Page Range | 31827-32225 | |
FR Document |
Page and Subject | |
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81 FR 32015 - Flight Simulation Training Device Qualification Standards for Extended Envelope and Adverse Weather Event Training Tasks | |
81 FR 32221 - Wildland-Urban Interface Federal Risk Mitigation | |
81 FR 32217 - Continuation of the National Emergency With Respect to the Stabilization of Iraq | |
81 FR 31889 - Rules and Regulations Implementing the Telephone Consumer Protection Act of 1991 | |
81 FR 31978 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Chicago Board Options Exchange, Incorporated; Order Approving Proposed Rule Change, as Modified by Amendment No. 2 Thereto, Relating to AIM Retained Orders | |
81 FR 31910 - Floor-Standing, Metal-Top Ironing Tables and Certain Parts Thereof From the People's Republic of China: Notice of Court Decision Not in Harmony With Final Results and Notice of Amended Final Results of the Antidumping Duty Administrative Review; 2009-2010 | |
81 FR 31957 - Endangered and Threatened Wildlife and Plants; Recovery Permit Applications | |
81 FR 31912 - Endangered and Threatened Species; Take of Anadromous Fish, Rockfish, and Eulachon | |
81 FR 31916 - Procurement List; Addition and Deletions | |
81 FR 31917 - Procurement List; Proposed Additions and Deletion | |
81 FR 31938 - Notice to All Interested Parties of the Termination of the Receivership of 10006, First Integrity Bank, National Association Staples, Minnesota | |
81 FR 31914 - New England Fishery Management Council; Public Meeting | |
81 FR 31969 - Superseded or Outdated Generic Communications | |
81 FR 31861 - Drawbridge Operation Regulation; Sacramento River, Sacramento, CA | |
81 FR 32004 - In the Matter of the Designation of ISIL-Libya, aka Islamic State of Iraq and the Levant-Libya, aka Islamic State and the Levant in Libya, aka Wilayat Barqa, aka Wilayat Fezzan, aka Wilayat Tripolitania, aka Wilayat Tarablus, aka Wilayat al-Tarablus, as a Foreign Terrorist Organization Pursuant to Sec. 219 of the Immigration and Nationality Act, as Amended | |
81 FR 31911 - Export Trade Certificate of Review | |
81 FR 32002 - In the Matter of the Designation of ISIL-Saudi Arabia, aka Islamic State of Iraq and the Levant-Saudi Arabia, aka Islamic State and the Levant in Saudi Arabia, aka ISIS in Saudi Arabia, aka Wilayat al-Haramayn, aka Wilayat Najd, aka Najd Province, aka Province of the Two Holy Places, aka Mujahideen of the Arabian Peninsula, aka Hijaz Province of the Islamic State, aka Al-Hijaz Province as a Specially Designated Global Terrorist | |
81 FR 32003 - 60-Day Notice of Proposed Information Collection: Shrimp Exporter's/Importer's Declaration | |
81 FR 32002 - Culturally Significant Objects Imported for Exhibition Determinations: “London Calling: Bacon, Freud, Kossoff, Andrews, Auerbach, and Kitaj” Exhibition | |
81 FR 32004 - Culturally Significant Objects Imported for Exhibition Determinations: “Bruce Conner: It's All True” Exhibition | |
81 FR 32004 - In the Matter of the Designation of Samir Kuntar, Also Known as Samir Quntar, Also Known as Sameer Kantar, Also Known as Samir Al-Kuntar, Also Known as Samir Qantar, Also Known as Samir Kintar, Also Known as Samir Qintar, Also Known as Samir Cantar as a Specially Designated Global Terrorist | |
81 FR 32002 - Culturally Significant Objects Imported for Exhibition Determinations: “Stuart Davis: In Full Swing” Exhibition | |
81 FR 32003 - In the Matter of the Designation of ISIL-Libya, aka Islamic State of Iraq and the Levant-Libya, aka Islamic State and the Levant in Libya, aka Wilayat Barqa, aka Wilayat Fezzan, aka Wilayat Tripolitania, aka Wilayat Tarablus, aka Wilayat al-Tarablus as a Specially Designated Global Terrorist | |
81 FR 32001 - In the Matter of the Designation of ISIL-Yemen, aka Islamic State of Iraq and the Levant-Yemen, aka Islamic State and the Levant in Yemen, aka Islamic State in Yemen, aka ISIS in Yemen, aka Wilayat al-Yemen, aka Province of Yemen as a Specially Designated Global Terrorist | |
81 FR 31895 - Federal Acquisition Regulation: System for Award Management Registration | |
81 FR 32004 - Paul Didelius-Continuance in Control Exemption-WRL, LLC | |
81 FR 31936 - Notification of a Public Meeting of the Science Advisory Board; Lake Erie Phosphorus Objectives Review Panel | |
81 FR 31937 - National Advisory Council for Environmental Policy and Technology Meeting | |
81 FR 31865 - Environmental Protection Agency Acquisition Regulation; Clause for Level of Effort-Cost-Reimbursement Contract | |
81 FR 31937 - Environmental Impact Statements; Notice of Availability | |
81 FR 31953 - Technical Mapping Advisory Council | |
81 FR 31999 - Proposed Collection; Comment Request | |
81 FR 32006 - Passenger Facility Charge (PFC) Program: Eligibility of Ground Access Projects Meeting Certain Criteria | |
81 FR 32005 - Noise Exposure Map Notice for Charlotte Douglas International Airport (CLT), Charlotte, NC | |
81 FR 31938 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed Collection; Comment Request | |
81 FR 31949 - Maternal and Child Health Collaborative Office Rounds | |
81 FR 31941 - Medicare Program; Announcement of the Advisory Panel on Hospital Outpatient Payment (the Panel) Meeting on August 22-23, 2016 and Announcement of Transition to One Meeting of the Panel Per Year | |
81 FR 31958 - Notice of Public Meeting for the Steens Mountain Advisory Council | |
81 FR 31951 - Notice of Issuance of Final Determination Concerning Certain Intermodal Containers | |
81 FR 31909 - Notice of June 2, 2016 Advisory Committee on Voluntary Foreign Aid Meeting | |
81 FR 31919 - Proposals by Non-Federal Interests, for Feasibility Studies and for Modifications to an Authorized Water Resources Development Project or Feasibility Study, for Inclusion in the Annual Report to Congress on Future Water Resources Development | |
81 FR 31927 - New York State Electric & Gas Corporation; Notice of Intent To File License Application, Filing of Pre-Application Document (PAD), Commencement of Pre-Filing Process, and Scoping; Request for Comments on the PAD and Scoping Document, and Identification of Issues and Associated Study Requests | |
81 FR 31900 - Endangered and Threatened Wildlife and Plants; Designating Critical Habitat for Three Plant Species on Hawaii Island | |
81 FR 31959 - Bulk Manufacturer of Controlled Substances Application: Mallinckrodt, LLC | |
81 FR 31959 - Manufacturer of Controlled Substances Registration: Pharmacore, Inc. | |
81 FR 31960 - Bulk Manufacturer of Controlled Substances Application: American Radiolabeled Chemicals | |
81 FR 31961 - Exempt Chemical Preparations Under the Controlled Substances Act | |
81 FR 31915 - Multistakeholder Process To Develop Consumer Data Privacy Code of Conduct Concerning Facial Recognition Technology | |
81 FR 31915 - Commerce Spectrum Management Advisory Committee Meeting | |
81 FR 31909 - Final Record of Decision for Greater Sage-Grouse Bi-State Distinct Population Segment Forest Plan Amendment | |
81 FR 31920 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission to the Office of Management and Budget for Review and Approval; Comment Request; Foreign Graduate Medical School Consumer Information Reporting Form | |
81 FR 31969 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
81 FR 31937 - Federal Advisory Committee Act; Communications Security, Reliability, and Interoperability; Council Meeting | |
81 FR 32008 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Information Collection Renewal; Submission for OMB Review; Consumer Protections for Depository Institution Sales of Insurance | |
81 FR 31967 - Proposed Extension of Information Collection; Application for a Permit To Fire More Than 20 Boreholes and/or for the Use of Nonpermissible Blasting Units, Explosives, and Shot-Firing Units; Posting Notices of Misfires | |
81 FR 31966 - Proposed Extension of Information Collection; Operations Under Water | |
81 FR 31968 - Proposed Extension of Information Collection; Certificate of Electrical Training and Applications for MSHA Approved Tests and State Tests Administered as Part of an MSHA-Approved State Program | |
81 FR 31868 - Appraisal Subcommittee; Notice of Proposed Rulemaking To Implement Collection and Transmission of Annual AMC Registry Fees | |
81 FR 31922 - Millennium Pipeline Company, LLC; Notice of Intent To Prepare an Environmental Assessment for the Planned Eastern System Upgrade Project, and Request for Comments on Environmental Issues | |
81 FR 31924 - FFP Missouri 16, LLC; FFP Missouri 15, LLC; FFP Missouri 13, LLC; Solia 5 Hydroelectric, LLC ; Solia 4 Hydroelectric, LLC ; Solia 8 Hydroelectric, LLC ; Notice of Technical Conference | |
81 FR 31933 - South Sutter Water District; Notice of Intent To File License Application, Filing of Pre-Application Document, Approving Use of the Traditional Licensing Process | |
81 FR 31934 - United Water Conservation District; Notice of Application Accepted for Filing and Soliciting Comments, Motions To Intervene, and Protests | |
81 FR 31926 - DesertLink, LLC; Notice of Petition for Declaratory Order | |
81 FR 31950 - National Institute of Neurological Disorders and Stroke; Notice of Closed Meetings | |
81 FR 31950 - Eunice Kennedy Shriver National Institute of Child Health & Human Development; Notice of Closed Meeting | |
81 FR 31951 - National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases Notice of Closed Meeting | |
81 FR 31950 - National Heart, Lung, and Blood Institute; Notice of Closed Meeting | |
81 FR 31925 - Paulsboro Natural Gas Pipeline Company, LLC; Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review of the Delaware River Pipeline Relocation Project | |
81 FR 31924 - Algonquin Gas Transmission, LLC; Notice Establishing Comment Period | |
81 FR 31921 - Brookfield White Pine Hydro LLC; Notice of Application Accepted for Filing, Soliciting Motions To Intervene and Protests, Ready for Environmental Analysis, and Soliciting Comments, Recommendations, Preliminary Terms and Conditions, and Preliminary Prescriptions | |
81 FR 31932 - Alabama Power Company; Notice of Application Accepted for Filing and Soliciting Comments, Motions To Intervene, and Protests | |
81 FR 31934 - Notice of Commission Staff Attendance | |
81 FR 31935 - Columbia Gulf Transmission, LLC; Notice of Application | |
81 FR 31929 - Columbia Gas Transmission, LLC; Notice of Application | |
81 FR 31933 - Reliability Technical Conference; California Independent System Operator Corporation; California Independent System Operator Corporation; Supplemental Notice With Agenda | |
81 FR 31958 - 1-Hydroxyethylidene-1, 1-Diphosphonic Acid From China; Determinations | |
81 FR 31918 - Proposed Collection; Comment Request | |
81 FR 31929 - FirstLight Hydro Generating Company; Notice of Application Tendered for Filing With the Commission and Establishing Procedural Schedule for Licensing and Deadline for Submission of Final Amendments | |
81 FR 31925 - Tricon Energy Ltd. and Rockbriar Partners Inc. v. Colonial Pipeline Company; Notice of Complaint | |
81 FR 31926 - Combined Notice of Filings #2 | |
81 FR 31931 - Combined Notice of Filings #1 | |
81 FR 31974 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; New York Stock Exchange LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change Adopting New NYSE Rules 2090 (Know Your Customer) and 2111 (Suitability) That Are Substantially Similar to FINRA Rules 2090 and 2111 and Deleting Current Rule 405 and the Related NYSE Rule Interpretation To Harmonize Its Rules With Certain Financial Industry Regulatory Authority, Inc. Rules | |
81 FR 31954 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Notice of Appeal or Motion, Form I-290B; Revision of a Currently Approved Collection | |
81 FR 31955 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Consideration of Deferred Action for Childhood Arrivals, FormI-821D; Extension, Without Change, of a Currently Approved Collection | |
81 FR 31986 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; ISE Mercury, LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Amend the Schedule of Fees | |
81 FR 31996 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Fixed Income Clearing Corporation; Notice of Filing To Suspend the Interbank Service of the GCF Repo® Service | |
81 FR 31979 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; The NASDAQ Stock Market LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Amend Nasdaq Rule 4703 | |
81 FR 31981 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; NYSE Arca, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Amend the Definition of Professional Customer in Rule 6.1A(a)(4A) | |
81 FR 31994 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; NYSE MKT LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Amend the Definition of Professional Customer in Rule 900.2NY(18A) | |
81 FR 31984 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; NYSE Arca, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Amend the NYSE Arca Options Fee Schedule | |
81 FR 31973 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
81 FR 31993 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
81 FR 31988 - Nationwide Mutual Funds, et al.; Notice of Application | |
81 FR 31973 - Proposed Collection; Comment Request | |
81 FR 31983 - Proposed Collection; Comment Request | |
81 FR 31861 - Security Zone; Protection of Military Cargo, Captain of the Port Zone Puget Sound | |
81 FR 31947 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Submission to OMB for Review and Approval; Public Comment Request | |
81 FR 31877 - Breast Cancer Fund, Center for Environmental Health, Center for Food Safety, Center for Science in the Public Interest, Clean Water Action, Consumer Federation of America, Earthjustice, Environmental Defense Fund, Improving Kids' Environment, Learning Disabilities Association of America, and Natural Resources Defense Council; Filing of Food Additive Petition | |
81 FR 31875 - Modification of Regulation Regarding Written Argument: Establishing Word Limits for Case and Rebuttal Briefs in Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Proceedings | |
81 FR 31938 - Change in Bank Control Notices; Acquisitions of Shares of a Bank or Bank Holding Company | |
81 FR 31965 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request; Unemployment Insurance Materials Transmittal | |
81 FR 31972 - New Postal Product | |
81 FR 31909 - Information Collection Activity; Comment Request | |
81 FR 31944 - Medical Devices; Availability of Safety and Effectiveness Summaries for Premarket Approval Applications | |
81 FR 31945 - Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease: Developing Drugs for Treatment; Draft Guidance for Industry; Availability | |
81 FR 31946 - Blood Products Advisory Committee; Notice of Meeting | |
81 FR 31943 - Advisory Committees; Filing of Closed Meeting Reports | |
81 FR 31999 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Proposed Request and Comment Request | |
81 FR 32009 - Notice of Funding Availability (NOFA) | |
81 FR 31956 - Agency Information Collection Activities: E-Verify Program; Revision of a Currently Approved Collection | |
81 FR 31885 - Approval and Promulgation of Air Quality Implementation Plans; Pennsylvania; Control of Volatile Organic Compound Emissions From Fiberglass Boat Manufacturing Materials | |
81 FR 31887 - Approval and Promulgation of Air Quality Implementation Plans; Maryland; Control of Emissions From Various Processes and Fuel-Burning Equipment From Kraft Pulp Mills | |
81 FR 31853 - Black Lung Benefits Act: Disclosure of Medical Evidence and Payment of Benefits; Technical Amendment | |
81 FR 31862 - Safety Zone, Block Island Wind Farm; Rhode Island Sound, RI | |
81 FR 31855 - Special Local Regulations, Recurring Marine Events in Captain of the Port Long Island Sound Zone | |
81 FR 31883 - Special Local Regulation; Ohio River, Lawrenceburg, IN | |
81 FR 31852 - Amendment of Class D and Class E Airspace for the following Tennessee Towns; Jackson, TN; Tri-Cities, TN | |
81 FR 31854 - Improve Tracking of Workplace Injuries and Illnesses; Correction | |
81 FR 31851 - Establishment of Class E Airspace; Harlan, KY | |
81 FR 31880 - Petition To Initiate Rulemaking; Ensuring That Companies With a History of Financial Insolvency, and Their Subsidiary Companies, Are Not Allowed to Self-Bond Coal Mining Operations | |
81 FR 32007 - Tier 1 Environmental Impact Statement for Interstate 11 Corridor Between Nogales and Wickenburg, Arizona | |
81 FR 31873 - Protection of Archaeological Resources | |
81 FR 31848 - Airworthiness Directives; The Boeing Company Airplanes | |
81 FR 31957 - Federal Property Suitable as Facilities To Assist the Homeless | |
81 FR 31844 - Airworthiness Directives; Airbus Airplanes | |
81 FR 31827 - Energy Conservation Program: Test Procedure for Battery Chargers | |
81 FR 31881 - Alabama Regulatory Program | |
81 FR 32179 - Assessments | |
81 FR 32006 - Notice of Final Federal Agency Actions on 183 North Mobility Project, Travis and Williamson Counties, Texas |
Forest Service
Rural Utilities Service
International Trade Administration
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration
National Telecommunications and Information Administration
Engineers Corps
Federal Energy Regulatory Commission
Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services
Food and Drug Administration
Health Resources and Services Administration
National Institutes of Health
Coast Guard
Federal Emergency Management Agency
U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services
U.S. Customs and Border Protection
Fish and Wildlife Service
Land Management Bureau
Surface Mining Reclamation and Enforcement Office
Drug Enforcement Administration
Mine Safety and Health Administration
Occupational Safety and Health Administration
Workers Compensation Programs Office
Federal Aviation Administration
Federal Highway Administration
Comptroller of the Currency
Consult the Reader Aids section at the end of this issue for phone numbers, online resources, finding aids, and notice of recently enacted public laws.
To subscribe to the Federal Register Table of Contents LISTSERV electronic mailing list, go to http://listserv.access.thefederalregister.org and select Online mailing list archives, FEDREGTOC-L, Join or leave the list (or change settings); then follow the instructions.
Office of Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy, Department of Energy.
Final rule.
On August 6, 2015, the U.S. Department of Energy (“DOE”) issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (“NOPR”) to amend the test procedure for battery chargers. This final rule is based on that NOPR. The final rule amends the current test procedure, incorporating changes that will take effect 30 days after the final rule publication date. These changes will be mandatory for product testing to demonstrate compliance with any future energy conservation standards that DOE may adopt and for any representations made regarding the energy consumption or energy efficiency of battery chargers starting 180 days after publication of this rule. In summary, these changes update the battery selection criteria for multi-voltage, multi-capacity battery chargers, harmonize the instrumentation resolution and uncertainty requirements with the second edition of the International Electrotechnical Commission (“IEC”) 62301 standard for measuring standby power, define and exclude back-up battery chargers from the testing requirements of this rulemaking, outline provisions for conditioning lead acid batteries, specify sampling and certification requirements for compliance with future energy conservation standards, and correct typographical errors in the current test procedure.
The effective date of this rule is June 20, 2016. The final rule changes will be mandatory for representations made starting November 16, 2016. The incorporation by reference of certain material listed in this rule is approved by the Director of the Federal Register as of June 20, 2016.
The docket, which includes
A link to the docket Web page can be found at:
For further information on how to review the docket, contact Ms. Brenda Edwards at (202) 586-2945 or by email:
This final rule incorporates the resolution parameters for power measurements and uncertainty methodologies found in section 4 of IEC 62301, Edition 2.0, 2011-01, “Household electrical appliances—Measurement of standby power”, (“IEC 62301”) by reference into part 430.
Copies of the IEC 62301 standard can be obtained from the IEC's webstore at
Title III of the Energy Policy and Conservation Act of 1975 (42 U.S.C. 6291,
Under EPCA, the energy conservation program consists essentially of four parts: (1) Testing, (2) labeling, (3) Federal energy conservation standards, and (4) certification and enforcement
EPCA sets forth the criteria and procedures DOE must follow when prescribing or amending test procedures for covered products. EPCA provides that any new or amended test procedure must be reasonably designed to produce test results which measure energy efficiency, energy use, or estimated annual operating cost of a covered product during a representative average use cycle or period of use and must not be unduly burdensome to conduct. (42 U.S.C. 6293(b)(3))
In addition, if DOE determines that a test procedure amendment is warranted, it must publish a proposed test procedure and offer the public an opportunity to present oral and written comments. (42 U.S.C. 6293(b)(2)) Finally, in any rulemaking to amend a test procedure, DOE must determine to what extent, if any, the proposed test procedure would alter the measured energy efficiency of the covered product as determined under the existing test procedure. (42 U.S.C. 6293(e)(1))
The Energy Policy Act of 2005 (“EPACT 2005”), Public Law 109-58 (Aug. 8, 2005), amended EPCA by adding provisions related to battery chargers. Among these provisions were definitions outlining what constitutes a battery charger and a requirement that DOE prescribe definitions and test procedures for the power use of battery chargers and external power supplies. (42 U.S.C. 6295(u)(1)(A)) DOE complied with this requirement by publishing a test procedure final rule on December 8, 2006, that established a new Appendix Y to address the testing of battery chargers to measure their energy consumption and adopted several definitions related to the testing of battery chargers. 71 FR 71340 (codified at appendix Y to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430 “Uniform Test Method for Measuring the Energy Consumption of Battery Chargers”). Lastly, DOE incorporated by reference specific sections of the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency's (“EPA”) “Test Methodology for Determining the Energy Performance of Battery Charging Systems”
The Energy Independence and Security Act of 2007 (“EISA 2007”), Public Law 110-140 (Dec. 19, 2007) later amended EPCA by defining active mode, standby mode, and off mode. (42 U.S.C. 6295(gg)(1)(A)) EISA 2007 also directed DOE to amend its existing test procedure by December 31, 2008, to measure the energy consumed in standby mode and off mode for battery chargers. (42 U.S.C. 6295(gg)(2)(B)(i)) Further, it authorized DOE to amend, by rule, any of the definitions for active, standby, and off modes. (42 U.S.C. 6295(gg)(1)(B)) Accordingly, DOE issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NOPR) on August 15, 2008 (73 FR 48054), and a final rule on March 27, 2009 (74 FR 13318) to establish definitions for these terms.
Subsequently, in response to numerous testing issues raised by commenters in the context of DOE's energy conservation standards rulemaking efforts for battery chargers, DOE issued another NOPR on April 2, 2010. 75 FR 16958. The NOPR proposed adding a new active mode energy consumption test procedure for battery chargers that would assist in developing potential energy conservation standards for these products. DOE also proposed amending portions of its standby and off mode battery charger test procedure to shorten overall measurement time. DOE held a public meeting to discuss its test procedure NOPR on May 7, 2010, where it also received comments on the proposals set forth in the NOPR. After receiving comments at the public meeting, DOE published a final rule that codified a new active mode test procedure and amended the standby and off mode test procedures. 76 FR 31750 (June 1, 2011). As federal standards for battery chargers have yet to be finalized, DOE has not required manufacturers to submit energy efficiency data for their products tested under the battery charger test procedure.
Following the publication of the most recent battery charger test procedure final rule, DOE continued to receive additional questions and requests for clarification regarding the testing, rating, and classification of battery chargers. As part of the continuing effort to establish federal energy conservation standards for battery chargers and to develop a clear and widely applicable test procedure, DOE published a Notice of Data Availability (NODA) on May 15, 2014. 79 FR 27774. The NODA sought stakeholder comments concerning the repeatability of the test procedure for battery chargers with several consumer configurations, and on anticipated market penetration of new battery charging technologies that may require further revisions to DOE's regulations. DOE also sought stakeholder comments on the reporting methodologies for manufacturers attempting to comply with California's Energy Commission's (CEC's) efficiency standards for battery chargers in order to understand certain data discrepancies in the CEC database. DOE indicated its interest in soliciting feedback to determine whether the current procedure contained any ambiguities requiring clarification. These issues were discussed during DOE's NODA public meeting on June 3, 2014.
To improve the repeatability and reproducibility of the battery charger test procedure, DOE issued a NOPR on August 6, 2015 (“August 2015 NOPR”), which, based on stakeholder comments to the NODA, proposed amendments to appendix Y to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430 and to 10 CFR part 429. 80 FR 46855. DOE then held a public meeting to discuss these proposed amendments on September 15, 2015 and allowed for written comments to be submitted through October 20, 2015. This rule addresses comments that were received on the proposal, and finalizes many of the proposed changes to appendix Y to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430 and to 10 CFR part 429.
This final rule makes several amendments to the current test procedure for battery chargers. First, the final rule harmonizes the current test procedure for battery chargers with the latest version of the IEC 62301 standard by providing specific resolution and measurement tolerances. This amendment ensures that the measurements resulting from the current test procedure are repeatable and reproducible.
Second, the final rule amends the battery selection criteria for multi-voltage, multi-capacity battery chargers to limit the number of batteries selected for testing to one. For multi-voltage, multi-capacity battery chargers, the battery with the highest rated voltage is to be selected for testing. If at least two batteries meet the criteria of having the highest rated voltage, then the battery with the highest rated charge capacity at that rated voltage is to be selected for testing.
Third, the final rule defines and excludes back-up battery chargers embedded in continuous use devices from being required to be tested under the battery charger test procedure.
Fourth, the final rule allows lead acid batteries to be conditioned prior to testing by applying the protocol currently used for other battery chemistries (excluding lithium-ion). DOE is aware that a lead acid battery's condition may vary upon purchase and this variation can impact the performance of lead acid batteries. Conditioning of these batteries prior to testing will help mitigate the extent of this variation and reduce the variability of the test results.
Fifth, the final rule adds product-specific certification reporting requirements to 10 CFR 429.39(b), which had been reserved. The final rule also adds a sampling methodology to be used for determining representations of battery charger energy consumption and also adds provisions for enforcement testing. These amendments specify the required data elements to certify compliance with any energy conservation standards for battery chargers that DOE may adopt, describe how to calculate the representations, and provide a method for DOE to enforce compliance with any energy conservation standards for battery chargers that DOE may promulgate.
Sixth, the final rule corrects an internal cross-reference error in the current version of Table 3.1 contained in appendix Y to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430, adds units of measurement to the measured and calculated values in the table, and removes the empty value column currently contained in that table. Additionally, the final rule corrects a typographical error in section 5.8(c)(2) of appendix Y to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430.
Table II-1 below summarizes the changes and affected sections of 10 CFR parts 429 and 430.
In response to the August 2015 NOPR, DOE received written comments from 18 interested parties, including manufacturers, trade associations, standards development organizations, energy efficiency advocacy groups, and a foreign government. Table III-1 below lists the entities that commented on that NOPR and their affiliation. These comments are discussed in more detail below, and the full set of comments can be found at:
To continue to ensure that DOE's test procedure for battery chargers is harmonized with the default guidelines for power and energy measurements generally recognized by many regulatory bodies, DOE proposed in the August 2015 NOPR to incorporate by reference the resolution parameters and uncertainty methodologies found in section 4 of the second edition of the IEC 62301 standard. 80 FR 46855, 46861.
DOE received comments from the CA IOUs, ITI, NEMA, NMMA, Schneider Electric, and WAHL Clipper supporting the proposal. (CA IOUs, No. 21, p. 3, ITI, No. 17, p. 4, NEMA, No. 13, p. 3, NMMA, No. 9, p. 3, Schneider Electric, No. 12, p. 4, WAHL Clipper, No. 18, p. 1). DOE also received comments from JOME and Delta-Q opposing the proposal. JOME expressed concern that the sampling rate of at least one sample per second prescribed in the second edition of the IEC 62301 standard will produce large amounts of data during the 24-hour energy consumption test and the management of these data can be cumbersome for manufacturers. (JOME, No. 2, p. 2) JOME and Delta-Q both recommended a sampling rate of at least one sample per minute. (JOME, No. 2, p. 2, Delta-Q, No. 11, p. 1) Additionally, JOME opposed the mandated calculation of uncertainty of measurement in annex D of the second edition of the IEC 62301 standard. (JOME, No. 2, p. 3)
DOE believes that harmonization with the second edition of the IEC 62301 standard is necessary for ensuring accuracy and repeatability of test results for battery chargers. DOE does not believe that the increase in data resulting from the higher sampling rate is cumbersome or unduly burdensome on manufacturers since test data acquisition and storage is performed automatically using electronic test equipment. Furthermore, DOE believes that the mandated calculation of uncertainty of measurement, as prescribed in annex D of the second edition of the IEC 62301 standard, is necessary for appropriately quantifying the accuracy of measured values. Thus, DOE is incorporating by reference the resolution parameters and uncertainty methodologies found in section 4 of the second edition of the IEC 62301 standard in this final rule.
In order to eliminate ambiguity in the battery selection criteria and reduce testing burden on manufacturers, DOE proposed in the August 2015 NOPR to reduce the number of batteries selected for testing certain multi-voltage, multi-capacity battery chargers to one. 80 FR at 46860. These criteria are applicable to multi-voltage, multi-capacity battery chargers packaged or sold without a battery or packaged and sold with more than one battery. Specifically, DOE proposed to modify Table 4.1 to eliminate the multiple tests currently required for multi-voltage and multi-capacity battery chargers and instead require that only one battery with the highest voltage and/or highest capacity be selected. DOE's proposal would result in only one set of test results, and after application of the sampling plan, a single represented value for each basic model of battery charger. Any potential energy conservation standard would only apply to the specific combination that is required to be tested and represented as part of the test procedure.
DOE received numerous comments from a variety of stakeholders regarding the proposed change in the battery selection criteria for multi-voltage, multi-capacity battery chargers. First, DOE received comments from NEMA, NRDC, et al., and Schneider Electric opposing the proposal to limit the number of batteries selected for testing multi-voltage, multi-capacity battery chargers to one. NEMA argued that limiting the number of batteries selected for testing to a single battery prescribes an unnecessary restriction on manufacturers of battery chargers. NEMA further argued that multiple chemistries and capacity values make battery chargers a very diverse category, whose test results cannot be duplicated under too-specific test procedures. (NEMA, No. 13, p. 2) Schneider Electric also argued that limiting the number of batteries selected for testing to a single battery is an unnecessary and burdensome restriction on battery charger manufacturers. Schneider Electric stated that testing a battery charger with the highest voltage or highest capacity battery does not
DOE believes that the proposed battery selection criteria for testing multi-voltage, multi-capacity battery chargers, packaged or sold without a battery or packaged and sold with more than one battery, is most representative of the overall energy use of the battery charger while reducing testing burden on manufacturers of battery chargers. Due to the increased costs and complexity for a battery charger to support higher voltages, it is unlikely that a manufacturer would add support for higher voltages unless there was a strong demand to charge such batteries. Adding support for lower voltage batteries, however, incurs little to no additional cost or design complexity. Thus, the highest voltage and/or highest capacity battery is likely the most representative combination for a battery charger. As Schneider Electric notes, the highest voltage or capacity may not necessarily be the highest energy use. However, the highest voltage or capacity would be the most common use of such a battery charger. Additionally, it would be burdensome to determine which battery did result in the highest energy use as that would require testing all the combinations of batteries the battery charger supported and, at this point in time, DOE does not have a reason to believe this is necessary. Allowing manufacturers to declare and select the battery used would reduce the testing burden; however, that approach could be inconsistently applied amongst different manufacturers based on how such batteries were selected and may result in battery selections that are not commonly used by consumers. DOE also notes that restricting test results to a single battery instead of multiple batteries would reduce burden on a manufacturer if the potential energy conservation standards only require compliance at the tested battery configuration. Finally, contrary to the assertion of NEMA and Schneider Electric, manufacturers would still be able to distribute the basic model of battery charger with other batteries; DOE is only limiting the battery with which the manufacturer is required to test the battery charger.
NRDC, et al. also opposed DOE's proposal and recommended that DOE retain the current battery selection criteria for multi-voltage, multi-capacity battery chargers so that these chargers are tested against the entire range of batteries compatible with that basic model of charger. Further, NRDC, et al. recommended that the test procedure should ensure battery chargers are tested with the batteries they are shipped with instead of the highest capacity batteries that the chargers are capable of charging. (NRDC, et al., No. 20, p. 3) While DOE is finalizing its proposal of testing multi-voltage, multi-capacity battery chargers shipped either with multiple batteries or without a battery, with one and only one battery to, in part, remove ambiguity in the battery selection criteria, the primary reason is to balance testing burden on manufacturers against potential losses in energy savings that may arise due to testing in specific configurations or modes. DOE believes that testing at the highest voltage would most likely capture the highest energy use of the battery charger as well as the most common use of the battery charger by consumers. DOE will monitor the market as compliance is required and revisit this approach if DOE believes this approach is resulting in unintended consequences. DOE further emphasizes that the selection criteria provided in Table 4.1 of Appendix Y apply only to battery chargers packaged with multiple batteries, or packaged without a battery. The selection criteria do not apply to battery chargers with integrated batteries or to battery charger basic models that are packaged with only one battery (in each of those cases, the battery packaged with the charger would be used for testing). For a battery charger packaged with a battery, the battery charger basic model includes the entire battery charger system as packaged together and distributed into commerce. Therefore, if a battery charger is packaged and sold with a single battery of a particular voltage and capacity, and that same charger model is packaged and sold with another single battery of different voltage and capacity, then each combination of charger circuitry and battery would be considered its own battery charger basic model. A battery charger basic model is subject to testing, certification, and compliance with an energy conservation standard. The selection criteria are not relevant in these cases because the test procedure would require testing the battery charger circuitry and the (single) battery packaged together as a single battery charger basic model. The battery selection criteria proposed in the August 2015 NOPR are only used when more than one battery is packaged with a battery charger or when no batteries are packaged with the charger. For the reasons stated above, DOE is finalizing its proposal to reduce the number of batteries selected for testing certain multi-voltage, multi-capacity battery chargers packaged with multiple batteries, or packaged without a battery, to one in this final rule.
DOE also received stakeholder comments supporting the proposed battery selection criteria but arguing that the highest voltage and highest capacity might not always be found in the same physical battery. (The Joint Commenters, No. 16, p. 5; DELL Inc., Pub. Mtg. Tr., No. 4, p. 31-33). Under DOE's proposal, a multi-voltage and multi-capacity battery charger would be tested using the battery or configuration of batteries with the highest individual voltage and highest total rated energy capacity. Upon further consideration, DOE acknowledges that this proposal creates ambiguity in cases where a battery with a lower voltage has a higher rated energy capacity than a battery with a higher voltage, and vice-versa. To eliminate this ambiguity in the proposed battery selection criteria, ITI and PTI/OPEI recommended selecting a battery with the highest capacity, and if multiple batteries exist with the same capacity then the battery with the highest voltage would be selected. (ITI, No. 17, p. 2, PTI/OPEI, No 14, p. 4) In contrast, NRDC, et al. recommended selecting a battery with the highest voltage, and if multiple batteries of the same voltage exist then select the battery with the highest capacity. (NRDC, et al., No. 20, p. 2) NRDC, et al. also recommended selecting the battery with the lowest charge capacity, and if multiple batteries meet this criterion, then the compatible battery with the lowest voltage and lowest charge capacity would be selected. (NRDC, et al., No. 20, p. 3) NEMA recommended that manufacturers should be permitted discretion on battery selection based on internal considerations such as the most common type of batteries used in their supply chain, etc. (NEMA, No. 13, p. 2) DOE also received comments that recommended selecting the most common battery for the application (JOME, No. 2, p. 2), the battery mentioned in the user manual (Japan 4EE, No. 6, p. 3), and the readily available batteries specific to lead acid battery chargers (NMMA, No. 9, p. 2).
The proposals from NEMA, Japan 4EE, and NMMA could be
In the August 2015 NOPR, DOE proposed that the highest voltage and/or highest capacity battery be selected for multi-voltage, multi-capacity battery chargers. 80 FR at 46860. DOE intended to prioritize battery voltage over battery capacity. Higher voltages require the most design consideration for battery chargers, and a manufacturer would not design for higher voltages unless it was common and significant to the use of the battery charger. Increased battery capacity generally does not require as significant a redesign of the battery charger. Therefore, in response to stakeholder comments and to clarify its original intention, DOE is modifying the battery selection criteria language for multi-voltage, multi-capacity battery chargers in Table 4.1 to more clearly specify that battery voltage is prioritized over battery capacity. This update eliminates any ambiguity in the battery selection criteria while ensuring that the energy consumption of multi-voltage, multi-capacity battery chargers is tested at the most representative combination as DOE intended.
