also delete paragraphs (b) and (c) of the former rule related to incentive and hold harmless payments to be made from the Federal share of collections because this requirement is outdated.
Section 305.35 requires State IV-D agencies to reinvest the amount of Federal incentive payments received into their child support programs. We are making several technical changes to this section.
To clarify the potential consequences of a State not maintaining the baseline expenditure level, we are amending paragraph (d) by adding a sentence to
We redesignated paragraph (e) as paragraph (f) and added a new paragraph (e) to clarify how the State Current Spending Level should be calculated. Using the Form OCSE-396, “Child Support Enforcement Program Financial Report,” the State Current Spending Level will be calculated by determining the State Share of Total Expenditures Claimed for all four quarters of the fiscal year minus State Share of IV-D Administrative Expenditures Made Using Funds Received as Incentive Payments for all four quarters of the fiscal year, plus the Federal Parent Locator Service (FPLS) fees for all four quarters of the fiscal year.
The equation for calculating the State Share of Total Expenditures Claimed is: Total Expenditures Claimed for the Current Quarter and the Prior Quarter Adjustments minus the Federal Share of Total Expenditures Claimed for the Current Quarter and Prior Quarter Adjustments. Using the Form OCSE-396, this equation can also be translated as: State Share of Expenditure = Line 7 (Columns A + C)−Line 7 (Columns B + D) for all four quarters of the fiscal year.
The equation for calculating the State Share of IV-D Administrative Expenditures Made Using Funds Received as Incentive Payments is: IV-D Administrative Expenditures Made Using Funds Received as Incentive Payments for the Current Quarter and the Prior Quarter Adjustments minus the Federal Share of IV-D Administrative Expenditures Made Using Funds Received as Incentive Payments for the Current Quarter and Prior Quarter Adjustments. Using the Form OCSE-396, this equation can also be translated as: State Share of IV-D Administrative Expenditures Made Using Funds Received as Incentive Payments = Line 1a (Columns A + C)−Line 1a (Columns B + D) for all four quarters of the fiscal year.
The Fees for the Use of the FPLS can be computed by adding the FPLS fees claimed on the Form OCSE-396 for all four quarters of the fiscal year. Using the Form OCSE-396, this equation can also be translated as: Fees for the Use of the FPLS = Line 10 (Columns B) for all four quarters of the fiscal year.
While we did not propose changes to this section in the NPRM, in response to comments, we deleted this section in the final rule since it is outdated.
Section 305.63(d) erroneously cross references paragraph (b). We replace that cross reference with a reference to paragraph (c).
The term “State employment security agency” is removed wherever it appeared and is replaced by “State workforce agency.” In addition, in subparagraph (c)(3)(i), we capitalize Department of Motor Vehicles and use the section symbol for consistency.
As discussed in the introductory paragraph of Topic 3 in this section, we are deleting our proposed revision in the NPRM related to updating the reference to part 74 since this has been corrected.
We are making two technical changes, not originally proposed in the NPRM, by fixing the reference in paragraph (b)(2) from “§ 9.120” to “§ 309.120” and in paragraph (c)(2) from “303.52” to “302.52.”
We update § 309.130(b)(3) to reference Standard Form (SF) 425, “Federal Financial Report,” which is the new OMB approved form. In response to comments, in paragraph (b)(4), we eliminated the “A” from Form OCSE-34A to reflect the current title of the form. Additionally, in paragraph (b)(4), to be consistent with revision to § 301.15(b)(2), we revise the submission requirements for the OCSE-34, “Quarterly Report of Collections,” including extending the due date from 30 to 45 days from the end of the fiscal quarter.
In paragraphs (d)(3) and (h), as discussed in the introductory paragraph of Topic 3 in this section, we are deleting our proposed revision in the NPRM related to updating the reference to part 74 since this has been corrected.
As discussed in the introductory paragraph of Topic 3 in this section, we are deleting our proposed revision in the NPRM related to updating the reference to part 74 since this has been corrected. However, because this paragraph addresses the Procurement Standards, for clarity we are updating our reference from 45 CFR 75 to specify 45 CFR 75.326 through 75.340.
As discussed in the introductory paragraph of Topic 3 in this section, we are deleting our proposed revision in the NPRM related to updating the reference to part 74 since this has been corrected. However, we are updating the reference to the audit requirements by adding “,
We received 2,077 sets of comments from States, Tribes, and other interested individuals. We posted 2,017 sets of comments on
Using a text analytic software technology, we were able to detect duplicate and near duplicate documents. Of the 2,077 set of comments, we identified 1,679 sets of comments that were received from either mass-mail campaigns (when commenters provided the same or similar responses from the members of the same organization) or were duplicate responses (when the same commenter submitted the same response more than once).
The comments we received were from the following groups:
• 34 State child support agencies;
• 10 Tribes or Tribal organizations
• 9 National or State child support organizations;
• 6 judicial district offices;
• 5 counties/local child support offices;
• 2 judicial organizations;
• 2 prosecuting attorney office or organization;
• 50 organizations such as community-based, fatherhood, research, domestic violence, access to justice, parent, re-entry, court reform, and employment services organizations; and
• Remaining comments from private citizens representing custodial and
Although we had a range of comments on specific provisions, the NPRM was strongly supported by State agencies, court associations, advocacy groups, parent groups, and researchers, and reflected broad consensus in the field. In drafting the final rule, we closely reviewed the comments and made a number of adjustments to the final rule in response to comments.
In response to comments, the final rule also revises the effective date for
Additionally, in accordance with § 303.72(a)(3)(i), past-due spousal support is only eligible for Federal tax refund offset in cases where the parent is living with the child and the spousal support and child support obligations are included in the same support order. OCSE Action Transmittal (AT) 10-04
For reporting purposes on the OCSE-157,
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In addition, sometimes it may be necessary to perform routine location services if the non-IV-D custodial parent has an invalid address and undistributable payments. As indicated in PIQ-10-01,
Section 454B(b) of the Act requires that the “State disbursement unit shall use automated procedures, electronic processes, and computer-driven technology . . . for the collection and disbursement of support payments. . . .” This includes the use of automated location services to locate the custodial parent for prompt disbursement of support payments. IV-D agencies are not responsible for providing other services or taking enforcement actions in non-IV-D cases. In some instances, the State may have to go back to the party and request the information the State needs to disburse the support payments.
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FFP . . . is available for the cost of establishing an automated interface with the non-IV-D systems to transmit data to the State CSE automated system. . . . The costs associated with establishing and maintaining the State Case Registry and the SDU, including the costs of maintaining non-IV-D support order records in the State case registry and necessary identification and [support] payment information in the State Disbursement Unit, are eligible for reimbursement at the applicable rate of FFP. FFP is available for the cost of converting non-IV-D case information (not payment records) necessary to process collections required to be paid through the SDU.
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PIQ-10-01 states that FFP is available for the costs of entering into the SCR the data elements listed in the regulations under § 307.11(e)(3) and (f)(1). Specifically, § 307.11(e)(3) specifies the following data elements for each participant in the case: Name, social security number, date of birth, case identification number, other uniform identification number, data elements required under paragraph (f)(1) of this section necessary for the operation of the Federal case registry, issuing State of an order, and any other information that the Secretary may require. Section 307.11(f)(1) indicates the additional elements required for the Federal Case Registry, which include the following data elements: State Federal Information Processing Standard (FIPS) code and optionally county code; State case identification number; State member identification number; case type (IV-D, non-IV-D); social security number and any necessary alternative social security number; name including first, middle, and last name and any alternative name; sex (optional); date of birth; participant type (custodial party, noncustodial parent, putative father, child); family violence indicator (domestic violence or child abuse); indication of an order; locate request type (optional); locate source (optional); and any other information that the Secretary may require.
FFP is available for the State child support agency to update address changes as reported by the non-IV-D custodial parent and noncustodial parent to ensure prompt disbursement of support payments.
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The regulation at § 309.110(d) of this chapter states that the income withholding must be carried out in compliance with the procedural due process requirements established by the Tribe or Tribal organization. Accordingly, Tribes may conduct preliminary reviews of foreign orders to ensure that the court or administrative authority properly entered the order, but such processing of orders must be done expeditiously to ensure that orders are promptly served on employers within the Tribe's jurisdiction in accordance with the regulations at § 309.110(n). In accordance with § 309.110(j), the only basis for contesting a withholding order is a mistake of fact, which means an error in the amount of current or overdue support or in the identity of the alleged noncustodial parent.
While the regulations do not require Tribes to have laws and procedures which mandate that employers subject to the Tribe's jurisdiction must honor direct income withholding orders from another State or Tribe, a Tribe may choose to permit direct withholding as a matter of administrative efficiency or comity between the Tribe and other Tribes and States.
As indicated in PIQT-05-04,
Because the IWO is an OMB-approved form, OCSE will consider reviewing these issues further and clarifying the form and instructions to the form in future revisions. In addition, we will continue to provide technical assistance to Tribes so that the remittance section of the IWO form is completed correctly and in accordance with existing regulations.
We also disagree with the notion that paternity-only services should not be offered in cases where there is to be no support order established. While we acknowledge that establishing a child support order at the time paternity is determined may result in more accurate income information and less default orders, provided that there is continued cooperation from the noncustodial parent, there are benefits to paternity determination even if a support order is not established. A key component of encouraging responsible parenting is accomplished through the establishment of paternity for a child. Whether or not an unwed biological father is currently living with the biological mother and children in an intact household, he has no legal standing as the children's father unless paternity is legally established.
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By identifying and responding effectively to domestic violence, providing safe opportunities to disclose domestic violence, and developing safe and confidential responses to domestic violence, child support programs can put the safety of families and program staff at the forefront of child support work. There are a number of points of heightened domestic violence risks during the establishment and enforcement process, and States should be providing domestic violence safeguards throughout the process. We encourage States to work with their local domestic violence programs and coalitions to establish appropriate safeguards. It is the responsibility of each State to ensure that their domestic violence provisions are adequate for both paternity-only limited services and full services application requests.