Further, DOE received comments from NRDC, et al. supporting DOE's additional proposed criterion of testing a multi-voltage, multi-capacity, multi-chemistry battery charger with a battery that results in the highest maintenance mode power if applying the battery selection criteria in Table 4.1 results in more than one battery selected (such that two or more batteries, each with a unique chemistry, meet the selection criteria). (NRDC, et al., No. 20, p. 2) However, NMMA recommended that DOE clarify that the selection criterion of highest maintenance mode power only applies to chargers of distinct chemistries, and does not apply to lead acid battery chargers sold without an accompanying battery. NMMA stated that the maintenance mode power of lead acid batteries depends on a number of factors, not all manufacturers of lead acid batteries publish this information, and, therefore, selection of worst-case lead acid batteries may be difficult to achieve. (NMMA, No. 9, p. 2)
In response to the concern raised by NMMA, DOE clarifies that the additional battery selection criterion of selecting the battery that results in the highest mode maintenance power was intended to only apply when application of the battery selection criteria in Table 4.1 to multi-voltage, multi-capacity, multi-chemistry chargers results in more than one battery (such that two or more batteries, each with a unique chemistry, meet the selection criteria). This criterion was not intended to and will not apply to multi-voltage, multi-capacity battery chargers sold without an accompanied battery that are only capable of charging batteries of a single chemistry such as lead acid. Additionally, since DOE is reducing the testing burden to a single voltage point, testing with the highest maintenance mode power ensures that the energy savings from a potential energy conservation standard is maximized. Therefore, DOE is finalizing the additional battery selection criterion of selecting the battery and battery charger combination resulting in the highest maintenance mode power if applying the battery selection criteria in Table 4.1 results in more than one battery (such that two or more batteries, each with a unique chemistry, meet the selection criteria) for a multi-voltage, multi-capacity, multi-chemistry battery charger.
Lastly, NEMA recommended that DOE require manufacturers of multi-voltage, multi-capacity, multi-chemistry battery chargers to identify and declare testing specifics that would be reported and available to DOE and third-party test facilities, to enable them to reproduce the test results. (NEMA, No. 13, p. 2) NEMA's recommendation was based on its recommendation that DOE relax the requirements of its proposed test procedure to allow options for battery selection under these circumstances. NEMA contended that “too-specific test procedures challenge successful duplication of test efforts.” (NEMA, No. 13, p. 2) DOE believes, to the contrary, that deviation from the standard protocols would negatively affect accuracy and repeatability of test results. Therefore, this test procedure final rule for battery chargers details and standardizes all specifics surrounding compliance testing. As such, there will be no need for the requirement recommended by NEMA.
In the August 2015 NOPR, DOE proposed to define back-up battery chargers and exclude them from the scope of the battery chargers test procedure rulemaking. 80 FR at 46860. In that document, DOE explained that because these types of devices are becoming increasingly integrated with a variety of products that do not perform back-up battery charging as a primary function, measuring the energy use associated with the battery charging function of these devices is often extremely difficult—if not impossible—because of the inability to isolate the energy usage from the battery charging function during testing. DOE proposed to define back-up battery chargers in 10 CFR 430.2 as a battery charger that: (1) Is embedded in a separate end-use product that is designed to operate continuously using mains power (AC or DC), and (2) has as its sole purpose to recharge a battery used to maintain continuity of load power in case of input power failure.
DOE received comments from ARRIS and Japan 4EE supporting DOE's decision to define and exclude back-up battery chargers from the scope of the battery chargers test procedure. (ARRIS, No. 19, p. 1, Japan 4EE, No. 6, p. 3) However, DOE also received comments from the CA IOUs, CEC, NRDC, et al. and Schneider Electric opposing this aspect of DOE's proposal. Schneider Electric expressed concern that, in the absence of a Federal test procedure covering back-up battery chargers, manufacturers of back-up battery chargers are faced with the possibility of individual states introducing numerous and potentially inconsistent test procedures and energy conservation standards, which will be unduly burdensome on manufacturers. (Schneider Electric, No. 12, p. 1) The CEC, CA IOUs, and NRDC, et al. contended that excluding back-up battery chargers from the test procedure will preempt the CEC's existing energy efficiency standards for back-up battery chargers, which can potentially lead to backsliding of energy savings from the CEC standards. Furthermore, the CEC, CA IOUs and NRDC, et al. suggested that, if DOE decides to exclude back-up battery chargers from the scope of the battery chargers test procedure, DOE should exclude back-up battery chargers from the definition of battery chargers altogether, which will allow the current CEC standards to remain applicable until DOE decides to introduce a specific test procedure for back-up battery chargers. (CEC, No. 8, p. 3, CA IOUs, No. 21, p. 3, NRDC, et al., No. 20, p. 2)
In response to these concerns, DOE clarifies here that, while the rule adopted here will preempt state test procedures for battery chargers, state energy conservation standards for battery chargers, including back-up battery chargers and UPSs, prescribed or enacted before publication of this final rule, will not be preempted until the compliance date of Federal energy
DOE has considered all stakeholder comments related to this topic and is finalizing the exclusion of back-up battery chargers, as defined in 10 CFR 430.2, from the battery charger test procedure. This is not because it is not possible to apply the test procedure to back-up battery chargers, but rather because applying the battery charger test procedure to back-up battery chargers does not result in a representative measure of the energy consumption of these battery chargers. While the battery charger test procedure allows a manufacturer to minimize standby power of additional functionalities or incorporate an on-off switch to disable non-battery charger functions, doing so is impractical for applications that are designed to operate continuously. There would be no practical reason, therefore, for a manufacturer to implement potentially costly technology or switches that limit the non-battery charging functions of a design in which those non-battery charging functions are designed to be operated continuously, and thus, are not representative of typical use.
Similarly, DOE is excluding uninterruptible power supplies (“UPSs”) from this battery charger test procedure. DOE has proposed, as part of a separate rulemaking, a test procedure for UPSs that contain an AC output. See
DOE also received comments from ITI requesting that DOE define and exclude rechargeable battery subsystems from the test procedure for battery chargers. ITI defines rechargeable battery subsystems as “rechargeable batteries and battery charger systems contained completely within a larger product that are not capable of providing normal operation of the parent product when AC mains power is removed.” ITI argued these products are functionally different from other battery chargers covered under this regulation. ITI contends that batteries and battery charging subsystems cannot be effectively isolated from the parent device for testing and there is no appropriate test procedure to measure the energy consumption of these subsystems. (ITI, No. 17, pp. 3-4)
After researching applications and architectures of rechargeable battery subsystems, as defined by ITI, DOE believes that rechargeable battery subsystems would already meet the proposed definition of back-up battery chargers. In particular, a battery charger that maintains a battery used to provide partial operation of a parent product in the event of an input power failure would not preclude it from meeting the definition proposed by DOE. Therefore, under DOE's proposal, rechargeable battery subsystems would be excluded from the scope of the battery charger test procedure. Based on the comment from ITI, DOE is finalizing a modified definition of back-up battery chargers in 10 CFR 430.2 to make clear that a battery charger system embedded in a continuous use product does not need to maintain continuity of normal operation in the event of a power loss to qualify as a back-up battery charger. Hence, in this final rule, back-up battery charger means a battery charger (excluding UPSs) that: (1) Is embedded in a separate end-use product that is designed to continuously operate using mains power (including end-use products that use external power supplies), and (2) has as its sole purpose to recharge a battery used to maintain continuity of power in order to provide normal or partial operation of a product in case of loss of input power. This definition of back-up battery chargers clarifies that rechargeable battery subsystems meet the definition of back-up battery chargers.
In the August 2015 NOPR, DOE proposed to apply the same battery conditioning provisions found in section 5.3(c) of appendix Y to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430, to lead acid batteries and use a 50% depth of discharge during conditioning cycles. 80 FR at 46861. Since the publication of the NOPR, DOE received comments from JOME, Delta-Q, NEMA, Schneider Electric and ITI supporting the proposal of allowing conditioning for lead acid batteries prior to testing. (JOME, No. 2, p. 3, Delta-Q, No. 11, p. 2, NEMA, No. 13, p. 3, Schneider Electric, No. 12, p. 4, ITI, No. 17, pp. 4-5) However, some of these commenters also recommended alternative methods for conditioning lead acid batteries. JOME requested that DOE should refrain from mandating two conditioning cycles for large lead acid batteries because of time considerations. (JOME, No. 2, p. 3) Similarly, Delta-Q recommended that DOE should not mandate two conditioning cycles for lead acid batteries. (Delta-Q, No. 11, p. 1) Schneider Electric and ITI suggested conditioning lead acid batteries by means of a float charger for a duration of at least 72 hours for batteries that have been in storage for 3 months or longer. (Schneider Electric, No. 12, p. 4, ITI, No. 17, p. 5) NEMA recommended that DOE provide flexibility in the process of conditioning batteries for certification testing. NEMA highlighted that it is not unusual for lead acid batteries to be in storage for some time and that two discharge cycles may not be enough to fully recover their capacity. Further, NEMA mentioned that a float charge of 72 hours duration is also sometimes used following 100% discharge cycles depending on battery condition, age or other needs. (NEMA, No. 13, p. 3)
NRDC, et al. opposed the proposal to allow lead acid batteries to be conditioned prior to testing. In its view, unlike the current test procedure, permitting the conditioning of lead acid batteries would allow lower efficiency battery chargers to comply with the proposed energy efficiency standards. (NRDC, et al., No. 20, p. 5) The CEC also recommended that if DOE decides to allow conditioning of lead acid batteries prior to testing, DOE must also factor the impact of this conditioning into its proposed energy conservation standards for lead acid battery chargers. (CEC, No. 8, p. 7)
DOE has become aware that the condition of lead acid batteries may vary upon purchase and this variation can impact the repeatability of test results of lead acid battery chargers. Given this fact, conditioning lead acid batteries prior to testing will produce more accurate and repeatable representations of battery discharge energy, which will result in more accurate and repeatable representations of energy consumption for lead acid battery chargers. Additionally, standardizing the battery conditioning protocol will help to ensure repeatability of all test results. DOE has not collected or received any data to suggest that cycling a lead acid battery twice—as is being adopted in this rule—would significantly increase that battery's energy capacity. Therefore, in the absence of such data, DOE also does not believe that allowing conditioning of lead acid batteries needs to be factored into potential energy conservation standards (as commented by CEC) because its impact on the measured energy consumption is minimal. With regards to the use of float chargers for batteries stored for at least 3 months, DOE notes that section 5.3(d)
DOE also proposed to amend its test procedure by providing manufacturers with the option of choosing from a 5-hour (“C/5” or “0.2C”), 10-hour (“C/10” or “0.1C”), or 20-hour (“C/20” or “.05C”) discharge rate when testing lead acid batteries. DOE's proposal limited this option to lead acid batteries with an energy capacity above 1,000 watt-hours (Wh) because a longer discharge cycle would do little to maximize discharge energy for batteries under 1,000 Wh, but would have a more significant impact on maximizing discharge energy for batteries greater than 1,000 Wh. 80 FR at 46861.
JOME, NMMA and Delta-Q provided comments supporting the allowance of slower discharge rates for large lead acid batteries. (JOME, No. 2, p. 3, NMMA, No. 9, p. 3, Delta-Q, No. 11, p. 3) However, NRDC, et al., CEC and the CA IOUs strongly opposed allowing slower discharge rates for large lead acid batteries. (NRDC, et al., No. 20, p. 4, CEC, No. 8, pp. 4-5, CA IOUs, No. 21, p. 4) NRDC, et al. stated that slower discharge rates are not representative of applications with fast discharge rates, such as golf carts. (NRDC, et al., No. 20, p. 4) Similarly, P. R. China claimed that certain practical applications of large lead acid batteries require higher discharge currents and 1-hour, 2-hour and 3-hour discharge rates are more representative of these applications. Instead, it recommended using discharge rates that are representative of their practical application. (P. R. China, No. 5, p. 3) Lastly, NRDC, et al., the CEC and the CA IOUs requested that DOE reassess its proposed energy conservation standards for battery chargers if DOE decides to allow slower discharge rates for large lead acid batteries. (NRDC, et al., No. 20. p. 5, CEC, No. 8, p. 7, CA IOUs, Pub. Mtg. Tr., No. 4, p. 64)
After careful consideration of comments submitted by all interested stakeholders on this issue, DOE is electing not to finalize its proposal of allowing multiple discharge rates for large lead acid batteries. Therefore, all batteries will continue to be discharged at the 5-hour (
Finally, a number of stakeholders highlighted a typographical error in the proposed requirements for conditioning lead acid batteries found in section 5.3(c) of appendix Y to subpart B to 10 CFR part 430 where it is stated that lead acid batteries should be discharged to 50% of the rated voltage instead of to 50% depth of discharge. 80 FR at 46869. Delta-Q requested DOE fix this error by stating that lead acid batteries should be discharged to 50% of rated capacity. (Delta-Q, No. 11, p. 2) Schneider Electric, NEMA, and PTI/OPEI requested DOE fix this error by stating that lead acid batteries should be discharged to voltage levels provided in Table 5.2 of the existing battery charger test procedure. (Schneider Electric, No. 12, p. 4, NEMA, No. 13, p. 3, PTI/OPEI, No. 14, p. 4)
DOE is resolving this clerical error in the final rule by stating that all lead acid batteries be conditioned by discharging to the voltage levels already stated in Table 5.2 of the current test procedure for battery chargers, which is consistent with DOE's original intention of discharging lead acid batteries to 50% depth of discharge during conditioning.
DOE proposed to update 10 CFR 429.39, section (a), “Determination of represented value”, and reserved section (b), “Certification Reports,” to detail how to apply the sampling plan to calculate represented values for each measure of energy consumption, time, and power recorded as part of the battery charger test procedure, and subsequently report those ratings during certification. 80 FR at 46862. Specifically, DOE proposed that certification reports for battery chargers include represented values for the measured maintenance mode power (“P
DOE received comments from the Joint Commenters, WAHL Clipper, and PTI/OPEI arguing that individual representations of five measures of energy and power (E
After considering the comments submitted by the Joint Commenters, WAHL Clipper, and PTI, DOE agrees that it is easier for manufacturers to make conservative representations in the context of an energy consumption metric, the UEC. Therefore, DOE is adopting only the requirement that manufacturers develop a UEC rating for that battery charger basic model according to the statistical requirements in 10 CFR 429.39(a), which allows for conservative ratings of UEC (in kWh/year) that are greater than the higher of the mean or the upper confidence limit divided by 1.05 for the UECs calculated for each unit in the compliance certification sample.
In addition, in order to calculate the UEC for a battery charger basic model during compliance testing, DOE is adding the UEC equations and the associated battery charger usage profiles
Manufacturers will still be required to submit represented values of E
Second, DOE has received stakeholder comments on the sampling requirements that are already part of the current test procedure for battery chargers. JOME provided comments opposing the sampling requirements on the basis that these requirements increase the number of test units and, consequently, increase the time and costs associated with testing. (JOME, No. 2, p. 4) Schneider Electric also provided comments opposing the sampling requirements. Schneider Electric argued that because there is no documented case of market surveillance failure under the CEC efficiency standards for battery chargers and that manufacturers are ultimately responsible for compliance, DOE should allow manufacturers to define their own sampling plans. (Schneider Electric, No. 12, p. 5) Similarly, Delta-Q expressed concern that although the sampling plan sets the minimum number of samples to be tested per basic model to two units, the statistical approach of upper and lower confidence limits would require more than two units to be tested to account for variability, which imposes a cost and time burden on manufacturers. Delta-Q also expressed concern that if the same flooded lead acid battery is used to test all samples of a basic model of a lead acid battery charger, the high cycle-to-cycle variation of the flooded lead acid battery can have a negative impact on test results. Delta-Q sought clarification on whether the same battery would be used to test all samples of a basic model of a battery charger. (Delta-Q, No. 11, p. 3)
DOE currently mandates sampling requirements to improve the statistical validity of representations made by manufacturers and to ensure products being distributed in commerce actually meet the applicable standard. Under DOE's sampling methodology, manufacturers may determine the number of samples tested as long as the sampling requirements adopted in this final rule are satisfied. To the extent that manufacturers commented that the sample size is required to be greater than two units, DOE believes it is appropriate for a manufacturer to test a sample of sufficient size to make a statistically valid assessment of the compliance of the basic model. Therefore, DOE believes that the sampling requirements for certification of battery chargers stated in 10 CFR 429.39 are appropriate and are not unduly burdensome. Regarding Delta-Q's question (
Third, DOE received comments from the Joint Commenters and WAHL Clipper opposing the reporting of contract manufacturer names for their external power supplies (“EPSs”) and test batteries in certification reports. The Joint Commenters and WAHL Clipper recommended that DOE classify and treat manufacturers of EPSs and test batteries as confidential. (Joint Commenters, No. 16, p. 4, WAHL Clipper, No. 18, p. 1) Similarly, ITI argued for the exclusion of the manufacturer and model number of the test battery from certification reports (ITI, No. 17, pp. 5-6), and Schneider Electric inquired as to whether DOE can hold compliance certification reports of upcoming models confidential until the official launch of these models. (Schneider Electric, Pub. Mtg. Tr., No. 4, pp. 93-94).
In response to the comments submitted by the Joint Commenters, WAHL Clipper and ITI, DOE acknowledges that publically disclosing the manufacturers and models of test batteries and external power supplies as part of the battery charger compliance certification reports might have a negative impact on competition. Therefore, DOE is revising the battery charger compliance certification requirements in 10 CFR 429.39(b) so that the manufacturers and models of test batteries and external power supplies are not included in the public disclosures in DOE's compliance certification database. Other than the manufacturer and model of test battery(s) and external power supply, all other product-specific information on a battery charger compliance certification report will be public. Further, in response to the comment submitted by Schneider Electric, DOE clarifies that the confidentiality provisions in 10 CFR 429.7 apply to this rulemaking. Manufacturers who want DOE to hold compliance certification reports of upcoming basic models confidential until the official launch of these basic models should refer to 10 CFR 429.7 for guidance regarding confidentiality. DOE also emphasizes that the manufacturers and models of test batteries and external power supplies will not be provided on the public CCMS database.
Fourth, during the public meeting held to discuss the August 2015 NOPR, DOE received numerous comments inquiring about circumstances that will require manufacturers of battery chargers to recertify their basic models. WAHL Clipper inquired on whether recertification is necessary if a battery manufacturer is changed but battery characteristics remain the same. (WAHL Clipper, Pub. Mtg. Tr., No. 4, p. 83) DELL Inc. asked whether battery charger manufacturers would need to recertify their basic models if there is a change in battery model or part number due to minor improvements made by the battery manufacturer. (DELL Inc., Pub. Mtg. Tr., No. 4, pp. 85-86) STIHL Inc.
In response to the comments made by WAHL Clipper, DELL Inc. and STIHL Inc. regarding recertification, DOE notes that its existing regulations address when modifications require recertification. A modification to a model that increases the model's energy or water consumption or decreases its efficiency resulting in re-rating must be certified as a new basic model. 10 CFR 429.12(e)(1). If the design of the battery charger basic model, including the battery, has changed in such a way that the information certified to DOE would no longer be valid, then the manufacturer would be required to test and recertify its battery charger basic model. Recertification would not be necessary if changes to the design of the battery charger result in the UEC remaining below the rated value. Changes resulting in a new individual model in the basic model do not require additional testing but must be reported as part of the next annual certification report. 10 CFR 429.12(d).
Fifth, DOE also received some general comments regarding the proposed sampling and certification requirements for battery chargers. PTI inquired if third-party laboratories are allowed to file for certification on behalf of manufacturers. (PTI, Pub. Mtg. Tr., No. 4, pp. 126-27) Schneider Electric asked for clarification on how to certify in situations where the integrated battery does not have a nameplate. (Schneider Electric, Pub. Mtg. Tr., No. 4, pp. 88-89) NEMA recommended that DOE clearly state whether manufacturers can use an alternate efficiency determination method (“AEDM”) to certify battery chargers. (NEMA, No. 13, p. 4)
DOE regulations require “manufacturers” (defined to include importers and U.S. manufacturers) of covered products that are subject to energy conservation standards to submit certification reports to DOE. The regulations also provide, however, that a manufacturer may elect to use a third party to submit the certification report to DOE. Nonetheless, the manufacturer is ultimately responsible for submission of the certification report to DOE. 10 CFR 429.12
In response to Schneider Electric's comment regarding integrated batteries without a nameplate, DOE clarifies that manufacturers would still be required to disclose the battery specifications as part of the certification report even if the battery does not have a nameplate with rated values. It is DOE's understanding that manufacturers of battery chargers with integrated batteries are aware of the exact battery specifications as these specifications are crucial to their product design and intended use. DOE has added language in appendix Y to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430 to clarify that if these rated values are not clearly present on a nameplate or the manufacturer is not aware of the specifications, then the manufacturer must submit measured values. In particular, the manufacturer must measure and report, in place of the rated values, the nominal fully charged battery voltage of the test battery in volts (V), the battery charge capacity of the test battery in ampere-hours (Ah) as measured per this test procedure and the battery energy capacity of the test battery in watt-hours (Wh) as measured per this test procedure.
In response to NEMA's comment regarding AEDMs, DOE authorizes the use of AEDMs for certain covered products that are difficult or expensive to test in an effort to reduce the testing burden faced by manufacturers of expensive or highly customized basic models. DOE's analysis has shown that battery chargers are neither difficult nor expensive to test. Therefore, DOE is not including any provisions allowing manufacturers to use an AEDM for compliance certification in this test procedure final rule.
DOE proposed to add appendix D to subpart C of 10 CFR part 429 to describe the methodology that DOE would use when conducting enforcement testing for battery chargers. 80 FR at 46868. DOE received comments from the Joint Commenters and PTI/OPEI inquiring if DOE had unintentionally left out the standard error of the measured energy performance, as described in appendix A to subpart C of 10 CFR part 429. The Joint Commenters and PTI/OPEI both argued for the inclusion of the standard error of the measured energy performance in the battery charger test procedure final rule. (Joint Commenters, No. 16, pp. 4-5, PTI/OPEI, No. 14, p. 3) iRobot recommended that DOE adopt the proposed enforcement rules and further recommended that DOE only use enforcement data to establish if a basic model meets the applicable standard. iRobot requested that, if DOE is planning on using enforcement data to check represented values in the compliance certification, DOE explain the exact method of comparison to be used in an additional NOPR and grant stakeholders an opportunity to comment on the exact method of comparison. (iRobot, No. 7, p. 3) Similarly, ITI argued that DOE should not use enforcement data to check values that do not have limits assigned in the applicable energy conservation standards. (ITI, No. 17, p. 5) Additionally, NRDC, et al. expressed concern that if DOE were to use enforcement data to check representations of E
As discussed in section III.E above, battery charger manufacturers will be required to certify the UEC metric, which will be calculated according to the primary or secondary equation in section 5.13 of appendix Y to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430, for each battery charger basic model, and according to the statistical requirements at 10 CFR 429.39(a). Additionally, manufacturers of battery chargers will be required to certify values for E
Additionally, PTI inquired whether a value of UEC calculated during enforcement testing, which is below the applicable energy conservation standard but above the represented value in a compliance certification, is a case of noncompliance. (PTI, Pub. Mtg. Tr., No. 4, pp. 81-82) iRobot and Schneider Electric recommended that DOE provide manufacturers access to units that fail enforcement testing. (iRobot, No. 7, p. 3, Schneider Electric, Pub. Mtg. Tr., No. 4, p. 109)
If DOE conducts enforcement testing, appendix A to subpart C of 10 CFR part 429 sets forth the method for determining whether a basic model complies with the applicable energy conservation standard. If, during testing, DOE finds that the measured UEC is above the certified value, DOE typically
Further, DOE received comments from P. R. China requesting that DOE clarify the sample size to be used during enforcement testing and whether different sample sizes will be used for different manufacturers. (P. R. China, No. 5, p. 3) For enforcement testing of battery chargers, the initial sample size is four units. DOE may test up to 21 units, in accordance with the provisions of appendix A to subpart C of 10 CFR part 429.
In this test procedure final rule, DOE is updating Table 3.1 of appendix Y to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430 to correct cross-reference errors and eliminate a redundant column. The “Battery Discharge Energy” item on the second line in this table currently references section 4.6, when it should instead reference section 5.8, “Battery Discharge Energy Test”. The “Initial time and power (W) of the input current to the connected battery” item on the third line in this table currently references section 4.6, when it should instead reference section 5.6, “Testing Charge Mode and Battery Maintenance Mode.” The “Active and Maintenance Mode Energy Consumption” item on the fourth line in this table currently references section 5.8, when it should instead reference section 5.6, “Testing Charge Mode and Battery Maintenance Mode.” Therefore, DOE is updating the second, third and fourth items in the “Reference” column of Table 3.1 to state “Section 5.8”, “Section 5.6” and “Section 5.6,” respectively. Additionally, DOE is removing the current “Value” column from Table 3.1 because the information from this column is being inserted in the column labeled “Name of measured or calculated value” to reduce complexity. DOE is also replacing “0.2 °C” in section 5.8(c)(2) of appendix Y to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430 with “0.2 C” to correct a typographical error. The section covers discharge current during a battery discharge energy test and C-rate (“C”) is the correct measurement unit for discharge current.
Additionally, DOE is revising the definition of C-rate in section 2.10 of appendix Y to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430 by adding “(C)” as a unit for C-rate. DOE believes this will further reduce the possibility of any ambiguity associated with interpreting the test procedure. The revised definition reads “C-rate (C) is the rate of charge or discharge, calculated by dividing the charge or discharge current by the rate charge capacity of the battery.”
Lastly, DOE is renaming “rated battery voltage”, “rated charge capacity” and “rated energy capacity”, which are defined at sections 2.19, 2.20 and 2.21 of appendix Y to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430, as “nameplate battery voltage”, “nameplate battery charge capacity”, and “nameplate battery energy capacity,” respectively, throughout the battery charger test procedure codified at appendix Y to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430. The revised names will reduce the possibility of confusion between nameplate values and rated values submitted by manufacturers as part of compliance certification reports.
DOE received comments from iRobot recommending specific language changes in the current test procedure for battery chargers. First, iRobot recommended that DOE remove the word “optional” from section 4.4(b) of appendix Y to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430 to eliminate ambiguity. Second, iRobot recommended replacing “manual” with “user-accessible” in section 4.4(d) of appendix Y to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430. (iRobot, No. 7, pp. 1-2) DOE notes that the word “optional” in section 4.4(b) of the current test procedure highlights that any additional functionality not associated with battery charging should be turned off prior to testing. As a result, only the battery charging portion of the battery charger is measured during testing. Similarly, while conducting the test procedure for battery chargers, a technician may have the option of turning off a manual switch that is not user-accessible to limit any optional functions that are not associated with the battery charging process. Therefore, replacing the word “manual” with “user-accessible,” as recommended by iRobot, would further reduce the avenues available to manufacturers to limit non-battery charger related functions, which would likely result in DOE receiving a number of test procedure waiver inquiries. After careful consideration, DOE is not changing the language recommended by iRobot in section 4.4 of appendix Y to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430.
DOE received comments from NEMA describing the difficulties with discharging lithium ion batteries to the end of the discharge voltages specified in Table 5.2. NEMA explained that some batteries have internal protections that prevent batteries from being discharged to such low levels. NEMA recommended that DOE allow manufacturers to end discharge tests at voltages specified by the manufacturer, which can be higher than those listed in Table 5.2. (NEMA, No. 13, p. 4) DOE understands the need for protective circuitry in certain volatile battery chemistries and has acknowledged the presence of protective circuitry in section 4.5(e) of the current battery chargers test procedure, published at appendix Y to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430. In response to the comment from NEMA, DOE is updating Table 5.2 of appendix Y to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430 to further state that if the presence of protective circuitry in a lithium ion battery prevents the battery from being discharged to the end of the discharge voltage specified, then the manufacturer must discharge the battery to the lowest possible discharge voltage permitted by the protective circuity and report the end of the discharge voltage on the certification report.
The Office of Management and Budget (“OMB”) has determined that test procedure rulemakings do not constitute “significant regulatory actions” under section 3(f) of Executive Order 12866, Regulatory Planning and Review, 58 FR 51735 (Oct. 4, 1993). Accordingly, this action was not subject to review under the Executive Order by the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs (“OIRA”) in OMB.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
This final rule prescribes amendments to the battery charger test procedure. These amendments update the battery selection criteria for multi-voltage, multi-capacity battery chargers, harmonize the instrumentation resolution and uncertainty requirements with the second edition of the IEC 62301 standard for measuring standby power, define and exclude back-up battery chargers from the testing requirements of this rulemaking, outline provisions for conditioning lead acid batteries, specify sampling and certification requirements for compliance with future energy conservation standards, detail an enforcement testing sampling plan for battery chargers, and correct typographical errors in the current test procedure.
DOE reviewed this final rule under the provisions of the Regulatory Flexibility Act and DOE's own procedures and policies published on February 19, 2003. DOE has concluded that this final rule will not have a significant impact on a substantial number of small entities. The factual basis for this certification is as follows.
The Small Business Administration (“SBA”) considers a business entity to be a small business, if, together with its affiliates, it employs less than a threshold number of workers specified in 13 CFR part 121. These size standards and codes are established by the North American Industry Classification System (“NAICS”). The threshold number for NAICS classification code 335999, which applies to “All Other Miscellaneous Electrical Equipment and Component Manufacturing,” and includes battery chargers, is 500 employees.
As discussed in the March 2012 NOPR for battery charger energy conservation standards (77 FR 18478), DOE identified one battery charger original device manufacturer that was a small business with domestic manufacturing. Based on manufacturer interviews and DOE's research, DOE believes that almost all battery charger manufacturing takes place abroad.
DOE estimates that this one small business may have to purchase testing equipment and have employees perform tests on covered battery chargers in order to comply with test procedures required from the adopted test procedure. DOE estimates a small business would need to purchase a computer with data acquisition software, battery analyzer, battery analyzer amplifier, power meter, interface cable, and single phase AC power source. DOE estimates this equipment would cost approximately $10,000 to $12,000.
DOE estimated the necessary labor associated with performing the adopted test procedure to a single covered battery charger. DOE estimates that it would likely take between 80 and 115 hours to perform the test procedure on a single model. To get the labor rate of an employee to perform these test DOE used the median hourly wage of an electrical technician, $28.76.
DOE estimates that the one small businesses will need to test 41 models to comply with the adopted battery charger test procedure. This means the small business' total labor burden would be between $116,030 and $166,788 to test all their covered battery chargers to the adopted test procedure. Therefore, DOE's total testing burden, labor burden and testing equipment, is estimated at between $126,030 and $178,788.
Therefore, DOE certifies that this rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. DOE has submitted a certification and supporting statement of factual basis to the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration for review under 5 U.S.C. 605(b).
If DOE adopts the energy conservation standards proposed in the September 1, 2016, battery chargers energy conservation standards Supplemental Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (SNOPR), manufacturers of battery chargers will be required to certify that their products comply with those standards. In certifying compliance, manufacturers must test their products according to the applicable DOE test procedure, including any amendments adopted for that test procedure. DOE has established regulations for the certification and recordkeeping requirements for all covered consumer products and commercial equipment, and is finalizing specific requirements for battery chargers in this rule.
Notwithstanding any other provision of the law, no person is required to respond to, nor shall any person be subject to a penalty for failure to comply with, a collection of information subject to the requirements of the PRA, unless that collection of information displays a currently valid OMB Control Number.
In this final rule, DOE amends its test procedure for battery chargers, which will likely be used to develop and implement future energy conservation standards for battery chargers. DOE has determined that this rule falls into a class of actions that are categorically excluded from review under the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321
Executive Order 13132, “Federalism,” 64 FR 43255 (August 4, 1999), imposes certain requirements on agencies formulating and implementing policies or regulations that preempt State law or that have Federalism implications. The Executive Order requires agencies to examine the constitutional and statutory authority supporting any action that would limit the policymaking discretion of the States and to carefully assess the necessity for such actions. The Executive Order also requires agencies to have an accountable process to ensure meaningful and timely input by State and local officials in the development of regulatory policies that have Federalism implications. On March 14, 2000, DOE published a statement of policy describing the intergovernmental consultation process it will follow in the development of such regulations. 65 FR 13735. DOE examined this final rule and determined that it will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. EPCA governs and prescribes Federal preemption of State regulations as to energy conservation for the products that are the subject of this final rule. States can petition DOE for exemption from such preemption to the extent, and based on criteria, set forth in EPCA. (42 U.S.C. 6297(d)) No further action is required by Executive Order 13132.
Regarding the review of existing regulations and the promulgation of new regulations, section 3(a) of Executive Order 12988, “Civil Justice Reform,” 61 FR 4729 (Feb. 7, 1996), imposes on Federal agencies the general duty to adhere to the following requirements: (1) Eliminate drafting errors and ambiguity; (2) write regulations to minimize litigation; (3) provide a clear legal standard for affected conduct rather than a general standard; and (4) promote simplification and burden reduction. Section 3(b) of Executive Order 12988 specifically requires that Executive agencies make every reasonable effort to ensure that the regulation: (1) Clearly specifies the preemptive effect, if any; (2) clearly specifies any effect on existing Federal law or regulation; (3) provides a clear legal standard for affected conduct while promoting simplification and burden reduction; (4) specifies the retroactive effect, if any; (5) adequately defines key terms; and (6) addresses other important issues affecting clarity and general draftsmanship under any guidelines issued by the Attorney General. Section 3(c) of Executive Order 12988 requires Executive agencies to review regulations in light of applicable standards in sections 3(a) and 3(b) to determine whether they are met or it is unreasonable to meet one or more of them. DOE has completed the required review and determined that, to the extent permitted by law, this final rule meets the relevant standards of Executive Order 12988.
Title II of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (UMRA) requires each Federal agency to assess the effects of Federal regulatory actions on State, local, and Tribal governments and the private sector. Public Law 104-4, sec. 201 (codified at 2 U.S.C. 1531). For a regulatory action resulting in a rule that may cause the expenditure by State, local, and Tribal governments, in the aggregate, or by the private sector of $100 million or more in any one year (adjusted annually for inflation), section 202 of UMRA requires a Federal agency to publish a written statement that estimates the resulting costs, benefits, and other effects on the national economy. (2 U.S.C. 1532(a), (b)) The UMRA also requires a Federal agency to develop an effective process to permit timely input by elected officers of State, local, and Tribal governments on a proposed “significant intergovernmental mandate,” and requires an agency plan for giving notice and opportunity for timely input to potentially affected small governments before establishing any requirements that might significantly or uniquely affect small governments. On March 18, 1997, DOE published a statement of policy on its process for intergovernmental consultation under UMRA. 62 FR 12820. (This policy is also available at
Section 654 of the Treasury and General Government Appropriations Act, 1999 (Pub. L. 105-277) requires Federal agencies to issue a Family Policymaking Assessment for any rule that may affect family well-being. This final rule will not have any impact on the autonomy or integrity of the family as an institution. Accordingly, DOE has concluded that it is not necessary to prepare a Family Policymaking Assessment.
DOE has determined, under Executive Order 12630, “Governmental Actions and Interference with Constitutionally Protected Property Rights,” 53 FR 8859 (March 18, 1988), that this regulation will not result in any takings that might require compensation under the Fifth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution.
Section 515 of the Treasury and General Government Appropriations Act, 2001 (44 U.S.C. 3516 note) provides for agencies to review most disseminations of information to the public under guidelines established by each agency pursuant to general guidelines issued by OMB. OMB's guidelines were published at 67 FR 8452 (Feb. 22, 2002), and DOE's guidelines were published at 67 FR 62446 (Oct. 7, 2002). DOE has reviewed this final rule under the OMB and DOE guidelines and has concluded that it is consistent with applicable policies in those guidelines.
Executive Order 13211, “Actions Concerning Regulations That Significantly Affect Energy Supply, Distribution, or Use,” 66 FR 28355 (May 22, 2001), requires Federal agencies to prepare and submit to OMB, a Statement of Energy Effects for any significant energy action. A “significant energy action” is defined as any action by an agency that promulgated or is expected to lead to promulgation of a final rule, and that: (1) Is a significant regulatory action under Executive Order 12866, or any successor order; and (2) is likely to have a significant adverse effect on the supply, distribution, or use of energy; or (3) is designated by the Administrator of OIRA as a significant energy action. For any proposed significant energy action, the agency must give a detailed statement of any adverse effects on energy supply, distribution, or use if the action is implemented, and of reasonable alternatives to the action and their expected benefits on energy supply, distribution, and use.
This regulatory action is not a significant regulatory action under Executive Order 12866. Moreover, it would not have a significant adverse
Under section 301 of the Department of Energy Organization Act (Pub. L. 95-91; 42 U.S.C. 7101), DOE must comply with section 32 of the Federal Energy Administration Act of 1974, as amended by the Federal Energy Administration Authorization Act of 1977. (15 U.S.C. 788; FEAA) Section 32 essentially provides in relevant part that, where a proposed rule authorizes or requires use of commercial standards, the notice of proposed rulemaking must inform the public of the use and background of such standards. In addition, section 32(c) requires DOE to consult with the Attorney General and the Chairman of the Federal Trade Commission (“FTC”) concerning the impact of the commercial or industry standards on competition.
The final rule incorporates testing methods contained in the following commercial standards: IEC Standard 62301 “Household electrical appliances—Measurement of standby power.” DOE has evaluated these testing standards and believes that the IEC standard complies with the requirements of section 32(b) of the Federal Energy Administration Act (
As required by 5 U.S.C. 801, DOE will report to Congress on the promulgation of this rule before its effective date. The report will state that it has been determined that the rule is not a “major rule” as defined by 5 U.S.C. 804(2).
DOE previously adopted instrumentation resolution and measurement uncertainty requirements for testing battery chargers identical to those in the IEC 62301 standard and codified these requirements at 10 CFR part 430, subpart B, Appendix Y on June 1, 2011. 76 FR 31750. The IEC published Edition 2.0 of IEC 62301 in January 2011, which is available from the American National Standards Institute, 25 W. 43rd Street, 4th Floor, New York, NY 10036 or at
The Secretary of Energy has approved publication of this final rule.
Confidential business information, Energy conservation, Household appliances, Imports, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Administrative practice and procedure, Confidential business information, Energy conservation, Household appliances, Imports, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Small businesses.
For the reasons stated in the preamble, DOE is amending parts 429 and 430 of chapter II of title 10, Code of Federal Regulations as set forth below:
42 U.S.C. 6291-6317.
(a)
(1)
(2)
(ii) For each basic model, a sample of sufficient size shall be randomly selected and tested to ensure that the represented value of UEC is greater than or equal to the higher of:
(A) The mean of the sample, where:
(B) The upper 97.5-percent confidence limit (UCL) of the true mean divided by 1.05, where:
(3) Using the sample from paragraph (a)(2) of this section, calculate the represented values of each metric (
(b)
(2) Pursuant to § 429.12(b)(13), a certification report must include the following product-specific information: The nameplate battery voltage of the test battery in volts (V), the nameplate battery charge capacity of the test battery in ampere-hours (Ah), and the nameplate battery energy capacity of the test battery in watt-hours (Wh). A certification report must also include the represented values, as determined in paragraph (a) of this section for the maintenance mode power (P
(3) Pursuant to § 429.12(b)(13), a certification report must include the following product-specific information: The manufacturer and model of the test battery, and the manufacturer and model, when applicable, of the external power supply.
(e)
(1) For products with applicable energy conservation standard(s) in § 430.32 of this chapter, and commercial prerinse spray valves, illuminated exit signs, traffic signal modules and pedestrian modules, commercial clothes washers, and metal halide lamp ballasts, DOE will use a sample size of not more than 21 units and follow the sampling plans in appendix A of this subpart (Sampling for Enforcement Testing of Covered Consumer Products and Certain High-Volume Commercial Equipment).
(2) For automatic commercial ice makers; commercial refrigerators, freezers, and refrigerator-freezers; refrigerated bottled or canned vending machines; commercial air conditioners and heat pumps; commercial packaged boilers; commercial warm air furnaces; and commercial water heating equipment, DOE will use an initial sample size of not more than four units and follow the sampling plans in appendix B of this subpart (Sampling Plan for Enforcement Testing of Covered Equipment and Certain Low-Volume Covered Products).
(3) If fewer than four units of a basic model are available for testing (under paragraphs (e)(1) or (2) of this section) when the manufacturer receives the notice, then:
(i) DOE will test the available unit(s); or
(ii) If one or more other units of the basic model are expected to become available within 30 calendar days, DOE may instead, at its discretion, test either:
(A) The available unit(s) and one or more of the other units that subsequently become available (up to a maximum of four); or
(B) Up to four of the other units that subsequently become available.
(4) For distribution transformers, DOE will use an initial sample size of not more than five units and follow the sampling plans in appendix C of this subpart (Sampling Plan for Enforcement Testing of Distribution Transformers). If fewer than five units of a basic model are available for testing when the manufacturer receives the test notice, then:
(i) DOE will test the available unit(s); or
(ii) If one or more other units of the basic model are expected to become available within 30 calendar days, DOE may instead, at its discretion, test either:
(A) The available unit(s) and one or more of the other units that subsequently become available (up to a maximum of five); or
(B) Up to five of the other units that subsequently become available.
(5) For pumps, DOE will use an initial sample size of not more than four units and will determine compliance based on the arithmetic mean of the sample.
(6) Notwithstanding paragraphs (e)(1) through (5) of this section, if testing of the available or subsequently available units of a basic model would be impractical, as for example when a basic model has unusual testing requirements or has limited production, DOE may in its discretion decide to base the determination of compliance on the testing of fewer than the otherwise required number of units.
(7) When DOE makes a determination in accordance with paragraph (e)(6) to test less than the number of units specified in paragraphs (e)(1) through (5) of this section, DOE will base the compliance determination on the results of such testing in accordance with appendix B of this subpart (Sampling Plan for Enforcement Testing of Covered Equipment and Certain Low-Volume Covered Products) using a sample size (n
(8) For the purposes of this section, available units are those that are available for distribution in commerce within the United States.
42 U.S.C. 6291-6309; 28 U.S.C. 2461 note.
(1) That is embedded in a separate end-use product that is designed to continuously operate using mains power (including end-use products that use external power supplies); and
(2) Whose sole purpose is to recharge a battery used to maintain continuity of power in order to provide normal or partial operation of a product in case of input power failure.
(aa)
(2) Calculate the unit energy consumption of a battery charger in accordance with appendix Y to this subpart.
The revisions and additions read as follows:
Prior to November 16, 2016, manufacturers must make any representations regarding the energy consumption of battery chargers based upon results generated under this appendix or the previous version of this appendix as it appeared in the Code of Federal Regulations on January 1, 2016. On or after November 16, 2016, manufacturers must make any representations regarding the energy consumption of battery chargers based upon results generated under this appendix.
This appendix provides the test requirements used to measure the energy consumption for battery chargers operating at either DC or United States AC line voltage (115V at 60Hz). This appendix does not provide a method for testing back-up battery chargers or uninterruptable power supplies.
2. * * *
2.10.
2.17.
2.19.
2.20.
2.21.
3. * * *
3.2.
Any power measurement equipment utilized for testing must conform to the uncertainty and resolution requirements outlined in section 4, “General conditions for measurements”, as well as annexes B, “Notes on the measurement of low power modes”, and D, “Determination of uncertainty of measurement”, of IEC 62301 (incorporated by reference, see § 430.3).
4.3. * * *
b. From the detachable batteries specified above, use Table 4.1 to select the batteries to be used for testing, depending on the type of battery charger being tested. The battery charger types represented by the rows in the table are mutually exclusive. Find the single applicable row for the UUT, and test according to those requirements. Select only the single battery configuration specified for the battery charger type in Table 4.1.
If the battery selection criteria specified in Table 4.1 results in two or more batteries or configurations of batteries of different chemistries, but with equal voltage and capacity ratings, determine the maintenance mode power, as specified in section 5.9, for each of the batteries or configurations of batteries, and select for testing the battery or configuration of batteries with the highest maintenance mode power.
c. A charger is considered as:
(1) Single-capacity if all associated batteries have the same nameplate battery charge capacity (see definition) and, if it is a batch charger, all configurations of the batteries have the same nameplate battery charge capacity.
(2) Multi-capacity if there are associated batteries or configurations of batteries that have different nameplate battery charge capacities.
5. * * *
5.1.
The technician must record:
(1) The manufacturer and model of the battery charger;
(2) The presence and status of any additional functions unrelated to battery charging;
(3) The manufacturer, model, and number of batteries in the test battery;
(4) The nameplate battery voltage of the test battery;
(5) The nameplate battery charge capacity of the test battery; and
(6) The nameplate battery energy capacity of the test battery.
(7) The settings of the controls, if the battery charger has user controls to select from two or more charge rates.
5.3. * * *
a. No conditioning is to be done on lithium-ion batteries. Proceed directly to battery preparation, section 5.4, when testing chargers for these batteries.
d. Batteries of chemistries, other than lithium-ion, that are known to have been through at least two previous full charge/discharge cycles must only be charged once per step c.(5) of this section.
5.8. * * *
c. * * *
(2) Set the battery analyzer for a constant discharge rate and the end-of-discharge voltage in Table 5.2 of this appendix for the relevant battery chemistry.
5.10. * * *
5.13.
Calculate unit energy consumption (UEC) for a battery charger using one of the two equations (equation (i) or equation (ii)) listed below. If a battery charger is tested and its charge duration as determined in section 5.2 of this appendix minus 5 hours is greater than the threshold charge time listed in table 5.3 below (
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Final rule.
We are adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for all Airbus Model A330-200 Freighter, A330-200, A330-300, A340-200, A340-300, A340-500, and A340-600 series airplanes. This AD was prompted by the results of endurance qualification tests on the trimmable horizontal stabilizer actuator (THSA), which revealed a partial loss of the no-back brake (NBB) efficiency in specific load conditions. This AD requires inspecting certain THSAs to determine the number of total flight cycles the THSA has accumulated, and replacing the THSA if necessary. We are issuing this AD to detect and correct premature wear of the carbon friction disks on the NBB of the THSA. Such a condition could lead to reduced braking efficiency in certain load conditions and, in conjunction with the inability of the power gear train to keep the ball screw in its last commanded position, could result in uncommanded movements of the trimmable horizontal stabilizer (THS) and loss of control of the airplane.
This AD is effective June 24, 2016.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of certain publications listed in this AD as of June 24, 2016.
For service information identified in this final rule, contact Airbus SAS, Airworthiness Office—EAL, 1 Rond Point Maurice Bellonte, 31707 Blagnac Cedex, France; telephone +33 5 61 93 36 96; fax +33 5 61 93 45 80; email
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Vladimir Ulyanov, Aerospace Engineer, International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; telephone 425-227-1138; fax 425-227-1149.
We issued a supplemental notice of proposed rulemaking (SNPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 by adding an AD that would apply to all Airbus Model A330-200 Freighter, A330-200, A330-300, A340-200, A340-300, A340-500, and A340-600 series airplanes. The SNPRM published in the
The European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA), which is the Technical Agent for the Member States of the European Union, has issued EASA Airworthiness Directive 2014-0257R1, dated May 29, 2015 (referred to after this as the Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information, or “the MCAI”), to correct an unsafe condition on all Airbus Model A330-200, A330-200 Freighter, A330-300, A340-200, and A340-300 series airplanes; and Model A340-500 and A340-600 series airplanes. The MCAI states:
During endurance qualification tests on Trimmable Horizontal Stabilizer Actuator (THSA) of another Airbus aeroplane type, a partial loss of the no-back brake (NBB) efficiency was experienced. Due to THSA design similarity on the A330/A340 fleet, a similar partial loss of the NBB efficiency was identified on THSA Part Number (P/N) 47147 as installed on A330-300 and A340-200/-300 aeroplanes, on THSA P/N 47172 as installed on A330-200/-300 and A340-200/-300 aeroplanes, and on THSA P/N 47175 as installed on A340-500/600 aeroplanes.
Investigation results concluded that this partial loss of braking efficiency in some specific aerodynamic load conditions was due to polishing and auto-contamination of the NBB carbon friction disks.
This condition, if not detected and corrected and in conjunction with the power gear train not able to keep the ball screw in its last commanded position, could lead to uncommanded movements of the THS, possibly resulting in loss of control of the aeroplane.
To address this potential unsafe condition, EASA issued AD 2013-0144 [
Since that AD was issued, a need for clarification has been demonstrated, regarding the identification of the THSA `affected' by this requirement.
For this reason, EASA AD 2013-0144 [
Since EASA AD 2013-0144R1 [
Consequently, EASA issued AD 2014-0257 [
Since that [EASA] AD was issued, it was determined that it is necessary to consider that the THSA removal for NBB disks replacement could also be calculated since last NBB disk replacement which was done in-shop.
We gave the public the opportunity to participate in developing this AD. We received no comments on the SNPRM or on the determination of the cost to the public.
We reviewed the relevant data and determined that air safety and the public interest require adopting this AD as proposed
• Are consistent with the intent that was proposed in the SNPRM for correcting the unsafe condition; and
• Do not add any additional burden upon the public than was already proposed in the SNPRM.
Airbus has issued the following service information, all dated July 15, 2014.
• Service Bulletin A330-27-3199 (for Model A330 series airplanes);
• Service Bulletin A340-27-4190 (for Model A340-200 and -300 series airplanes); and
• Service Bulletin A340-27-5062 (for Model A340-500 and -600 series airplanes).
The service information describes procedures for inspecting the THSA to determine the part number and replacing THSAs having certain part numbers with a new or serviceable part. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We estimate that this AD affects 94 airplanes of U.S. registry.
We estimate the following costs to comply with this AD:
We estimate the following costs to do any necessary replacements that will be required based on the results of the required inspection. We have no way of determining the number of airplanes that might need these replacements:
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
1. Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;
2. Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979);
3. Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska; and
4. Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This AD is effective June 24, 2016.
None.
This AD applies to the Airbus airplanes, certificated in any category, identified in paragraphs (c)(1) through (c)(7) of this AD, all manufacturer serial numbers.
(1) Model A330-201, -202, -203, -223, and -243 airplanes.
(2) Model A330-223F and -243F airplanes.
(3) Model A330-301, -302, -303, -321, -322, -323, -341, -342, and -343 airplanes.
(4) Model A340-211, -212, and -213 airplanes.
(5) Model A340-311, -312, and -313 airplanes.
(6) Model A340-541 airplanes.
(7) Model A340-642 airplanes.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 27, Flight Controls.
This AD was prompted by the results of endurance qualification tests on the trimmable horizontal stabilizer actuator (THSA), which revealed a partial loss of the no-back brake (NBB) efficiency in specific load conditions. We are issuing this AD to detect and correct premature wear of the carbon friction disks on the NBB of the THSA. Such a condition could lead to reduced braking efficiency in certain load conditions and, in conjunction with the inability of the power gear train to keep the ball screw in its last commanded position, could result in uncommanded movements of the trimmable horizontal stabilizer and loss of control of the airplane.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
Within 90 days after the effective date of this AD: Inspect the THSA to determine if it has a part number that is specified in paragraph (g)(1) or (g)(2) of this AD, and to determine the total number of flight cycles accumulated since the THSA's first installation on an airplane, or since the most recent NBB replacement. A review of airplane delivery or maintenance records is acceptable in lieu of this inspection if the part number of the THSA can be conclusively determined from that review.
(1) For Model A330-200 Freighter, A330-200, A330-300, A340-200 and A340-300 series airplanes: Part number (P/N) 47147-500, 47147-700, 47172-300, 47172-500, 47172-510, or 47172-520.
(2) For Model A340-500 and -600 series airplanes: P/N 47175-200, 47175-300, 47175-500, or 47175-520.
For Airbus Model A330-200 Freighter, A330-200, A330-300, A340-200, and A340-300 series airplanes having a THSA with a part number specified in paragraph (g)(1) of this AD: At the applicable time specified in paragraph (h)(1), (h)(2), or (h)(3) of this AD, replace each affected THSA with a serviceable THSA, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Airbus Service Bulletin A330-27-3199, dated July 15, 2014; or Airbus Service Bulletin A340-27-4190, dated July 15, 2014; as applicable.
The THSA life limits specified in Part 4—Aging System Maintenance of the Airbus A330 and A340 Airworthiness Limitations Sections are still relevant, as applicable to airplane model and THSA part number.
(1) For a THSA that has accumulated or exceeded 20,000 total flight cycles since the THSA's first installation on an airplane, or since the most recent NBB replacement, whichever is later, as of the effective date of this AD: Within 6 months after the effective date of this AD.
(2) For a THSA that has accumulated or exceeded 16,000 total flight cycles, but less than 20,000 total flight cycles since the THSA's first installation on an airplane, or since the most recent NBB replacement, whichever is later, as of the effective date of this AD: At the applicable time specified in paragraphs (h)(2)(i) and (h)(2)(ii) of this AD.
(i) For Model A330-200 Freighter, A330-200, and A330-300 series airplanes: Within 12 months after the effective date of this AD but without exceeding 20,000 total flight cycles.
(ii) For Model A340-200, and A340-300 series airplanes: Within 12 months after the effective date of this AD but without exceeding 20,000 total flight cycles.
(3) For a THSA that has accumulated less than 16,000 total flight cycles since first installation on an airplane, or since the most recent NBB replacement, whichever is later, as of the effective date of this AD: At the applicable time specified in paragraph (i) of this AD.
The requirements of this paragraph apply to Airbus Model A330-200 Freighter, A330-200, A330-300, A340-200, and A340-300 series airplanes having a THSA with a part number specified in paragraph (g)(1) of this AD that has accumulated less than 16,000 total flight cycles since first installation on an airplane, or since the most recent NBB replacement, whichever is later, as of the effective date of this AD. Not later than the date specified in paragraphs (i)(1), (i)(2), and (i)(3) of this AD, as applicable: For any THSA having reached or exceeded on that date the corresponding number of total flight cycles as specified in paragraphs (i)(1), (i)(2), and (i)(3) of this AD, as applicable, replace the THSA with a serviceable unit, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Airbus Service Bulletin A330-27-3199, dated July 15, 2014; or Airbus Service Bulletin A340-27-4190, dated July 15, 2014; as applicable.
(1) As of 12 months after the effective date of this AD: The THSA flight-cycle limit (since first installation on an airplane, or since last NBB replacement, whichever occurs later) is 16,000 total flight cycles.
(2) As of July 31, 2017: The THSA flight-cycle limit (since first installation on an airplane, or since last NBB replacement, whichever occurs later) is 14,000 total flight cycles.
(3) As of July 31, 2018: The THSA flight-cycle limit (since first installation on an airplane, or since last NBB replacement, whichever occurs later) is 12,000 total flight cycles.
For Airbus Model A340-500 and A340-600 series airplanes having a THSA with a part number specified in paragraph (g)(2) of this AD: Not later than the date specified in paragraphs (j)(1), (j)(2), (j)(3), and (j)(4) of this AD, as applicable, for any THSA having reached or exceeded on that date the corresponding number of total flight cycles as specified in paragraphs (j)(1), (j)(2), (j)(3), and (j)(4) of this AD, as applicable, replace each affected THSA with a serviceable THSA, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Airbus Service Bulletin A340-27-5062, dated July 15, 2014.
(1) As of the effective date of this AD: The THSA flight-cycle limit (since first installation on an airplane, or since last NBB replacement, whichever occurs later) is 6,000 total flight cycles.
(2) As of April 30, 2017: The THSA flight-cycle limit (since first installation on an airplane, or since last NBB replacement, whichever occurs later) is 5,200 total flight cycles.
(3) As of April 30, 2018: The THSA flight-cycle limit (since first installation on an airplane, or since last NBB replacement, whichever occurs later) is 4,400 total flight cycles.
(4) As of April 30, 2019: The THSA flight-cycle limit (since first installation on an airplane, or since last NBB replacement, whichever occurs later) is 3,500 total flight cycles.
For any part installed, as required by this AD, having a part number identified in paragraph (g)(1) or (g)(2) of this AD: From the dates specified in paragraphs (i) and (j) of this AD, as applicable, and prior to exceeding the accumulated number of total flight cycles corresponding to each time, replace each affected THSA with a serviceable part, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of the applicable service information identified in paragraphs (k)(1), (k)(2), and (k)(3) of this AD.
(1) Airbus Service Bulletin A330-27-3199, dated July 15, 2014.
(2) Airbus Service Bulletin A340-27-4190, dated July 15, 2014.
(3) Airbus Service Bulletin A340-27-5062, dated July 15, 2014.
For the purposes of this AD, a serviceable THSA is a THSA:
(1) Having a part number identified in paragraph (g)(1) or (g)(2) of this AD that has not exceeded any of the total accumulated flight cycles identified in paragraphs (i)(1) through (i)(3) of this AD, or paragraphs (j)(1) through (j)(4) of this AD, as applicable; or
(2) Having a part number that is not identified in paragraph (g)(1) or (g)(2) of this AD.
From each date specified in paragraphs (i)(1), (i)(2), and (i)(3) of this AD, and paragraphs (j)(1) through (j)(4) of this AD, as applicable, a THSA having a part number identified in paragraph (g)(1) or (g)(2) of this AD may be installed on any airplane, provided the THSA has not exceeded the corresponding number of accumulated total flight cycles.
The following provisions also apply to this AD:
(1)
(2)
(3)
Refer to Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information (MCAI) EASA Airworthiness Directive 2014-0257R1, dated May 29, 2015, for related information. This MCAI may be found in the AD docket on the Internet at
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the service information listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this service information as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless this AD specifies otherwise.
(i) Airbus Service Bulletin A330-27-3199, dated July 15, 2014.
(ii) Airbus Service Bulletin A340-27-4190, dated July 15, 2014.
(iii) Airbus Service Bulletin A340-27-5062, dated July 15, 2014.
(3) For service information identified in this AD, contact Airbus SAS, Airworthiness Office—EAL, 1 Rond Point Maurice Bellonte, 31707 Blagnac Cedex, France; telephone +33 5 61 93 36 96; fax +33 5 61 93 45 80; email
(4) You may view this service information at the FAA, Transport Airplane Directorate, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 425-227-1221.
(5) You may view this service information that is incorporated by reference at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
We are adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain The Boeing Company Model 787-8 and 787-9 airplanes equipped with General Electric engines. This AD was prompted by reports of cracking in barrel nuts on a forward engine mount of Model 747-8 airplanes, which shares a similar design to the forward engine mount of Model 787-8 and 787-9 airplanes. This AD requires, for certain airplanes, replacement of the four barrel nuts of the forward engine mount on each engine. For certain other airplanes, this AD requires an inspection to determine if any forward engine mount barrel nut having a certain part number is installed; and related investigative and corrective actions if necessary. We are issuing this AD to detect and correct cracking of the forward engine mount barrel nuts. Such cracking could result in reduced load capacity of the forward engine mount and could result in separation of an engine from the airplane and consequent loss of control of the airplane.
This AD is effective June 24, 2016.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of a certain publication listed in this AD as of June 24, 2016.
For service information identified in this final rule, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Data & Services Management, P.O. Box 3707, MC 2H-65, Seattle, WA 98124-2207; telephone: 206-544-5000, extension 1; fax: 206-766-5680; Internet
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Allen Rauschendorfer, Aerospace Engineer, Airframe Branch, ANM-120S, Seattle Aircraft Certification Office, FAA, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; phone: 425-917-6487; fax: 425-917-6590; email:
We issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 by adding an AD that would apply to certain The Boeing Company Model 787-8 and 787-9 airplanes equipped with General Electric engines. The NPRM published in the
We gave the public the opportunity to participate in developing this AD. The following presents the comment received on the NPRM and the FAA's response to the comment.
United Airlines requested that the compliance time in the NPRM for Group 1 airplanes be changed from 2 years to “at next engine change.” United considered the proposed compliance time to be “expedited” because it took Boeing 7 months to publish the service information operators would be required to use to comply with the requirements in the NPRM, and it took
We do not agree with the commenter's request. In developing an appropriate compliance time for this action we considered not only the degree of urgency associated with addressing the subject unsafe condition, but the manufacturer's recommendation for an appropriate compliance time, the time required for the rulemaking process, and the practical aspect of doing the required replacement within an interval of time that corresponds to the typical scheduled maintenance for the majority of affected operators. However, under the provisions of paragraph (j) of this AD, we will consider requests for approval of an extension of the compliance time if sufficient data are submitted to substantiate that the new compliance time would provide an acceptable level of safety. We have not changed the AD in this regard.
We reviewed the relevant data, considered the comment received, and determined that air safety and the public interest require adopting this AD as proposed, except for minor editorial changes. We have determined that these minor changes:
• Are consistent with the intent that was proposed in the NPRM for correcting the unsafe condition; and
• Do not add any additional burden upon the public than was already proposed in the NPRM.
We reviewed Boeing Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB710026-00, Issue 001, dated June 10, 2015. The service information describes procedures for replacing the forward engine mount barrel nuts with new, improved barrel nuts; doing an inspection to determine if barrel nuts having a certain part number are installed on the forward engine mount; and doing related investigative and corrective actions. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We estimate that this AD affects 36 airplanes of U.S. registry.
We estimate the following costs to comply with this AD:
We estimate the following costs to do any related investigative actions required based on the results of the inspection. We have no way of determining the number of aircraft that might need these actions:
We have received no definitive data that will enable us to provide cost estimates for the on-condition corrective actions specified in this AD.
According to the manufacturer, some of the costs of this AD may be covered under warranty, thereby reducing the cost impact on affected individuals. We do not control warranty coverage for affected individuals. As a result, we have included all costs in our cost estimate.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: “General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
This AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979),
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This AD is effective June 24, 2016.
None.
This AD applies to The Boeing Company Model 787-8 and 787-9 airplanes, certificated in any category, equipped with General Electric GEnx-1B engines, as identified in Boeing Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB710026-00, Issue 001, dated June 10, 2015.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 71, Powerplant.
This AD was prompted by reports of cracking in barrel nuts on a forward engine mount of Model 747-8 airplanes, which shares a similar design to the forward engine mount of Model 787-8 and 787-9 airplanes. We are issuing this AD to detect and correct cracking of the forward engine mount barrel nuts. Such cracking could result in reduced load capacity of the forward engine mount, and could result in separation of an engine from the airplane, and consequent loss of control of the airplane.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
For Group 1 airplanes as identified in Boeing Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB710026-00, Issue 001, dated June 10, 2015: Except as provided by paragraph (i)(1) of this AD, at the time specified in paragraph 5., “Compliance,” of Boeing Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB710026-00, Issue 001, dated June 10, 2015, replace the existing forward engine mount barrel nuts on each engine, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB710026-00, Issue 001, dated June 10, 2015.
For Group 2 airplanes as identified in Boeing Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB710026-00, Issue 001, dated June 10, 2015: Except as provided by paragraph (i)(1) of this AD, at the time specified in paragraph 5. “Compliance,” of Boeing Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB710026-00, Issue 001, dated June 10, 2015, review the aircraft maintenance records to determine if the airplane engine has been removed, installed, or replaced, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB710026-00, Issue 001, dated June 10, 2015. If the maintenance records indicate that a barrel nut having part number SL4081C14SP1 is installed, or if the part number of an installed barrel nut cannot be determined, before further flight, do the related investigative and applicable corrective actions, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB710026-00, Issue 001, dated June 10, 2015.
(1) Where Boeing Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB710026-00, Issue 001, dated June 10, 2015, specifies a compliance time “after the Issue 001 date on this service bulletin,” this AD requires compliance within the specified compliance time after the effective date of this AD.
(2) Where Boeing Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB710026-00, Issue 001, dated June 10, 2015, specifies to contact Boeing for repair instructions: Before further flight, repair using a method approved in accordance with the procedures specified in paragraph (j) of this AD.
(1) The Manager, Seattle Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or local Flight Standards District Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the ACO, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (k) of this AD. Information may be emailed to:
(2) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office/certificate holding district office.
(3) An AMOC that provides an acceptable level of safety may be used for any repair, modification, or alteration required by this AD if it is approved by The Boeing Commercial Airplanes Organization Designation Authorization (ODA) that has been authorized by the Manager, Seattle ACO, to make those findings. To be approved, the repair method, modification deviation, or alteration deviation must meet the certification basis of the airplane and the approval must specifically refer to this AD.
(4) Except as required by paragraph (i)(2) of this AD: For service information that contains steps that are labeled as Required for Compliance (RC), the provisions of paragraphs (j)(4)(i) and (j)(4)(ii) apply.
(i) The steps labeled as RC, including substeps under an RC step and any figures identified in an RC step, must be done to comply with the AD. An AMOC is required for any deviations to RC steps, including substeps and identified figures.
(ii) Steps not labeled as RC may be deviated from using accepted methods in accordance with the operator's maintenance or inspection program without obtaining approval of an AMOC, provided the RC steps, including substeps and identified figures, can still be done as specified, and the airplane can be put back in an airworthy condition.
For more information about this AD, contact Allen Rauschendorfer, Aerospace Engineer, Airframe Branch, ANM-120S, Seattle Aircraft Certification Office, FAA, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; phone: 425-917-6487; fax: 425-917-6590; email:
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the service information listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this service information as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless the AD specifies otherwise.
(i) Boeing Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB710026-00, Issue 001, dated June 10, 2015.
(ii) Reserved.
(3) For service information identified in this AD, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Data & Services Management, P.O. Box 3707, MC 2H-65, Seattle, WA 98124-2207; telephone: 206-544-5000, extension 1; fax: 206-766-5680; Internet
(4) You may view this service information at the FAA, Transport Airplane Directorate, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 425-227-1221.
(5) You may view this service information that is incorporated by reference at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
This action establishes Class E Airspace at Harlan, KY, to accommodate new Area Navigation (RNAV) Global Positioning System (GPS) Standard Instrument Approach Procedures (SIAPs) serving Tucker-Guthrie Memorial Airport. Controlled airspace is necessary for the safety and management of instrument flight rules (IFR) operations at the airport. This action also updates the geographic coordinates of the airport.
Effective 0901 UTC, July 21, 2016. The Director of the Federal Register approves this incorporation by reference action under Title 1, Code of Federal Regulations, part 51, subject to the annual revision of FAA Order 7400.9 and publication of conforming amendments.
FAA Order 7400.9Z, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, and subsequent amendments can be viewed online at
FAA Order 7400.9, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, is published yearly and effective on September 15.
John Fornito, Operations Support Group, Eastern Service Center, Federal Aviation Administration, P.O. Box 20636, Atlanta, Georgia 30320; telephone (404) 305-6364.
The FAA's authority to issue rules regarding aviation safety is found in Title 49 of the United States Code. Subtitle I, Section 106 describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the agency's authority. This rulemaking is promulgated under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part, A, Subpart I, Section 40103. Under that section, the FAA is charged with prescribing regulations to assign the use of airspace necessary to ensure the safety of aircraft and the efficient use of airspace. This regulation is within the scope of that authority as it establishes Class E airspace at Tucker-Guthrie Memorial Airport, Harlan, KY.
On March 3, 2016, the FAA published in the
Class E airspace designations are published in paragraph 6005 of FAA Order 7400.9Z dated August 6, 2015, and effective September 15, 2015, which is incorporated by reference in 14 CFR part 71.1. The Class E airspace designations listed in this document will be published subsequently in the Order.
This document amends FAA Order 7400.9Z, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated August 6, 2015, and effective September 15, 2015. FAA Order 7400.9Z is publicly available as listed in the
This amendment to Title 14, Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) part 71 establishes Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface within a 13-mile radius of Tucker-Guthrie Memorial Airport, Harlan, KY, providing the controlled airspace required to support the new RNAV (GPS) standard instrument approach procedures for Tucker-Guthrie Memorial Airport. Controlled airspace is necessary for IFR operations. This action also updates the geographic coordinates of the airport to be in concert with the FAAs aeronautical database.
The FAA has determined that this regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current, is non-controversial and unlikely to result in adverse or negative comments. It, therefore: (1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26, 1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a Regulatory Evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. Since this is a routine matter that only affects air traffic procedures and air navigation, it is certified that this rule, when promulgated, does not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
The FAA has determined that this action qualifies for categorical exclusion under the National Environmental Policy Act in accordance with FAA Order 1050.1F, “Environmental Impacts: Policies and Procedures,” paragraph 5-6.5a. This airspace action is not expected to cause any potentially significant environmental impacts, and no extraordinary circumstances exist that warrant preparation of an environmental assessment.
Airspace, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).
In consideration of the foregoing, the Federal Aviation Administration amends 14 CFR part 71 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g); 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O. 10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.
That airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface within a 13-mile radius of Tucker-Guthrie Memorial Airport.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule, correction.
This action corrects final rule published in the
Effective 0901 UTC, May 26, 2016. The Director of the Federal Register approves this incorporation by reference action under Title 1, Code of Federal Regulations, part 51, subject to the annual revision of FAA Order 7400.9 and publication of conforming amendments.
John Fornito, Operations Support Group, Eastern Service Center, Federal Aviation Administration, P.O. Box 20636, Atlanta, Georgia 30320; telephone (404) 305-6364.
The
Class D and Class E airspace designations are published in paragraphs 5000, 6002, 6004, and 6005, respectively, of FAA Order 7400.9Z dated August 6, 2015, and effective September 15, 2015, which is incorporated by reference in 14 CFR part 71.1. The Class D and Class E airspace designations listed in this document will be published subsequently in the Order.
This document amends FAA Order 7400.9Z, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated August 6, 2015, and effective September 15, 2015. Availability information for FAA Order 7400.9Z can be found in the original final rule (81 FR 17376, March 29, 2016). FAA Order 7400.9Z lists Class A, B, C, D, and E airspace areas, air traffic service routes, and reporting points.
Accordingly, pursuant to the authority delegated to me, in the
That airspace extending upward from the surface to and including 2900 feet MSL within a 4.2-mile radius of McKellar-Sipes Regional Airport. This Class D airspace area is effective during the specific dates and times established in advance by Notice to Airmen. The effective date and time will thereafter be continuously published in the Airport/Facility Directory.
Within a 4.2-mile radius of McKellar-Sipes Regional Airport. This Class E airspace area is effective during the specific dates and times established in advance by a Notice to Airmen. The effective date and time will thereafter be continuously published in the Airport/Facility Directory.
That airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface within a 7-mile radius of McKellar-Sipes Regional Airport.
Office of Workers' Compensation Programs, Labor.
Final rule.
The Office of Workers' Compensation Programs is making a technical amendment to its regulation on disclosure of medical information to reflect the Office of Management and Budget's approval under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), 44 U.S.C. 3501-20, of the information collection requirements contained in that regulation.
This rule is effective May 26, 2016.
Michael Chance, Director, Division of Coal Mine Workers' Compensation, Office of Workers' Compensation Programs, U.S. Department of Labor, 200 Constitution Avenue NW., Suite N-3520, Washington, DC 20210. Telephone: 1-800-347-2502. This is a toll-free number. TTY/TDD callers may dial toll-free 1-800-877-8339 for further information.