Historically, the custodial parent has typically been the applicant for State child support services. However, in providing an avenue for fathers to establish paternity for their child, we recognize that the potential exists for a noncustodial father to apply for paternity-only limited services without the cooperation or consent of the custodial parent mother due to domestic violence concerns. Clearly, it is never OCSE's intent to create a dangerous situation for a parent who is a victim of domestic violence. Although Federal law is silent on this specific scenario, there is nothing in Federal statute or regulation that would preclude States from developing additional policies and procedures to address the safety needs of custodial parents in non-public assistance cases who are found to have good cause for refusing to cooperate with the State child support agency in establishing paternity, or for whom the State child support agency determines it is against the best interest of the child to pursue paternity issues. Under section 454(29) of the Act, it is up to each State to define the criteria for “good cause” and to choose which
We have revised § 302.38 to expand the list of entities to whom child support payments under §§ 302.32 and 302.51 can be made. The provision now requires that a State's IV-D plan “shall provide that any payment required to be made under §§ 302.32 and 302.51 to a family will be made directly to the resident parent, legal guardian, caretaker relative having custody of or responsibility for the child or children, judicially-appointed conservator with a legal and fiduciary duty to the custodial parent and the child, or alternate caretaker designated in a record by the custodial parent. An alternate caretaker is a nonrelative caretaker who is designated in a record by the custodial parent to take care of the children for a temporary time period.
Our intent is not to regulate private collection agencies, but rather to ensure that child support programs are not facilitating, and the taxpayer is not subsidizing, potentially inappropriate business practices of some private collection agencies not under contract to States. In addition, the ethics codes of most state bar associations prohibit private attorneys from taking fees from current child support, and several prohibit fees from arrears on public policy grounds. In order to provide protections for families and fulfill the intent of the original child support legislation and subsequent amendments, § 302.38 requires that child support payments owed and payable to families be disbursed directly to families.
Similarly, in an international case where the State is enforcing and collecting child support payments (in accordance with section 454(32) and 459A of the Act) as the responding State IV-D agency, the payment processing requirements in § 303.7(d)(6)(v) apply. State IV-D agencies, as responding agencies in international child support cases, are required to forward child support payments “to the location specified by the initiating agency.” The term “initiating agency” is defined in § 301.1 to include an agency of a country that is either a foreign reciprocating country or a country with which the State has entered into a reciprocal arrangement and in which an individual has applied for or is receiving child support enforcement services. In international cases, the Central Authority or its designee in the foreign country will identify where payments should be sent, for example, to the Central Authority, court, custodial parent, caretaker, emancipated child, etc. In these cases, the responding State IV-D agency satisfies title IV-D requirements by collecting and forwarding collections as directed by the Central Authority in the foreign country in accordance with § 303.7(d)(6)(v).
Over time, we have observed a trend among some States to reduce their case investigation efforts and to impose high standard minimum orders without developing any evidence or factual basis for the child support ordered amount. Our rule is designed to address the concern that in some jurisdictions, orders for the lowest income noncustodial parents are not set based upon a factual inquiry into the noncustodial parent's income and ability to pay, but instead are routinely set based upon a standardized amount well above the means of those parents to pay it. The Federal child support guidelines statute requires guidelines that result in “appropriate child support award” and is based on the fundamental principle that each child support order should take into consideration the noncustodial parent's ability to pay.
Research suggests that setting an accurate child support order based upon the noncustodial parent's ability to pay improves the chances that the noncustodial parent will continue to pay over time.
The final rule added paragraph (c)(1) to provide that the child support order is based on the noncustodial parent's earnings, income, and other evidence of ability to pay. Paragraph (c)(1)(iii) requires consideration of the specific circumstances of the noncustodial parent when imputing income. This will be discussed in further detail later in this section.
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However, in § 302.56(c)(1)(i) through (iii), we have added a parenthetical to indicate that at the State's discretion, the State may consider the circumstances of the custodial parent if it is required or applicable in their guidelines computation. We encourage States that use the income shares model for guidelines, which considers the custodial parent's earnings and income, to also consider it for applying § 302.56(c)(1)(i) through (iii).
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The revision allows States' flexibility to determine the best approach to adjusting their guidelines to take into consideration the basic subsistence needs of low-income noncustodial parents. All but five States have already incorporated such low-income adjustments such as self-support reserves into their child support
Our goal is to establish and enforce orders that actually produce payments for children. Both parents are expected to put their children first and to take the necessary steps to support them. However, if the noncustodial parent cannot support his or her own basic subsistence needs, it is highly unlikely that an order that ignores the need for basic self-support will actually result in sustainable payments. One of the unintended, but pernicious, consequences of orders that are not based on ability to pay is that some noncustodial parents will exit low wage employment and either avoid the system entirely or turn to the drug trade or other illegal activities to pay support obligations and contempt purge payments.
One commenter referenced the National Child Support Enforcement Association policy statement, issued on January 30, 2013, that indicated: “As a general rule, child support guidelines and orders should reflect actual income of parents and be changed proactively to ensure current support orders reflect current circumstances of the parents and to encourage regular child support payments.”
Considering commenters' concerns and suggested revisions, we made significant revisions in paragraph (c) to clearly articulate the longstanding requirement that State guidelines must provide that child support orders are based on the noncustodial parent's earnings, income, and other evidence of ability to pay. We have also added in paragraph (c)(1)(iii) providing that when imputation of income is authorized, the guidelines must take into consideration the specific circumstances of the noncustodial parent (and at the State's discretion, the custodial parent) to the extent known.
Presently, some State guidelines allow income to be imputed without evidence that the noncustodial parent has or can earn a standard amount of income. Although the original use of imputation was to fill specific evidentiary gaps in a particular case, over time we have observed a trend among some States of reducing their case investigation efforts and imposing high standard minimum child support orders across-the-board in low-income IV-D cases, setting orders without any evidence of ability to pay.
Many States do take steps to determine the factual circumstances in a particular case and build an
Overuse of imputed income frequently results in IV-D orders that are not based on a realistic or fair determination of ability to pay, leading to unpaid support, uncollectible debt, reduced work effort, and underground employment. Because such orders are not based on the noncustodial parent's ability to pay, as required by Federal guidelines law, they typically do not yield consistent payments to children.
While States have discretion to determine when imputation of income is appropriate and allowed, section 467 of the Act indicates that “a written finding or specific finding that the application of the guidelines would be unjust or inappropriate in a particular case, as determined under criteria established by the State, shall be sufficient to rebut the presumption in that case.” Thus, we encourage States to establish deviation criteria when to impute income and document the deviation in a finding on the record that is rebuttable. Many, but not all, States currently use deviation criteria and make a rebuttable finding on the record when they impute income as the basis for an order in a particular case. Fictional income should not be imputed simply because the noncustodial parent is low-income, but instead only used in limited circumstances when the facts of the case justify it.
We revised § 302.56(c)(1) to clarify that the child support guidelines established under paragraph (a) must provide that the child support order is based on the noncustodial parent's earnings, income, and other evidence of ability to pay. The guidelines must take into consideration all earnings and income, the basic subsistence needs of the noncustodial parent who has a limited ability to pay, and if income is being imputed, the specific circumstances of the noncustodial parent (and at the State's discretion, the custodial parent) to the extent known, including such factors as the noncustodial parent's assets, residence, employment and earnings history, job skills, educational attainment, literacy, age, health, criminal record and other employment barriers, and record of seeking work, as well as the local job market, the availability of employers willing to hire the noncustodial parent, prevailing earnings level in the local community, and other relevant background factors in the case.
This approach emphasizes the expectation that support orders will be based upon evidence to the extent available, while recognizing that in limited circumstances, income imputation allows the decision-maker to address evidentiary gaps and move forward to set an order. While we recognize that most State IV-D agencies have limited resources, case investigation to develop case-specific evidence is a basic program responsibility. The revised final rule is closely aligned with many of the comments we received. Imputed or default orders should occur only in limited circumstances.
If the State IV-D agency has no evidence of earnings and income or insufficient evidence to use as the measure of the noncustodial parent's ability to pay, then we have added in § 303.4(b)(3) that the State's IV-D agency's recommended support obligation amount should be based on available information about the specific circumstances of the noncustodial parent, including such factors as those listed in § 302.56(c)(1)(iii). It is the IV-
Imputed or default orders based on income imputation are disfavored and should only occur on a limited basis. Imputation does not by any means ensure support payments for children. In fact, an order based upon imputed income that is beyond the noncustodial parent's ability to pay typically results in more unpaid support and other unintended consequences that do not benefit children.
Compared to IV-D cases, private cases are more likely to involve legal counsel, and result in child support orders based on actual income. When imputed income is used in private cases, it typically is used in the way originally intended—to fill evidentiary gaps in specific cases to support a reasonable inference of the noncustodial parent's ability to pay in situations of voluntary unemployment or discrepancies in reported income and standard of living. We point out that private litigants are expected to support their position with evidence. The majority of the NPRM comments, including comments from courts and attorneys, support the direction of our rules.
To address the concerns related to the general applicability of State guidelines, we moved the requirements specifically related to State IV-D agencies under § 303.4,
(1) Taking reasonable steps to develop a sufficient factual basis for the support obligation, through such means as investigations, case conferencing, interviews with both parties, appear and
(2) Gathering information regarding the earnings and income of the noncustodial parent and, when earnings and income information is unavailable or insufficient in a case, gathering available information about the specific circumstances of the noncustodial parent, including such factors as those listed under § 302.56(c)(iii);
(3) Basing the support obligation or recommended support obligation amount on the earnings and income of the noncustodial parent whenever available. If earnings and income are unavailable or insufficient to use as the measure of the noncustodial parent's ability to pay, then the recommended support obligation amount should be based on available information about the specific circumstances of the noncustodial parent, including such factors as those listed in § 302.56(c)(iii); and
(4) Documenting the factual basis for the support obligation or recommended support obligation in the case record.
IV-D agencies have a basic responsibility to take all necessary steps to investigate the case and provide the court or administrative authority information relating to the income, earnings, and other specific circumstances of the noncustodial parent so that the decision-maker has an evidentiary foundation for establishing an order amount based on the noncustodial parent's ability to pay. These required steps merely specify the standard case review procedures that many States currently use to investigate and obtain income information for the parties.