On April 26, 2016, OWCP published a final rule, titled Black Lung Benefits Act: Disclosure of Medical Evidence and Payment of Benefits, to address certain procedural issues that had arisen in claim adjudications and other technical issues. 81 FR 24464 (April 26, 2016). Section 725.413 requires parties to exchange certain medical information, and therefore could be considered a collection of information within the meaning of the PRA. Federal agencies may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information, and the public is not required to respond to a collection of information, unless it is approved by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) and displays a valid OMB control number.
The Department received comments on the substance of proposed § 725.413; those comments are fully addressed in the final rule. 81 FR 24469-74. The Department received no comments about the information collection burdens. The Department submitted an ICR to OMB for the information collection in the final rule on March 16, 2016,
Sections 411(b), 422(a), and 426(a) of the Black Lung Benefits Act (30 U.S.C. 921(b), 932(a), and 936(a)) authorize the Secretary of Labor to prescribe rules and regulations necessary for its administration and enforcement.
Section 553(b)(3) of the Administrative Procedure Act (APA), 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(3), provides that an agency is not required to publish a notice of proposed rulemaking in the
Section 553(d) of the APA, 5 U.S.C. 553(d), provides that substantive rules should take effect not less than 30 days after the date they are published in the
This rule is not subject to the regulatory flexibility provisions of the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
This rule is not subject to sections 202 or 205 of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act (UMRA, 2 U.S.C. 1501
This rule announces OMB's approval of the information collection contained in the final rule published on April 26, 2016, at 81 FR 24464. It does not impose any new information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
This rule is not a “significant regulatory action” and is therefore not subject to review by OMB under Executive Order 12866 (58 FR 51735).
The Department has reviewed this rule in accordance with Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255) regarding federalism, and has determined that it does not have “federalism
This rule meets the applicable standards in sections 3(a) and 3(b)(2) of Executive Order 12988, Civil Justice Reform (61 FR 4729), to minimize litigation, eliminate ambiguity, and reduce burden.
Administrative practice and procedure, Black lung benefits, Claims, Coal miners' entitlement to benefits, Health care, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Survivors' entitlement to benefits, Total disability due to pneumoconiosis, Workers' compensation.
For the reasons set forth in the preamble, the Department of Labor amends 20 CFR part 725 as follows:
5 U.S.C. 301; Reorganization Plan No. 6 of 1950, 15 FR 3174; 30 U.S.C. 901
Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), DOL.
Final rule; correction.
OSHA published in the
For press inquiries: Frank Meilinger, Office of Communications, Room N-3647, OSHA, U.S. Department of Labor, 200 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20210; telephone (202) 693-1999; email:
For general and technical information: Miriam Schoenbaum, Office of Statistical Analysis, Room N-3507, OSHA, U.S. Department of Labor, 200 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20210; telephone (202)693-1841; email:
OSHA published in the
This document was prepared under the direction of David Michaels, Ph.D., MPH, Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health. It is issued under Sections 8 and 24 of the Occupational Safety and Health Act (29 U.S.C. 657, 673), Section 553 of the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 553), and Secretary of Labor's Order No. 41-2012 (77 FR 3912 (Jan. 25, 2012)).
Inadvertently § 1904.35(b)(2) was designated as reserved. This document reinserts that paragraph.
In FR Rule Doc. No. 2016-10443 beginning on page 29624 in the issue of May 12, 2016, make the following correction:
On page 29692, in the first column, after the second paragraph, remove “(2) [Reserved].” and add the following in its place:
“(2)
(i)
(ii)
(A) Any person that the employee or former employee designates as such, in writing; or
(B) The legal representative of a deceased or legally incapacitated employee or former employee.
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(B) When an authorized employee representative asks for copies of the OSHA 301 Incident Reports for an establishment where the agent represents employees under a collective bargaining agreement, you must give copies of those forms to the authorized employee representative within 7 calendar days. You are only required to give the authorized employee
(vi)
Coast Guard, DHS.
Final rule.
The Coast Guard is adding, deleting, and modifying special local regulations for annual marine events in the Sector Long Island Sound Captain of the Port (COTP) Zone. When enforced, these regulated areas would restrict vessels from portions of water areas during certain annually recurring events. The special local regulations are intended to expedite public notification and ensure the protection of the maritime public and event participants from the hazards associated with certain maritime events.
This rule is effective June 20, 2016.
To view documents mentioned in this preamble as being available in the docket, go to
If you have questions on this rule, call or email Chief Petty Officer Ian M. Fallon, U.S. Coast Guard Waterways Management Division Sector Long Island Sound; telephone (203) 468-4565, or email
On June 23, 2015, the Coast Guard published an NPRM titled “Special Local Regulations, Recurring Marine Events in Captain of the Port Long Island Sound Zone” (80 FR 35892). There we stated why we issued the NPRM, and invited comments on our proposed regulatory action related to making changes to 33 CFR 100.100 “Special Local Regulations; Regatta and Boat Races in the Coast Guard Sector Long Island Sound Captain of the Port Zone.” During the comment period that ended July 23, 2015, we received no comments.
The Coast Guard is issuing this rule under authority in 33 U.S.C. 1233. This regulation carries out two related actions: (1) Establishing necessary special local regulations; and (2) updating and reorganizing existing regulations for ease of use and reduction of administrative overhead.
The Coast Guard is to amend 33 CFR 100.100 “Special Local Regulations; Regattas and Boat Races in the Coast Guard Sector Long Island Sound Captain of the Port Zone” by establishing sixteen permanent marine events regulated areas, removing five previously regulated areas, and modifying three marine event special local regulations. This rulemaking limits the unnecessary burden of establishing temporary rules for events that occur on an annual basis.
This rule establishes sixteen permanent marine event special local regulations under 33 CFR 100.100. These events include fireworks displays, swimming events, and regattas that take place throughout the Long Island Sound COTP Zone. Event locations and details are listed below in the text of the regulation. Because large numbers of spectator vessels are expected to congregate around the location of these events, these regulated areas are needed to protect both spectators and participants from the safety hazards associated with marine events, including large numbers of swimmers, hard to see and unstable small boats, unexpected pyrotechnics detonation, and burning debris. This rule permanently establishes regulated areas that restrict vessel movement around the location of each marine event to reduce the associated hazards.
During the enforcement period of the regulated areas, persons and vessels would be prohibited from entering, transiting through, remaining, anchoring, or mooring within the regulated area unless specifically authorized by the COTP or the designated representative. Persons and vessels would be able to request authorization to enter, transit through, remain, anchor, or moor within the regulated areas by contacting the COTP Sector Long Island Sound, or designated representative, by telephone at (203) 468-4401 or via VHF radio on channel 16. If authorization to enter, transit through, remain, anchor, or moor within any of the regulated areas is granted, all persons and vessels receiving authorization would be required to comply with the instructions of the COTP or designated representative.
The Coast Guard COTP Sector Long Island Sound or designated representative will enforce the regulated areas. These designated representatives are comprised of commissioned, warrant, and petty officers of the Coast Guard. The Coast Guard may be assisted by other federal, state and local agencies in the enforcement of these regulated areas.
Certain special local regulations are listed without known dates or times. Coast Guard Sector Long Island Sound will cause notice of the enforcement of these regulated areas to be made by all appropriate means to affect the widest publicity among the effected segments of the public, including publication in the
This rule removes five special local regulations from the TABLE to § 100.100: (1) 1.3 Head of the Connecticut Regatta, Connecticut River, CT as the event has not been held since 2012 and the sponsoring organization, the City of Middletown, has confirmed that they do not intend to hold the event again in the foreseeable future; (2) 1.4
This rule amends the following special local regulations from the TABLE to § 100.100: (1) 1.1 Harvard-Yale Regatta, Thames River, New London, CT will be moved to 5.1 on the
We developed this rule after considering numerous statutes and executive orders Executive orders related to rulemaking. Below we summarize our analyses based on a number of these statutes and Executive orders, and we discuss First Amendment rights of protestors.
Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess the costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits. Executive Order 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, of reducing costs, of harmonizing rules, and of promoting flexibility. This rule has not been designated a “significant regulatory action,” under Executive Order 12866. Accordingly, it has not been reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget.
The Coast Guard determined that this rulemaking is not a significant regulatory action for the following reasons: The regulated areas are of limited duration and vessels may transit the navigable waterways outside of the regulated areas; and persons or vessels requiring entry into the regulated areas may be authorized to do so by the COTP Sector Long Island Sound or designated representative. Moreover, the Coast Guard will issue Broadcast Notice to Mariners via VHF-FM marine channel 16 about the zone and the rule allows vessels to seek permission to enter the zone.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, 5 U.S.C. 601-612, as amended, requires Federal agencies to consider the potential impact of regulations on small entities during rulemaking. The term “small entities” comprises small businesses, not-for-profit organizations that are independently owned and operated and are not dominant in their fields, and governmental jurisdictions with populations of less than 50,000. The Coast Guard received no comments from the Small Business Administration on this rulemaking. The Coast Guard certifies under 5 U.S.C. 605(b) that this rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
While some owners or operators of vessels intending to transit these regulated areas may be small entities, for the reasons stated in section V.A above, this rule will not have a significant economic impact on any vessel owner or operator. Under section 213(a) of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-121), we want to assist small entities in understanding this rule. If the rule would affect your small business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction and you have questions concerning its provisions or options for compliance, please contact the person listed in the
Small businesses may send comments on the actions of Federal employees who enforce, or otherwise determine compliance with, Federal regulations to the Small Business and Agriculture Regulatory Enforcement Ombudsman and the Regional Small Business Regulatory Fairness Boards. The Ombudsman evaluates these actions annually and rates each agency's responsiveness to small business. If you wish to comment on actions by employees of the Coast Guard, call 1-888-REG-FAIR (1-888-734-3247). The Coast Guard will not retaliate against small entities that question or complain about this rule or any policy or action of the Coast Guard.
This rule will not call for a new collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520).
A rule has implications for federalism under Executive Order 13132, Federalism, if it has a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. We have analyzed this rule under that Order and have determined that it is consistent with the fundamental federalism principles and preemption requirements described in Executive Order 13132.
Also, this rule does not have tribal implications under Executive Order 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments, because it does not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes. If you believe this rule has implications for federalism or Indian tribes, please contact the person listed in the
The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538) requires Federal agencies to assess the effects of their discretionary regulatory actions. In particular, the Act addresses actions that may result in the expenditure by a State, local, or tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector of $100,000,000 (adjusted for inflation) or more in any one year. Though this rule will not result in such an expenditure, we do discuss the effects of this rule elsewhere in this preamble.
We have analyzed this rule under Department of Homeland Security Management Directive 023-01 and Commandant Instruction M16475.lD, which guide the Coast Guard in complying with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321-4370f), and have determined that this action is one of a category of actions that do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human
The Coast Guard respects the First Amendment rights of protesters. Protesters are asked to contact the person listed in the
Marine safety, Navigation (water), Reporting and recording requirements, Waterways.
For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Coast Guard amends 33 CFR part 100 as follows:
33 U.S.C. 1233.
Coast Guard, DHS.
Notice of deviation from drawbridge regulation.
The Coast Guard has issued a temporary deviation from the operating schedule that governs the Tower Drawbridge across the Sacramento River, mile 59.0, at Sacramento, CA. The deviation is necessary to allow participants from the AMGEN Tour of California to cross the drawspan safely and without interruption. This deviation allows the bridge to remain in the closed-to-navigation position during the deviation period.
This deviation is effective from 10:30 a.m. to 3 p.m. on May 22, 2016.
The docket for this deviation, [USCG-2016-0390] is available at
If you have questions on this temporary deviation, call or email David H. Sulouff, Chief, Bridge Section, Eleventh Coast Guard District; telephone 510-437-3516, email
California Department of Transportation has requested a temporary change to the operation of the Tower Drawbridge, mile 59.0, over Sacramento River, at Sacramento, CA. The vertical lift bridge navigation span provides a vertical clearance of 30 feet above Mean High Water in the closed-to-navigation position. The draw operates as required by 33 CFR 117.189(a). Navigation on the waterway is commercial and recreational.
The drawspan will be secured in the closed-to-navigation position from 10:30 a.m. to 3 p.m. on May 22, 2016, to allow participants from the AMGEN Tour of California to cross the drawspan safely and without interruption. This temporary deviation has been coordinated with the waterway users. No objections to the proposed temporary deviation were raised.
Vessels able to pass through the bridge in the closed position may do so at any time. The bridge will be able to open for emergencies and there is no immediate alternate route for vessels to pass. The Coast Guard will also inform the users of the waterway through our Local and Broadcast Notices to Mariners of the change in operating schedule for the bridge so that vessels can arrange their transits to minimize any impact caused by the temporary deviation.
In accordance with 33 CFR 117.35(e), the drawbridge must return to its regular operating schedule immediately at the end of the effective period of this temporary deviation. This deviation from the operating regulations is authorized under 33 CFR 117.35.
Coast Guard, DHS.
Notice of enforcement of regulation.
The Coast Guard will enforce security zone regulations for the Sitcum Waterway Security Zone in Commencement Bay, Tacoma, Washington from 6 a.m. on May 17, 2016, through 11:59 p.m. on May 22, 2016, unless cancelled sooner by the Captain of the Port. This action is necessary to help provide for the security of Department of Defense assets and military cargo located in those waters during that time period. Entry into the Sitcum Waterway security zone is prohibited unless authorized by the Captain of the Port Puget Sound or a Designated Representative.
The regulations in 33 CFR 165.1321 will be enforced for the
If you have questions about this notice of enforcement, call or email CWO Jeffrey Zappen, Sector Puget Sound Waterways Management Division, U.S. Coast Guard; telephone 206-217-6076, email
The Coast Guard will enforce 33 CFR 165.1321 security regulations for the Sitcum Waterway Security Zone described in paragraph (c)(2) of that section from May 17, 2016, at 6 a.m. through 11:59 p.m. on May 22, 2016, unless cancelled sooner by the Captain of the Port. The security zone is necessary to help provide for the security of Department of Defense assets and military cargo located in those waters during the enforcement period. Entry into the security zone is prohibited unless authorized under § 165.1321. Vessels wishing to enter the security zone may request permission from the Captain of the Port Puget Sound or a Designated Representative as outlined in § 165.1321.
This notice of enforcement is issued under authority of 33 CFR 165.1321 and 5 U.S.C. 552(a). In addition to this document in the
If the COTP determines that the Sitcum Waterway Security Zone need not be enforced for the full duration stated in this notice, a Broadcast Notice to Mariners will be used to grant general permission to enter the regulated area.
Coast Guard, DHS.
Temporary final rule.
The Coast Guard is establishing a 500-yard safety zone around each of five locations where the Block Island Wind Farm (BIWF) wind turbine generator (WTG) towers, nacelles, blades and subsea cables will be installed in the navigable waters of Rhode Island Sound, RI, from May 15 to October 31, 2016. These safety zones are intended to safeguard mariners from the hazards associated with construction of the BIWF. This regulation prohibits vessels from entering into, transiting through, mooring, or anchoring within these safety zones while construction vessels and associated equipment are working on-site (
This rule is effective without actual notice from May 20, 2016 through October 31, 2016. For purposes of enforcement, actual notice will be used from May 15, 2016 until May 20, 2016.
To view documents mentioned in this preamble as being available in the docket, go to
If you have questions about this rule, call or email Mr. Edward G. LeBlanc, Chief of the Waterways Management Division at Coast Guard Sector Southeastern New England, telephone 401-435-2351, email
On February 16, 2016, the Coast Guard published an NPRM in the
We are issuing this rule, and under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3), the Coast Guard finds that good cause exists for making it effective less than 30 days after publication in the
The Coast Guard is issuing this rule under authority in 33 U.S.C. 1231. The COTP Southeastern New England has determined that potential hazards associated with construction of the BIWF from May 15 to October 31, 2016 will be a safety concern for anyone within a 500-yard radius of any of the five WTG sites when and where construction vessels are present. The purpose of this rule is to ensure safety of vessels and the navigable waters in the safety zone during this construction period.
Twelve comments were received. As noted above, the Coast Guard provided two distinct periods for the public to submit comments. The first comment period, announced in our NPRM published in the
Three comments supported the safety zones proposed in the NPRM. One comment suggested that the Coast Guard also prohibit anchoring outside the safety zone areas. Another comment
Four comments opposed the safety zones, claiming the zones will cause irreparable economic harm to commercial fishing interest that normally fish in the vicinity of the BIWF unless adequately compensated by Deepwater Wind (DWW), the developers of the BIWF.
Three comments were received during the second comment period. One comment supported the safety zones as a necessary safety measure with minimal adverse environmental impacts. Two comments requested clarification of our NPRM. The Rhode Island Department of Environmental Management (RIDEM) asked us to clarify that the safety zones are 500 yards in radius centered on each BIWF WTG, not 500 yards diameter. The safety zones created by this TFR are five individual safety zones, each 500 yards in radius centered on each BIWF WTG. RIDEM and another comment also requested that we confirm that each safety zone will only be enforced (
Additionally, RIDEM requested that the Coast Guard consult with DWW to reduce the effective period of the safety zones created by this TFR to “minimize economic hardship on members of the RI fishing industry.” The Coast Guard consulted DWW on April 19, 2016 to discuss the length of the effective period. This TFR shortens the effective period by six weeks and clarifies that the safety zones will only be enforced at those individual WTG sites where construction vessels are on-scene, not all five sites simultaneously, which minimizes the times and areas that may impact the RI fishing industry.
RIDEM also requested that five days public notice be provided to inform the public of the specific WTG(s) at which construction activities would be taking place. DWW publishes a daily mariner notification at
The Coast Guard considered all these comments and provided the clarification above, but otherwise made no changes to the regulatory text of this rule from the proposed rule in the NPRM, other than to change the commencement date of the effective period of the TFR from April 1 to May 15, 2016.
This rule establishes a 500-yard safety zone around each of five locations where the BIWF WTG towers, nacelles, blades, and subsea cables will be installed in the navigable waters of the Rhode Island Sound, RI, from May 15 to October 31, 2016.
These safety zones are intended to safeguard mariners from the hazards associated with construction of the BIWF. These safety zones are also of similar dimensions and duration as safety zones established in 2015 for the same purpose, during the first phase of construction of the BIWF. Vessels will be prohibited from entering into, transiting through, mooring, or anchoring within these safety zones at only those WTG sites where construction vessels and associated equipment are present unless authorized by the COTP, Southeastern New England or the COTP's designated representative.
We developed this rule after considering numerous statutes and Executive orders related to rulemaking. Below we summarize our analyses based on a number of these statutes and Executive orders, and we discuss First Amendment rights of protestors.
Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess the costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits. Executive order 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, of reducing costs, of harmonizing rules, and of promoting flexibility. This rule has not been designated a “significant regulatory action,” under Executive order 12866. Accordingly, it has not been reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget.
This regulatory action determination is based on the size, location, duration, and the time-of-day of the safety zones. The safety zones are 500 yards in radius, centered on each of five WTG locations, and enforced at those WTG sites where construction vessels or construction activities are taking place. Also, construction of the five WTG sites is sequential, not concurrent, so that construction vessels and activities (and hence, safety zones) are present at only one or two sites at any given time. Vessels will be able to safely transit around these safety zones. The Coast Guard will publicize these safety zones in advance via the Local Notice to Mariners Deepwater Wind will update its Web site daily to keep mariners informed of what safety zones, if any, may be enforced. Lastly, safety zones of the same size and duration were implemented for the first phase of the BIWF construction in 2015 with no significant impact to mariners or small entities.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, 5 U.S.C. 601-612, as amended, requires Federal agencies to consider the potential impact of regulations on small entities during rulemaking. The term “small entities” comprises small businesses, not-for-profit organizations that are independently owned and operated and are not dominant in their fields, and governmental jurisdictions with populations of less than 50,000. The Coast Guard received no comments from the Small Business Administration on this rulemaking. The Coast Guard certifies under 5 U.S.C. 605(b) that this rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
While some owners or operators of vessels intending to transit these safety zones may be small entities, for the reasons stated in section V.A above this rule would not have a significant economic impact on any vessel owner or operator.
Under section 213(a) of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-121), we want to assist small entities in understanding this rule. If the rule would affect your small business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction and you have questions concerning its provisions or options for compliance, please contact the person listed in the
Small businesses may send comments on the actions of Federal employees who enforce, or otherwise determine compliance with, Federal regulations to the Small Business and Agriculture Regulatory Enforcement Ombudsman and the Regional Small Business Regulatory Fairness Boards. The Ombudsman evaluates these actions annually and rates each agency's responsiveness to small business. If you wish to comment on actions by employees of the Coast Guard, call 1-888-REG-FAIR (1-888-734-3247). The Coast Guard will not retaliate against small entities that question or complain about this rule or any policy or action of the Coast Guard.
This rule will not call for new collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520).
A rule has implications for federalism under Executive order 13132, Federalism, if it has a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. We have analyzed this rule under that Order and have determined that it is consistent with the fundamental federalism principles and preemption requirements described in Executive order 13132.
Also, this rule does not have tribal implications under Executive order 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments, because it would not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes. If you believe this rule has implications for federalism or Indian tribes, please contact the person listed in the
The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538) requires Federal agencies to assess the effects of their discretionary regulatory actions. In particular, the Act addresses actions that may result in the expenditure by a State, local, or tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector of $100,000,000 (adjusted for inflation) or more in any one year. Though this rule would not result in such an expenditure, we do discuss the effects of this rule elsewhere in this preamble.
We have analyzed this rule under Department of Homeland Security Management Directive 023-01 and Commandant Instruction M16475.lD, which guide the Coast Guard in complying with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (NEPA) (42 U.S.C. 4321-4370f), and have determined that this action is one of a category of actions that do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment. This rule involves safety zones that would prohibit entry within 500 yards of each WTG site of the BIWF while construction vessels and associated equipment are present at that particular WTG. It is categorically excluded from further review under paragraph 34(g) of Figure 2-1 of the Commandant Instruction. An environmental analysis checklist supporting this determination and a Categorical Exclusion Determination will be available in the docket where indicated under
The Coast Guard respects the First Amendment rights of protesters. Protesters are asked to contact the person listed in the
Harbors, Marine safety, Navigation (water), Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Security measures, Waterways.
For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Coast Guard amends 33 CFR part 165 as follows:
33 U.S.C. 1231; 50 U.S.C. 191; 33 CFR 1.05-1, 6.04-1, 6.04-6, and 160.5; Department of Homeland Security Delegation No. 0170.1.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(2) Vessels must not enter into, transit through, moor, or anchor in these safety zones during periods of enforcement unless authorized by the COTP, Southeastern New England or the COTP's designated representative. Vessels permitted to transit must operate at a no-wake speed, in a manner which will not endanger construction vessels or associated equipment.
(3) Failure to comply with a lawful direction from the COTP, Southeastern New England or the COTP's designated representative may result in expulsion from the area, citation for failure to comply, or both.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) amends the EPA Acquisition Regulation (EPAAR) to update policy, procedures, and contract clauses. This final rule updates the EPAAR clause
This final rule is effective on June 20, 2016.
The EPA has established a docket for this action under Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OARM-2012-0478. All documents in the docket are listed on the
Thomas Valentino, Policy, Training, and Oversight Division, Office of Acquisition Management (3802R), Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20460; telephone number: 202-564-4522; email address:
The EPA reviewed EPAAR clause 1552.211-73,
This final rule amends the EPAAR to revise the following:
1. The EPAAR 1511.011-73 clause prescription is updated.
2. The clause title is revised as follows:
3. Paragraph (a) has been revised.
4. An expositional statement has been added to paragraph (c).
This action is not a “significant regulatory action” under the terms of Executive Order (EO)12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and therefore, not subject to review under the EO.
This action does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act, 44 U.S.C. 3501
The Regulatory Flexibility Act generally requires an agency to prepare a regulatory flexibility analysis of any rule subject to notice and comment rulemaking requirements under the Administrative Procedure Act or any other statute; unless the agency certifies that the rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. Small entities include small businesses, small organizations, and small governmental jurisdictions.
For purposes of assessing the impact of this final rule on small entities, “small entity” is defined as: (1) A small business that meets the definition of a small business found in the Small Business Act and codified at 13 CFR 121.201; (2) a small governmental jurisdiction that is a government of a city, county, town, school district or special district with a population of less than 50,000; and (3) a small organization that is any not-for-profit enterprise which is independently owned and operated and is not dominant in its field.
After considering the economic impacts of this rule on small entities, I certify that this action will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. This action revises a current EPAAR provision and does not impose requirements involving capital investment, implementing procedures, or record keeping. This rule will not have a significant economic impact on small entities.
Title II of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (UMRA), Public Law 104-4, establishes requirements for Federal agencies to assess the effects of their regulatory actions on State, Local, and Tribal governments and the private sector.
This rule contains no Federal mandates (under the regulatory provisions of the Title II of the UMRA) for State, Local, and Tribal governments or the private sector. The rule imposes no enforceable duty on any State, Local or Tribal governments or the private sector. Thus, the rule is not subject to the requirements of Sections 202 and 205 of the UMRA.
Executive Order 13132, entitled “Federalism” (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999), requires EPA to develop an accountable process to ensure “meaningful and timely input by State and Local officials in the development of regulatory policies that have federalism implications.” “Policies that have federalism implications” is defined in the Executive Order to include regulations that have “substantial direct effects on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and
This rule does not have federalism implications. It will not have substantial direct effects on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government as specified in Executive Order 13132.
Executive Order 13175, entitled “Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments” (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000), requires EPA to develop an accountable process to ensure “meaningful and timely input by tribal officials in the development of regulatory policies that have tribal implications.” This rule does not have tribal implications as specified in Executive Order 13175.
Executive Order 13045, entitled “Protection of Children from Environmental Health and Safety Risks” (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997), applies to any rule that: (1) Is determined to be economically significant as defined under Executive Order 12886, and (2) concerns an environmental health or safety risk that may have a proportionate effect on children. This rule is not subject to Executive Order 13045 because it is not an economically significant rule as defined by Executive Order 12866, and because it does not involve decisions on environmental health or safety risks.
This final rule is not subject to Executive Order 13211, “Actions Concerning Regulations That Significantly Affect Energy Supply, Distribution of Use” (66 FR 28335, (May 22, 2001), because it is not a significant regulatory action under Executive Order 12866.
Section 12(d) (15 U.S.C 272 note) of NTTA, Public Law 104-113, directs EPA to use voluntary consensus standards in its regulatory activities unless to do so would be inconsistent with applicable law or otherwise impractical. Voluntary consensus standards are technical standards (
This rulemaking does not involve technical standards. Therefore, EPA is not considering the use of any voluntary consensus standards.
Executive Order (E.O.) 12898 (59 FR 7629 (Feb. 16, 1994) establishes federal executive policy on environmental justice. Its main provision directs federal agencies, to the greatest extent practicable and permitted by law, to make environmental justice part of their mission by identifying and addressing, as appropriate, disproportionately high and adverse human health or environmental effects of their programs, policies, and activities on minority populations and low-income populations in the United States.
EPA has determined that this final rule will not have disproportionately high and adverse human health or environmental effects on minority or low-income populations because it does not affect the level of protection provided to human health or the environment. This rulemaking does not involve human health or environmental effects.
Government procurement.
Government procurement, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Therefore, 48 CFR Chapter 15 is amended as set forth below:
Sec. 205(c), 63 Stat. 390, as amended, 40 U.S.C. 486(c)
The Contracting Officer shall insert the clause at 1552.211-73,
5 U.S.C. 301 and 41 U.S.C. 418b.
As prescribed in 1511.011-73, the contracting officer shall insert the following contract clause in cost-reimbursement contracts including cost contracts without fee, cost-sharing contracts, cost-plus-fixed-fee (CPFF) contracts, cost-plus-incentive-fee contracts (CPIF), and cost-plus-award-fee contracts (CPAF).
(a) The Contractor shall perform all work and provide all required reports within the level of effort specified below. The Contractor shall provide up to ____ direct labor hours for the base period. The Government's best estimate of the level of effort to fulfill these requirements is provided for advisory and estimating purposes. The Government is only obligated to pay for direct labor hours ordered and corresponding fixed fee for labor hours completed.
(b) Direct labor includes personnel such as engineers, scientists, draftsmen, technicians, statisticians, and programmers, and not support personnel such as company management or data entry/word processing/accounting personnel even though such support personnel are normally treated as direct labor by the Contractor. The level of effort specified in paragraph (a) of this section includes Contractor, subcontractor, and consultant non-support labor hours.
(c) If the Contractor provides less than 90 percent of the level of effort specified for the base period or any optional period exercised, an equitable downward adjustment of the fixed fee, if any, for that period will be made. The downward adjustment will reduce the fixed fee by the percentage by which the total expended level of effort is less than 100% of that specified in paragraph (a). (For instance, if a hypothetical base-period LOE of 100,000 hours is being reduced to 70,000, the fixed fee shall also be reduced by the same 30%. Using a corresponding hypothetical base-period fixed fee pool of $300,000, the reduced fixed-fee amount is calculated as:
(d) The Government may require the Contractor to provide additional effort up to 110 percent of the level of effort for any period until the estimated cost for that period has been reached. However, this additional effort shall not result in any increase in the fixed fee, if any.
(e) If this is a cost-plus-incentive-fee (CPIF) contract, the term “fee” in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section means “base fee and incentive fee.” If this is a cost-plus-award-fee (CPAF) contract, the term “fee” in paragraphs (c) and (d) means “base fee and award fee.”
(f) If the level of effort specified to be ordered during a given base or option period is not ordered during that period, that level of effort may not be accumulated and ordered during a subsequent period.
(g) These terms and conditions do not supersede the requirements of either the “Limitation of Cost” or “Limitation of Funds” clauses.
Appraisal Subcommittee of the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council.
Notice of proposed rulemaking.
The Appraisal Subcommittee of the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council (ASC) is proposing a rule pursuant to authority granted in the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (Dodd-Frank Act) to implement collection and transmission of appraisal management company (AMC) annual registry fees by State appraiser certifying and licensing agencies that elect to register and supervise AMCs. The ASC requests comment on all aspects of this Notice.
Comments must be received on or before July 19, 2016.
Commenters are encouraged to submit comments by the Federal eRulemaking Portal or email, if possible. You may submit comments, identified by Docket Number AS16-06, by any of the following methods:
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In general, the ASC will enter all comments received into the docket and publish those comments on the
You may review comments and other related materials that pertain to this rulemaking action by any of the following methods:
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James R. Park, Executive Director, at (202) 595-7575, or Alice M. Ritter, General Counsel, at (202) 595-7577, Appraisal Subcommittee, 1401 H Street NW., Suite 760, Washington, DC 20005.
Title XI of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act of 1989, as amended (Title XI),
On July 21, 2010, the Dodd-Frank Act
Title XI as amended by the Dodd-Frank Act imposes a statutory restriction that applies 36 months from the effective date of the AMC Rule (Implementation Period).
Section 1103 of Title XI,
1. When the AMC Registry will be open for States; and
2. Reporting requirements (information required to be submitted by States in order to register AMCs on the AMC Registry).
Section 1109 of Title XI,
This proposed rule would set the annual AMC registry fee that States would collect and transmit to the ASC if they elect to register and supervise AMCs. This proposed rule sets forth the ASC's interpretation of the phrase “working for or contracting with” as used in the calculation of annual AMC registry fees.
The ASC recognizes that the time required for notice and comment rulemaking for AMC registry fees could impede States' ability to implement the fees within the Implementation Period. However, the restriction on performance of services for Federally related transactions applies to AMCs that are not registered with the State or subject to oversight by a Federal financial institutions regulatory agency. Therefore, it is the ASC's understanding that the failure of a State to collect the fees under this rule within the Implementation Period would not subject otherwise properly registered and supervised AMCs in that State to the ban on providing services for Federally related transactions in that State.
The ASC is issuing this proposal to implement Section 1109 of Title XI for collection and transmission of AMC registry fees by those States electing to register and supervise AMCs.
Proposed § 1102.402 would establish the annual AMC registry fee for States that elect to register and supervise AMCs as follows: (1) In the case of an AMC that has been in existence for more than a year, $25 multiplied by the number of appraisers who have performed an appraisal for the AMC on a covered transaction in such State during the previous year; and (2) in the case of an AMC that has not been in existence for more than a year, $25 multiplied by the number of appraisers who have performed an appraisal for the AMC on a covered transaction in such State since the AMC commenced doing business. Performance of an appraisal means the appraisal service requested of an appraiser by the AMC was provided to the AMC.
For AMCs that have been in existence for more than a year, Section 1109 of Title XI provides that the annual AMC registry fee is based on the number of appraisers “working for or contracting with” an AMC in a State during a 12-month period multiplied by $25, up to a maximum of $50.
The ASC considered three options with respect to interpreting the phrase “working for or contracting with.” Under the first option, the phrase “working for or contracting with” would have been interpreted to include every appraiser on an AMC appraiser panel during the reporting period
Under the second option, the phrase “working for or contracting with” would have been interpreted to include those appraisers engaged by the AMC to perform an appraisal on a covered transaction during the reporting period in a particular State. The time the appraiser would be considered in the calculation is at the point of engagement to perform a particular appraisal, regardless of whether the appraisal was fully performed during the reporting period. The ASC seeks comment in Question 3 below on whether this interpretation would be preferable for States to administer over the third option, which is set forth in the proposed rule.
Under the third option, which is set forth in the proposed rule, the phrase “working for or contracting with” would include appraisers that performed an appraisal for the AMC on a covered transaction during the reporting period in a particular State. This option would exclude appraisers accepted by the AMC for consideration for future appraisal assignments as well as appraisers who performed appraisals in the past, but did not perform any appraisals in the reporting period. The AMC registry fee is not intended to result in duplicate fees for the same appraisal, even if there are multiple drafts of an appraisal. Therefore, the AMC registry fee is to be calculated based on an appraisal one time only.
The ASC believes the third option imposes the minimum fee allowed under the statutory provisions of section 1109 and therefore imposes the least burden on AMCs. Based on the ASC's anticipated costs of overseeing States that elect to register and supervise AMCs, as well as the ASC's anticipated costs of maintaining the AMC Registry, the ASC believes the proposed annual AMC registry fee would adequately cover those costs while supporting other Title XI functions of the ASC as mandated by Congress, including further development of its grant programs, particularly for States.
Proposed § 1102.403 would implement collection and transmission of annual AMC registry fees for States that elect to register and supervise AMCs following the statutory scheme set forth in section 1117 and section 1109 as amended by the Dodd-Frank Act. The proposed rule would require AMC registry fees to be collected and transmitted to the ASC on an annual basis by States that elect to register and supervise AMCs. Only those AMCs whose registry fees have been transmitted to the ASC would be eligible to be on the AMC Registry for the 12-month period following the payment of the fee.
Under the proposed rule, States would have the flexibility to align a one-year period with any 12-month period, which may or may not be based on the calendar year. Just as many States do not use a calendar year for their existing appraiser credentialing process, the ASC believes that allowing States to set the 12-month period provides appropriate flexibility and will help States comply with the collection and transmission of AMC fees and reduce regulatory burden for State governments. States may choose to do this as they currently do for their appraisers, meaning some States have a date certain every year. Other States use, for example, the appraiser's date of birth (States could use AMC registration date similarly). The registration cycle would be left to the individual States to determine, but note that the statutory requirement in section 1109(a)(4) requires States that elect to register and supervise AMCs to submit AMC registry fees to the ASC annually.
According to the AMC Rule, Federally regulated AMCs must report to the State or States in which they operate that have elected to register and supervise AMCs the information required to be submitted by the State pursuant to the ASC's policies, including: (i) Information regarding the determination of the AMC registry fee; and (ii) information required by the AMC Rule.
The ASC requests comment on all aspects of this proposed rule, including specific requests for comment that appear throughout the Supplementary Information above. In addition, the ASC requests comments on the following questions:
Certain provisions of the proposed rule contain “information collection” requirements within the meaning of the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
States that elect to register and supervise AMCs would be required to collect and transmit annual AMC registry fees to the ASC. Section 1102.402 would establish the annual AMC registry fee for States that elect to register and supervise AMCs as follows: (1) In the case of an AMC that has been in existence for more than a year, $25 multiplied by the number of appraisers who have performed an appraisal for the AMC on a covered transaction in such State during the previous year; and (2) in the case of an AMC that has not been in existence for more than a year, $25 multiplied by the number of appraisers who have performed an appraisal for the AMC on a covered transaction in such State since the AMC commenced doing business. Performance of an appraisal means the appraisal service requested of an appraiser by the AMC was provided to the AMC.
Section 1102.403 would require AMC registry fees to be collected and transmitted to the ASC on an annual basis by States that elect to register and supervise AMCs. Only those AMCs whose registry fees have been transmitted to the ASC would be eligible to be on the AMC Registry for the 12-month period following the payment of the fee. Section 1102.403 clarifies that States may align a one-year period with any 12-month period, which may, or may not, be based on the calendar year. The registration cycle is left to the individual States to determine.
Section 1103 of Title XI,
1. When the AMC Registry will be open for States; and
2. Reporting requirements (information required to be submitted by States in order to register AMCs on the AMC Registry).
Burden Estimates:
(a) Whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility;
(b) The accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the collection of information;
(c) Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(d) Ways to minimize the burden of the collection on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA), 5 U.S.C. 601
Section 1109 of Title XI provides that State appraiser certifying and licensing agencies that elect to register and supervise AMCs shall collect (1) from AMCs that have been in existence for more than a year, annual AMC registry fees in the amount of $25 (up to a maximum of $50) multiplied by the number of appraisers “working for or contracting with” an AMC in a State during the previous year; and (2) from AMCs that have not been in existence for more than a year, annual AMC registry fees in the amount of $25 (up to a maximum of $50) multiplied by an appropriate number to be determined by the ASC.
Regarding the proposed fee for AMCs that have been in existence for more than a year, the ASC believes the proposed rule would impose the minimum fee allowed under the statutory provisions of section 1109. The ASC proposal would not exercise statutory discretion granted to the ASC to increase the fee above $25. Further, the ASC would interpret “working for or contracting with” to mean only those appraisers who actually performed an appraisal for the AMC, as opposed to all appraisers on the AMC's panel or all appraisers engaged, regardless of whether the assignment was performed. The ASC believes this formula would result in the lowest fee allowed by the statute and the ASC would be choosing not to exercise its authority to increase this minimum fee. Therefore, any burden produced is the result of statutory and not regulatory requirements.
The ASC has also decided to propose the statutory minimum fee of $25 for AMCs that have not existed for a year. As required by statute, the ASC is proposing an appropriate number against which to multiply the $25 fee. The ASC is proposing to use the same multiple as used for AMCs that have existed for more than a year (
While some burden beyond the statutory requirements may result from the rule for AMCs that have not existed for more than a year, the ASC does not believe the rule will have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. There are only approximately 500 AMCs operating in the United States. The annual regulatory burden will only apply to new AMCs that have not existed for more than a year. Given the small number of AMCs currently in operation, it is unlikely that there will be a substantial number of AMCs that commence doing business in any given year. Further, the ASC is proposing the lowest possible fee of $25. Therefore, the ASC does not believe that the exercise of its discretion in setting the fee formula for such AMCs will have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
The collection and transmission to the ASC of AMC registry fees by the States would create some recordkeeping, reporting and compliance requirements. However, these collection and transmission requirements are imposed by the statute, not the proposed rule. Further, the RFA requires an agency to perform a regulatory flexibility analysis of small entity impacts when the agency's rule directly regulates the small entities.
Based on its analysis, and for the reasons stated above, the ASC believes that the proposed rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. Therefore, the ASC certifies that the proposed rule would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. Accordingly, an initial regulatory flexibility analysis is not required. The ASC requests comment on all aspects of this analysis.
The ASC has analyzed the proposed rule under the factors in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (UMRA) (2 U.S.C. 1532). Under this analysis, the ASC considered whether the proposed rule includes a Federal mandate that may result in the expenditure by State, local, and tribal governments, in the aggregate, or by the private sector, of $100 million or more in any one year (adjusted annually for inflation). For the following reasons, the ASC finds that the proposed rule does not trigger the $100 million UMRA threshold. First, the mandates in the proposed rule apply only to those States that choose to establish an AMC registration and supervision system. Second, the costs specifically related to requirements set forth in statute are excluded from expenditures under the UMRA. Given that the proposed rule reflects requirements that arise from section 1473 of the Dodd-Frank Act, the UMRA cost estimate for the proposed rule is zero. For this reason, and for the other reasons cited above, the ASC has determined that this proposed rule will not result in expenditures by State, local, and tribal governments, or the private sector, of $100 million or more in any one year. Accordingly, this proposed rule is not subject to section 202 of the UMRA.
Administrative practice and procedure, Appraisers, Banks, Banking, Freedom of information, Mortgages, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
For the reasons set forth in the preamble, the ASC proposes to amend 12 CFR part 1102 as follows:
12 U.S.C. 3348(a), 3332, 3335, 3338 (a)(4)(B), 3348(c), 5 U.S.C. 552a, 553(e); Executive Order 12600, 52 FR 23781 (3 CFR, 1987 Comp., p. 235).
(a)
(b)
(c)
For purposes of this subpart:
(a)
(c)
(d)
(e)
(f)
The annual AMC registry fee to be applied by States that elect to register and supervise AMCs is established as follows:
(a) In the case of an AMC that has been in existence for more than a year, $25 multiplied by the number of appraisers who have performed an appraisal for the AMC in connection with a covered transaction in such State during the previous year; and
(b) In the case of an AMC that has not been in existence for more than a year, $25 multiplied by the number of appraisers who have performed an appraisal for the AMC in connection with a covered transaction in such State since the AMC commenced doing business.
(a)
(b)
By the Appraisal Subcommittee.
Tennessee Valley Authority.
Proposed rule.
The Tennessee Valley Authority (TVA) proposes to amend its regulations for the protection of archaeological resources by providing for the issuance of petty offense citations for violations of the Archaeological Resources Protection Act (ARPA) and the Antiquities Act of 1906 (AA). Amending the regulations such that TVA law enforcement agents are authorized to issue citations will help prevent loss and destruction of these resources resulting from unlawful excavations and pillage.
Written comments must be received on or before June 20, 2016.
You may submit comments by any of the following methods:
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Ralph E. Majors, 865-632-4176.
These proposed amendments are promulgated under the authority of the TVA Act, as amended, 16 U.S.C. 831-831ee, the Archaeological Resources Protection Act, 16 U.S.C. 470aa-470mm, and the Antiquities Act of 1906, 16 U.S.C.431, 432 & 433.
This proposed rule amends TVA's regulations implementing the Archaeological Resources Protection Act of 1979 (Pub. L. 96-95, as amended by Pub. L. 100-555, Pub. L. 100-588; 93 Stat. 721; 102 Stat. 2983; 16 U.S.C. 470aa-mm) to provide for the issuance of petty offense citations by TVA's law enforcement agents for violations of ARPA or AA.
Section 10(a) of ARPA requires the Departments of Interior, Agriculture and Defense and the Tennessee Valley Authority to promulgate such uniform rules and regulations as may be necessary to carry out the purposes of ARPA. The first purpose of ARPA is “to secure, for the present and future benefit of the American people, the protection of archaeological resources and sites which are on public lands and Indian lands.” 16 U.S.C. 470aa(b). The uniform regulations for ARPA originally were published on January 6, 1984 to implement the Act of 1979. The uniform regulations were then revised on January 26, 1995 to incorporate the amendments to ARPA promulgated by Congress in 1988.
Section 10(b) of ARPA requires each Federal land manager (FLM) to promulgate such regulations, consistent with the uniform regulations under Section 10(a), as may be appropriate for the carrying out of the FLM's functions and authorities under the Act. Thus, Section 10(b) allows individual Federal agencies to tailor the uniform regulations to suit their own particular needs with a view to effectively implementing the authorities under the Act. TVA has adopted the uniform regulations as its own.
Under the TVA Act, the TVA Board of Directors “may designate employees of the Corporation to act as law enforcement agents” to “make arrests without warrant for any offense against the United States committed in the agent's presence” that occurs “on any lands or facilities owned or leased by the Corporation.”
This proposal would amend TVA's regulations for the protection of archaeological resources by providing for issuance of petty offense citations by TVA's law enforcement agents for violations of ARPA or AA. This proposal is not subject to Office of Management and Budget Review under Executive Order 12866. The proposal contains no Federal mandates for State, local, or tribal government or for the private sector. TVA has determined that these proposed amendments will not have a significant annual effect of $100 million or more or result in expenditures of $100 million in any one year by State, local, or tribal governments or by the private sector. Nor will the proposal have concerns for environmental health or safety risks that may disproportionately affect children, have significant effect on the supply, distribution, or use of energy, or disproportionally impact low-income or minority populations. Accordingly, the proposal has no implications for any of the referenced authorities. TVA will continue to appropriately review specific requests in accordance with applicable laws, regulations, and Executive Orders.
Under the Regulatory Flexibility Act, 5 U.S.C. 601
This rule does not contain information collection requirements that require approval by OMB under the Paperwork Reduction Act.
Administrative practice and procedure, Historic Preservation, Indians—lands, Penalties, Public lands, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
For the reasons set out in the preamble, we propose to amend 18 CFR part 1312 as follows:
Pub. L. 96-95, 93 Stat. 721, amended, 102 Stat. 2983 (16 U.S.C. 470aa-mm)(Sec. 10(a)
(a) * * * These regulations also enable TVA's law enforcement agents to issue petty offense citations for violations of any provision of 16 U.S.C. 470ee or 16 U.S.C. 433.
(c) Provisions pertaining to the issuance of petty offense citations are based on the duties and powers assigned to TVA's law enforcement agents under 16 U.S.C. 831-831ee.
(j) “Director” means the Director of TVA Police and Emergency Management assigned the function and responsibility of supervising TVA employees designated as law enforcement agents under 16 U.S.C. 831c-3(a).
Any person who violates any provision contained in 16 U.S.C. 470ee or 16 U.S.C. 433 in the presence of a TVA law enforcement agent may be tried and sentenced in accordance with the provisions of section 3401 of Title 18, United States Code. Law enforcement agents designated by the Director for that purpose shall have the authority to issue a petty offense citation for any such violation, requiring any person charged with the violation to appear before a United States Magistrate Judge within whose jurisdiction the archaeological resource impacted by the violation is located. The term “petty offense” has the same meaning given that term under section 19 of Title 8, United States Code.
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
Proposed rule and request for comments.
The Department of Commerce (“the Department”) proposes to modify the regulation pertaining to written argument in antidumping and countervailing duty proceedings and is seeking comments from parties. This modification, if adopted, is intended to establish word limits for submission of case and rebuttal briefs. This action is necessary to streamline the process contained in the current regulation, to better align with current Department practices and to reduce the strain on resources.
To be assured of consideration, written comments must be received no later than June 20, 2016.
All comments must be submitted through the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
The Department will consider all comments received before the close of the comment period. All comments responding to this notice will be a matter of public record and will be available on the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
Any questions concerning file formatting, document conversion, access on the Internet, or other electronic filing issues should be addressed to Moustapha Sylla, Enforcement and Compliance Webmaster, at (202) 482-4685, email address:
Myrna Lobo at (202) 482-2371 or Michele Lynch at (202) 482-2879.
Section 351.309 of the Department's regulations sets forth limits for the submission of case and rebuttal briefs and provides guidance on what should be contained in these documents. However, unlike other Federal Agencies (
The proposed revision would set forth a limit of 25,000 words in total for each party's case and rebuttal briefs. A party may decide on the number of words it chooses to allocate among its case brief and rebuttal brief, but the combined total between the two shall not exceed 25,000 words. Each case brief must contain a certification by the filing party or its representative, indicating the number of words used in the brief, and the number of unused words remaining for the rebuttal brief. Each rebuttal brief must contain a certification by the filing party or its representative indicating the number of words used and that the total combined word limit of 25,000 words has not been exceeded. The word limit will include all attachments, headings, footnotes, endnotes, and quotations used in the document; it will not include the table of contents, table of statutes, regulations and cases cited, and summary of arguments that preface the arguments in the brief, referenced in paragraphs (c)(2) and (d)(2) of the revised regulation below. In determining the word count, a party may rely on the software program used to prepare the brief. Briefs in excess of the word count shall be rejected and shall be considered untimely.
If an interested party challenges a party's word count, such a filing must be made within 48 hours of the filing of the final version of the case or reply brief in ACCESS.
Where the Department finds that good cause exists, the word limit may be revised by the Department if a party makes such a request. Such requests must be received sufficiently in advance of the briefing deadlines to be considered.
The Department is issuing this proposed rule to modify the regulation at issue pursuant to Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 553) notice and comment procedures; we invite comments from all interested parties.
The Department proposes to modify 19 CFR 351.309, to include new paragraph (e) on word limits, as indicated below and to make conforming amendments to 19 CFR 351.309(a), (b), and (c). These modifications, if adopted, are intended to establish word limits for case and rebuttal briefs, as well as the accompanying requirements for imposing word limits. This rulemaking would be effective for proceedings initiated on or after 30 days following the date of publication of the final rule. This proposed rule makes additional minor edits to § 351.309: (1) The words “or countervailing duty” are being added to § 351.309(b)(1) and (c)(1)(iii) to be consistent with § 351.214(k), and (2) the Roman numerals (i) and (ii) in current § 351.309(e), which is proposed § 351.309(f), have been amended to be Arabic numbers (1) and (2) to be consistent with the other paragraphs of the regulation.
The Department invites parties to comment on this proposed rule and the proposed effective date. Further, any party may submit comments expressing its disagreement with the Department's proposal and may propose an alternative approach.
It has been determined that this proposed rule is not significant for purposes of Executive Order 12866.
This proposed rule contains no new collection of information subject to the Paperwork Reduction Act, 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35.
This proposed rule does not contain policies with federalism implications as that term is defined in section 1(a) of Executive Order 13132, dated August 4, 1999 (64 FR 43255 (August 10, 1999)).
The Chief Counsel for Regulation has certified to the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration under the provisions of the Regulatory Flexibility Act, 5 U.S.C. 605(b), that the proposed rule would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small business entities. A summary of the need for, objectives of and legal basis for this rule is provided in the preamble, and is not repeated here.
The entities upon which this rulemaking could have an impact include foreign exporters and producers, some of whom are affiliated with U.S. companies, and U.S. importers. Enforcement & Compliance currently does not have information on the number of entities that would be considered small under the Small Business Administration's size standards for small businesses in the relevant industries. However, some of these entities may be considered small entities under the appropriate industry size standards. Although this proposed rule may indirectly impact small entities that are parties to individual antidumping or countervailing duty proceedings, it will not have a significant economic impact on any entities.
The proposed action is merely to streamline the process contained in the current Department regulations. If the proposed rule is implemented, no entities would be required to undertake additional compliance measures or expenditures. Rather, the regulation, in this proposed rulemaking, is to reduce the burden placed on the Department and interested parties when lengthy or duplicative arguments are made in case briefs and then must be addressed. Because the proposed rule imposes limits on the submissions of case and rebuttal briefs in an antidumping or countervailing duty proceeding, it does not place a burden on or directly impact any business entities. The proposed rule merely strengthens the current regulations to better align with current Departmental practices. Therefore, the proposed rule would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small business entities. For this reason, an Initial Regulatory Flexibility Analysis is not required and one has not been prepared.
Administrative practice and procedure, Antidumping, Business and industry, Cheese, Confidential business information, Countervailing duties, Freedom of information, Investigations, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
For the reasons stated, 19 CFR part 351 is proposed to be amended as follows:
5 U.S.C. 301; 19 U.S.C. 1202 note; 19 U.S.C. 1303 note; 19 U.S.C. 1671
(a)
(b)
(2)
(c)
(i) For a final determination in a countervailing duty investigation or antidumping investigation, or for the final results of a full sunset review, 50 days after the date of publication of the preliminary determination or results of review, as applicable, unless the Secretary alters the time limit;
(ii) For the final results of an administrative review, new shipper review, changed circumstances review, or section 762 review, 30 days after the date of publication of the preliminary results of review, unless the Secretary alters the time limit; or
(iii) For the final results of an expedited sunset review, expedited antidumping or countervailing duty review, Article 8 violation review, Article 4/Article 7 review, or section 753 review, a date specified by the Secretary.
(2) The case brief must present all arguments that continue in the submitter's view to be relevant to the Secretary's final determination or final results, including any arguments presented before the date of publication of the preliminary determination or preliminary results. As part of the case brief, parties are encouraged to provide a summary of the arguments not to exceed five pages and a table of statutes, regulations, and cases cited.
(d)
(2) The rebuttal brief may respond only to arguments raised in case briefs and should identify the arguments to which it is responding. As part of the rebuttal brief, parties are encouraged to provide a summary of the arguments not to exceed five pages and a table of statutes, regulations, and cases cited.
(e)
(2) The case brief, if any, shall contain a certification by the party or its representative indicating the number of words in the brief and the number of words available for the rebuttal brief. The rebuttal brief, if any, shall contain a certification by the party or its representative indicating the number of words in the brief and certifying that the total word limit of 25,000 has not been exceeded in the party's combined case and rebuttal brief word limit. The party filing the certification may rely on the word count of the software program used to prepare the brief. Briefs in excess of the word limitation shall be rejected and shall be considered untimely. Challenges to opposing party's word count must be filed with the agency within 48 hours of the filing of the case or reply brief and accompanying certifications or the challenge will not be considered. If a person has designated an agent to receive service that is located outside the United States, and served briefs by first class airmail in accordance with 19 CFR 351.303(f)(3)(i), the agency will consider on a case-by-case basis the time allowed to that person to challenge a party's word count.
(f)
(2)
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice of petition.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or we) is announcing that we have filed a petition, submitted by Breast Cancer Fund, Center for Environmental Health, Center for Food Safety, Center for Science in the Public Interest, Clean Water Action, Consumer Federation of America, Earthjustice, Environmental Defense Fund, Improving Kids' Environment, Learning Disabilities Association of America, and Natural Resources Defense Council proposing that we amend and/or revoke specified regulations to no longer provide for the food contact use of specified ortho-phthalates.
The food additive petition was filed on April 12, 2016. Submit either electronic or written comments by July 19, 2016.
You may submit comments as follows:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
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• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
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• For written/paper comments submitted to the Division of Dockets Management, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
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Kelly Randolph, Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-275), Food and Drug Administration, 5100 Paint Branch Pkwy., College Park, MD 20740-3835, 240-402-1188.
Under section 409(b)(5) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the FD&C Act) (21 U.S.C. 348(b)(5)), we are giving notice that we have filed a food additive petition (FAP 6B4815), submitted by Breast Cancer Fund, Center for Science in the Public Interest, Center for Environmental Health, Center for Food Safety, Clean Water Action, Consumer Federation of America, Earthjustice, Environmental Defense Fund, Improving Kids' Environment, Learning Disabilities Association of America, and Natural Resources Defense Council, c/o Mr. Thomas Neltner, 1875 Connecticut Ave. NW., Suite 600, Washington, DC 20009. The submission proposes that we amend and/or revoke specified food additive regulations under 21 CFR parts 175, 176, 177, and 178 to no longer provide for the food contact use of specified ortho-phthalates. We have filed this portion of the submission as a food additive petition. The submission also requests that we amend our regulations in 21 CFR part 181 related to prior-sanctioned uses of specified ortho-phthalates and issue a new regulation in 21 CFR part 189 prohibiting the use of eight specific ortho-phthalates. We have declined to file these portions of the submission as a food additive petition.
In accordance with the procedures for amending or revoking a food additive regulation in § 171.130 (21 CFR 171.130), the petition asks us to amend parts 175, 176, 177, and 178 to no longer provide for the food contact use of certain specified ortho-phthalates. The specified ortho-phthalates and corresponding regulations in parts 175, 176, 177, and 178 are as follows:
Butyl benzyl phthalate (CAS No. 85-68-7), Butyldecyl phthalate (CAS No. 89-19-0), Butyloctyl phthalate (CAS No. 84-78-6), Butyl phthalate butyl glycolate (CAS No. 85-70-1), Di(butoxyethyl) phthalate (CAS No.117-83-9), Dibutyl phthalate (CAS No. 84-74-2), Dicyclohexyl phthalate (CAS No. 84-61-7), Di(2-ethylhexyl)hexahydrophthalate, Di(2-ethylhexyl)phthalate (CAS No. 117-81-7), Diethyl phthalate (CAS No. 84-66-2), Dihexyl phthalate (CAS No. 84-75-3), Dihydroabietylphthalate (CAS No. 26760-71-4), Diisobutyl phthalate (CAS No. 84-69-5), Diisodecyl phthalate (CAS No. 26761-40-0), Diisooctyl phthalate (CAS No. 27554-26-3), Dimethyl phthalate (CAS No. 131-11-3), Dioctyl phthalate (CAS No. 117-84-0), Diphenyl phthalate (CAS No. 84-62-8), Ethyl phthalyl ethyl glycolate (CAS No. 84-72-0), Methyl phthalyl ethyl glycolate (CAS No. 85-71-2), Octyldecyl phthalate (CAS No. 119-07-3), and Diallyl phthalate (CAS No. 131-17-9).
Dibutyl phthalate (CAS No. 84-74-2), Diethyl phthalate (CAS No. 84-66-2), Diisooctyl phthalate (CAS No. 27554-26-3), Di(2-ethylhexyl) phthalate (CAS No. 117-81-7), and Diisodecyl phthalate (CAS No. 26761-40-0).
Butyl phthalyl butyl glycolate (CAS No. 85-70-1), Diethyl phthalate (CAS No. 84-66-2), and Ethyl phthalyl ethyl glycolate (CAS No. 84-72-0).
Butylbenzyl phthalate (CAS No. 85-68-7), Dibutyl phthalate (CAS No. 84-74-2), Dicyclohexyl phthalate (CAS No. 84-61-7), and Diallyl phthalate (CAS No. 131-17-9).
Butyl benzyl phthalate (CAS No. 85-68-7) and Diallyl phthalate (CAS No. 131-17-9).
Di(2-ethylhexyl) phthalate (CAS No. 117-81-7).
Dibutyl phthalate (CAS No. 84-74-2), Didecyl phthalate (CAS No. 84-77-5), and Dodecyl phthalate (CAS No. 21577-80-0).
Di(2-ethylhexyl) phthalate (CAS No. 117-81-7) and Dimethyl phthalate (CAS No. 131-11-3).
Castor oil phthalate with adipic acid and fumaric acid diethylene glycol polyester (CAS No. 68650-73-7), Castor oil phthalate, hydrogentated (FDA No. 977037-59-4), Dibutylphthalate (CAS No. 84-74-2), Dicyclohexyl phthalate (CAS No. 84-61-7), Di(2-ethylhexy) phthalate (CAS No. 117-81-7), Diisobutyl phthalate (CAS No. 84-69-5), and Dimethylcyclohexyl phthalate (CAS No. 1322-94-7).
Diisodecyl phthalate (CAS No. 26761-40-0).
Dioctyl phthalate (CAS No. 117-84-0).
Dimethyl orthophthalate (CAS No. 131-11-3).
Butyl benzyl phthalate (CAS No. 85-68-7), Dibutyl phthalate (CAS No. 84-74-2), and Dimethyl phthalate (CAS No. 131-11-3).
Diphenylguanidine phthalate (CAS No. 17573-13-6), Amyl decyl phthalate (CAS No. 7493-81-4), Dibutyl phthalate (CAS No. 84-74-2), Didecyl phthalate (CAS No. 84-77-5), Diisodecyl phthalate (CAS No. 26761-40-0), Dioctyl phthalate (CAS No. 117-84-0), and Octyl decyl phthalate (CAS No. 119-07-3).
Butylbenzyl phthalate (CAS No. 85-68-7), Dicyclohexyl phthalate (CAS No. 84-61-7), Diisononyl phthalate (CAS No. 28553-12-0), Dihexyl phthalate (CAS No. 84-75-3), and Diphenyl phthalate (CAS No. 84-62-8).
Diisodecyl phthalate (CAS No. 26761-40-0), Di(2-ethylhexyl) phthalate (CAS No. 117-81-7), and Diethyl phthalate (CAS No. 84-66-2).
The petitioners request FDA to consider that ortho-phthalates are a class of chemically and pharmacologically related substances, and state that there is no longer a reasonable certainty of no harm for the food contact uses of the specified ortho-phthalates. If we determine that new data are available that justify amending the specified food additive regulations in parts 175, 176, 177, and 178 so that they will no longer provide for the use of the ortho-phthalates, we will publish such an amendment of these regulations in the
A portion of the submission relates to uses of five ortho-phthalates that are listed in § 181.27 as prior-sanctioned. Those five ortho-phthalates are as follows: Diethyl phthalate (CAS No. 84-66-2), Ethyl phthalyl ethyl glycolate (CAS No. 84-72-0), Butyl phthalyl butyl glycolate (CAS No. 85-70-1), Diisooctyl phthalate (CAS No. 27554-26-3), and Di(2-ethylhexyl) phthalate (CAS No. 117-81-7). FDA has not filed as part of the food additive petition the request to revoke these prior sanctions. Section 201(s) of the FD&C Act exempts prior-sanctioned materials from the definition of a food additive (21 U.S.C. 321(s)). Therefore, the request to revoke the prior-sanction for these substances is not within the scope of a food additive petition under section 409(b) of the FD&C Act (“a petition proposing the issuance of a regulation prescribing the conditions under which such [food] additive may be safety used”). We have informed petitioners that they may submit a citizen petition under 21 CFR 10.30 requesting that FDA take this action.
A portion of the submission requests that FDA prohibit the food contact use of the following eight ortho-phthalates: Diisobutyl phthalate (CAS No. 84-69-5), Di-n-butyl phthalate (CAS No. 84-74-2), Butyl benzyl phthalate (CAS No. 85-68-7), Dicyclohexyl phthalate (CAS No. 84-61-7), Di-n-hexyl phthalate (CAS No. 84-75-3), Diisooctyl phthalate (CAS No. 27554-26-3), Di(2-ethylhexyl) phthalate (CAS No. 117-81-7), and Diisononyl phthalate (CAS No. 28553-12-0). The submission requests that FDA take this action by issuing a new regulation in part 189. FDA has not filed as part of the food additive petition the request to issue the proposed regulation in part 189. Such a request is not within the scope of a food additive petition under section 409(b) of the FD&C Act (“a petition proposing the issuance of a regulation prescribing the conditions under which such [food] additive may be safety used”). We have informed petitioners that they may submit a citizen petition under 21 CFR 10.30 requesting that FDA take this action.
We also are reviewing the potential environmental impact of the petitioners' requested action. The petitioners have claimed a categorical exclusion from preparing an environmental assessment or environmental impact statement under 21 CFR 25.32(m). In accordance with regulations promulgated under the National Environmental Policy Act (40 CFR 1506.6(b)), we are placing the environmental document submitted with the subject petition on public display at the Division of Dockets Management (see
Office of Surface Mining Reclamation and Enforcement, Interior.
Notice of availability of petition to initiate rulemaking and request for comments on the petition.
We, the Office of Surface Mining Reclamation and Enforcement (OSMRE), seek comments concerning a petition, submitted pursuant to the Surface Mining Control and Reclamation Act (SMCRA or the Act), requesting that we amend our self-bonding regulations to ensure that companies with a history of financial insolvency, and their subsidiary companies, are not allowed to self-bond coal mining operations. We are requesting comments on the merits of the petition and the rule changes suggested in the petition. Comments received will assist the Director of OSMRE in making the decision whether to grant or deny the petition.
You may submit comments by any of the following methods:
Michael Kuhns, Division of Regulatory Support, 1951 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20240; Telephone: 202-208-2860; Email:
Section 201(g) of SMCRA, 30 U.S.C. 1201(g), provides that any person may petition the Director of OSMRE to initiate a proceeding for the issuance, amendment, or repeal of any regulation adopted under SMCRA. It also specifies that the Director shall either grant or deny the petition within 90 days after receipt. OSMRE's regulations at 30 CFR 700.12 further implement this statutory provision.
Under 30 CFR 700.12(c), the Director is required to determine if the petition sets forth facts, technical justification and law which may provide a reasonable basis for issuance, amendment or repeal of a regulation. If the Director determines that the petition has a reasonable basis, a notice shall be published in the
At the close of the comment period, the Director decides to either grant or deny the petition, in whole or in part. We will publish notice of that decision in the
On March 3, 2016, we received from WildEarth Guardians a petition for rulemaking requesting that OSMRE amend its self-bonding regulations at 30 CFR 800.23 to ensure that companies with a history of financial insolvency, and their subsidiary companies, are not allowed to self-bond coal mining operations. The petition claims that current rules allow regulatory authorities to accept self-bond guarantees from subsidiary companies that are technically insolvent due to the financial status of their parent corporations, potentially shifting the financial burden for substantial mine reclamation costs to American taxpayers in the event the companies do not have the financial resources to complete their mine reclamation obligations.
In its petition, WildEarth Guardians provides draft regulatory language that it alleges will ensure that any entity, including non-parent corporate guarantors, will be subject to appropriate financial scrutiny before being allowed to self-bond. Specifically, WildEarth Guardians requests that we revise our self-bonding regulations to define
The petition and exhibits can be viewed and downloaded at
We are seeking comment on the merits of the petition and the requested rule changes. The energy industry is in the midst of a major transformation. Low domestic and global demand for coal, plentiful low-cost shale gas and fuel switching and coal power plant retirements by utilities, the highest coal stockpile inventories in 25 years, unsuccessful business decisions, and projections of declining coal demand have created significant challenges for the coal industry.
SMCRA allows States to accept self-bonds, but requires that the bond be sufficient to assure the completion of the reclamation plan if the work had to be performed by the regulatory authority in the event of forfeiture. 30 U.S.C. 1259(a). Eighteen States allow self-bonding under their regulations and eleven states currently have self-bonded sites. According to the most recent data from the States, outstanding self-bond obligations total approximately $3.86
Several large coal companies have filed for bankruptcy protection. These companies provided, and several States elected to accept, over $2.4 billion in self-bonds to ensure that lands and waters impacted by coal mining were restored. Several large coal mining companies have recently filed for bankruptcy, raising concerns for State regulators, OSMRE, the Department of the Interior, Members of Congress, citizens and many other stakeholders.
There is a concern about whether disturbed coal mines will be reclaimed by the bankrupt companies; whether the bankrupt companies will abandon their legal obligations to restore impacted lands and waters; whether the costs to restore the land and water will be shifted to taxpayers; and, whether the existing regulations are adequate to protect people, communities, and the environment as envisioned by Congress when it enacted SMCRA.
OSMRE will evaluate whether the changes proposed in the rulemaking petition are necessary or adequate to address deficiencies in the current regulations and practices. We ask all States, stakeholders and the public to consider whether the changes proposed by petitioners, or other changes beyond what the petitioners have proposed, should be made. We also request you articulate what those changes should be and why they should be made.
We will review and consider all comments submitted to the addresses listed above (see
Please include the Docket ID “OSM-2016-0006” at the beginning of all written comments. We cannot ensure that comments received after the close of the comment period (see
Before including your address, phone number, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
We will not hold a public hearing on the petition. The petitioner did not request a hearing and we have determined under 30 CFR 700.12(c) that no hearing is necessary.
This notice of availability is not a proposed or final rule, policy, or guidance. Therefore, it is not subject to the Regulatory Flexibility Act, the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act, the Paperwork Reduction Act, the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act, or Executive Orders 12866, 13563, 12630, 13132, 12988, 13175, and 13211. We will conduct the analyses required by these laws and executive orders only if we decide to grant the petition and develop a proposed rule.
In developing this notice of availability, we did not conduct or use a study, experiment, or survey requiring peer review under the Information Quality Act (Pub. L. 106-554, section 15).
This notice of availability is not subject to the requirement to prepare an Environmental Assessment or Environmental Impact Statement under the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA), 42 U.S.C. 4332(2)(C), because no proposed action, as described in 40 CFR 1508.18(a) and (b), yet exists. This notice of availability only seeks public comment on whether the Director should grant the petition and initiate rulemaking. If the Director ultimately grants the petition, we will prepare the appropriate NEPA compliance documents as part of the rulemaking process.
Environmental protection, Bonding and Insurance requirements, Surface coal mining, Reclamation.
Office of Surface Mining Reclamation and Enforcement, Interior.
Proposed rule; public comment period and opportunity for public hearing on proposed amendment.
We, the Office of Surface Mining Reclamation and Enforcement (OSMRE), are announcing receipt of a proposed amendment to the Alabama regulatory program (Alabama program) under the Surface Mining Control and Reclamation Act of 1977 (SMCRA or the Act). Alabama proposes revisions to its Program to closely follow the Federal regulations regarding awarding of appropriate costs and expenses including attorneys' fees.
This document gives the times and locations that the Alabama program and proposed amendment to that program are available for your inspection, the comment period during which you may submit written comments on the amendment, and the procedures that we will follow for the public hearing, if one is requested.
We will accept written comments on this amendment until 4:00 p.m., c.t., June 20, 2016. If requested, we will hold a public hearing on the amendment on June 14, 2016. We will accept requests to speak at a hearing until 4:00 p.m., c.t. on June 6, 2016.
You may submit comments, identified by SATS No. AL-079-FOR by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
In addition, you may review a copy of the amendment during regular business hours at the following location: Alabama Surface Mining Commission, 1811 Second Ave., P.O. Box 2390, Jasper, Alabama 35502-2390, Telephone: (205) 221-4130.
Sherry Wilson, Director, Birmingham Field Office. Telephone: (205) 290-7282. Email:
Section 503(a) of the Act permits a State to assume primacy for the regulation of surface coal mining and reclamation operations on non-Federal and non-Indian lands within its borders by demonstrating that its program includes, among other things, State laws and regulations that govern surface coal mining and reclamation operations in accordance with the Act and consistent with the Federal regulations. See 30 U.S.C. 1253(a)(1) and (7). On the basis of these criteria, the Secretary of the Interior conditionally approved the Alabama program effective May 20, 1982. You can find background information on the Alabama program, including the Secretary's findings, the disposition of comments, and the conditions of approval of the Alabama program in the May 20, 1982,
By letter dated March 18, 2016 (Administrative Record No. AL-0669), Alabama sent us an amendment to its program under SMCRA (30 U.S.C. 1201
Alabama proposes to revise language providing appropriate costs and expenses to any party only if a person initiated or participated in a proceeding in bad faith for the purpose of harassing or embarrassing the permittee or State Regulatory Authority.
Under the provisions of 30 CFR 732.17(h), we are seeking your comments on whether the amendment satisfies the applicable program approval criteria of 30 CFR 732.15. If we approve the amendment, it will become part of the State program.
If you submit written comments, they should be specific, confined to issues pertinent to the proposed regulations, and explain the reason for any recommended change(s). We appreciate any and all comments, but those most useful and likely to influence decisions on the final regulations will be those that either involve personal experience or include citations to and analyses of SMCRA, its legislative history, its implementing regulations, case law, other pertinent State or Federal laws or regulations, technical literature, or other relevant publications.
We cannot ensure that comments received after the close of the comment period (see
Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
If you wish to speak at the public hearing, contact the person listed under
To assist the transcriber and ensure an accurate record, we request, if possible, that each person who speaks at the public hearing provide us with a written copy of his or her comments. The public hearing will continue on the specified date until everyone scheduled to speak has been given an opportunity to be heard. If you are in the audience and have not been scheduled to speak and wish to do so, you will be allowed to speak after those who have been scheduled. We will end the hearing after everyone scheduled to speak and others present in the audience who wish to speak, have been heard.