Since the beginning of the program, we have provided FFP to IV-D agencies undertaking investigation activities involving the development of evidence, and, when appropriate, bringing court actions for the establishment and enforcement of support obligations (§ 304.20(b)(3)(i)), and determining the amount of the child support obligation including developing the information needed for a financial assessment (§ 304.20(b)(3)(ii)). However, over time, and as resources have become more constrained, we have found that some jurisdictions no longer put resources into case investigation, and instead rely on standard presumptions and fictional income to set orders.
It is critical that a IV-D agency conducts investigative work prior to sending a case to the court since child support agencies have many tools available to gather the information. There are many procedural techniques and practices that help facilitate establishing an appropriate child support order.
The final rule revises regulations governing the State's guidelines to focus on the fundamental principle that child support obligations are based on the noncustodial parent's ability to pay. This principle should be applied to both IV-D and non-IV-D cases in accordance with the Federal guidelines statute. The revisions have been addressed throughout this section.
It is important to note that the referenced study examined all young noncustodial fathers, not those with a child support order, and is based on data that are over 25 years old and reflect very different economic conditions than exist today. Studies that examine noncustodial parents with an obligation to pay find much lower percentages of obligors who do not pay and have an ability to pay.
Section 303.4(b)(3) requires that if information about earnings and income are not available, the amount of income imputed to the noncustodial parent must be based on factors listed in 302.56(c)(1)(iii).
Many States work diligently to develop a factual basis for orders. However, in some jurisdictions, a two-tiered system exists with better-off noncustodial parents receiving support orders based upon evidence and a determination of their individual income. Poor, low-skilled noncustodial parents, usually unrepresented by counsel, receive standard-issue support orders. Such orders lack a factual basis and are instead based upon fictional income, assumptions not grounded in reality, and beliefs that a full-time job is available to anyone who seeks it. Orders that routinely lack a factual basis and are based upon standard presumptions erode the sense of procedural fairness and the legitimacy of the orders, resulting in lower compliance. Thus, it is critically important that States take
As discussed in Comment/Response 13 in the
Per section 466(a)(10) of the Social Security Act, all parents facing a substantial change of circumstances such as a substantial drop in income, through a loss of employment or otherwise, are entitled to request a review, and if appropriate, adjustment of their support orders. Incarceration surely qualifies as a substantial change in circumstances, yet State laws and policies—rooted in 19th century jurisprudence—that treat incarceration as “voluntary unemployment” in effect block the application of the statutory review and adjustment provision. In most cases, this practice results in child support orders that are unrealistically high, which research indicates undermine stable employment and family relationships, encourage participation in the underground economy, and increase recidivism.
Despite the significant research on the consequences of continuing the accrual of support when it is clear there is no ability to pay, one-quarter of States continue treating incarceration as “voluntary unemployment.” Failing to provide an opportunity for review and possible adjustment of a child support order when a parent is incarcerated does not mean that most noncustodial parents will have the ability to make payments to their children while in prison or after release.
The rule does not provide special treatment for incarcerated parents. Rather, it requires application of Federal review and adjustment requirements, including that orders be reviewed and adjusted upward or downward in
Moreover, once released, noncustodial parents tend to view the methods employed to collect support and arrearages as a disincentive to seek legitimate gainful employment. Research suggests that using maximum-level income withholding rates and other enforcement mechanisms tend to discourage employment, particularly among individuals in low socioeconomic communities.
The child support system is not meant to serve a punitive purpose. Rather, the system is an economic one, designed to measure the relative contribution each parent should make—and is capable of making—to share fairly in the economic burdens of child rearing.
In 2005, the Council of State Governments, a nonpartisan association of all three branches of State government, issued the
These commenters argued that child support guidelines are not a matter to be developed by a closed group. They viewed guidelines as a matter of immense public import with huge individual impact on millions of people. They recommended that the guideline committee include at least two members of the general public—one advocating for payors and one advocating for recipients. They believed that this was a first step towards bringing transparency to the creation of child support guidelines.
They further commented that no reasonable objection could be raised to this provision. Commenters also indicated that possible objections to including members of the general public might be that such people could lack knowledge of the intricacies of child support or the law, could advocate for narrow interests, or could be disruptive. Given that the two members of the public would undoubtedly be outnumbered by those who traditionally are called upon to write child support guidelines, fear that these members could control the outcome is unreasonable.
Regarding the composition of the committee or body conducting the quadrennial review, we further agree that the quadrennial review should provide for a meaningful opportunity for participation by citizens and particularly low-income citizens, representing both custodial and noncustodial parents. The child support guidelines review body should also include participation by the child support agency. While we are not mandating the specific composition of the review body, we are requiring in § 302.56(h)(3) meaningful opportunity for public input, including input from low-income custodial and noncustodial parents and their representatives, and the views and advice of the State IV-D agency.
They commented that this addition is meant to update our support laws to reflect the power of modern genetics. They cited the directives in Executive Order 13563 as controlling. Section 5 of that Executive Order states:
Sec. 5.
The President's 2009 Memorandum referenced therein, states:
To the extent permitted by law, there should be transparency in the preparation, identification, and use of scientific and technological information in policymaking.
The commenters further explained that DNA evidence is indisputable. They argued that it is time to update Federal regulations so that support obligations are not imposed on the wrong individuals.
IV-D program costs related to parenting time arrangements must continue to be minimal and incidental to IV-D child support order establishment activities and not have any impact on the Federal budget. In light of the comments received on the proposed parenting time provisions and the unintended confusion regarding these proposals, OCSE determined that new rules are not necessary. Therefore, we deleted the proposed paragraph (h).
OCSE recognizes that the inclusion of an uncontested and agreed upon parenting time provision incidental to the establishment of a child support order aligns with Pub. L. 113-183, “
Thirty-six States have adopted guidelines that recognize parenting time arrangements in establishing child support orders. In practical terms, parenting time is an important corollary to child support establishment because the child support agency, or finder of fact, needs information about the parenting time arrangements in order for the guideline amount to be effectively calculated. Other States have parenting time guidelines or have other procedures in place to coordinate child
Including both the calculation of support and the amount of parenting time in the support order at the same time increases efficiency, and reduces the burden on parents of being involved in multiple administrative or judicial processes with no cost to the child support program.
We encourage States to continue to take steps to recognize parenting time provisions in child support orders when both parents have agreed to the parenting time provision or in accordance with the State guidelines when the costs are incidental to the child support proceeding and there is no cost to the child support program.
Section 302.56(g) requires that a written finding or specific finding on the record of a judicial or administrative proceeding for the establishment or modification of a child support order that the application of the guidelines established under paragraph (a) of this section would be unjust or inappropriate in a particular case will be sufficient to rebut the presumption in that case, as determined under criteria established by the State. Such criteria must take into consideration the best interests of the child. The requirement in § 302.56(g) relates to how the deviation may be applied on a case-by-case basis, including having a written finding or finding on the record justifying the deviation from the child support guidelines.
We also added paragraph (h)(2) to require the States to analyze case data, gathered through sampling or other methods, on the application of and deviations from the child support guidelines, as well as the rates of default and imputed orders and orders determined using the low-income adjustment required under paragraph (c)(1)(ii). The analysis must also include a comparison of payments on child support orders by case characteristics, including whether the order was entered by default, based on imputed income, or determined using the low-income adjustment required under paragraph (c)(1)(ii). The analysis of the data must be used in the State's review of the guidelines to ensure that deviations from the child support guidelines are limited and guideline amounts are appropriate based on criteria established by the State under paragraph (g).
It is a system certification requirement to have automated interfaces with State sources, when appropriate, feasible, and cost effective, to obtain locate information, and this includes the Department of Corrections. We also encourage States to develop electronic interfaces with child support data being shared with Federal, State, Tribal, and local corrections institutions to maximize identification of incarcerated parents and program efficiency, and to establish practices for serving parents in correctional facilities. Identifying the fact of incarceration is important to set and keep support orders consistent with the parent's current ability to pay, avoid the accumulation of arrears, and increase the likelihood that support will be consistently paid after release.
We do not consider the list of appropriate locate sources in § 303.3(b)(1) to be required locate sources, but rather an extensive nonexclusive list of sources that the State should consider using to locate noncustodial parents or their sources of income and/or assets when location is needed to take a necessary action. Additionally, after the State has determined what locate sources they have access to, the State will need to determine what locate sources should be used on a particular case. For example, some locate sources may not be able to be used if the noncustodial parent's social security number is unknown.
OCSE, IV-D agencies, and courts under cooperative agreements to carry out the IV-D program are required to ensure that noncustodial parents receive the due process protections required by the Constitution. The Federal government has a substantial interest in the effective and equitable operation of the child support program, including the use of contempt proceedings in the enforcement of IV-D cases. In addition, the Secretary of Health and Human Services has authority under section 452(a)(1) of the Act to “establish such standards for locating noncustodial parents, establishing paternity, and obtaining child support . . . as he determines to be necessary to assure that such programs will be effective.” Section 454(13) provides that “the State will comply with such other requirements and standards as the Secretary determines to be necessary to the establishment of an effective program for locating noncustodial parents, establishing paternity,
Research shows that routine use of civil contempt is counterproductive to the goals of the child support program.
Incarceration, in turn, means that the noncustodial parent loses whatever work he or she may have had, further reducing their ability to pay their child support. Once out, their ability to find work is negatively affected, resulting in some turning to the underground economy, which makes it even more difficult to collect child support.
Most States use civil contempt as a last resort option, recognizing that routine use of this enforcement tool is not cost effective and can be counterproductive when the noncustodial parent is indigent.
Finally, the government's interests also favor additional procedural safeguards to ensure that only those parents with a present ability to pay are confined for civil contempt. While the State has a strong interest in enforcing child support orders, it secures no benefit from jailing a noncustodial parent who cannot discharge his obligation. The period of incarceration makes it less, rather than more, likely that such parent will be able to pay child support.