If only one person requests an opportunity to speak, we may hold a public meeting rather than a public hearing. If you wish to meet with us to discuss the amendment, please request a meeting by contacting the person listed under
This rulemaking is exempted from review by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under Executive Order 12866.
When a State submits a program amendment to OSMRE for review, our regulations at 30 CFR 732.17(h) require us to publish a notice in the
Intergovernmental relations, Surface mining, Underground mining.
Coast Guard, DHS.
Notice of proposed rulemaking.
The Coast Guard proposes to establish a special local regulation for all waters of the Ohio River, surface to bottom, extending from Ohio River mile 492.0 to 495.5 at Lawrenceburg, IN, June 18, 2016 with an alternate date of June 19, 2016. This special local regulation is necessary to provide for the safety of life on these navigable waters near Lawrenceburg, IN, during a high-speed boat race on June 18, 2016. This proposed rulemaking would prohibit persons and vessels from being in the regulated area unless authorized by the Captain of the Port Ohio Valley or a designated representative. We invite your comments on this proposed rulemaking.
Comments and related material must be received by the Coast Guard on or before June 6, 2016.
You may submit comments identified by docket number USCG-2016-0158 using the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
If you have questions about this proposed rulemaking, call or email Petty Officer Andrew Prescott, Sector Ohio Valley, U.S. Coast Guard; telephone 502-779-5334, email
On January 29, 2016, the Breakwater Powerboat Association notified the Coast Guard that it will be sponsoring a high-speed boat race from 7:30 a.m. to 6:30 p.m. on June 18, 2016. Alternate time and date will be from 10:00 a.m. to 2:00 p.m. June 19, 2016. The boat race will take place at Ohio River mile 492.0 to 495.5 in the vicinity of Lawrenceburg, IN. The Captain of the Port Ohio Valley (COTP) has determined that potential hazards associated with a high- speed regatta would be a safety concern for anyone within in the regulated area.
The purpose of this rulemaking is to ensure the safety of vessels, spectators and the navigable waters within the regulated area before, during, and after the scheduled event. The Coast Guard proposes this rulemaking under authority in 33 U.S.C. 1231.
The COTP proposes to establish a special local regulation from 7:30 a.m. to 6:30 p.m. on June 18, 2016. The special local regulation would cover all navigable waters of the Ohio River from mile 492.0 to 495.5 in Lawrenceburg, IN. The duration of the regulated area is intended to ensure the safety of vessels, spectators and these navigable waters before, during, and after the scheduled high-speed regatta. No vessel or person would be permitted to enter the regulated area without obtaining permission from the COTP or a designated representative. The regulatory text we are proposing appears at the end of this document.
We developed this proposed rule after considering numerous statutes and executive orders (E.O.s) related to rulemaking. Below we summarize our analyses based on a number of these statutes and E.O.s, and we discuss First Amendment rights of protestors.
E.O.s 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess the costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits. E.O. 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, of reducing costs, of harmonizing rules, and of promoting flexibility. This NPRM has not been designated a “significant regulatory action,” under E.O. 12866. Accordingly, the NPRM has not been reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget.
This regulatory action determination is based on the size, location, duration, and time-of-day of the special local regulation. Moreover, the Coast Guard would issue a Broadcast Notice to Mariners via VHF-FM marine channel 16 about the regulated area, and the rule would allow vessels to seek permission to enter the regulated area.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, 5 U.S.C. 601-612, as amended, requires Federal agencies to consider the potential impact of regulations on small entities during rulemaking. The term “small entities” comprises small businesses, not-for-profit organizations that are independently owned and operated and are not dominant in their fields, and governmental jurisdictions with populations of less than 50,000. The Coast Guard certifies under 5 U.S.C. 605(b) that this proposed rule would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
While some owners or operators of vessels intending to transit the regulated area may be small entities, for the reasons stated in section IV.A above this proposed rule would not have a significant economic impact on any vessel owner or operator.
If you think that your business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction qualifies as a small entity and that this rule would have a significant economic impact on it, please submit a comment (see
Under section 213(a) of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-121), we want to assist small entities in understanding this proposed rule. If the rule would affect your small business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction and you have questions concerning its provisions or options for compliance, please contact the person listed in the
This proposed rule would not call for a new collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520).
A rule has implications for federalism under E.O. 13132, Federalism, if it has a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. We have analyzed this proposed rule under that Order and have determined that it is consistent with the fundamental federalism principles and preemption requirements described in E.O. 13132.
Also, this proposed rule does not have tribal implications under E.O. 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments, because it would not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes. If you believe this proposed rule has implications for federalism or Indian tribes, please contact the person listed in the
The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538) requires Federal agencies to assess the effects of their discretionary regulatory actions. In particular, the Act addresses actions that may result in the expenditure by a State, local, or tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector of $100,000,000 (adjusted for inflation) or more in any one year. Though this proposed rule would not result in such expenditure, we do discuss the effects of this rule elsewhere in this preamble.
We have analyzed this proposed rule under Department of Homeland Security Management Directive 023-01 and Commandant Instruction M16475.lD, which guide the Coast Guard in complying with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321- 4370f), and have made a preliminary determination that this action is one of a category of actions that do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment. This proposed rule involves a special local regulation lasting less than 12 hours that would prohibit entry within the regulated area. Normally such actions are categorically excluded from further review under paragraph 34(h) of Figure 2-1 of Commandant Instruction M16475.lD. A preliminary environmental analysis checklist and Categorical Exclusion Determination are available in the docket where indicated under
The Coast Guard respects the First Amendment rights of protesters. Protesters are asked to contact the person listed in the
We view public participation as essential to effective rulemaking, and will consider all comments and material received during the comment period. Your comment can help shape the outcome of this rulemaking. If you submit a comment, please include the docket number for this rulemaking, indicate the specific section of this document to which each comment applies, and provide a reason for each suggestion or recommendation.
We encourage you to submit comments through the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
We accept anonymous comments. All comments received will be posted without change to
Documents mentioned in this NPRM as being available in the docket, and all public comments, will be in our online docket at
Marine safety, Navigation (water), Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, and Waterways.
For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Coast Guard proposes to amend 33 CFR part 100 as follows:
33 U.S.C 1233.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(2) Persons or vessels requiring entry into or passage through the area must request permission from the Captain of the Port Ohio Valley or a designated representative. U. S. Coast Guard Sector Ohio Valley may be contacted on VHF Channel 13 or 16, or at 1-800-253-7465.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Proposed rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is proposing to approve a revision to the Pennsylvania state implementation plan (SIP) submitted by the Commonwealth of Pennsylvania. This SIP revision pertains to Pennsylvania's regulation for fiberglass boat manufacturing materials found in section 129.74 of the Pennsylvania Code. This regulation meets the requirement to adopt reasonably available control technology (RACT) for sources covered by EPA's control techniques guidelines (CTG) standards for fiberglass boat manufacturing materials. EPA is, therefore, proposing approval of the revision to the Pennsylvania SIP in accordance with the requirements of the Clean Air Act (CAA).
Written comments must be received on or before June 20, 2016.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R03-OAR-2016-0189 at
Irene Shandruk, (215) 814-2166, or by email at
Section 172(c)(1) of the CAA provides that SIPs for nonattainment areas must include reasonably available control measures (RACM), including RACT, for sources of emissions. Section 182(b)(2)(A) provides that for certain nonattainment areas, states must revise their SIPs to include RACT for sources of volatile organic compound (VOC) emissions covered by a CTG document issued after November 15, 1990 and prior to the area's date of attainment. EPA defines RACT as “the lowest emission limitation that a particular source is capable of meeting by the application of control technology that is reasonably available considering technological and economic feasibility.” 44 FR 53761 (September 17, 1979). In subsequent
CTGs are intended to provide state and local air pollution control authorities information that should assist them in determining RACT for VOCs from various sources of fiberglass boat manufacturing. EPA has not published a previous CTG for fiberglass boat manufacturing materials, but did publish an assessment of VOC emissions from fiberglass boat manufacturing in 1990. The 1990 assessment defined the nature and scope of VOC emissions from fiberglass boat manufacturing, characterized the industry, estimated per plant and national VOC emissions, and identified and evaluated potential control options. In 2001, EPA promulgated the National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants for Boat Manufacturing, 40 CFR part 63, subpart VVVV (2001 NESHAP). The 2001 NESHAP established organic hazardous air pollutant (HAP) emissions limits based on low-HAP resins and gel coats and low-emitting resin application technology. Several of the air pollution control districts in California have specific regulations that control VOC emissions from fiberglass boat manufacturing operations as part of their regulations for limiting VOC emissions from polyester resin operations. Several other states also have regulations that address VOC emissions from fiberglass boat manufacturing as part of polyester resin operations. After reviewing the 1990 VOC assessment, the 2001 NESHAP, and existing California district and other state VOC emission reduction approaches, and after considering information obtained since the issuance of the 2001 NESHAP, EPA developed a CTG entitled
The CTG for fiberglass boat manufacturing materials provides control recommendations for reducing VOC emissions from the use of gel coats, resins, and materials used to clean application equipment in fiberglass boat manufacturing operations. This CTG applies to facilities that manufacture hulls or decks of boats from fiberglass, or build molds to make fiberglass boat hulls or decks. EPA's 2008 CTG recommends that the following operations should be covered: Open molding resin and gel coat operations (these include pigmented gel coat, clear gel coat, production resin, tooling gel coat, and tooling resin); resin and gel coat mixing operations; and resin and gel coat application equipment cleaning operations.
EPA's 2008 CTG recommends the following VOC reduction measures: VOC emission limits for molding resins and gel coats; work practices for resin and gel coat mixing containers; and VOC content and vapor pressure limits for cleaning materials. Recommended VOC emission limits for open molding resin and gel coat operations are shown in Table 1. A more detailed explanation for determining the VOC emission limits for molding resin and gel coats can be found in the Technical Support Document (TSD) for this rulemaking under Docket ID No. EPA-R03-OAR-2016-0189 and available online at
On March 2, 2016, the Pennsylvania Department of Environmental Protection (PADEP) submitted to EPA a SIP revision concerning implementation of RACT requirements for the control of VOC emissions from fiberglass boat manufacturing materials. Pennsylvania is adopting EPA's CTG standards for fiberglass boat manufacturing materials, including the emission limits found in Table 1. The regulation is contained in 25
This SIP revision also notes that the requirements of 25
EPA is proposing to approve the March 2, 2016 Pennsylvania SIP revision pertaining to adding 25
In this proposed rulemaking action, EPA is proposing to include in a final EPA rule regulatory text that includes incorporation by reference. In accordance with requirements of 1 CFR 51.5, EPA is proposing to incorporate by reference 25
Under the CAA, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the CAA and applicable Federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the CAA. Accordingly, this action merely approves state law as meeting Federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this proposed action:
• Is not a “significant regulatory action” subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• does not have federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• is not subject to requirements of Section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the CAA; and
• does not provide EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
In addition, this proposed rule concerning Pennsylvania's control of VOC emissions from fiberglass boat manufacturing materials does not have tribal implications as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000), because the SIP is not approved to apply in Indian country located in the state, and EPA notes that it will not impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law.
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Ozone, Volatile organic compounds.
42 U.S.C. 7401
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Proposed rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is proposing to conditionally approve a revision to the Maryland state implementation plan (SIP) submitted by the Maryland Department of the Environment (MDE) on October 15, 2014. The SIP revision adds and amends regulations in the SIP which control emissions from various processes and fuel-burning equipment at Kraft pulp mills. The SIP revision includes the following: (1) A new definition for “NO
Written comments on EPA's proposed conditional approval must be received on or before June 20, 2016.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R03-OAR-2016-0054 at
Gregory Becoat, (215) 814-2036, or by email at
On October 15, 2014, EPA received a revision to the State of Maryland's SIP submitted by MDE. The SIP revision includes Maryland regulations which control emissions from various processes and fuel-burning equipment at Kraft pulp mills and which clarify the VOC control system and requirements for several process installations at Kraft pulp mills.
In the October 15, 2014 SIP revision, MDE's submittal included a definition for “NO
In May 2005, EPA promulgated CAIR which required certain states to reduce emissions of sulfur dioxide (SO
On September 29, 2015, EPA received a supplemental letter from MDE committing to remove all references to CAIR within the definition of “NO
MDE's SIP revision includes amended and new regulations in order to control emissions from various processes and fuel-burning equipment at Kraft pulp mills. The SIP revision submittal includes an amendment to the Code of Maryland Regulations (COMAR) 26.11.01.01—“General Administrative Provisions” in order to add a definition for “NO
The SIP revision also includes an amended COMAR 26.11.09.08—“Control of NO
Finally, the SIP revision also includes a revised COMAR 26.11.14.06—“Control of Volatile Organic Compounds” in order to: (1) Clarify that air emissions from brown stock washers are to be collected and combusted; (2) clarify that evaporators, digester blow tank systems, and brown stock wasters shall be controlled by removing 90 percent (90%) or more of the condensate VOC loading by demonstrating a VOC removal or destruction efficiency of the condensate stream stripper of 90% or greater or a system analysis of these units; and (3) specify approvable testing methods to demonstrate the collective VOC removal efficiency of the condensate steam stripper and other control systems as required. This provision will reduce VOC emissions from Kraft pulp mills and will strengthen the Maryland SIP.
A full explanation of the SIP revision and EPA's analysis of the revision are contained in the technical support document (TSD) prepared in support of this proposed rulemaking. A copy of this TSD is located in the docket of this proposed rulemaking and is available online at
EPA is proposing to conditionally approve the Maryland October 15, 2014 SIP revision concerning the regulations and requirements to control NO
When EPA approves the revised definition of “NO
In this proposed rulemaking action, EPA is proposing to include in a final EPA rule, regulatory text that includes incorporation by reference. In accordance with requirements of 1 CFR 51.5, EPA is proposing to incorporate by reference revisions to COMAR 26.11.01.01, COMAR 26.11.14.07, COMAR 26.11.09.08, and COMAR 26.11.14.06 as previously discussed. EPA has made, and will continue to make, these documents generally available electronically through
Under the CAA, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the CAA and applicable Federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the CAA. Accordingly, this action merely approves state law as meeting Federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this proposed action:
• Is not a “significant regulatory action” subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• does not have federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or
• is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• is not subject to requirements of Section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the CAA; and
• does not provide EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
In addition, this proposed rule, pertaining to the regulations and requirements for the control of emissions from various processes and fuel-burning equipment from Kraft pulp mills, does not have tribal implications as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000), because the SIP is not approved to apply in Indian country located in the state, and EPA notes that it will not impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law.
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Volatile organic compounds.
42 U.S.C. 7401
Federal Communications Commission.
Proposed rule.
In this document, the Federal Communications Commission (Commission) invites comment on proposed revisions to its rules under the Telephone Consumer Protection Act (TCPA) to implement a provision of the Bipartisan Budget Act of 2015 that excepts from the TCPA's prior-express-consent requirement autodialed and prerecorded calls “made solely to collect a debt owed to or guaranteed by the United States.”
Comments are due on or before June 6, 2016. Reply comments are due on or before June 21, 2016.
You may submit comments identified by CG Docket No. 02-278 by any of the following methods:
•
•
For detailed instructions for submitting comments and additional information on the rulemaking process, see the
Kristi Thornton, Consumer Policy Division, Consumer and Governmental Affairs Bureau, Federal Communications Commission, 445 12th Street SW., Washington, DC 20554 by phone at (202) 418-2467 or by email at:
This is a summary of the Commission's Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (
Pursuant to 47 CFR 1.415, 1.419, interested parties may file comments and reply comments on or before the dates indicated on the first page of this document. Comments may be filed using ECFS.
• All hand-delivered or messenger-delivered paper filings for the Commission's Secretary must be delivered to FCC Headquarters at 445 12th Street SW., Room TW-A325, Washington, DC 20554. All hand deliveries must be held together with rubber bands or fasteners. Any envelopes must be disposed of before entering the building.
• Commercial Mail sent by overnight mail (other than U.S. Postal Service Express Mail and Priority Mail) must be sent to 9300 East Hampton Drive, Capitol Heights, MD 20743.
• U.S. Postal Service first-class, Express, and Priority mail should be addressed to 445 12th Street SW., Washington, DC 20554.
Pursuant to § 1.1200 of the Commission's rules, 47 CFR 1.1200, this matter shall be treated as a “permit-but-disclose” proceeding in accordance with the Commission's
To request materials in accessible formats for people with disabilities (braille, large print, electronic files, audio format), send an email to
Document FCC 16-57 seeks comment on proposed rule amendments that may result in modified information collection requirements. If the Commission adopts any modified information collection requirements, the Commission will publish another notice in the
1. In the
2.
3.
4. The Commission seeks comment on the definition of “servicing” that should guide its analysis in this regard. Should servicing calls include calls informing debtors how to reduce payment amounts; consolidate, modify, or restructure loans; change payment dates; or other matters indirectly related to seeking payment? The Commission proposes that permissible “servicing” calls only refer to calls made by the creditor and those entities acting on behalf of the creditor. The Commission seeks comment on this proposal.
5.
6. The Commission also seeks comment on whether there are any circumstances under which a party other than the federal government obtains a pecuniary interest in a debt such that the debt should no longer be considered to be “owed to . . . the United States.” Basic contract principles dictate that when an owner sells an item, it no longer belongs to the original owner, but to the purchaser. Likewise, the purchaser of a debt is owed the repayment obligation, not the prior obligee. For example, would a debt still be “owed to . . . the United States” if the right to repayment is transferred in whole or part to anyone other than the United States, or a collection agency collects the funds and then remits to the federal government a percentage of the amount collected? Are there specific types of debts that are covered or not covered by the phrase “debt owed to or guaranteed by the United States,” such as federal student loans, Small Business Administration loans, and federally guaranteed mortgages? Are there any other factors the Commission should consider in determining which types of debts should be included or excluded from this phrase for purposes of implementing the Budget Act amendments to the TCPA? If so, what are those factors? Consistent with the focus of the amended statutory language on debts “owed to or guaranteed by the United States,” should the Commission also require that the content of covered calls be limited to such debts, and that such calls not be permitted to include content concerning other debts or matters about which the caller may want to speak with the debtor? Similarly, can the Commission and should the Commission place any limits on a covered caller using or transferring (such as by sale) information (such as the debtor's location or phone number) obtained during covered calls in order to collect other debts or to address other matters?
7.
8. The Commission seeks comment on whether calls to persons the caller
9.
10. The Commission notes that petitions pending before the Commission seek clarification regarding the meaning of “person” and whether the federal government or its agents are persons for purposes of the TCPA, among other things. The Commission seeks comment on whether the Budget Act amendments imply that the federal government is a person for TCPA purposes and whether the Commission must resolve these questions in order to complete this rulemaking. The Commission also seeks comment on whether and, if so, how the Supreme Court's recent decision in
11.
12.
13.
14.
15. The Commission also proposes, so that consumers fully understand any right it adopts to stop calls, to require callers to inform debtors of their right to make such a request. The Commission seeks comment on this proposal and on when and how callers should provide such notice. For example, should the permissible ways to opt out of further calls under the TCPA—
16.
17. The Commission nonetheless proposes to revise its rule concerning artificial- or prerecorded-voice calls to residential lines to reflect the exception contained in the Budget Act. The Commission does not believe, however, that it is necessary at the present time to determine the exact contours of the statutory exception for covered calls to residential lines, including, for example, determining the specific impact of the somewhat different language in the Budget Act amendments with regard to covered calls to residential lines and to wireless numbers. The Commission seeks comment on these views, and on whether it should consider any additional issues concerning covered calls. For example, should any limits on the number and duration of covered calls also apply to covered calls to residential lines, even though such calls would not have required prior express consent even before the Budget Act amendments to the TCPA?
18.
19. Congress, in granting the Commission authority to limit the number and duration of calls, used identical language to the language it used in the separate delegation of authority in 47 U.S.C. 227(b)(2)(C). The identical language in these two delegations of authority indicates that Congress intended the two provisions to apply to the same services.
20. The Commission has interpreted 47 U.S.C. 227(b)(2)(C) to apply to all services mentioned in 47 U.S.C. 227(b)(1)(A)(iii). In so doing, it has interpreted “cellular telephone service” by asking whether services are functionally equivalent from the consumer perspective rather than on technical or regulatory differences, such as which spectrum block is used to provide the service. This avoids, for example, consumers receiving wireless voice service from being treated differently depending on which spectrum block their carriers use and callers having to determine which spectrum block is used for a particular consumer's service in order to know which requirements apply.
21. Applying the canon of statutory construction that Congress knows the law, including relevant agency interpretations, at the time it adopts a statute, the Commission presumes that Congress knew of the Commission's interpretation of this key language. Congress used the same language in the recent delegation of authority without taking any action to alter the Commission's interpretation of identical language elsewhere in the same statute. The Commission therefore proposes that the authority delegated to it in the new 47 U.S.C. 227(b)(2)(H) added by the Budget Act applies to all services to which amended 47 U.S.C. 227(b)(1)(A)(iii) applies. The Commission seeks comment on this proposal.
22.
23. As required by the Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, as amended, (RFA), the Commission has prepared this Initial Regulatory Flexibility Analysis (IRFA) of the possible significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities by the policies and rules proposed in the
24. The
25. The
26. The
27. The Commission's rules restricting the use of automated telephone dialing equipment and artificial or prerecorded voice to call wireless numbers apply to a wide range of entities, including all entities that make such calls or texts to wireless telephone numbers to collect debts owed to or guaranteed by the federal government. Thus, the Commission expects that the proposals in this proceeding could have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities in a wide range of categories.
28. The proposed and anticipated rules are authorized under sections 1-4, 201(b), 227, and 303(r) of the Communications Act of 1934, as amended, 47 U.S.C. 151-154, 201(b), 227, 303(r); and the Bipartisan Budget Act of 2015, Public Law 114-74, 129 Stat. 584.
29. The RFA directs agencies to provide a description of, and where feasible, an estimate of the number of small entities that will be affected by the proposed rules, if adopted. The RFA generally defines the term “small entity” as having the same meaning as the terms “small business,” “small organization,” and “small governmental jurisdiction.” In addition, the term “small business” has the same meaning as the term “small business concern” under the Small Business Act. Under the Small Business Act, a “small business concern” is one that: (1) Is independently owned and operated; (2) is not dominant in its field of operation; and (3) meets any additional criteria established by the Small Business Administration (SBA).
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43. Under the current rules, all artificial or prerecorded voice calls to a wireless telephone number are prohibited without prior express consent. The
44. The proposals under consideration could result in additional costs to regulated entities. If the Commission imposes restrictions on the number and duration of calls to wireless numbers as proposed for comment in the NPRM, then calling entities might incur some additional costs in tracking that information. For example, calling entities might need to modify software, develop tracking procedures, and train staff in order to keep within the restrictions on the number and duration of calls to wireless numbers. However, some calling entities may already track calls and call durations, and therefore, no additional compliance efforts would be required. Calling entities may also be relieved of tracking the consent of the called party, which could offset any new burdens.
45. If the Commission determines that a called party may stop future calls concerning collection of a debt owed to or guaranteed by the United States as proposed for comment in the
46. The RFA requires an agency to describe any significant alternatives that it has considered in reaching its proposed approach, which may include
47. The Commission believes that any economic burden these proposed rules may have on carriers is outweighed by the benefits to consumers. The compliance costs identified in Section D are small. The Commission seeks comment on how to minimize the economic impact of these proposals. For instance, the Commission seeks comment on the specific costs of the measures discussed in the
48. None.
49. Pursuant to the authority contained in sections 1-4, 227, and 303(r) of the Communications Act of 1934, as amended, 47 U.S.C. 151-154, 227, 303(r); and the Telephone Consumer Protection Act as amended by the Bipartisan Budget Act of 2015, Public Law 114-74, 129 Stat. 584, document FCC 16-57
50. The Commission's Consumer and Governmental Affairs Bureau, Reference Information Center,
Claims, Communications common carriers, Credit, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Telecommunications, Telephone.
For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Federal Communications Commission proposes to amend 47 CFR part 64 as follows:
47 U.S.C. 154, 254(k); 403(b)(2)(B), (c), Pub. L. 104-104, 110 Stat. 56. Interpret or apply 47 U.S.C. 201, 218, 222, 225, 226, 227, 228, 254(k), 616, 620, the Middle Class Tax Relief and Job Creation Act of 2012, Pub. L. 112-96, and Sec. 301, Pub. L. 114-74, 129 Stat. 584 (47 U.S.C. 227) unless otherwise noted.
(a) * * *
(1) * * *
(iii) To any telephone number assigned to a paging service, cellular telephone service, specialized mobile radio service, or other radio common carrier service, or any service for which the called party is charged for the call, unless such call is made solely to collect a debt owed to or guaranteed by the United States.
(3) * * *
(v) Delivers a “health care” message made by, or on behalf of, a “covered entity” or its “business associate,” as those terms are defined in the HIPAA Privacy Rule, 15 CFR 160.103;
(vi) Is made solely pursuant to the collection of a debt owed to or guaranteed by the United States.
Department of Defense (DoD), General Services Administration (GSA), and the National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA).
Proposed rule.
DoD, GSA, and NASA are proposing to amend the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) to update the instructions for System for Award Management (SAM) registration requirements and to correct an inconsistency with offeror representation and certification requirements.
Interested parties should submit written comments to the Regulatory Secretariat Division at one of the addresses shown below on or before July 19, 2016 to be considered in the formation of the final rule.
Submit comments in response to FAR case 2015-005 by any of the following methods:
•
•
Mr. Curtis E. Glover, Sr., Procurement
Currently, the language in the FAR is not consistent in terms of whether offerors need to be registered in SAM prior to submitting an offer or prior to award. Per FAR clause 52.204-7 an offeror is not “registered in the SAM database” unless an offeror has completed its online annual representations and certifications. FAR 52.204-8(b) and (d) state that if clause 52.204-7 is included in the solicitation, then the offeror verifies by submission of the offer that the representations and certifications in SAM are current and accurate. While the clauses instruct offerors to complete representations and certifications by registering in SAM prior to the submission of offers, the policy at FAR 4.1102 states that SAM registration (which includes online reps and certs) must be completed by the time of award. In order to correct this inconsistency DoD, GSA, and NASA are proposing to amend FAR 4.1102 and 4.1103 to require offeror registration in SAM prior to submission of an offer.
In addition, the proposed rule will require contracting officers to use the name and physical address from the contractor's SAM registration for the provided Data Universal Numbering System (DUNS). We recognize that there is an ongoing FAR case (2015-022, Unique Identification of Entities Receiving Federal Awards) to remove the reference to the DUNS number, and once the final rule from that case is published; references to the DUNS number will be changed. This proposed rule also removes the term “division name” from the FAR text at FAR 4.1102, clause 52.204-13, and provision 52.212-4.
The proposed rule also changes the referenced Web site “acquisition.gov” to “SAM.gov” to be consistent with the rest of the FAR. “Database” is also added to “SAM” so that in the FAR it is clearly understood that the reference is to the “SAM database”.
Executive Orders (E.O.s) 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, distributive impacts, and equity). E.O. 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, of reducing costs, of harmonizing rules, and of promoting flexibility. This is not a significant regulatory action and, therefore, was not subject to review under Section 6(b) of E.O. 12866, Regulatory Planning and Review, dated September 30, 1993. This proposed rule is not a major rule under 5 U.S.C. 804.
DoD, GSA, and NASA do not expect this proposed rule to have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities within the meaning of the Regulatory Flexibility Act, 5 U.S.C. 601,
FAR subpart 4.11 was updated by FAR case 2012-033 which was published in the
Currently, the language in the FAR is not consistent in terms of whether offerors need to be registered in SAM prior to submitting an offer or prior to award. Per FAR clause 52.204-7 an offeror is not “registered in the SAM database” unless an offeror has completed its online annual representations and certifications. FAR 52.204-8(b) and (d) state that if clause 52.204-7 is included in the solicitation, then the offeror verifies by submission of the offer that the representations and certifications in SAM are current and accurate. While the clauses instruct offerors to complete representations and certifications by registering in SAM prior to submission of offers, the policy at FAR 4.1102 states that SAM registration (which includes online reps and certs) must be completed by the time of award.
In order to correct this inconsistency the rule proposes that offerors be registered in SAM prior to submission of an offer. Once offerors are registered in SAM they are in the system and are only required to update SAM registration in accordance with the clause. This eliminates the need for potential offerors to complete reps and certs multiple times when responding to solicitations.
The proposed rule would apply to small businesses that submit offers to the Federal Government. The rule contains information collection requirements. OMB has cleared this information collection requirement under OMB Control Number 9000-0159, titled: Central Contractor Registration. GSA has submitted a request to OMB to change the name of the collection to “System for Award Management Registration.” That request is pending.
The total number of small businesses in the Federal Procurement Data System (FPDS) for FY 2013 is 111,036. This proposed rule would apply to that number of small businesses, as well as an estimated equal number that did not receive an award for FY 2013.
There will be no burden on small businesses because this proposed rule change does not place any new requirements on small entities. The only change is when the requirement for submission of the representations and certifications must occur.
This proposed rule requires offerors to be registered in SAM prior to submission of an offer. Once offerors are registered in SAM they are in the system and are only required to update SAM registration in accordance with the clause. This eliminates the need for potential offerors to complete representations and certifications multiple times when responding to solicitations.
The proposed rule does not duplicate, overlap, or conflict with any other Federal rules.
There are no significant alternatives to the rule which accomplish the stated objectives of applicable statutes and which minimize any significant economic impact of the proposed rule on small entities.
The Regulatory Secretariat Division has submitted a copy of the IRFA to the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration. A copy of the IRFA may be obtained from the Regulatory Secretariat Division. DoD, GSA, and NASA invite comments from small business concerns and other interested parties on the expected impact of this proposed rule on small entities.
DoD, GSA, and NASA will also consider comments from small entities concerning the existing regulations in subparts affected by the proposed rule consistent with 5 U.S.C. 610. Interested parties must submit such comments separately and should cite 5 U.S.C. 610 (FAR Case 2015-005), in correspondence.
The Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35) applies. The proposed rule contains information collection requirements. OMB has cleared this information collection requirement under OMB Control Number 9000-0159; Central Contractor Registration. GSA has submitted a request to OMB to change the name of the collection to “System for Award Management Registration.” That request is pending.
Government procurement.
Therefore, DoD, GSA, and NASA are proposing to amend 48 CFR parts 2, 4, 7, 9, 12, 13, 17, 18, 19, 22, 25, 26, 28, 32, 44, and 52, as set forth below:
40 U.S.C. 121(c); 10 U.S.C. chapter 137; and 51 U.S.C. 20113.
(c) * * *
(2) Authorized generic DUNS numbers, maintained by the Integrated Award Environment (IAE) Business Operations Division program office (
The revisions read as follows.
(a) Prospective contractors shall be registered in the SAM database at the time an offer or quote is submitted in order to comply with the annual representations and certifications requirements (see FAR subpart 4.12) of a contract or agreement, except for—
(c) Contracting officers shall use the legal business name or “doing business as” name and physical address from the contractor's SAM registration for the provided DUNS number to identify the contractor in Schedule A of the contract, similar sections of non-uniform contract formats and agreements, and all corresponding forms and data exchanges. Contracting officers shall make no changes to the data from SAM.
(d)(1)(i) If a contractor has legally changed its business name or “doing business as” name (whichever is shown on the contract), or has transferred the assets used in performing the contract, but has not completed the necessary requirements regarding novation and change-of-name agreements in subpart 42.12, the contractor shall provide the responsible contracting officer a minimum of one business day's written notification of its intention to: Change the name in the SAM database; comply with the requirements of subpart 42.12; and agree in writing to the timeline and procedures specified by the responsible contracting officer. The contractor must provide with the notification sufficient documentation to support the legally changed name.
(a) Unless the acquisition is exempt under 4.1102, the contracting officer—
(1) Shall verify that the prospective contractor is registered in the SAM database (see paragraph (b) of this section) at the time of offer or quote submission;
(2) Should use the DUNS number or, if applicable, the DUNS+4 number, to verify SAM registration—
(i) Via the Internet via
(ii) As otherwise provided by agency procedures; and
(3) Need not verify SAM registration before placing an order or call if the contract or agreement includes the provision at 52.204-7 System for Award Management, or the clause at 52.212-4 Contract Terms and Conditions—Commercial Items, or a similar agency clause, except when use of the Governmentwide commercial purchase card is contemplated as a method of payment. (See 32.1108(b)(2)).
(b) If the contract action is being awarded pursuant to 4.1102(a)(5), or in a manner that considers other such instances of urgency, the contractor shall be registered in the SAM database within 30 days after contract award, or at least three days prior to submission of the first invoice, whichever occurs first.
(c) Agencies shall protect against improper disclosure of Contractor or offeror SAM information.
(d) The contracting officer shall, on contractual documents transmitted to the payment office, provide the DUNS number, or, if applicable, the DUNS+4, in accordance with agency procedures.
The revisions read as follows:
(a) * * *
(1) Operates the web-based System for Award Management (SAM) which contains Exclusions records; and
(c) Each agency must—
(1) Identify the individual(s) responsible for entering and updating exclusions data in SAM and assign the appropriate roles in SAM;
(2) Remove the exclusion roles in SAM when the individual leaves the organization or changes functions;
(3) For each Exclusion accomplished by the Agency enter the information required by paragraph (b) of this section within 3 working days after the action becomes effective;
(4) For each Exclusion accomplished by the Agency determine whether it is legally permitted to enter the SSN, EIN, or other TIN, under agency authority to suspend or debar;
(5) For each Exclusion accomplished by the Agency update the exclusion record in the SAM database, generally within 5 working days after modifying or rescinding an action;
(6) In accordance with internal retention procedures, maintain records relating to each debarment, suspension, or proposed debarment taken by the agency;
(7) Establish procedures to ensure that the agency does not solicit offers from, award contracts to, or consent to subcontracts with contractors who have an active exclusion record in the SAM database, except as otherwise provided in this subpart;
(8) Direct inquiries concerning listed contractors to the agency or other authority that took the action; and
(9) Contact GSA for technical assistance with SAM, via the support email address or on the technical support phone line available at the SAM Web site provided in paragraph (d) of this section.
(c) * * *
(5) The contractor does not have an active exclusion record in the System for Award Management Exclusions database (see FAR 9.405-1);
Contractors are not required to be registered in the System for Award Management (SAM) database for contracts awarded to support unusual or compelling needs or emergency operations (see 4.1102). However, contractors are required to be registered in the SAM database in order to gain access to the Disaster Response Registry. Contracting officers shall consult the Disaster Response Registry via
Persons or firms found to be in violation of the Service Contract Labor Standards statute will have an active exclusion record contained in the System for Award Management Exclusions database (see 9.404). * * *
(a) The head of an executive agency may not enter into or extend a contract for the procurement of goods or services with a person that exports certain sensitive technology to Iran, as determined by the President and is listed as being excluded in the System for Award Management database (see via
The revision reads as follows:
(c) An individual surety excluded pursuant to this subsection shall be entered in the System for Award Management Exclusions (see 9.404).
(a) * * *
(1) 52.232-33, Payment by Electronic Funds Transfer—System for Award
(a) * * *
(13) Is the proposed subcontractor listed as being excluded in the System for Award Management database (see subpart 9.4)?
The revisions read as follows.
(b)(1) By submission of an offer, the offeror acknowledges that the offeror is registered in the SAM database and the requirement that a prospective awardee shall continue to be registered at time of award, during performance, and through final payment of any contract, basic agreement, basic ordering agreement, or blanket purchasing agreement resulting from this solicitation.
(d) Processing time, which normally takes 48 hours, should be taken into consideration when registering. Offerors who are not registered in the SAM database should consider applying for registration immediately upon receipt of this solicitation. See
(b)(1) By submission of an offer, the offeror acknowledges that the offeror is registered in the SAM database and the requirement that a prospective awardee shall continue to be registered at time of award, during performance, and through final payment of any contract, basic agreement, basic ordering agreement, or blanket purchasing agreement resulting from this solicitation.
The revisions read as follows:
The revisions read as follows:
(c) * * *
(1) * * *
(i) If a Contractor has legally changed its business name or doing business as name (whichever is shown on the contract), or has transferred the assets used in performing the contract, but has not completed the necessary requirements regarding novation and change-of-name agreements in subpart 42.12, the Contractor shall provide the responsible Contracting Officer a minimum of one business day's written notification of its intention to—
The revision reads as follows:
The revision reads as follows:
(k)
The revision reads as follows:
(b) * * *
(2) The offeror has completed the annual representations and certifications electronically via the SAM Web site accessed through
The revised text reads as follows:
(t) * * * (1) Unless exempted by an addendum to this contract, the Contractor is responsible during performance and through final payment of any contract for the currency, accuracy and completeness of the data within the SAM database, and for any liability resulting from the Government's reliance on inaccurate or incomplete data. To remain registered in the SAM database after the initial registration, the Contractor is required to review and update on an annual basis from the date of initial registration or subsequent updates, its information in the SAM database to ensure it is current, accurate and complete. Updating information in the SAM does not alter the terms and conditions of this contract and is not a substitute for a properly executed contractual document.
(2)(i) If a Contractor has legally changed its business name or “doing business as” name (whichever is shown on the contract), or has transferred the assets used in performing the contract, but has not completed the necessary requirements regarding novation and change-of-name agreements in FAR subpart 42.12, the Contractor shall provide the responsible Contracting Officer a minimum of one business day's written notification of its intention to: change the name in the SAM database; comply with the requirements of subpart 42.12; and agree in writing to the timeline and procedures specified by the responsible Contracting Officer. The Contractor must provide with the notification sufficient documentation to support the legally changed name.
Fish and Wildlife Service, Interior.
Proposed rule; reopening of comment period.
We, the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (Service), announce the reopening of the public comment period on our October 17, 2012, proposed designation of critical habitat for three plant species (
(1)
(2)
We will post all comments we receive on
Mary Abrams, Field Supervisor, Pacific Islands Fish and Wildlife Office, 300 Ala Moana Boulevard, Room 3-122, Honolulu, HI 96850; by telephone at 808-792-9400; or by facsimile at 808-792-9581. Persons who use a
We will accept written comments and information during this reopened comment period on our proposed designation of critical habitat for
In particular we are seeking public comment on the areas that we are considering for exclusion from the final designation of critical habitat for
We are particularly interested in comments concerning whether the benefits of excluding any particular area from critical habitat outweigh the benefits of including that area as critical habitat under section 4(b)(2) of the Act (16 U.S.C. 1533(b)(2)), after considering the potential impacts and benefits of the proposed critical habitat designation. We are considering the possible exclusion of non-Federal lands, especially areas in private ownership, and whether the benefits of exclusion may outweigh the benefits of inclusion of those areas. We, therefore, request specific information on:
• The benefits of including any specific areas in the final designation and supporting rationale.
• The benefits of excluding any specific areas from the final designation and supporting rationale.
• Whether any specific exclusions may result in the extinction of the species and why.
For non-Federal lands in particular, we are interested in information regarding the potential benefits of including such lands in critical habitat versus the benefits of excluding such lands from critical habitat. In weighing the potential benefits of exclusion versus inclusion of non-Federal lands, the Service may consider whether existing partnership agreements provide for the management of the species. This consideration may include, for example, the status of conservation efforts, the effectiveness of any conservation agreements to conserve the species, and the likelihood of the conservation agreement's future implementation. In addition, we may consider the formation or fostering of partnerships with non-Federal entities that result in positive conservation outcomes for the species, as evidenced by the development of conservation agreements, as a potential benefit of exclusion. We request comment on the broad public benefits of encouraging collaborative efforts and encouraging local and private conservation efforts.
Our final determination concerning the designation of critical habitat for
If you submitted comments or information on the proposed rule (October 17, 2012; 77 FR 63928) during one of the three previous open comment periods from October 17, 2012, through December 17, 2012 (77 FR 63928), April 30, 2013, through May 30, 2013 (78 FR 25243), and July 2, 2013, through September 3, 2013 (78 FR 39698), or at the public information meeting or hearing on May 15, 2013 (78 FR 25243), please do not resubmit them. We will fully consider them in the preparation of our final determinations.
You may submit your comments by one of the methods listed in
Comments and materials we receive will be available for public inspection on
On October 17, 2012, we published a proposed rule (77 FR 63928) to list 15 species on the Hawaiian island of Hawaii as endangered species under the Act, to designate critical habitat for one of these species,
In our October 17, 2012, proposed rule (77 FR 63928), we announced a 60-day comment period, which began on October 17, 2012, and ended on December 17, 2012. On April 30, 2013, we announced the availability of the draft economic analysis on the proposed designation of critical habitat, and reopened the comment period on our proposed rule, the draft economic analysis, and amended required determinations for another 30 days, ending May 30, 2013 (78 FR 25243). On April 30, 2013, we also announced a public information meeting in Kailua-Kona, Hawaii, which we held on May 15, 2013, followed by a public hearing on that same day (78 FR 25243). On July 2, 2013, we announced the reopening of the comment period on the proposed designation of critical habitat and the draft economic analysis for an additional 60 days, through September 3, 2013 (78 FR 39698).
Section 3 of the Act defines critical habitat as the specific areas within the geographical area occupied by a species, at the time it is listed in accordance with the Act, on which are found those physical or biological features essential to the conservation of the species and that may require special management considerations or protection, and specific areas outside the geographical area occupied by a species at the time it is listed, upon a determination that such areas are essential for the conservation of the species. If the proposed rule is made final, section 7 of the Act will prohibit destruction or adverse modification of critical habitat by any activity funded, authorized, or carried out by any Federal agency unless it is exempted pursuant to the provisions of the Act (16 U.S.C. 1536(e)-(n) and (p)). Federal agencies proposing actions affecting critical habitat must consult with us on the effects of their proposed actions, under section 7(a)(2) of the Act.
Consistent with the best scientific data available, the standards of the Act, and our regulations, we initially identified and proposed a total of 18,766 ac (7,597 ha) in 7 units for three plant species located on the island of Hawaii, that meet the definition of critical habitat. In addition, the Act provides the Secretary with the discretion to exclude certain areas from the final designation after taking into consideration economic impacts, impacts on national security, and any other relevant impacts of specifying any particular area as critical habitat.
Section 4(b)(2) of the Act requires that we designate or revise critical habitat based upon the best scientific data available, after taking into consideration the economic impact, impact on national security, or any other relevant impact of specifying any particular area as critical habitat. The Secretary may exclude an area from critical habitat if she determines that the benefits of such exclusion outweigh the benefits of specifying such area as part of the critical habitat, unless she determines, based on the best scientific data available, that the failure to designate such area as critical habitat will result in the extinction of the species. In making that determination, the statute on its face, as well as the legislative history, are clear that the Secretary has broad discretion regarding which factor(s) to use and how much weight to give to any factor.
When considering the benefits of exclusion, we consider, among other things, whether exclusion of a specific area is likely to result in conservation; the continuation, strengthening, or encouragement of partnerships; or implementation of a management plan. In the case of
In considering whether to exclude a particular area from the designation, we identify the benefits of including the area in the designation, identify the benefits of excluding the area from the designation, and evaluate whether the benefits of exclusion outweigh the benefits of inclusion. If the analysis indicates that the benefits of exclusion outweigh the benefits of inclusion, the Secretary may exercise her discretion to exclude the area only if such exclusion will not result in the extinction of the species.
When identifying the benefits of inclusion for an area, we consider the additional regulatory benefits that area would receive due to the protection from destruction or adverse modification as a result of actions with a Federal nexus; the educational benefits of mapping essential habitat for recovery of the listed species; and any benefits that may result from a designation due to State or Federal laws that may apply to critical habitat. Additionally, continued implementation of a management plan that provides equal to or more conservation than a critical habitat designation would reduce the benefits of including that specific area in the critical habitat designation.
When identifying the benefits of exclusion, we consider, among other things, whether exclusion of a specific area is likely to result in conservation and the continuation, strengthening, or encouragement of partnerships.
When we evaluate a management plan during our consideration of the benefits of exclusion, we assess a variety of factors, including but not limited to, whether the plan is finalized, how it provides for the conservation of the essential physical or biological features, whether there is a reasonable expectation that the conservation management strategies and actions contained in a management plan will be implemented into the future, whether the conservation strategies in the plan are likely to be effective, and whether the plan contains a monitoring program or adaptive management to ensure that the conservation measures are effective and can be adapted in the future in response to new information.
After identifying the benefits of inclusion and the benefits of exclusion, we carefully weigh the two sides to evaluate whether the benefits of exclusion outweigh those of inclusion. If our analysis indicates that the benefits of exclusion outweigh the benefits of inclusion, we then determine whether exclusion would result in extinction of the species. If exclusion of an area from critical habitat will result in extinction, we will not exclude it from the designation.
Based on the information provided by entities seeking exclusion, as well as any additional public comments received, we will evaluate whether certain lands in proposed critical habitat Hawaii—Lowland Dry—Units 31, 32, 33, 34, and 35 are appropriate for exclusion from the final designation under section 4(b)(2) of the Act. If the analysis indicates that the benefits of excluding lands from the final designation outweigh the benefits of
In our October 17, 2012, proposed rule (77 FR 63928), we identified areas in four of the proposed critical habitat units for potential exclusion from the final critical habitat designation for
We are now considering whether to exclude additional areas. Table 2 below provides approximate areas (ac, ha) of the additional lands that meet the definition of critical habitat but are now under our consideration for possible exclusion under section 4(b)(2) of the Act from the final critical habitat rule. In the paragraphs that follow below, we provide a detailed analysis of our consideration of these additional lands for exclusion under section 4(b)(2) of the Act.
Under section 4(b)(2) of the Act, we consider any other relevant impacts, in addition to economic impacts and impacts on national security. We consider a number of factors including whether there are permitted conservation plans covering the species in the area such as habitat conservation plans, safe harbor agreements, or candidate conservation agreements with assurances, or whether there are non-permitted conservation agreements and partnerships that would be encouraged by designation of, or exclusion from, critical habitat. In addition, we look at the existence of tribal conservation plans and partnerships and consider the government-to-government relationship of the United States with tribal entities. We also consider any social impacts that might occur because of the designation.
We sometimes exclude specific areas from critical habitat designations based in part on the existence of private or other non-Federal conservation plans or agreements and their attendant partnerships. A conservation plan or agreement describes actions that are designed to provide for the conservation needs of a species and its habitat, and may include actions to reduce or mitigate negative effects on the species caused by activities on or adjacent to the area covered by the plan. Conservation plans or agreements can be developed by private entities with no Service involvement, or in partnership with the Service.
We evaluate a variety of factors to determine how the benefits of any exclusion and the benefits of inclusion are affected by the existence of private or other non-Federal conservation plans or agreements and their attendant partnerships when we undertake a discretionary section 4(b)(2) exclusion analysis. A non-exhaustive list of factors that we will consider for non-permitted plans or agreements is shown below. These factors are not required elements of plans or agreements, and all items may not apply to every plan or agreement.
(i) The degree to which the plan or agreement provides for the conservation of
(ii) Whether there is a reasonable expectation that the conservation management strategies and actions contained in a management plan or agreement will be implemented;
(iii) The demonstrated implementation and success of the chosen conservation measures;
(iv) The degree to which the record of the plan supports a conclusion that a critical habitat designation would impair the realization of benefits expected from the plan, agreement, or partnership;
(v) The extent of public participation in the development of the conservation plan;
(vi) The degree to which there has been agency review and required determinations (
(vii) Whether National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA; 42 U.S.C. 4321
(viii) Whether the plan or agreement contains a monitoring program and adaptive management to ensure that the conservation measures are effective and can be modified in the future in response to new information.
In the proposed rule (October 17, 2012; 77 FR 63928), we identified several specific areas under consideration for exclusion from critical habitat based on the landowner's conservation partnerships; these exclusions totaled approximately 4,099 ac (1,659 ha) of State land and private lands. The areas identified for potential exclusion, as detailed in our proposed rule, included lands owned or managed by Kamehameha Schools; Palamanui Global Holdings, LLC; Kaloko Properties Corp.; Lanihau Properties; SCD-TSA Kaloko Makai, LLC; TSA Corporation; and the Department of Hawaiian Homelands. We asked for public comment on the potential exclusions, and for information regarding the potential benefits of including private lands in critical habitat versus the benefits of excluding such lands from critical habitat. After publication of the proposed rule, three of these landowners (Palamanui Global Holdings, LLC; Lanihau Properties; and the Department of Hawaiian Homelands) signed memoranda of understanding with the Service covering actions beneficial to
In the October 17, 2012, proposed rule (77 FR 63928), we stated that we were considering the exclusion of 502 ac (203 ha) owned or managed by Palamanui Global Holdings, LLC (Palamanui). These lands fall within a portion of the 1,583 ac (640 ha) proposed as critical habitat in Hawaii—Lowland Dry—Unit 33; the proposed unit is occupied by
Subsequent to the publication of the October 17, 2012, proposed rule, Palamanui participated in a series of collaborative meetings with the Service, County of Hawaii, Department of Hawaiian Homelands, Department of Land and Natural Resources, and other stakeholders in proposed Critical Habitat Units 31, 33, 34, and 35, to address species protection and recovery and development on a regional scale. In 2015, Palamanui signed a memorandum of understanding (MOU) with the Service wherein they agreed to implement important conservation actions beneficial to
In the October 17, 2012, proposed rule (77 FR 63928), we considered the exclusion of 47 ac (19 ha) of land owned/managed by Lanihau Properties. These lands fall within a portion of the 961 ac (389 ha) proposed as critical habitat in Hawaii— Lowland Dry—Unit 34; the proposed unit is occupied by
Subsequent to the publication of the October 17, 2012, proposed rule, Lanihau Properties participated in a series of collaborative meetings along with the Service, County of Hawaii, Department of Hawaiian Homelands, Department of Land and Natural Resources, and other stakeholders in proposed Critical Habitat Units 31, 33, 34, and 35, to address species protection and recovery and development on a regional scale. In 2014, Lanihau Properties signed an MOU with the Service wherein they agreed to implement important conservation actions beneficial to
In the October 17, 2012, proposed rule (77 FR 63928), we announced we were considering the exclusion of 87 ac (35 ha) of lands owned by the Department of Hawaiian Home Lands (DHHL) out of the total 446 ac (181 ha) of DHHL land proposed as critical habitat. Based on a new MOU evidencing a more robust partnership with the Service, summarized below, and updated land ownership records that added approximately 46.5 ac (18.4 ha) to DHHL's land considered for exclusion, we are now considering the exclusion of 492 ac (199 ha) of lands owned by DHHL. These lands fall within portions of two proposed units. The DHHL owns 91 ac (30 ha) of the 1,583 ac (640 ha) proposed as critical habitat in Hawaii—Lowland Dry—Unit 33; this proposed unit is occupied by
The DHHL has worked in partnership with the Service to protect and restore endangered and threatened species and their habitats during the last 15 years on Hawaii Island. In December 2010, the Hawaiian Homes Commission adopted the “Aina Mauna Legacy Program,” a 100-year plan to reforest approximately 87 percent of a 56,200-ac (22,743-ha) contiguous parcel managed by DHHL on the eastern slope of Mauna Kea, Hawaii Island. Implementation of the Aina Mauna Legacy Program calls for removal of all feral ungulates from the Aina Mauna landscape and several restoration projects have been implemented to benefit endangered and threatened species and their habitats (DHHL 2009, pp. 19-21). Each of these projects received funding from the Service's Partners for Fish and Wildlife Program for 10-year landowner agreements to maintain the conservation actions, and includes multiple partners such as the State, National Wildlife Refuge System, and the Mauna Kea Watershed Alliance.
From 1996 to 2006, the DHHL acquired a total of approximately 685 ac (277 ha) at Laiopua, Kealakehe, and Keahuolu from the Hawaii Housing Finance Development Corporation (HHFDC, previously HCDCH) (Masagatani 2012, in litt.) and subsequently committed two parcels equaling approximately 40 ac (16 ha) for the development, management, and maintenance as preserves with the sole purpose of protecting of
Subsequent to the publication of the October 17, 2012, proposed rule, the DHHL participated in a series of collaborative meetings with the Service, County of Hawaii, Department of Land and Natural Resources, and other stakeholders in Units 31, 33, 34, and 35, to address species protection and recovery and development on a regional scale. In 2015, the DHHL signed an MOU with the Service for a conservation agreement expected to benefit the recovery of
We are considering excluding 1,758 ac (711 ha) of lands from critical habitat that are owned or managed by the Waikoloa Village Association (WVA). These lands include the majority of the 1,779 ac (720) proposed as critical habitat in Hawaii—Lowland Dry—Unit 32; the proposed unit is occupied by one of the three plant species,
We are considering exclusion of 165 ac (67 ha) of lands owned by the State of Hawaii that are under management of the County of Hawaii (County). These lands fall within a portion of the 1,192 ac (485 ha) proposed as critical habitat in Hawaii—Lowland Dry—Unit 35; the proposed unit is occupied by
Subsequent to the publication of the October 17, 2012, proposed rule, the County participated in a series of collaborative meetings with the Service, Department of Hawaiian Homelands, Department of Land and Natural Resources, and other stakeholders in Units 31, 33, 34, and 35, to address species protection and recovery and development on a regional scale. In 2015, the County signed an MOU with the Service wherein they agreed to implement important conservation actions beneficial to
We are considering exclusion of 30 ac (12 ha) of lands owned by the State of Hawaii that are under management of the Hawaii Housing Finance and Development Corporation (HHFDC). These lands fall within a portion of the 1,192 ac (485 ha) proposed as critical habitat in Hawaii—Lowland Dry—Unit 35; the proposed unit is occupied by
Subsequent to the publication of the proposed rule, HHFDC participated in a series of collaborative meetings with the Service, Department of Hawaiian Homelands, Department of Land and Natural Resources, and other stakeholders in Units 31, 33, 34, and 35, to address species protection and recovery and development on a regional scale. In 2016, HHFDC signed an MOU with the Service wherein they agreed to implement important conservation actions beneficial to
We are considering the exclusion of 265 ac (107 ha) of lands that are owned by Forest City Kona, LLC. These lands fall within a portion of the 1,192 ac (485 ha) proposed as critical habitat in Hawaii—Lowland Dry—Unit 35; the proposed unit is occupied by
Subsequent to the publication of the October 17, 2012, proposed rule, Forest City Kona participated in a series of collaborative meetings with the Service, Department of Hawaiian Homelands, Department of Land and Natural Resources, and other stakeholders in Units 31, 33, 34, and 35, to address species protection and recovery and development on a regional scale. In 2016, Forest City Kona signed an MOU with the Service wherein they agreed to implement important conservation actions beneficial to
In the October 17, 2012, proposed rule (77 FR 63928), we stated that we were not considering for exclusion lands owned by Queen Liliuokalani Trust (QLT) for the following reasons: (1) The conservation plans in place at the time only addressed actions related to
Since 2004, QLT has supported the conservation of federally listed species and their habitat in the lowland dry ecosystem, on their privately owned lands. In 2004, the QLT entered into an agreement with the Service's Partners for Fish and Wildlife Program to conduct research on the propagation of two endangered plants,
In addition to the agreements and commitments detailed above, QLT developed a culturally based service learning program that has involved over 1,300 beneficiaries, school groups, and other community members in removing invasive species. QLT continues to spend over $12,000 per year to control invasive species, such as fountain grass (
We are considering exclusion of these non-Federal lands because we believe
The final designation may not exclude these areas, or be limited to these exclusions, but may also consider other exclusions as a result of continuing analysis of relevant considerations (scientific, economic, and other relevant factors, as required by the Act) and the public comment process. In particular, we solicit comments from the public on whether to make the specific exclusions we are considering, and whether there are other areas that are appropriate for exclusion.
The final decision on whether to exclude any area will be based on the best scientific data available at the time of the final designation, including information obtained during the comment periods and information about the economic impact of the designation.
The primary authors of this document are the staff members of the Pacific Islands Fish and Wildlife Office, Pacific Region, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service.
The authority for this action is the Endangered Species Act of 1973, as amended (16 U.S.C. 1531
United States Agency for International Development.
Notice of meeting.
Pursuant to the Federal Advisory Committee Act, notice is hereby given of a meeting of the Advisory Committee on Voluntary Foreign Aid (ACVFA).
The Advisory Committee on Voluntary Foreign Aid (ACVFA) brings together USAID and private voluntary organization officials, representatives from universities, international nongovernment organizations, U.S. businesses, and government, multilateral, and private organizations to foster understanding, communication, and cooperation in the area of foreign aid.
USAID Administrator Gayle Smith will make opening remarks, followed by panel discussions among ACVFA members and USAID leadership on the applying the “New Model of Development” to Democracy, Governance and Human Rights efforts. Panel presentations will be followed by breakout groups for public consultation and input. The full meeting agenda will be forthcoming on the ACVFA Web site at
The meeting is free and open to the public. Registration information will be forthcoming on the ACVFA Web site at
Jayne Thomisee,
Forest Service, USDA.
Notice of plan amendment approval.
Forest Supervisor William A. Dunkelberger signed the final Record of Decision (ROD) for the Greater Sage-grouse Bi-state Distinct Population Segment Forest Plan Amendment (Amendment) on May 16, 2016. The final ROD documents the Forest Supervisor's decision and rationale for approving the plan amendment.
The effective date of the plan amendment is 30 calendar days after publication of this notice.
Humboldt-Toiyabe National Forest; 1200 Franklin Way, Sparks, NV 89431.
To view the final ROD, plan amendment, FEIS, and other related documents, please visit the Humboldt-Toiyabe Web site at
Further information about the Humboldt-Toiyabe National Forest plan amendment process can be obtained from James Winfrey during normal office hours (weekdays 8:00 a.m. to 4:30 p.m. at the Humboldt-Toiyabe National Forest Supervisor's Office.
The plan amendment describes desired conditions, objectives, standards and guidelines, to conserve, enhance, and/or restore sagebrush and associated habitats to provide for the longterm viability of the bi-state sage grouse. The amendment will guide project and activity decision making and resource management activities across bi-state sage grouse habitat on the Humboldt-Toiyabe National Forest.
Rural Utilities Service, USDA.
Notice and request for comments.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35, as amended), the United States Department of Agriculture's Rural Utilities Service (RUS), invites comments on this information collection for which the Agency intends to request approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB).
Comments on this notice must be received by July 19, 2016.
Thomas P. Dickson, Acting Director, Program Development and Regulatory Analysis, USDA Rural Utilities Service, 1400 Independence Avenue SW., STOP 1522, Room 5164-S, Washington, DC 20250-1522. Telephone: (202) 690-4492, FAX: (202) 720-8435. Email:
The Office of Management and Budget's (OMB) regulation (5 CFR 1320) implementing provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-13) requires that interested members of the public and affected agencies have an opportunity to comment on information collection and recordkeeping activities (see 5 CFR 1320.8(d)). This notice identifies an information collection that
Copies of this information collection can be obtained from Rebecca Hunt, Management Analyst, Program Development and Regulatory Analysis, at (202) 205-3660; FAX: (202) 720-8435.
All responses to this notice will be summarized and included in the request for OMB approval. All comments will also become a matter of public record.
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
On April 6, 2016, the United States Court of International Trade (the Court or the CIT) issued final judgment in
Effective April 18, 2016.
Michael J. Heaney or Robert James, AD/CVD Operations, Office VI, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 14th Street and Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-4475 or (202) 482-0649, respectively.
On March 12, 2012, the Department published its
On February 22, 2013, the Court remanded the matter.
Upon consideration of the
On March 29, 2016, we issued the
On April 6, 2016, the Court sustained the
In its decision in
Because there is now a final court decision, the Department amends the
For Foshan Shunde, the cash deposit rate will remain the rate established in the
In the event the Court's ruling is not appealed, or if appealed and upheld by the Federal Circuit, the Department will instruct U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) to assess antidumping duties on entries of the subject merchandise exported by Foshan Shunde using the revised assessment rate calculated by the Department in the
This notice is issued and published in accordance with sections 516(A)(e), 751(a)(1), and 777(i)(1) of the Act.
Notice of application for an amended Export Trade Certificate of Review by DFA of California (“DFA”), Application No. 14-3A004.
The Secretary of Commerce, through the International Trade Administration, Office of Trade and Economic Analysis (OTEA), has received an application for an amended Export Trade Certificate of Review (“Certificate”) from DFA. This notice summarizes the proposed amendment and seeks public comments on whether the amended Certificate should be issued.
Joseph E. Flynn, Director, Office of Trade and Economic Analysis, International Trade Administration, by telephone at (202) 482-5131 (this is not a toll-free number) or email at
Title III of the Export Trading Company Act of 1982 (15 U.S.C. Sections 4001-21) authorizes the Secretary of Commerce to issue Export Trade Certificates of Review. An Export Trade Certificate of Review protects the holder and the members identified in the Certificate from State and Federal government antitrust actions and from private treble damage antitrust actions for the export conduct specified in the Certificate and carried out in compliance with its terms and conditions. The regulations implementing Title III are found at 15 CFR part 325 (2016). Section 302(b)(1) of the Export Trading Company Act of 1982 and 15 CFR 325.6(a) require the Secretary to publish a notice in the
An original and five (5) copies, plus two (2) copies of the nonconfidential version, should be submitted no later than 20 days after the date of this notice to: Office of Trade and Economic Analysis, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, Room 21028, Washington, DC 20230.
Information submitted by any person is exempt from disclosure under the
1. Change the name of existing Member Diamond Foods, Inc. to Diamond Foods, LLC.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice; applications for four new scientific research permits, two permit modifications, and one permit renewal.
Notice is hereby given that NMFS has received seven scientific research permit application requests relating to Pacific salmon, steelhead, rockfish, sturgeon, and eulachon. The proposed research is intended to increase knowledge of species listed under the Endangered Species Act (ESA) and to help guide management and conservation efforts. The applications may be viewed online at:
Comments or requests for a public hearing on the applications must be received at the appropriate address or fax number (see
Written comments on the applications should be sent to the Protected Resources Division, NMFS, 1201 NE Lloyd Blvd., Suite 1100, Portland, OR 97232-1274. Comments may also be sent via fax to 503-230-5441 or by email to
Rob Clapp, Portland, OR (ph.: 503-231-2314), Fax: 503-230-5441, email:
The following listed species are covered in this notice:
Chinook salmon (
Steelhead (
Chum salmon (
Coho salmon (
Sockeye salmon (
Eulachon (
Green sturgeon (
Bocaccio (
Canary rockfish (
Yelloweye rockfish (
Scientific research permits are issued in accordance with section 10(a)(1)(A) of the ESA (16 U.S.C. 1531
Anyone requesting a hearing on an application listed in this notice should set out the specific reasons why a
The NMFS Northwest Fisheries Science Center (NWFSC) is seeking to renew a five-year research permit to annually take juvenile PS steelhead, HCS chum salmon, and PS/GB bocaccio and juvenile, sub-adult, and adult PS Chinook salmon. The NWFSC research may also cause them to take juvenile PS/GB canary rockfish, juvenile PS/GB yelloweye rockfish, and adult S eulachon—species for which there are currently no ESA take prohibitions. The purpose of the NWFSC study is to characterize how wild, juvenile PS Chinook salmon and various forage fish species use nearshore habitats in the oceanographic basins of the Puget Sound, the Straits of Juan de Fuca, and the San Juan Islands (Washington). The project would benefit the listed species by helping managers develop protection and restoration strategies and monitor the effects of recovery actions by determining if nearshore populations are increasing or decreasing. It would also help mangers establish baseline abundance/composition metrics and genetic structures for nearshore populations throughout Puget Sound. The NWFSC proposes to capture fish using beach seines, Nordic surface trawls, lampara nets, purse seines, and hook-and-line angling. Captured fish would be transferred to live-wells, mesh pens, or aerated buckets. They would then be identified to species, counted, measured to length, weighed, checked for tags and fin clips, fin clipped for genetic analysis, and released. The NWFSC researchers would intentionally kill a subset of the captured PS Chinook salmon: For juveniles, they would kill hatchery and natural-origin fish; for sub-adults, they would only kill listed hatchery fish that have had their adipose fins clipped. The purpose of this activity is to obtain coded-wire tags for hatchery release information, otoliths for saltwater entry information, scales for genetic analysis, tissue samples for chemistry analysis, and stomach contents for diet analysis. These analyses would help managers determine contaminant exposure levels in the listed fish and determine how that exposure relates to nearby land use. The work would also provide information on population distribution and timing. Any fish that are accidentally killed as an unintended result of the overall work would be used to replace any proposed intentional sacrifice.
The NWFSC is seeking to modify a five-year research permit to annually take juvenile and adult PS Chinook salmon, PS steelhead, HCS chum salmon, and PS/GB bocaccio. The NWFSC research may also cause them to take adult S eulachon and juvenile and adult PS/GB canary rockfish and PS/GB yelloweye rockfish—species for which there are currently no ESA take prohibitions. The modified permit would increase the amounts of take they are allotted and allow additional methods and procedures. Sampling would take place throughout the Puget Sound, the Strait of Juan de Fuca, and Hood Canal, Washington. The purposes of the study are to (1) determine how much genetic variation exists between coastal and PS/GB DPS populations of bocaccio, canary rockfish, and yelloweye rockfish; (2) monitor long-term survival, movement patterns, and recovery from barotrauma from a subset of ESA-listed rockfish; (3) study how the low dissolved oxygen concentrations within the Hood Canal region of Puget Sound may cause listed rockfish species to alter their patterns of movement and activity; and (4) investigate whether eelgrass bed characteristics (patch size and level of nearby urbanization) affect the relative quality of these habitats as nursery habitat for rockfishes in the Puget Sound. The research would benefit rockfish by addressing various concerns related to the management status and eventual recovery of these species by collecting the necessary biological, genetic, habitat, and movement behavior information. The NWFSC proposes to capture fish by (1) using hook and line equipment at depths of 50-100 meters; (2) using a hand net while SCUBA diving at depths up to 40 meters; and (3) using minnow traps and Standard Monitoring Units for the recruitment of Reef Fishes (SMURFs) in or near eelgrass beds. For the hook and line fishing, captured rockfish would be slowly reeled to the surface and returned to the water via rapid submersion techniques to reduce barotrauma. For the hand netting, juvenile rockfish would be processed either at the capture site or brought to the surface before being released by rapid submersion. All captured ESA-listed rockfish would be measured, sexed, have a tissue sample taken, floy tagged, and released. A subset of these bocaccio and yelloweye rockfish would have an external acoustic transmitter attached to track movement, activity, and survivorship. If an individual of these species is captured dead or deemed nonviable, it would be retained for genetic analysis. All other fish would be immediately released at the capture site. For the minnow traps and SMURFs, they would be brought to the surface; emptied into a tub of water; and the fish would be identified by species, enumerated, and released. The researchers do not propose to kill any of the listed fish being captured, but a small number may die as an unintended result of the activities.
The Coastal Watershed Institute (CWI) is seeking to modify a five-year research permit to annually take juvenile PS Chinook salmon, PS steelhead, and HCS chum salmon. The CWI research may also cause them to take adult S eulachon—a species for which there are currently no ESA take prohibitions. The modified permit would increase the amounts of take they are currently allotted. Sampling would take place in the Elwha River estuary, Washington. The purpose of the research is to examine ecological function in the Elwha River nearshore environment with respect to determining how that environment supports fish species. The researchers would look at the population structures, migration timing, and life history strategies among local salmonids (Chinook, chum, sea-run cutthroat, steelhead, and bull trout) and measure ecological indices as well. The research would benefit listed species by generating information on the species' habitat needs and response to the removal of the Elwha and Glines Canyon dams. The CWI proposes to capture fish using a beach seine. Captured fish would be identified by their lowest taxonomic level. Twenty individuals from each species would be measured and released. Salmonids would be scanned for fin clips and tags. The researchers do not propose to kill any listed fish being captured, but some may die as an inadvertent result of the research.
The University of Washington (UW) is seeking a three-year research permit to annually take juvenile PS Chinook salmon, PS steelhead, HCS chum salmon, and PS/GB bocaccio. The UW research may also cause them to take adult S eulachon and juvenile PS/GB canary rockfish and PS/GB yelloweye rockfish—species for which there are currently no ESA take prohibitions. Sampling would take place throughout the Puget Sound, Hood Canal, and Willapa Bay, Washington. The purpose
The Pacific Shellfish Institute (PSI) is seeking a three-year research permit to annually take juvenile CC and PS Chinook salmon, NC and PS steelhead, SONCC coho salmon, HCS chum salmon, and S green sturgeon. The PSI research may also cause them to take adult S eulachon—a species for which there are currently no ESA take prohibitions. Sampling would take place in Samish Bay (Puget Sound, Washington), Willapa Bay (Washington), and Humboldt Bay (California). The purposes of the study are to (1) measure and quantify the effect of shellfish culture on seagrass and its function as habitat for fish and invertebrates; (2) determine the distribution of, and spatial relationship between, existing shellfish culture and seagrass in several Pacific Northwest estuaries; and (3) synthesize data and parameterize production functions for higher trophic level species of interest (
The FRIENDS of the San Juans (FSJ) is seeking a five-year research permit to annually take juvenile PS Chinook salmon and PS steelhead in bays and intertidal zones around the San Juan Islands (Puget Sound, Washington). The FSJ research may also cause them to take adult S eulachon—a species for which there are currently no ESA take prohibitions. The purpose of the FSJ study is to assess fish utilization of shallow water and beach habitats before and after restoration activities. The research would benefit listed species by providing data for evaluating restoration project success. The FSJ proposes to capture fish using a beach seine. Captured fish would be identified to species, counted, measured to length (first 20 individuals of each species), and released. The researchers do not propose to kill any listed fish being captured, but a small number may die as an unintended result of the activities.
The UW is seeking a two-year research permit to annually take juvenile and adult OL sockeye salmon in Lake Ozette (northwest Washington). The purpose of the UW study is to investigate the interactions of native predators (
This notice is provided pursuant to section 10(c) of the ESA. NMFS will evaluate the applications, associated documents, and comments submitted to determine whether the applications meet the requirements of section 10(a) of the ESA and Federal regulations. The final permit decisions will not be made until after the end of the 30-day comment period. NMFS will publish notice of its final action in the
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice of a public meeting.
The New England Fishery Management Council (Council) is scheduling a public meeting of its
This meeting will be held on Wednesday, June 8, 2016 at 9:30 a.m., to view the agenda, see
The meeting will be held at the Hilton Garden Inn Boston Logan Airport, 100 Boardman Street, Boston, MA 02128; telephone: (617) 571-5478; fax: (617) 561-0798.
Thomas A. Nies, Executive Director, New England Fishery Management Council; telephone: (978) 465-0492.
The Committee will review the general workload for 2016 based on Council priorities and a draft action plan for
The Committee will give a brief update on the required five-year review of the limited access general category IFQ program as well as review Advisory Panel recommendations. Other business may be discussed.
This meeting is physically accessible to people with disabilities. Requests for sign language interpretation or other auxiliary aids should be directed to Thomas A. Nies, Executive Director, at 978-465-0492, at least 5 days prior to the meeting date.
16 U.S.C. 1801
National Telecommunications and Information Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce.
Notice of open meeting.
The National Telecommunications and Information Administration (NTIA) will convene a meeting of a privacy multistakeholder process concerning the commercial use of facial recognition technology on June 15, 2016.