Research shows that implementing constitutional due process safeguards, such as those delineated in the
In
States must provide adequate safeguards to ensure that the noncustodial parent has the ability to comply with the order. The revised language in paragraph (c)(4) sets out minimum requirements that IV-D agencies must meet when bringing a civil contempt action involving parties in a IV-D case and ensures that contempt is used in appropriate cases where evidence exists that the noncustodial parent has the income and assets to pay the ordered monthly support obligation, but willfully fails to do so, and the purge amount or conditions are within the noncustodial parent's ability to pay or meet.
It is the responsibility of the IV-D agency to ensure that prior to filing for civil contempt that could result in incarceration, the IV-D agency has carefully reviewed each case to ascertain whether the facts would support a finding that the noncustodial parent has the “actual and present” ability to comply with the support order, and the requested purge amount or condition, and to bring those facts to the court's attention.
OCSE strongly encourages State child support agencies to consider some of the innovative alternatives to incarceration put into practice by a number of States and discussed in OCSE IM-12-01.
We agree that filing for contempt may be the right remedy in some difficult to collect cases—those where there is evidence that the noncustodial parent has the ability to pay, but chooses to ignore child support obligations. However, if a case is difficult to collect because the noncustodial parent lacks the ability to pay support, there are more effective and less costly tools that meet due process requirements. Sometimes, the IV-D agency does not have sufficient facts to determine the difference. We recognize that it is difficult to build a case. It is our position, however, that State IV-D agencies have the responsibility to investigate and screen the case for ability to pay before bringing a civil contempt action that can lead to jail. States need to develop and implement procedures and protocols for determining when it is effective to use contempt proceedings in IV-D cases. States need to ensure that the tools or mechanisms they use to enforce cases are cost-effective, productive, and in the best interest of the children.
The final rule does not address burden of proof. Rather, when the State considers bringing a civil contempt action in a IV-D case that can result in incarceration, often against an unrepresented, indigent noncustodial parent, the rule requires the IV-D agency to screen the case for ability to pay and, if proceeding with the contempt action, provide such evidence for the court to consider, in conjunction with any other evidence, in making a factual determination about the noncustodial parent's ability to pay child support.
Further, we agree that incarceration is a factor in determining a substantial change in circumstance. As such, we have revised § 303.8(c) to indicate that: (c) . . . [s]uch reasonable quantitative standard must not exclude incarceration as a basis for determining whether an inconsistency between the existing child support order amount and the amount of support determined as a result of a review is adequate grounds for petitioning for adjustment of the order.
Research finds that many incarcerated parents do not understand the child support system and do not know their rights.
At the same time, the rule does not preclude States from using automatic review and adjustment, or automatic notices regarding the right to request a review and adjustment, in other situations, such as for disabled noncustodial parents receiving SSI, military service members, and disabled veterans who experience a substantial change in circumstances.
OCSE has determined that this final rule strikes the appropriate balance between providing States with additional flexibility in closing cases that are unlikely to result in successful child support actions and ensuring families receive effective child support enforcement services. We do not agree with the commenters' concerns that the expanded case closure criteria will put some States at a competitive disadvantage. States make many decisions that affect their performance rates. For example, one State might charge interest and another might not or one State might adopt family-first distributions and another might not. The decision to close or not close cases with assigned arrears is at the State's discretion. As we indicated in the NPRM, the National Council of Child Support Directors provided OCSE with recommendations for improving the effectiveness and efficiency of the case closure criteria, ensuring that resources are directed to working cases and that children receive services whenever there is any reasonable likelihood for collections in the future. Since case closure is permissive, a State has the discretion to develop a process for examining its cases to determine whether case closure is warranted.
However, this does not preclude a State from establishing a $0 support order (based on inability to pay), which could be modified later if the noncustodial parent went off SSI and began work or inherited assets. If States choose to establish an order prior to closing a case under § 303.4, States should use caution about establishing an order based on imputed income or a minimum ordered amount (other than $0) because the child support order, including any payment or installment of support such as arrearages due under the order, remains in effect and legally binding after a case is closed. In these cases, we are allowing States to close cases when the noncustodial parent's income is SSI because SSI is not subject to garnishment.
The IHS is responsible for providing health care to American Indians and Alaska Natives under the Snyder Act. See 25 U.S.C. Section 13 (providing that the Bureau of Indian Affairs (BIA) will expend funds as appropriated for, among other things, the “conservation of health” of Indians); and 42 U.S.C. Section 2001(a) (transferring the responsibility for Indian health care from BIA to IHS). The IHS provides such care directly through Federal facilities and clinics, and also contracts and compacts with Indian tribes and tribal organizations to provide care pursuant to the Indian Self-Determination and Education Assistance Act (ISDEAA), Public Law 93-638 (25 U.S.C. 450
In light of the IHS's policy, OCSE and CMS require that State Medicaid agencies not refer such cases and that IV-D agencies that receive Medicaid reimbursement referrals based solely on health care services, including the Purchased/Referred Care program, provided to IHS-eligible children through an Indian Health Program, be required to close such cases, as these cases will have been inappropriately referred. Pursuant to IHS' policy and CMS' policy, there would be no medical child support reimbursement obligation to pursue against any custodial or noncustodial parents, and any recovery from insurance policies would be outside the scope of the State IV-D agencies' authority. It is our understanding that such Medicaid referrals are common. This child support case closure rule makes it clear that State IV-D agencies should not seek medical child support based on such Medicaid referrals.
While an electronic case closure notice may be an appropriate, and even the preferred, method of notification for many custodial parents, it may not be an effective means to notify some parents. Many parents in the child support caseload have limited incomes. They may not have convenient access to a computer, the internet, or mobile communication. We revised § 303.11(d)(6) to reflect this flexibility in issuing electronic notifications.
6.
Although this is not a requirement, nothing within the final rule precludes a State from petitioning for employer-related insurance to be included in the order in accordance with the State's guidelines if it is in the best interest of the child, in cases where the child is receiving public coverage and the employer-related insurance becomes available at a reasonable cost, is accessible to the family, and the parent has the ability to pay. We encourage States to develop medical support policies that fully consider the wide array of health care options that most benefit children and families.
The instructions for the IWO form clarify this term by saying that an IWO is regular on its face when:
• It is payable to the State disbursement unit;
• A copy of the underlying child support order containing an income withholding clause is included, if the IWO is sent by anyone other than a State/Tribal IV-D agency or a court;
• The amount to withhold is a dollar amount;
• The text of the form has not been changed and invalid information has not been entered;
• The order of the text on the OMB-approved IWO form has not been changed, and
• OMB 0970-0154 is listed on the form; and
• It contains all of the necessary information to process the IWO.
The instructions further provide that the employer must reject the IWO and return it to the sender if, among other things, the sender has not used the OMB-approved form, the IWO is altered
3.
We also encourage States to consider alternatives to the need to travel to the child support office or court, such as the use of technology, including Web applications, video conferences, or telephonic hearings.
Currently, 36 States calculate parenting time credits as part of their child support guidelines, or otherwise provide for standard parenting time at the time the support order is set. In addition, many courts recognize voluntary parenting time agreements during child support hearings when the agreements have been worked out between the parents ahead of time and the parents simply ask the court to add the agreements to the support orders.
Congress has not authorized FFP for parenting time activities. Thus, the proposed provisions regarding parenting time under this provision and under § 302.56(h),
In light of the comments received on the proposed parenting time provisions and the unintended confusion regarding the proposal, OCSE has deleted the proposed FFP provision in paragraph (b)(3)(vii). See Comment/Response 2 under § 302.56—
In drafting the NPRM, the Department was urged by several stakeholders to exclude garnishment for “dual eligibility,” or concurrent benefits, such as when the individual is eligible for both SSI and SSDI, meets the income test for SSI benefits, and would have received the same amount in SSI-only funds, but for the fact that the individual qualifies for SSDI benefits as well as SSI benefits. SSDI provides benefits to disabled or blind persons based on the person's previous earnings record and Social Security contributions. The SSI program makes cash assistance payments to aged, blind, and disabled persons who have limited income and resources regardless of work history or contributions to Social Security. SSI is a means-tested program with strict financial limits. SSA uses the term “concurrent” when a person is eligible for benefits from both programs. A person can receive both SSDI and SSI payments, but must meet the requirements of both programs. In order to receive concurrent SSI and SSDI benefits, a person must meet the SSI income and assets limits and is limited to the SSI benefit amount. For example, an individual begins receiving $733 in SSI monthly benefits. Five months later, he becomes eligible to receive $550 in SSDI monthly benefits, reducing his SSI payments to $183. His concurrent benefits are limited to $733 ($550 in SSDI and $183 in SSI, none of which may be garnished due to the concurrent receipt). If he had not qualified for SSDI, his SSI benefits would have remained at $733.
In light of the comments, we want to emphasize that the final rule makes no changes to our policy regarding recipients of title II benefits being subject to garnishment as outlined in Section 459(h)(1)(A)(ii)(I) of the Act. OCSE has long held that title II benefits are subject to garnishment (See DCL 13-06; PIQ-09-01; DCL-00-103). Title II benefits, such as SSDI benefits, are considered remuneration from employment, and therefore, State or tribal child support agencies are allowed to continue to garnish the benefits of child support directly from the Federal payor as authorized under 459(h).
This final rule only places limitations on garnishments from financial accounts of concurrent SSI and SSDI beneficiaries. As a result of comments, we added in § 307.11(c)(3)(i) the phrase “Social Security Disability Insurance (SSDI)” before “benefits under title II of the Act” to clarify that we are only addressing when a noncustodial parent is receiving both SSI and SSDI benefits at the same time. Similarly, in paragraph (c)(3)(ii), we added the word “SSDI” before “benefits under title II of the Act.”
In the NPRM, we asked for specific comments, including information about States policies and procedures related to undistributed and abandoned child support collections and the efforts that States take, both through their child support agencies and the State treasury offices, to maximize the probability that families receive the collections, or if that result cannot be achieved that the payments are returned to the noncustodial parents.
We received several comments on how States deal with undistributed and abandoned child support payments that indicated that many States have aggressive procedures and processes in place to try to minimize undistributed collections. One commenter suggested the creation of a national work group to study and determine collaboratively policies and procedures related to undistributed and abandoned child support collections. One commenter was hopeful that if OCSE shared information about State practices, States could identify promising practices and ultimately reduce the amount of undistributed and abandoned support payments.
At this time, we are not planning to regulate in this area. We will continue to work with States in providing technical assistance to ensure that States are making diligent efforts to distribute child support collections to the family, whenever locate is an issue.
We received numerous comments supporting the revisions to update the regulations for electronic communications technology under Topic 2 of the rule. We also received a few comments about specific provisions. We did not receive any comments related to Topic 2 that we needed to address for the following sections:
However, we have added a new § 303.11(d)(6) to allow States to issue case closure notices under paragraphs (d)(1) and (4) electronically, on a case-by-case basis, when the recipient of services consents to electronic notifications. The State must keep documentation of the recipient's authorization of the consent in the case record.
In the response to comments below, we only discuss sections for which we received applicable comments. Overall, 32 commenters mainly supported our technical revisions, but they had some suggested revisions or needed clarification on some of the issues. We did not receive any comments related to the technical corrections that we needed to address for the following sections:
Regarding sheriff's costs for a child support warrant task force, since these costs would relate to reviewing the warrant process to evaluate the quality, efficiency, effectiveness, and scope of support enforcement services and securing compliance with the requirements of the State plan, these costs would be allowable under 45 CFR 304.20(b)(1). However, the State should execute a purchase of service agreement under § 304.22, rather than a cooperative agreement.
Regarding sheriff's costs for operating a county jail, since we do not provide FFP related to jailing costs under § 304.23(i), these costs would not qualify for FFP reimbursement. Section 304.23(i) was inadvertently left out of the NPRM and is corrected in this final rule. This is discussed in more detail in Comment/Response 3 in § 304.23,
OCSE calculated the base amount of spending for each State using 1998 expenditure data unless the State notified OCSE that the State preferred the base amount as an average of the 1996, 1997, and 1998 expenditures. Only five States (Georgia, Mississippi, New Jersey, New York, and South Dakota) requested the use of the three-year average.
On June 23, 2011, OCSE sent letters to all IV-D Directors reminding them of the actual amount of their base level expenditures for incentive reinvestment purposes.
Under the Paperwork Reduction Act (Pub. L. 104-13), all Departments are required to submit to OMB for review and approval any reporting or recordkeeping requirements inherent in a proposed or final rule. There are seven new requirements as a result of these regulations. These new regulatory requirements are one-time system enhancements to the statewide child support system. The description and total estimated burden for the changes are described in the chart below.
Part 302 contains information collection requirements subject to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3507(d)). Although States will have to submit revised Child Support State plan pages for §§ 302.33, 302.56, and 302.70, we do not estimate any additional burden on the “State Plan for Child Support Collection and Establishment of Paternity Under Title IV-D of the Social Security Act,” and the State Plan Transmittal Form (OMB 0970-0017), which were reauthorized until June 30, 2017. When these forms were submitted for reauthorization, we had estimated that each State would be submitting eight State plan preprint pages annually as a result of changes in regulations, policies, and/or procedures.
None of the forms are new burdens on States. For example § 303.100 clarifies the regulation that States are required to use the Income Withholding Order (IWO) form. Use of the OMB-approved form is already required. The OMB Control number is 0970-0154, which expires on July 31, 2017. Section 303.35 clarifies that the OCSE-396 is used to calculate the State current spending level. This form is an OMB-approved form, Control number 0970-0181, which expires on May 31, 2017. Finally, there has been an update from use of form SF 269A to SF 425. This is a technical update with no addition burden. SF 425 is an OMB-approved
With regard to the requirements for cooperative agreements for third party collections under 42 CFR 433.152, Medicaid State plan amendments will be required as well as amendments to State cooperative agreements. The one-time burden associated with the requirements under § 433.152 is the time and effort it will take each of the 54 State Medicaid Programs, which includes the District of Columbia and 3 territories, to submit State plan amendments and amend their cooperative agreements.
Specifically, we estimate that it will take each State 2 hours to amend their State plans and 10 hours to amend their cooperative agreements. We estimate 12 total annual hours at a total estimated cost of $35,043.84 with a State share of $17,521.92. The Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services reimburses States for 50 percent of the administrative costs incurred to administer the Medicaid State plan.
In deriving these figures, we used the hourly rate of $54.08/hour, which is the mean hourly wage of management officials according to 2014 data from the Bureau of Labor Statistics.
Other than what is addressed above, no additional information collection burdens, as described in the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3507(d)), are imposed by this regulation.
The Secretary certifies, under 5 U.S.C. 605(b), and enacted by the Regulatory Flexibility Act (Pub. L. 96-354), that this regulation will not result in a significant impact on a substantial number of small entities. The primary impact is on State Governments. State Governments are not considered small entities under the Act.
Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if the regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, distributive impacts, and equity). Executive Order 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, reducing costs, harmonizing rules, and promoting flexibility. While there are some costs associated with these regulations, they are not economically significant as defined under E.O. 12866. However, the regulation is significant and has been reviewed by OMB.
An area with associated Federal costs is modifying the child support statewide automated system for one-time system enhancements to accommodate new requirements such as notices, applications, and identifying noncustodial parents receiving SSI, and CMS State plan changes. This rule has a total cost of approximate $26,495,044. This includes a total cost of $26,460,000 to modify statewide IV-D systems for the 54 States or Territories at a cost of $100 an hour (with an assumption that 27 States will implement the optional requirements), with $17,463,600 as the Federal share. In addition, there is a cost of $35,044 is designated to CMS' costs for State plan amendments and cooperative agreements, which includes the Federal share of $17,522.
These regulations will improve the delivery of child support services, support the efforts of noncustodial parents to provide for their children, and improve the efficiency of operations.
Section 202 of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 requires that a covered agency prepare a budgetary impact statement before promulgating a rule that includes any Federal mandate that may result in the expenditure by State, Tribal and local Governments, in the aggregate, or by the private sector, of $100 million or more in any one year. This $100 million threshold was based on 1995 dollars. The current threshold, adjusted for inflation is $146 million. This rule would not impose a mandate that will result in the expenditure by State, local, and Tribal Governments, in the aggregate, or by the private sector, of more than $146 million in any one year.
This final rule is not a major rule as defined in 5 U.S.C. Chapter 8.
Section 654 of the Treasury and General Government Appropriations Act of 1999 requires Federal agencies to determine whether a policy or regulation may negatively affect family well-being. If the agency's determination is affirmative, then the agency must prepare an impact assessment addressing seven criteria specified in the law. The required review of the regulations and policies to determine their effect on family well-being has been completed, and this rule will have a positive impact on family well-being as defined in the legislation by helping to ensure that parents support their children, even when they reside in separate jurisdictions, and will strengthen personal responsibility and increase disposable family income.
Executive Order 13132 prohibits an agency from publishing any rule that has federalism implications if the rule either imposes substantial direct compliance costs on State and local governments or is not required by statute, or the rule preempts State law, unless the agency meets the consultation and funding requirements of section 6 of the Executive Order. This final rule does not have federalism impact as defined in the Executive Order.
Administrative practice and procedure, Child support, Claims, Grant programs—health, Medicaid, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Child support, State plan approval and grant procedures.
Child support, State plan requirements.
Child support, Standards for program operations.
Child support, Federal financial participation.
Child support, Program performance measures, Standards, Financial incentives, Penalties.
Child support, Computerized support enforcement systems.
Child support, Annual State self-assessment review and report.
Child support, Grant programs—social programs, Indians, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Sec. 1102 of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1302).
(b) Agreements with title IV-D agencies must specify that:
(1) The Medicaid agency may not refer a case for medical support enforcement when the following criteria have been met:
(i) The Medicaid referral is based solely upon health care services provided through an Indian Health Program (as defined at 25 U.S.C. 1603(12)), including through the Purchased/Referred Care program, to a child who is eligible for health care services from the Indian Health Service (IHS).
(ii) [Reserved]
(2) The Medicaid agency will provide reimbursement to the IV-D agency only for those child support services performed that are not reimbursable by the Office of Child Support Enforcement under title IV-D of the Act and that are necessary for the collection of amounts for the Medicaid program.
42 U.S.C. 651 through 658, 659a, 660, 664, 666, 667, 1301, and 1302.
The State plan consists of records furnished by the State to cover its Child Support Enforcement program under title IV-D of the Act. * * *
(e)
(f)
(a)
(2)
(b)
(2)
(3)
(c)
(2)
(i) An advance of funds for the next quarter, based on the State's approved estimate; and
(ii) The reconciliation of the advance provided for the current quarter, based on the State's approved expenditures.
(3)
(d)
(1) 45 CFR 75.306,
(2) 45 CFR 75.341,
42 U.S.C. 651 through 658, 659a, 660, 664, 666, 667, 1302, 1396a(a)(25), 1396b(d)(2), 1396b(o), 1396b(p), and 1396(k).
The State plan shall provide that the IV-D agency, in discharging its fiscal accountability, will maintain an accounting system and supporting fiscal records adequate to assure that claims for Federal funds are in accord with applicable Federal requirements. The retention and custodial requirements for these records are prescribed in 45 CFR 75.361 through 75.370.
(a) * * *
(7) Statistical, fiscal, and other records necessary for reporting and accountability required by the Secretary; and
(8) The retention and custodial requirements for the records in this section are prescribed in 45 CFR 75.361 through 75.370
The State plan shall provide that:
(a) The IV-D agency must establish and operate a State Disbursement Unit (SDU) for the collection and disbursement of payments under support orders—
(1) In all cases being enforced under the State IV-D plan; and
(2) In all cases not being enforced under the State IV-D plan in which the support order is initially issued in the State on or after January 1, 1994, and in which the income of the noncustodial parent is subject to withholding in accordance with section 466(a)(8)(B) of the Act.
(b) Timeframes for disbursement of support payments by SDUs under section 454B of the Act.
(1) In intergovernmental IV-D cases, amounts collected by the responding State on behalf of the initiating agency must be forwarded to the initiating agency within 2 business days of the date of receipt by the SDU in the responding State, in accordance with § 303.7(d)(6)(v) of this chapter.
(a) * * *
(4) Whenever a family is no longer eligible for assistance under the State's title IV-A and Medicaid programs, the IV-D agency must notify the family, within 5 working days of the notification of ineligibility, that IV-D services will be continued unless the family notifies the IV-D agency that it no longer wants services but instead wants to close the case. This notice must inform the family of the benefits and consequences of continuing to receive IV-D services, including the available services and the State's fees, cost recovery, and distribution policies. This requirement to notify the family that services will be continued, unless the family notifies the IV-D agency to the contrary, also applies when a child is no longer eligible for IV-E foster care, but only in those cases that the IV-D agency determines that such services and notice would be appropriate.
(6) The State may elect in its State plan to allow an individual under paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section who files an application to request paternity-only limited services in an intrastate case. If the State chooses this option, the State must define how this process will be implemented and must establish and use procedures, including domestic violence safeguards, which are reflected in a record, that specify when paternity-only limited services will be available. An application will be considered full-service unless the parent specifically applies for paternity-only limited services in accordance with the State's procedures. If one parent specifically requests paternity-only limited services and the other parent requests full services, the case will automatically receive full services. The State will be required to charge the application and service fees required under paragraphs (c) and (e) of this section for paternity-only limited services, and may recover costs in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section if the State has chosen this option in its State plan. The State must provide the applicant an application form with information on the availability of paternity-only limited services, consequences of selecting this limited service, and an explanation that the case will be closed when the limited service is completed.
(d) * * *
(2) A State that recovers standardized costs under paragraph (d)(1) of this section shall develop a methodology, which is reflected in a record, to
The State plan shall provide that the State will enter into agreements, which are reflected in a record, for cooperative arrangements under § 303.107 of this chapter with appropriate courts; law enforcement officials, such as district attorneys, attorneys general, and similar public attorneys and prosecutors; corrections officials; and Indian Tribes or Tribal organizations. * * *
The State plan shall provide that any payment required to be made under §§ 302.32 and 302.51 to a family will be made directly to the resident parent, legal guardian, caretaker relative having custody of or responsibility for the child or children, judicially-appointed conservator with a legal and fiduciary duty to the custodial parent and the child, or alternate caretaker designated in a record by the custodial parent. An alternate caretaker is a nonrelative caretaker who is designated in a record by the custodial parent to take care of the children for a temporary time period.
(b) * * *
(2) If there is no court or administrative order, an amount determined in a record by the IV-D agency as part of the legal process referred to in paragraph (a)(2) of this section in accordance with the requirements of § 302.56.
(a) Within 1 year after completion of the State's next quadrennial review of its child support guidelines, that commences more than 1 year after publication of the final rule, in accordance with § 302.56(e), as a condition of approval of its State plan, the State must establish one set of child support guidelines by law or by judicial or administrative action for setting and modifying child support order amounts within the State that meet the requirements in this section.
(b) The State must have procedures for making the guidelines available to all persons in the State.
(c) The child support guidelines established under paragraph (a) of this section must at a minimum:
(1) Provide that the child support order is based on the noncustodial parent's earnings, income, and other evidence of ability to pay that:
(i) Takes into consideration all earnings and income of the noncustodial parent (and at the State's discretion, the custodial parent);
(ii) Takes into consideration the basic subsistence needs of the noncustodial parent (and at the State's discretion, the custodial parent and children) who has a limited ability to pay by incorporating a low-income adjustment, such as a self-support reserve or some other method determined by the State; and
(iii) If imputation of income is authorized, takes into consideration the specific circumstances of the noncustodial parent (and at the State's discretion, the custodial parent) to the extent known, including such factors as the noncustodial parent's assets, residence, employment and earnings history, job skills, educational attainment, literacy, age, health, criminal record and other employment barriers, and record of seeking work, as well as the local job market, the availability of employers willing to hire the noncustodial parent, prevailing earnings level in the local community, and other relevant background factors in the case.
(2) Address how the parents will provide for the child's health care needs through private or public health care coverage and/or through cash medical support;
(3) Provide that incarceration may not be treated as voluntary unemployment in establishing or modifying support orders; and
(4) Be based on specific descriptive and numeric criteria and result in a computation of the child support obligation.
(d) The State must include a copy of the child support guidelines in its State plan.
(e) The State must review, and revise, if appropriate, the child support guidelines established under paragraph (a) of this section at least once every four years to ensure that their application results in the determination of appropriate child support order amounts. The State shall publish on the internet and make accessible to the public all reports of the guidelines reviewing body, the membership of the reviewing body, the effective date of the guidelines, and the date of the next quadrennial review.
(f) The State must provide that there will be a rebuttable presumption, in any judicial or administrative proceeding for the establishment and modification of a child support order, that the amount of the order which would result from the application of the child support guidelines established under paragraph (a) of this section is the correct amount of child support to be ordered.
(g) A written finding or specific finding on the record of a judicial or administrative proceeding for the establishment or modification of a child support order that the application of the child support guidelines established under paragraph (a) of this section would be unjust or inappropriate in a particular case will be sufficient to rebut the presumption in that case, as determined under criteria established by the State. Such criteria must take into consideration the best interests of the child. Findings that rebut the child support guidelines shall state the amount of support that would have been required under the guidelines and include a justification of why the order varies from the guidelines.
(h) As part of the review of a State's child support guidelines required under paragraph (e) of this section, a State must:
(1) Consider economic data on the cost of raising children, labor market data (such as unemployment rates, employment rates, hours worked, and earnings) by occupation and skill-level for the State and local job markets, the impact of guidelines policies and amounts on custodial and noncustodial parents who have family incomes below 200 percent of the Federal poverty level, and factors that influence employment rates among noncustodial parents and compliance with child support orders;
(2) Analyze case data, gathered through sampling or other methods, on the application of and deviations from the child support guidelines, as well as the rates of default and imputed child support orders and orders determined using the low-income adjustment required under paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section. The analysis must also include a comparison of payments on child support orders by case characteristics, including whether the order was entered by default, based on imputed income, or determined using the low-income adjustment required under paragraph (c)(1)(ii). The analysis of the data must be used in the State's review of the child support guidelines to ensure that deviations from the guidelines are limited and guideline amounts are appropriate based on
(3) Provide a meaningful opportunity for public input, including input from low-income custodial and noncustodial parents and their representatives. The State must also obtain the views and advice of the State child support agency funded under title IV-D of the Act.
The revisions and addition read as follows.
(a) * * *
(b)
(c) * * *
(3) Establish and use criteria, which are reflected in a record, for selecting cases to pursue via the withholding of unemployment compensation for support purposes. These criteria must be designed to ensure maximum case selection and minimal discretion in the selection process.
(a) * * *
(5) * * *
(v) Procedures which provide that any objection to genetic testing results must be made in writing within a specified number of days before any hearing at which such results may be introduced into evidence; and if no objection is made, a report of the test results, which is reflected in a record, is admissible as evidence of paternity without the need for foundation testimony or other proof of authenticity or accuracy;
(8) Procedures under which all child support orders which are issued or modified in the State will include provision for withholding from income, in order to assure that withholding as a means of collecting child support is available if arrearages occur without the necessity of filing an application for services under § 302.33, in accordance with § 303.100(g) of this chapter.
(d) * * *
(2)
(a) * * *
(1) * * * This guide is available on the OCSE Web site; and
(b) * * *
(2) * * *
(ii) The State provides assurances, which are reflected in a record, that steps will be taken to otherwise improve the State's Child Support Enforcement program.
42 U.S.C. 651 through 658, 659a, 660, 663, 664, 666, 667, 1302, 1396a(a)(25), 1396b(d)(2), 1396b(o), 1396b(p), 1396(k), and 25 U.S.C. 1603(12) and 1621e.
(a) * * *
(2) When an individual requests an application for IV-D services, provide an application to the individual on the day the individual makes a request in person, or send an application to the individual within no more than 5 working days of a request received by telephone or in a record. * * *
(3) Accept an application as filed on the day it and the application fee are received. An application is a record that is provided or used by the State which indicates that the individual is applying for child support enforcement services under the State's title IV-D program and is signed, electronically or otherwise, by the individual applying for IV-D services.
The revision reads as follows:
(b) * * *
(1) Use appropriate location sources such as the Federal PLS; interstate location networks; local officials and employees administering public assistance, general assistance, medical assistance, Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program (SNAP) and social services (whether such individuals are employed by the State or a political subdivision); relatives and friends of the noncustodial parent; current or past employers; electronic communications and internet service providers; utility companies; the U.S. Postal Service; financial institutions; unions; corrections institutions; fraternal organizations; police, parole, and probation records if appropriate; and State agencies and departments, as authorized by State law, including those departments which maintain records of public assistance, wages and employment, unemployment insurance, income taxation, driver's licenses, vehicle registration, and criminal records and other sources;
(b) Use appropriate State statutes, procedures, and legal processes in establishing and modifying support obligations in accordance with § 302.56 of this chapter, which must include, at a minimum:
(1) Taking reasonable steps to develop a sufficient factual basis for the support obligation, through such means as
(2) Gathering information regarding the earnings and income of the noncustodial parent and, when earnings and income information is unavailable or insufficient in a case gathering available information about the specific circumstances of the noncustodial parent, including such factors as those listed under § 302.56(c)(1)(iii) of this chapter;
(3) Basing the support obligation or recommended support obligation amount on the earnings and income of the noncustodial parent whenever available. If evidence of earnings and income is unavailable or insufficient to use as the measure of the noncustodial parent's ability to pay, then the support obligation or recommended support obligation amount should be based on available information about the specific circumstances of the noncustodial parent, including such factors as those listed in § 302.56(c)(1)(iii) of this chapter.
(4) Documenting the factual basis for the support obligation or the recommended support obligation in the case record.
(g) * * *
(6) The State must provide training, guidance, and instructions, which are reflected in a record, regarding voluntary acknowledgment of paternity, as necessary to operate the voluntary paternity establishment services in the hospitals, State birth record agencies, and other entities designated by the State and participating in the State's voluntary paternity establishment program.
The addition reads as follows:
(c) * * *
(4) Establishing guidelines for the use of civil contempt citations in IV-D cases. The guidelines must include requirements that the IV-D agency:
(i) Screen the case for information regarding the noncustodial parent's ability to pay or otherwise comply with the order;
(ii) Provide the court with such information regarding the noncustodial parent's ability to pay, or otherwise comply with the order, which may assist the court in making a factual determination regarding the noncustodial parent's ability to pay the purge amount or comply with the purge conditions; and
(iii) Provide clear notice to the noncustodial parent that his or her ability to pay constitutes the critical question in the civil contempt action; and
(c) * * *
(10) Distribute and disburse any support collections received in accordance with this section and §§ 302.32, 302.38, 302.51, and 302.52 of this chapter, sections 454(5), 454B, 457, and 1912 of the Act, and instructions issued by the Office;
(d) * * *
(10) Notify the initiating agency when a case is closed pursuant to §§ 303.11(b)(17) through (19) and 303.7(d)(9).
(f)
The additions and revisions read as follows:
(b) * * *
(2) The State may elect in its State plan to initiate review of an order, after learning that a noncustodial parent will be incarcerated for more than 180 calendar days, without the need for a specific request and, upon notice to both parents, review and, if appropriate, adjust the order, in accordance with paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section.
(7) The State must provide notice—
(i) Not less than once every 3 years to both parents subject to an order informing the parents of their right to request the State to review and, if appropriate, adjust the order consistent with this section. The notice must specify the place and manner in which the request should be made. The initial notice may be included in the order.
(ii) If the State has not elected paragraph (b)(2) of this section, within 15 business days of when the IV-D agency learns that a noncustodial parent will be incarcerated for more than 180 calendar days, to both parents informing them of the right to request the State to review and, if appropriate, adjust the order, consistent with this section. The notice must specify, at a minimum, the place and manner in which the request should be made. Neither the notice nor a review is required under this paragraph if the State has a comparable law or rule that modifies a child support obligation upon incarceration by operation of State law.
(c) * * * Such reasonable quantitative standard must not exclude incarceration as a basis for determining whether an inconsistency between the existing child support order amount and the amount of support determined as a result of a review is adequate grounds for petitioning for adjustment of the order.
(d)
(a) The IV-D agency shall establish a system for case closure.
(b) The IV-D agency may elect to close a case if the case meets at least one of the following criteria and supporting documentation for the case closure decision is maintained in the case record:
(1) There is no longer a current support order and arrearages are under $500 or unenforceable under State law;
(2) There is no longer a current support order and all arrearages in the case are assigned to the State;
(3) There is no longer a current support order, the children have
(4) The noncustodial parent or alleged father is deceased and no further action, including a levy against the estate, can be taken;
(5) The noncustodial parent is living with the minor child (as the primary caregiver or in an intact two parent household), and the IV-D agency has determined that services are not appropriate or are no longer appropriate;
(6) Paternity cannot be established because:
(i) The child is at least 18 years old and an action to establish paternity is barred by a statute of limitations that meets the requirements of § 302.70(a)(5) of this chapter;
(ii) A genetic test or a court or an administrative process has excluded the alleged father and no other alleged father can be identified;
(iii) In accordance with § 303.5(b), the IV-D agency has determined that it would not be in the best interests of the child to establish paternity in a case involving incest or rape, or in any case where legal proceedings for adoption are pending; or
(iv) The identity of the biological father is unknown and cannot be identified after diligent efforts, including at least one interview by the IV-D agency with the recipient of services;
(7) The noncustodial parent's location is unknown, and the State has made diligent efforts using multiple sources, in accordance with § 303.3, all of which have been unsuccessful, to locate the noncustodial parent:
(i) Over a 2-year period when there is sufficient information to initiate an automated locate effort; or
(ii) Over a 6-month period when there is not sufficient information to initiate an automated locate effort; or
(iii) After a 1-year period when there is sufficient information to initiate an automated locate effort, but locate interfaces are unable to verify a Social Security Number;
(8) The IV-D agency has determined that throughout the duration of the child's minority (or after the child has reached the age of majority), the noncustodial parent cannot pay support and shows no evidence of support potential because the parent has been institutionalized in a psychiatric facility, is incarcerated, or has a medically-verified total and permanent disability. The State must also determine that the noncustodial parent has no income or assets available above the subsistence level that could be levied or attached for support;
(9) The noncustodial parent's sole income is from:
(i) Supplemental Security Income (SSI) payments made in accordance with sections 1601
(ii) Both SSI payments and Social Security Disability Insurance (SSDI) benefits under title II of the Act.
(10) The noncustodial parent is a citizen of, and lives in, a foreign country, does not work for the Federal government or a company with headquarters or offices in the United States, and has no reachable domestic income or assets; and there is no Federal or State treaty or reciprocity with the country;
(11) The IV-D agency has provided location-only services as requested under § 302.35(c)(3) of this chapter;
(12) The non-IV-A recipient of services requests closure of a case and there is no assignment to the State of medical support under 42 CFR 433.146 or of arrearages which accrued under a support order;
(13) The IV-D agency has completed a limited service under § 302.33(a)(6) of this chapter;
(14) There has been a finding by the IV-D agency, or at the option of the State, by the responsible State agency of good cause or other exceptions to cooperation with the IV-D agency and the State or local assistance program, such as IV-A, IV-E, Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program (SNAP), and Medicaid, has determined that support enforcement may not proceed without risk of harm to the child or caretaker relative;
(15) In a non-IV-A case receiving services under § 302.33(a)(1)(i) or (iii) of this chapter, or under § 302.33(a)(1)(ii) when cooperation with the IV-D agency is not required of the recipient of services, the IV-D agency is unable to contact the recipient of services despite a good faith effort to contact the recipient through at least two different methods;
(16) In a non-IV-A case receiving services under § 302.33(a)(1)(i) or (iii) of this chapter, or under § 302.33(a)(1)(ii) when cooperation with the IV-D agency is not required of the recipient of services, the IV-D agency documents the circumstances of the recipient's noncooperation and an action by the recipient of services is essential for the next step in providing IV-D services;
(17) The responding agency documents failure by the initiating agency to take an action that is essential for the next step in providing services;
(18) The initiating agency has notified the responding State that the initiating State has closed its case under § 303.7(c)(11);
(19) The initiating agency has notified the responding State that its intergovernmental services are no longer needed;
(20) Another assistance program, including IV-A, IV-E, SNAP, and Medicaid, has referred a case to the IV-D agency that is inappropriate to establish, enforce, or continue to enforce a child support order and the custodial or noncustodial parent has not applied for services; or
(21) The IV-D case, including a case with arrears assigned to the State, has been transferred to a Tribal IV-D agency and the State IV-D agency has complied with the following procedures:
(i) Before transferring the State IV-D case to a Tribal IV-D agency and closing the IV-D case with the State:
(A) The recipient of services requested the State to transfer the case to the Tribal IV-D agency and close the case with the State; or
(B) The State IV-D agency notified the recipient of services of its intent to transfer the case to the Tribal IV-D agency and close the case with the State and the recipient did not respond to the notice to transfer the case within 60 calendar days from the date notice was provided;
(ii) The State IV-D agency completely and fully transferred and closed the case; and
(iii) The State IV-D agency notified the recipient of services that the case has been transferred to the Tribal IV-D agency and closed; or
(iv) The Tribal IV-D agency has a State-Tribal agreement approved by OCSE to transfer and close cases. The State-Tribal agreement must include a provision for obtaining the consent from the recipient of services to transfer and close the case.
(c) The IV-D agency must close a case and maintain supporting documentation for the case closure decision when the following criteria have been met:
(1) The child is eligible for health care services from the Indian Health Service (IHS); and
(2) The IV-D case was opened because of a Medicaid referral based solely upon health care services, including the Purchased/Referred Care program, provided through an Indian Health Program (as defined at 25 U.S.C. 1603(12)).
(d) The IV-D agency must have the following requirements for case closure notification and case reopening:
(1) In cases meeting the criteria in paragraphs (b)(1) through (10) and (b)(15) and (16) of this section, the State must notify the recipient of services in writing 60 calendar days prior to closure of the case of the State's intent to close the case.
(2) In an intergovernmental case meeting the criteria for closure under paragraph (b)(17) of this section, the responding State must notify the initiating agency, in a record, 60 calendar days prior to closure of the case of the State's intent to close the case.
(3) The case must be kept open if the recipient of services or the initiating agency supplies information in response to the notice provided under paragraph (d)(1) or (2) of this section that could lead to the establishment of paternity or a support order or enforcement of an order, or, in the instance of paragraph (b)(15) of this section, if contact is reestablished with the recipient of services.
(4) For cases to be closed in accordance with paragraph (b)(13) of this section, the State must notify the recipient of services, in writing, 60 calendar days prior to closure of the case of the State's intent to close the case. This notice must also provide information regarding reapplying for child support services and the consequences of receiving services, including any State fees, cost recovery, and distribution policies. If the recipient reapplies for child support services in a case that was closed in accordance with paragraph (b)(13) of this section, the recipient must complete a new application for IV-D services and pay any applicable fee.
(5) If the case is closed, the former recipient of services may request at a later date that the case be reopened if there is a change in circumstances that could lead to the establishment of paternity or a support order or enforcement of an order by completing a new application for IV-D services and paying any applicable fee.
(6) For notices under paragraphs (d)(1) and (4) of this section, if the recipient of services specifically authorizes consent for electronic notifications, the IV-D agency may elect to notify the recipient of services electronically of the State's intent to close the case. The IV-D agency must maintain documentation of the recipient's consent in the case record.
(e) The IV-D agency must retain all records for cases closed in accordance with this section for a minimum of 3 years, in accordance with 45 CFR 75.361.
(a) * * *
(2) Health care coverage includes fee for service, health maintenance organization, preferred provider organization, and other types of private health insurance and public health care coverage under which medical services could be provided to the dependent child(ren).
(3) Cash medical support or the cost of health insurance is considered reasonable in cost if the cost to the parent responsible for providing medical support does not exceed five percent of his or her gross income or, at State option, a reasonable alternative income-based numeric standard defined in State law, regulations, or court rule having the force of law or State child support guidelines adopted in accordance with § 302.56(c) of this chapter.
(b) * * *
(1) Petition the court or administrative authority to—
(i) Include health care coverage that is accessible to the child(ren), as defined by the State, and is available to the parent responsible for providing medical support and can be obtained for the child at reasonable cost, as defined under paragraph (a)(3) of this section, in new or modified court or administrative orders for support; and
(ii) Allocate the cost of coverage between the parents.
(2) If health care coverage described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section is not available at the time the order is entered or modified, petition to include cash medical support in new or modified orders until such time as health care coverage, that is accessible and reasonable in cost as defined under paragraph (a)(3) of this section, becomes available. In appropriate cases, as defined by the State, cash medical support may be sought in addition to health care coverage.
(3) Establish criteria, which are reflected in a record, to identify orders that do not address the health care needs of children based on—
(i) Evidence that health care coverage may be available to either parent at reasonable cost, as defined under paragraph (a)(3) of this section; and
(4) Petition the court or administrative authority to modify support orders, in accordance with State child support guidelines, for cases identified in paragraph (b)(3) of this section to include health care coverage and/or cash medical support in accordance with paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section.
(d) * * *
(1) The State referring past-due support for offset must, in interstate situations, notify any other State involved in enforcing the support order when it receives the offset amount from the Secretary of the U.S. Treasury.
(e) * * *
(1) To initiate withholding, the State must send the noncustodial parent's employer a notice using the required OMB-approved
(h)
(i)
42 U.S.C. 651 through 655, 657, 1302, 1396a(a)(25), 1396b(d)(2), 1396b(o), 1396b(p), and 1396(k).
As a condition for Federal financial participation, the provisions of 45 CFR
The additions and revisions read as follows:
(a) * * *
(1) Necessary and reasonable expenditures for child support services and activities to carry out the State title IV-D plan;
(b) Services and activities for which Federal financial participation will be available will be those made to carry out the State title IV-D plan, including obtaining child support, locating noncustodial parents, and establishing paternity, that are determined by the Secretary to be necessary and reasonable expenditures properly attributed to the Child Support Enforcement program including, but not limited to the following:
(1) * * *
(iii) The establishment of all necessary agreements with other Federal, State, and local agencies or private providers to carry out Child Support Enforcement program activities in accordance with Procurement Standards, 45 CFR 75.326 through 75.340. These agreements may include:
(viii) The establishment of agreements with agencies administering the State's title IV-A and IV-E plans including criteria for:
(A) Referring cases to and from the IV-D agency;
(D) The procedures to be used to coordinate services; and
(E) Agreements to exchange data as authorized by law.
(ix) The establishment of agreements with State agencies administering Medicaid or CHIP, including appropriate criteria for:
(A) Referring cases to and from the IV-D agency;
(B) The procedures to be used to coordinate services;
(C) Agreements to exchange data as authorized by law; and
(D) Transferring collections from the IV-D agency to the Medicaid agency in accordance with § 302.51(c) of this chapter.
(2) The establishment of paternity including, but not limited to:
(vii) Developing and providing to parents and family members, hospitals, State birth records agencies, and other entities designated by the State and participating in the State's voluntary paternity establishment program, under § 303.5(g) of this chapter, educational and outreach activities, written and audiovisual materials about paternity establishment and forms necessary to voluntarily acknowledge paternity; and
(3) The establishment and enforcement of support obligations including, but not limited to:
(v) Bus fare or other minor transportation expenses to enable custodial or noncustodial parties to participate in child support proceedings and related activities;
(vi) Services to increase
(11) Medical support activities as specified in §§ 303.30, 303.31, and 303.32 of this chapter.
(12) Educational and outreach activities intended to inform the public, parents and family members, and young people who are not yet parents about the Child Support Enforcement program, responsible parenting and co-parenting, family budgeting, and other financial consequences of raising children when the parents are not married to each other.
(a)
(1) The activities, including administration of such activities, specified in § 304.20(b)(2) through (8), (11), and (12);
Federal financial participation at the applicable matching rate is not available for:
(a) Activities related to administering titles I, IV-A, IV-B, IV-E, X, XIV, XVI, XIX, XX, or XXI of the Act or 7 U.S.C. Chapter 51.
(b) Purchased support enforcement services which are not secured in accordance with § 304.22.
(c) Construction and major renovations.
(d) Education and training programs and educational services for State and county employees and court personnel except direct cost of short-term training provided to IV-D agency staff in accordance with §§ 304.20(b)(2)(viii) and 304.21.
(e) Any expenditures which have been reimbursed by fees collected as required by this chapter.
(f) Any costs of those caseworkers described in § 303.20(e) of this chapter.
(g) Any expenditures made to carry out an agreement under § 303.15 of this chapter.
(h) The costs of counsel for indigent defendants in IV-D actions.
(i) Any expenditures for jailing of parents in child support enforcement cases.
(j) The costs of
The revision reads as follows:
(a) * * *
(1) 75 percent for Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, Guam, and American Samoa for the distribution of retained IV-A collections; 55 percent for Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, Guam, the Northern Mariana Islands, and American Samoa for the distribution of retained IV-E collections; 70 percent for the District of Columbia for the distribution of retained IV-E collections; and
(a) * * *
(2) The State has notified the OCSE Regional Office in a record of its intent to make installment repayments. Such notice must be given prior to the time repayment of the total was otherwise due.
42 U.S.C. 609(a)(8), 652(a)(4) and (g), 658a, and 1302.
The additions read as follows:
(d) * * * Non-compliance will result in disallowances of incentive amounts equal to the amount of funds supplanted.
(e) Using the Form OCSE-396, “Child Support Enforcement Program Quarterly Financial Report,” the State Current Spending Level will be calculated by determining the State Share of Total Expenditures Claimed for all four quarters of the fiscal year minus State Share of IV-D Administrative Expenditures Made Using Funds Received as Incentive Payments for all four quarters of the fiscal year, plus the Federal Parent Locator Service (FPLS) fees for all four quarters of the fiscal year.
(1) The State Share of Expenditures Claimed is: Total Expenditures Claimed for the Current Quarter and the Prior Quarter Adjustments minus the Federal Share of Total Expenditures Claimed for the Current Quarter and Prior Quarter Adjustments claimed on the Form OCSE-396 for all four quarters of the fiscal year.
(2) The State Share of IV-D Administrative Expenditures Made Using Funds Received as Incentive Payments is: IV-D Administrative Expenditures Made Using Funds Received as Incentive Payments for the Current Quarter and the Prior Quarter Adjustments minus the Federal Share of IV-D Administrative Expenditures Made Using Funds Received as Incentive Payments for the Current Quarter and Prior Quarter Adjustments claimed on the Form OCSE-396 for all four quarters of the fiscal year.
(3) The Fees for the Use of the Federal Parent Locator Service (FPLS) can be computed by adding the FPLS fees claimed on the Form OCSE-396 for all four quarters of the fiscal year.
(d) With respect to the 75 percent standard in paragraph (c) of this section:
(c) * * * Within a specified timeframe from the date the report was sent, the IV-D agency may submit comments, which are reflected in a record, on any part of the report which the IV-D agency believes is in error. * * *
(a) If a State is found by the Secretary to be subject to a penalty as described in § 305.61, the OCSE will notify the State, in a record, of such finding.
42 U.S.C. 652 through 658, 664, 666 through 669A, and 1302.
(c) * * *
(3) The State provides assurance, which is reflected in a record, that steps will be taken to otherwise improve the State's Child Support Enforcement program.
(c) * * *
(3) Automatic use of enforcement procedures, including those under section 466(c) of the Act if payments are not timely, and the following procedures:
(i) Identify cases which have been previously identified as involving a noncustodial parent who is a recipient of SSI payments or concurrent SSI payments and Social Security Disability Insurance (SSDI) benefits under title II of the Act, to prevent garnishment of these funds from the noncustodial parent's financial account; and
(ii) Return funds to a noncustodial parent, within 5 business days after the agency determines that SSI payments or concurrent SSI payments and SSDI benefits under title II of the Act, in the noncustodial parent's financial account have been incorrectly garnished.
42 U.S.C. 654(15)(A) and 1302.
(b) * * *
(2) * * *
(ii) If location activities are necessary, using all appropriate sources within 75 days according to § 303.3(b)(3) of this chapter. This includes all the following locate sources as appropriate: custodial parent, Federal and State Parent Locator Services, U.S. Postal Service, State workforce agency, employment data, Department of Motor Vehicles, and credit bureaus;
(c) * * *
(3) * * *
(i) If location activities are necessary, using all appropriate location sources within 75 days according to § 303.3(b)(3) of this chapter. Location sources include: custodial parent, Federal and State Parent Locator Services, U.S. Postal Service, State workforce agency, Department of Motor Vehicles, and credit bureaus;
(f) * * *
(2) * * *
(i) If location is necessary to conduct a review, using all appropriate location sources within 75 days of opening the case pursuant to § 303.3(b)(3) of this chapter. Location sources include: custodial parent, Federal and State Parent Locator Services, U.S. Postal Service, State workforce agency, unemployment data, Department of Motor Vehicles, and credit bureaus;
42 U.S.C. 655(f) and 1302.
(b) * * *
(3) SF 425, “Federal Financial Report,” to be submitted quarterly within 30 days after the end of each of the first three quarters of the funding period and within 30 days after the end of each of the first three quarters of the liquidation period. The final report for each period is due within 90 days after the end of the fourth quarter of both the funding and the liquidation period; and
(4) Form OCSE-34, “Child Support Enforcement Program Quarterly Collection Report” must be submitted no later than 45 days following the end of each fiscal quarter. No revisions or adjustments of the financial reports submitted for any quarter of the fiscal year will be accepted by OCSE later than December 31, which is 3 months after the end of the fiscal year.
* * *
(a) * * *
(3) Establishment of all necessary agreements with other Tribal, State, and local agencies or private providers for the provision of child support enforcement services in accordance with Procurement Standards found in 45 CFR 75.326 through 75.340. These agreements may include:
OCSE will rely on audits conducted under 45 CFR part 75,
Category | Regulatory Information | |
Collection | Federal Register | |
sudoc Class | AE 2.7: GS 4.107: AE 2.106: | |
Publisher | Office of the Federal Register, National Archives and Records Administration |