The meeting will be held on June 15, 2016 from 1:00 p.m. to 5:00 p.m., Eastern Time. See
The meeting will be held in the Boardroom at the American Institute of Architects, 1735 New York Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20006.
Travis Hall, National Telecommunications and Information Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Room 4725, Washington, DC 20230; telephone (202) 482-3522; email
National Telecommunications and Information Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce.
Notice of open meeting.
This notice announces a public meeting of the Commerce Spectrum Management Advisory Committee (Committee). The Committee provides advice to the Assistant Secretary of Commerce for Communications and Information and the National Telecommunications and Information Administration (NTIA) on spectrum management policy matters.
The meeting will be held on June 8, 2016, from 1:00 p.m. to 4:00 p.m., Eastern Daylight Time (EDT).
The meeting will be held at Wilkinson Barker Knauer, LLP, 1800 M Street NW., Suite 800N, Washington, DC 20036. Public comments may be mailed to Commerce Spectrum Management Advisory Committee, National Telecommunications and Information Administration, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Room 4600, Washington, DC 20230 or emailed to
David J. Reed, Designated Federal Officer, at (202) 482-5955 or
NTIA will post a detailed agenda on its Web site,
Committee for Purchase From People Who Are Blind or Severely Disabled.
Addition to and Deletions from the Procurement List.
This action adds a service to the Procurement List that will be provided by a nonprofit agency employing persons who are blind or have other severe disabilities, and deletes products and a service from the Procurement List previously furnished by such agencies.
Effective June 19, 2016.
Committee for Purchase From People Who Are Blind or Severely Disabled, 1401 S. Clark Street, Suite 715, Arlington, Virginia 22202-4149.
Patricia Briscoe, Telephone: (703) 603-7740, Fax: (703) 603-0655, or email
On 7/2/2015 (80 FR 38179), the Committee for Purchase From People Who Are Blind or Severely Disabled published notice of proposed addition to the Procurement List.
After consideration of the material presented to it concerning capability of qualified nonprofit agencies to provide the service and impact of the addition on the current or most recent contractors, the Committee has determined that the service listed below is suitable for procurement by the Federal Government under 41 U.S.C. 8501-8506 and 41 CFR 51-2.4.
I certify that the following action will not have a significant impact on a substantial number of small entities. The major factors considered for this certification were:
1. The action will not result in any additional reporting, recordkeeping or other compliance requirements for small entities other than the small organization that will provide the service to the Government.
2. The action will result in authorizing small entities to provide the service to the Government.
3. There are no known regulatory alternatives which would accomplish the objectives of the Javits-Wagner-O'Day Act (41 U.S.C. 8501-8506) in connection with the service proposed for addition to the Procurement List.
Accordingly, the following service is added to the Procurement List:
On 4/8/2016 (81 FR 20624) and 4/15/2016 (81 FR 22239), the Committee for Purchase From People Who Are Blind or Severely Disabled published notices of proposed deletions from the Procurement List.
After consideration of the relevant matter presented, the Committee has determined that the products and service listed below are no longer suitable for procurement by the Federal Government under 41 U.S.C. 8501-8506 and 41 CFR 51-2.4.
I certify that the following action will not have a significant impact on a substantial number of small entities. The major factors considered for this certification were:
1. The action will not result in additional reporting, recordkeeping or other compliance requirements for small entities.
2. The action may result in authorizing small entities to furnish the products and service to the Government.
3. There are no known regulatory alternatives which would accomplish the objectives of the Javits-Wagner-O'Day Act (41 U.S.C. 8501-8506) in connection with the products and service deleted from the Procurement List.
Accordingly, the following products and service are deleted from the Procurement List:
Committee for Purchase From People Who Are Blind or Severely Disabled.
Proposed Additions to and Deletion from the Procurement List.
The Committee is proposing to add products and services to the Procurement List that will be furnished by nonprofit agencies employing persons who are blind or have other severe disabilities, and deletes a service previously furnished by such agency.
Comments must be received on or before 6/19/2016.
Committee for Purchase From People Who Are Blind or Severely Disabled, 1401 S. Clark Street, Suite 715, Arlington, Virginia 22202-4149.
For further information or to submit comments contact: Patricia Briscoe, Telephone: (703) 603-7740, Fax: (703) 603-0655, or email
This notice is published pursuant to 41 U.S.C. 8503(a)(2) and 41 CFR 51-2.3. Its purpose is to provide interested persons an opportunity to submit comments on the proposed actions.
If the Committee approves the proposed additions, the entities of the Federal Government identified in this notice will be required to procure the products and services listed below from nonprofit agencies employing persons who are blind or have other severe disabilities.
The following products and services are proposed for addition to the Procurement List for production by the nonprofit agencies listed:
The following service is proposed for deletion from the Procurement List:
Army & Air Force Exchange Service (Exchange), DoD.
Notice.
In compliance with the
Consideration will be given to all comments received by July 19, 2016.
You may submit comments, identified by docket number and title, by any of the following methods:
•
•
Any associated form(s) for this collection may be located within this same electronic docket and downloaded for review/testing. Follow the instructions at
To request more information on this proposed information collection or to obtain a copy of the proposal and associated collection instruments, please write to the Army and Air Force Exchange Service, Office of the General Counsel, Compliance Division, Attn: Teresa Schreurs, 3911 South Walton Walker Blvd., Dallas, TX 75236-1598 or call the Exchange Compliance Division at 800-967-6067.
Respondents are Exchange employees, family members, customers, guests, visitors, and members of the public who have been involved in incidences relative to damage to Exchange property or facilities, have been suspected of shoplifting or theft or have been injured
U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, DoD.
Notice.
Section 7001 of Water Resources Reform and Development Act (WRRDA) 2014 requires that the Secretary of the Army to annually submit to the Congress a report (Annual Report) that identifies feasibility reports, proposed feasibility studies submitted by non-Federal interests, and proposed modifications to an authorized water resources development project or feasibility study that meet certain criteria. The Annual Report is to be based, in part, upon requests for proposals submitted by non-Federal interests.
Proposals must be submitted online by September 19, 2016.
Submit proposals online at:
Send an email to the help desk at
Section 7001 of WRRDA 2014 requires the publication of a notice in the
Proposals by non-Federal interests must be entered online and require the following information:
1. The name of all non-Federal interests planning to act as the sponsor, including any non-Federal interest that has contributed to or is expected to contribute toward the non-Federal share of the proposed feasibility study or modification.
2. State if this proposal is for a feasibility study or a modification to an authorized USACE water resources development project or feasibility study and, if a modification, specify the authorized water resources development project or study that is proposed for modification.
3. State the specific project purpose(s) of the proposed study or modification.
4. Provide an estimate, to the extent practicable, of the total cost, and the Federal and non-Federal share of those costs, of the proposed study and, separately, an estimate of the cost of construction or modification.
5. Describe, to the extent applicable and practicable, an estimate of the anticipated monetary and non-monetary benefits of the proposal with regard to benefits to the protection of human life and property; improvement to transportation; the national economy; the environment; or the national security interests of the United States.
6. Describe if local support exists for the proposal.
7. State if the non-Federal interest has the financial ability to provide for the required cost share, reference ER 1105-2-100.
8. Upload a letter or statement of support from each associated non-Federal interest.
All provided information may be included in the Annual Report to Congress on Future Water Resources Development. Therefore, information that is Confidential Business Information; information that should not be disclosed because of statutory restrictions; or other information that a non-Federal interest would not want to appear in the Annual Report should not be included.
1. Are related to the missions and authorities of the USACE;
Involves a proposed or existing USACE water resources project or effort whose primary purpose is flood and storm damage reduction, commercial navigation, or aquatic ecosystem restoration. Following long-standing USACE practice, related proposals such as for recreation, hydropower, or water supply, are eligible for inclusion if undertaken in conjunction with such a project or effort.
2. Require specific congressional authorization, including by an Act of Congress;
This is envisioned to comprise the following cases:
a. SEEKING CONSTRUCTION AUTHORIZATION.
• Signed Chief's Reports or non-Federal feasibility reports submitted to the Secretary of the Army under Section 203 of WRDA 1986, as amended, under review,
• Signed Chief's Report or non-Federal feasibility reports not yet submitted to the Secretary of the Army under Section 203 of WRDA 1986, as amended,
• Ongoing feasibility studies that are expected to result in a Chief's Report, and
• Proposed modifications to authorized water resources development projects requested by non-Federal interests through the Section 7001 of WRRDA 2014 process.
b. SEEKING STUDY AUTHORIZATION.
• New feasibility studies proposed by non-Federal interests through the Section 7001 of WRRDA 2014 process will be evaluated by the USACE to determine whether or not there is existing study authority, and
• Proposed modifications to studies requested by non-Federal interests through the Section 7001 of WRRDA 2014 process.
c. The following cases are NOT CONSIDERED ELIGIBLE to be included in the Annual Report and will be included in the appendix for transparency:
• Proposals for modifications to non-Federal activities where USACE has provided previous technical assistance. Examples of this type of work include the various environmental infrastructure programs. Authorization to provide technical assistance does not provide authorization of a water resources development project.
• Proposals for construction of a new water resources development project that is not the subject of a currently
• Proposals that do not include a request for a potential future water resources development project through completed feasibility reports, proposed feasibility studies, and proposed modifications to authorized projects or studies.
d. For proposals seeking new construction authorization, CONSTRUCTION ON ANY PROJECT IN THE ANNUAL REPORT TABLE CANNOT PROCEED UNTIL Congress authorizes and funds the project.
3. Have not been congressionally authorized;
4. Have not been included in the Annual Report table of any previous Annual Report to Congress on Future Water Resources Development; and
• If the proposal was included in the Annual Report table in a previous Report to Congress on Future Water Resources Development, then the proposal is not eligible to be included in the Annual Report table. If a proposal was previously included in an appendix it may be re-submitted.
5. If authorized, could be carried out by the USACE.
• Whether following the USACE Chief's Report process or Section 7001 of WRRDA 2014, a proposal for a project or a project modification would need a current decision document to provide updated information on the scope of the potential project and demonstrate a clear Federal interest. This determination would include an assessment of whether the proposal is:
Feasibility study proposals submitted by non-Federal interests are for the study only. If Congressional authorization of a feasibility study results from inclusion in the Annual Report, it is anticipated that such authorization would be for the study not for construction. Once a decision document is completed in accordance with Executive Branch policies and procedures, the Secretary will determine whether to recommend the project for authorization.
Section 902 of WRDA 1986 establishes a maximum authorized cost for projects (902 limit). A Post Authorization Change Report (PACR) is required to be completed to support potential modifications, updates to project costs, and an increase to the 902 limit. Authority to undertake a 902 study is inherent in the project authority, so no authority is required to proceed with the study. Since these PACRs support project modifications, they may be considered for inclusion in the Annual Report if a report's recommendation requires Congressional authorization.
The Secretary shall include in the Annual Report to Congress on Future Water Resources Development a certification stating that each feasibility report, proposed feasibility study, and proposed modification to an authorized water resources development project or feasibility study included in the Annual Report meets the criteria established in Section 7001 of WRRDA 2014.
Please contact the appropriate district office or use the contact information above for assistance in researching and identifying existing authorizations and existing USACE decision documents. Those proposals that do not meet the criteria will be included in an appendix table included in the Annual Report to Congress on Future Water Resources Development. Proposals in the appendix table will include a description of why those proposals did not meet the criteria.
Federal Student Aid (FSA), Department of Education (ED).
Notice.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. chapter 3501
Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before June 20, 2016.
To access and review all the documents related to the information collection listed in this notice, please use
For specific questions related to collection activities, please contact Beth Grebeldinger, 202-377-4018.
The Department of Education (ED), in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)), provides the general public and Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps the Department assess the impact of its information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand the Department's information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format. ED is soliciting comments on the proposed information collection request (ICR) that is described below. The Department of Education is especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) Is this collection necessary to the proper functions of the Department; (2) will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) how might the Department enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) how might the Department minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology. Please note that written comments received in response to this notice will be considered public records.
Take notice that the following hydroelectric application has been filed with the Commission and is available for public inspection.
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b.
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i.
j. Deadline for filing motions to intervene, protests, comments, recommendations, preliminary terms and conditions, and preliminary prescriptions: 60 days from the issuance date of this notice; reply comments are due 105 days from the issuance date of this notice.
The Commission strongly encourages electronic filing. Please file motions to intervene, protests, comments, recommendations, preliminary terms and conditions, and preliminary prescriptions using the Commission's eFiling system at
The Commission's Rules of Practice require all intervenors filing documents with the Commission to serve a copy of that document on each person on the official service list for the project. Further, if an intervenor files comments or documents with the Commission relating to the merits of an issue that may affect the responsibilities of a particular resource agency, they must also serve a copy of the document on that resource agency.
k. This application has been accepted for filing and is now ready for environmental analysis.
l.
The existing project consists of: (1) A 894.7-foot-long, 46.0-foot-high dam that includes: (a) A 202-foot-long, 15-foot-high earth embankment section with a concrete core wall; (b) a 244-foot-long, 32-foot-high stone masonry and concrete spillway section with six 32.5-foot-wide, 20.5-foot-high Tainter gates; (c) a 71.3-foot-long, 19.5-foot-high stone masonry and concrete abutment section; (d) a 203.3-foot-long, 26.5-foot-high stone masonry and concrete stanchion bay section with two 65.9-foot-wide, 17.5-foot-high and one 46.8-foot-wide, 17.5-foot-high stanchion bays; (e) a 27-foot-long, 46-foot-high bulkhead section with a 20.5-foot-wide, 7.0-foot-high surface weir gate and a 6.0-foot-wide, 12.3-foot-high Tainter gate at the upstream end of a 162-foot-long, 14-foot-wide steel-lined sluiceway; (f) a 95.5-foot-wide, 45.5- to 49.4-foot-high intake and powerhouse section with four headgates and two double-bay trashracks with 3.5-inch clear-bar spacing; and (g) a 51.6-foot-long, 10.5-foot-high concrete cut-off wall; (2) a 400-acre impoundment with a gross storage volume of 4,575 acre-feet and a useable storage volume of 2,065 acre-feet at a normal maximum elevation of 320 feet National Geodetic Vertical Datum; (3) a 40.5-foot-wide, 105.5-foot-long concrete powerhouse that is integral with the dam and contains two turbine-generator units rated at 6 and 7 MW; (4) a 6,000-foot-long, 150- to 175-foot-wide excavated tailrace; (5) a 200-foot-long generator lead and a 310-foot-long generator lead that connect the turbine-generator units to the regional grid; and (6) appurtenant facilities.
The Williams Project operates in a store-and-release mode where the impoundment level is fluctuated up to 6 feet on a daily basis to re-regulate inflow from upstream hydroelectric projects, maintain downstream flow, and meet peak demands for hydroelectric generation. The existing license requires an instantaneous minimum flow of 1,360 cubic feet per second, or inflow (whichever is less), in the tailrace. White Pine Hydro proposes to install an upstream eel passage facility, improve a canoe portage, and improve angler access. White Pine Hydro also proposes to remove 375.5 acres of land and water from the existing project boundary because it does not serve a project purpose.
m. A copy of the application is available for review at the Commission in the Public Reference Room or may be viewed on the Commission's Web site at
Register online at
n. Anyone may submit comments, a protest, or a motion to intervene in accordance with the requirements of Rules of Practice and Procedure, 18 CFR 385.210, .211, and .214. In determining the appropriate action to take, the Commission will consider all protests or other comments filed, but only those who file a motion to intervene in accordance with the Commission's Rules may become a party to the proceeding. Any comments, protests, or motions to intervene must be received on or before the specified comment date for the particular application.
o.
p. Final amendments to the application must be filed with the Commission no later than 30 days from the issuance date of this notice.
q. A license applicant must file no later than 60 days following the date of issuance of the notice of acceptance and ready for environmental analysis provided for in 18 CFR 5.22: (1) A copy of the water quality certification; (2) a copy of the request for certification, including proof of the date on which the certifying agency received the request; or (3) evidence of waiver of water quality certification.
The staff of the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (FERC or Commission) will prepare an environmental assessment (EA) that will discuss the environmental impacts of the Eastern System Upgrade Project (ESU Project) involving construction and operation of facilities by Millennium Pipeline Company, LLC (Millennium) in Sullivan, Delaware, Orange, and Rockland Counties, New York. The Commission will use this EA in its decision-making process to determine whether the ESU Project is in the public convenience and necessity.
This notice announces the opening of the scoping process the Commission will use to gather input from the public and interested agencies on the ESU Project. You can make a difference by providing us with your specific comments or concerns about the ESU Project. Your comments should focus on the potential environmental effects, reasonable alternatives, and measures to avoid or lessen environmental impacts. Your input will help the Commission staff determine what issues they need to evaluate in the EA. To ensure that your comments are timely and properly recorded, please send your comments so that the Commission receives them in Washington, DC on or before June 10, 2016.
If you sent comments on the ESU Project to the Commission before the opening of this docket on January 19, 2016, you will need to file those comments in Docket No. PF16-3-000 to ensure they are considered as part of this proceeding.
This notice is being sent to the Commission's current environmental mailing list for the ESU Project. State and local government representatives should notify their constituents of this planned project and encourage them to comment on their areas of concern.
If you are a landowner receiving this notice, a pipeline company representative may contact you about the acquisition of an easement to construct, operate, and maintain the planned facilities. The company would seek to negotiate a mutually acceptable agreement. However, if the Commission approves the ESU Project, that approval conveys with it the right of eminent domain. Therefore, if easement negotiations fail to produce an agreement, the pipeline company could initiate condemnation proceedings where compensation would be determined in accordance with state law.
A fact sheet prepared by the FERC entitled “An Interstate Natural Gas Facility On My Land? What Do I Need To Know?” is available for viewing on the FERC Web site (
For your convenience, there are three methods you can use to submit your comments to the Commission. The Commission will provide equal consideration to all comments received, whether filed in written form or provided verbally. The Commission encourages electronic filing of comments and has expert staff available to assist you at (202) 502-8258 or
(1) You can file your comments electronically using the
(2) You can file your comments electronically by using the
(3) You can file a paper copy of your comments by mailing them to the following address. Be sure to reference the ESU Project docket number (PF16-3-000) with your submission: Kimberly D. Bose, Secretary, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Room 1A, Washington, DC 20426
Millennium plans to construct and operate about 7.8 miles of 30- and 36-inch-diameter pipeline loop
The ESU Project would consist of the following facilities in New York:
• Approximately 7.8 miles of new 30- and 36-inch-diameter pipeline loop to be located generally adjacent to Millennium's existing mainline in Orange County;
• a new 22,400-horsepower compressor station in Sullivan County;
• an additional 22,400 horsepower of compression at the existing Hancock Compressor Station in Delaware County;
• modifications at the existing Ramapo Meter Station in Rockland County;
• modifications at the existing Huguenot and Westtown Meter Stations in Orange County; and
• construction of an interconnect to Millennium's proposed Valley Lateral Pipeline.
Construction of the planned facilities would disturb about 199.6 acres of land for the aboveground facilities and the pipeline loop. Millennium would maintain about 51.0 acres for permanent operation of the ESU Project's facilities following construction; the remaining acreage would be restored and revert to former uses. Most of the pipeline loop would be located within Millennium's existing easements, offset about 25 feet from Millennium's existing pipeline.
The National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) requires the Commission to take into account the environmental impacts that could result from an action whenever it considers the issuance of a Certificate of Public Convenience and Necessity. NEPA also requires us
In the EA we will discuss impacts that could occur as a result of the construction and operation of the planned project under these general headings:
• Geology and soils;
• land use;
• water resources, fisheries, and wetlands;
• cultural resources;
• vegetation and wildlife, including migratory birds;
• air quality and noise;
• endangered and threatened species;
• public safety; and
• cumulative impacts.
We will also evaluate possible alternatives to the planned ESU Project or portions of the project, and make recommendations on how to lessen or avoid impacts on the various resource areas.
Although no formal application has been filed, we have already initiated our NEPA review under the Commission's pre-filing process. The purpose of the pre-filing process is to encourage early involvement of interested stakeholders and to identify and resolve issues before the FERC receives an application. As part of our pre-filing review, we have begun to contact some federal and state agencies to discuss their involvement in the scoping process and the preparation of the EA.
The EA will present our independent analysis of the issues and will be available in the public record through eLibrary. Depending on the comments received during the scoping process, we may also publish and distribute the EA to the public for an allotted comment period. We will consider all comments on the EA before we make our recommendations to the Commission. To ensure we have the opportunity to consider and address your comments, please carefully follow the instructions in the Public Participation section, beginning on page 2.
With this notice, we are asking agencies with jurisdiction by law and/or special expertise with respect to the environmental issues related to this project to formally cooperate with us in the preparation of the EA.
In accordance with the Advisory Council on Historic Preservation's implementing regulations for section 106 of the National Historic Preservation Act, we are using this notice to initiate consultation with the New York State Historic Preservation Office (SHPO), and to solicit their views and those of other government agencies, interested Indian tribes, and the public on the ESU Project's potential effects on
The environmental mailing list includes federal, state, and local government representatives and agencies; elected officials; environmental and public interest groups; Native American Tribes; other interested parties; and local libraries and newspapers. This list also includes all affected landowners (as defined in the Commission's regulations) who are potential right-of-way grantors, whose property may be used temporarily for project purposes, or who own homes within certain distances of aboveground facilities, and anyone who submits comments on the ESU Project. We will update the environmental mailing list as the analysis proceeds to ensure that we send the information related to this environmental review to all individuals, organizations, and government entities interested in and/or potentially affected by the planned project.
Copies of the EA will be sent to the environmental mailing list for public review and comment. If you would prefer to receive a paper copy of the document instead of the CD version or would like to remove your name from the mailing list, please return the attached Information Request (see appendix 2).
Once Millennium files its application with the Commission, you may want to become an “intervenor” which is an official party to the Commission's proceeding. Intervenors play a more formal role in the process and are able to file briefs, appear at hearings, and be heard by the courts if they choose to appeal the Commission's final ruling. An intervenor formally participates in the proceeding by filing a request to intervene. Instructions for becoming an intervenor are in the User's Guide under the “e-filing” link on the Commission's Web site. Please note that the Commission will not accept requests for intervenor status at this time. You must wait until the Commission receives a formal application for the ESU Project.
Additional information about the ESU Project is available from the Commission's Office of External Affairs, at (866) 208-FERC, or on the FERC Web site (
In addition, the Commission offers a free service called eSubscription which allows you to keep track of all formal issuances and submittals in specific dockets. This can reduce the amount of time you spend researching proceedings by automatically providing you with notification of these filings, document summaries, and direct links to the documents. Go to
On Wednesday, June 1, 2016, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission staff will hold a technical conference to discuss cultural resources related to the following six proposed hydroelectric projects to be located on the Monongahela River: Opekiska Lock and Dam Hydroelectric Project No. 13753, Morgantown Lock and Dam Hydroelectric Project No. 13762, Gray's Landing Lock and Dam Hydroelectric Project No. 13763, Maxwell Lock and Dam Hydroelectric Project No. 13766, Monongahela Lock and Dam Number Four Hydroelectric Project No. 13767, and Point Marion Lock and Dam Hydroelectric Project No. 13771.
The technical conference will begin at 1:00 p.m. Eastern Daylight Time. The conference will be held at the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission headquarters building located at 888 1st Street NE., Washington, DC, and will include teleconference capabilities.
All local, state, and federal agencies, Indian tribes, and other interested parties are invited to participate. There will be no transcript of the conference, but a summary of the meeting will be prepared for the project record. If you are interested in participating in the meeting you must contact Allyson Conner at (202) 502-6082 or
Commission conferences are accessible under section 508 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973. For accessibility accommodations, please send an email to
For more information about this technical conference, please contact: Sarah McKinley, Office of External Affairs, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426, (202) 502-8368,
On May 9, 2016, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission staff held a technical conference to discuss issues
For more information, please contact Anna Fernandez at
On December 1, 2015, Paulsboro Natural Gas Pipeline Company, LLC (Paulsboro) filed an application in Docket No. CP16-27-000 requesting authorization and a Certificate of Public Convenience and Necessity pursuant to Section 7(b) and 7(c) of the Natural Gas Act (NGA) to abandon, construct, and operate certain natural gas pipeline facilities. The proposed project is known as the Delaware River Pipeline Relocation Project (Project).
On December 11, 2015, the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (Commission or FERC) issued its Notice of Application for the Project. Among other things, that notice alerted agencies issuing federal authorizations of the requirement to complete all necessary reviews and to reach a final decision on a request for a federal authorization within 90 days of the date of issuance of the Commission staff's Environmental Assessment (EA) for the Project. This instant notice identifies the FERC staff's planned schedule for the completion of the EA for the Project.
If a schedule change becomes necessary, additional notice will be provided so that the relevant agencies are kept informed of the Project's progress.
Paulsboro proposes to abandon about 2.4 miles of 6- and 8-inch-diameter natural gas pipeline extending across the Delaware River between Delaware County, Pennsylvania and Gloucester County, New Jersey. Paulsboro would replace the abandoned pipeline with 2.6 miles of 12- and 24-inch-diameter pipeline installed under the Delaware River using the horizontal directional drill method. The purpose of the Project is to facilitate the United States Army Corps of Engineers' dredging activities for the Delaware River Main Channel Deepening Project (45-Foot Project). The Project would increase natural gas transportation capacity from 38 million standard cubic feet per day (MMScf/d) to 57.7 MMScf/d to the sole customer served by the pipeline, Paulsboro Refining Company, LLC.
On January 19, 2016, the Commission issued a
In response to the NOI, the Commission received comments from Consolidated Rail Corporation, Delaware Riverkeeper Network, New Jersey Department of Environmental Protection, New Jersey State Historic Preservation Office, and Pennsylvania State Historic Preservation Office. The primary issues raised by the commentors included state permit requirements and environmental compliance; potential impacts on cultural and natural resources; cumulative impacts; pipeline safety; future upgrades of Paulsboro's facilities and systems; and natural gas production methods.
The Federal Aviation Administration, U.S. Coast Guard, and U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, Philadelphia District are cooperating agencies in the preparation of the EA.
In order to receive notification of the issuance of the EA and to keep track of all formal issuances and submittals in specific dockets, the Commission offers a free service called eSubscription. This can reduce the amount of time you spend researching proceedings by automatically providing you with notification of these filings, document summaries, and direct links to the documents. Go to
Additional information about the Project is available from the Commission's Office of External Affairs at (866) 208-FERC or on the FERC Web site (
Take notice that on May 9, 2016, Tricon Energy Ltd. (Tricon) and Rockbriar Partners Inc. (Rockbriar) (collectively, Complainants) filed a protest, complaint, and motion to intervene in response to Colonial Pipeline Company's (Colonial or Respondent) tariff filing in Docket No. IS16-259-000. The motion to intervene and protest portion of Tricon's and Rockbriar's pleading was placed in the IS16-259-000 docket. The complaint portion of Tricon's and Rockbriar's pleading is being separately docketed in the proceeding captioned above.
Tricon and Rockbriar assert that Colonial is attempting to enforce a shipper history transfer policy that is not in the tariff that locks out New
The Complainants certifies that copies of the complaint were served on the Respondents.
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest this filing must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214). Protests will be considered by the Commission in determining the appropriate action to be taken, but will not serve to make protestants parties to the proceeding. Any person wishing to become a party must file a notice of intervention or motion to intervene, as appropriate. The Respondent's answer and all interventions, or protests must be filed on or before the comment date. The Respondent's answer, motions to intervene, and protests must be served on the Complainants.
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper using the “eFiling” link at
Take notice that on May 11, 2016, pursuant to section 219 of the Federal Power Act,
Reg. 43,294 (July 31, 2006); FERC Stats. & Regs. ¶ 31,222 (2006) (“
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest this filing must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214). Protests will be considered by the Commission in determining the appropriate action to be taken, but will not serve to make protestants parties to the proceeding. Any person wishing to become a party must file a notice of intervention or motion to intervene, as appropriate. Such notices, motions, or protests must be filed on or before the comment date. Anyone filing a motion to intervene or protest must serve a copy of that document on the Petitioner.
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper using the “eFiling” link at
This filing is accessible on-line at
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
Description: Section 205(d) Rate Filing: Category 2 Notice re Central Region to be effective 5/14/2016.
Take notice that the Commission received the following qualifying facility filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
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l. With this notice, we are designating New York State Electric & Gas
m. New York State Electric & Gas Corporation filed with the Commission a Pre-Application Document (PAD; including a proposed process plan and schedule), pursuant to 18 CFR 5.6 of the Commission's regulations.
n. A copy of the PAD is available for review at the Commission in the Public Reference Room or may be viewed on the Commission's Web site (
Register online at
o. With this notice, we are soliciting comments on the PAD and Commission's staff Scoping Document 1 (SD1), as well as study requests. All comments on the PAD and SD1, and study requests should be sent to the address above in paragraph h. In addition, all comments on the PAD and SD1, study requests, requests for cooperating agency status, and all communications to and from Commission staff related to the merits of the potential application must be filed with the Commission.
The Commission strongly encourages electronic filing. Please file all documents using the Commission's eFiling system at
All filings with the Commission must bear the appropriate heading: “Comments on Pre-Application Document,” “Study Requests,” “Comments on Scoping Document 1,” “Request for Cooperating Agency Status,” or “Communications to and from Commission Staff.” Any individual or entity interested in submitting study requests, commenting on the PAD or SD1, and any agency requesting cooperating status must do so by July 15, 2016.
p. Although our current intent is to prepare an environmental assessment (EA), there is the possibility that an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS) will be required. Nevertheless, this meeting will satisfy the NEPA scoping requirements, irrespective of whether an EA or EIS is issued by the Commission.
Commission staff will hold two scoping meetings in the vicinity of the project at the time and place noted below. The daytime meeting will focus on resource agency, Indian tribes, and non-governmental organization concerns, while the evening meeting is primarily for receiving input from the public. We invite all interested individuals, organizations, and agencies to attend one or both of the meetings, and to assist staff in identifying particular study needs, as well as the scope of environmental issues to be addressed in the environmental document. The times and locations of these meetings are as follows:
Scoping Document 1 (SD1), which outlines the subject areas to be addressed in the environmental document, was mailed to the individuals and entities on the Commission's mailing list. Copies of SD1 will be available at the scoping meetings, or may be viewed on the Web at
The potential applicant and Commission staff will conduct an
At the scoping meetings, staff will: (1) Initiate scoping of the issues; (2) review and discuss existing conditions and resource management objectives; (3) review and discuss existing information and identify preliminary information and study needs; (4) review and discuss the process plan and schedule for pre-filing activity that incorporates the time frames provided for in Part 5 of the Commission's regulations and, to the extent possible, maximizes coordination of federal, state, and tribal permitting and certification processes; and (5) discuss the appropriateness of any federal or state agency or Indian tribe acting as a cooperating agency for development of an environmental document.
Meeting participants should come prepared to discuss their issues and/or concerns. Please review the PAD in preparation for the scoping meetings. Directions on how to obtain a copy of the PAD and SD1 are included in item n. of this document.
The meetings will be recorded by a stenographer and will be placed in the public records of the project.
Take notice that on April 29, 2016, Columbia Gas Transmission, LLC (Columbia Gas) 5151 San Felipe, Suite 2500, Houston, Texas 77056, filed in Docket No. CP16-357-000 an application pursuant to sections 7(b) and 7(c) of the Natural Gas Act (NGA), and Part 157 of the Commission's regulations requesting authorization to construct and operate the Mountaineer XPress Project, all as more fully set forth in the application which is on file with the Commission and open to public inspection. The filing is available for review at the Commission in the Public Reference Room or may be viewed on the Commission's Web site web at
Any questions concerning this application may be directed to S. Diane Neal, Assistant General Counsel, Columbia Gas Transmission, LLC, 5151 San Felipe, Suite 2500, Houston, Texas 77056, at (713) 386-3745.
Specifically Columbia Gas proposes to: (i) Construct and operate approximately 170.1 miles of various diameter pipeline, (ii) modify threes existing compressor stations, (iii) construct and operate three new compressor stations, (iv) and install various appurtenant and auxiliary facilities, all located in either Marshall, Wetzel, Tyler, Doddridge, Ritchie, Calhoun, Wirt, Roane, Jackson, Mason, Putnam, Kanawha, Cabell, and Wayne Counties, West Virginia. The project will provide approximately 2.7 million dekatherms per day of additional capacity for firm transportation service. Columbia Gas is proposing incremental rates for transportation service on the facilities proposed for construction herein. The cost of the project will be approximately $2.059 billion.
On September 16, 2015 the Commission staff granted Columbia Gas' request to utilize the Pre-Filing Process and assigned Docket No. PF15-31-000 to staff activities involved in the Project. Now, as of the filing of the April 29, 2016 application, the Pre-Filing Process for this project has ended. From this time forward, this proceeding will be conducted in Docket No. CP16-357-000, as noted in the caption of this Notice.
Pursuant to section 157.9 of the Commission's rules (18 CFR 157.9), within 90 days of this Notice, the Commission staff will either: Complete its environmental assessment (EA) and place it into the Commission's public record (eLibrary) for this proceeding; or issue a Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review. If a Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review is issued, it will indicate, among other milestones, the anticipated date for the Commission staff's issuance of the final environmental impact statement (FEIS) or EA for this proposal. The filing of the EA in the Commission's public record for this proceeding or the issuance of a Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review will serve to notify federal and state agencies of the timing for the completion of all necessary reviews, and the subsequent need to complete all federal authorizations within 90 days of the date of issuance of the Commission staff's FEIS or EA.
There are two ways to become involved in the Commission's review of this project. First, any person wishing to obtain legal status by becoming a party to the proceedings for this project should, on or before the comment date stated below file with the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426, a motion to intervene in accordance with the requirements of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.214 or 385.211) and the Regulations under the NGA (18 CFR 157.10). A person obtaining party status will be placed on the service list maintained by the Secretary of the Commission and will receive copies of all documents filed by the applicant and by all other parties. A party must submit seven copies of filings made in the proceeding with the Commission and must mail a copy to the applicant and to every other party. Only parties to the proceeding can ask for court review of Commission orders in the proceeding.
However, a person does not have to intervene in order to have comments considered. The second way to participate is by filing with the Secretary of the Commission, as soon as possible, an original and two copies of comments in support of or in opposition to this project. The Commission will consider these comments in determining the appropriate action to be taken, but the filing of a comment alone will not serve to make the filer a party to the proceeding. The Commission's rules require that persons filing comments in opposition to the project provide copies of their protests only to the party or parties directly involved in the protest.
Persons who wish to comment only on the environmental review of this project should submit an original and two copies of their comments to the Secretary of the Commission. Environmental commentors will be placed on the Commission's environmental mailing list, will receive copies of the environmental documents, and will be notified of meetings associated with the Commission's environmental review process. Environmental commentors will not be required to serve copies of filed documents on all other parties. However, the non-party commentors will not receive copies of all documents filed by other parties or issued by the Commission (except for the mailing of environmental documents issued by the Commission) and will not have the right to seek court review of the Commission's final order.
The Commission strongly encourages electronic filings of comments, protests and interventions in lieu of paper using the “eFiling” link at
Take notice that the following hydroelectric application has been filed with the Commission and is available for public inspection.
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j. This application is not ready for environmental analysis at this time.
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The proposed Turners Falls Development would consist of the following existing facilities: (1) A 630-foot-long, 35-foot-high dam (Montague dam) that includes: (i) Four 120-foot-wide, 13.25-foot-high bascule gates; and (ii) a 170-foot-long fixed section with a crest elevation of 185.5 feet National Geodetic Vertical Datum of 1929 (NGVD 29); (2) a 493-foot-long, 55-foot-high dam (Gill dam) that includes: (i) Three 40-foot-wide, 39-foot-high tainter gates; and (ii) 97.3- and 207.5-foot-long fixed sections with crest elevations of 185.5 feet NGVD 29; (3) a 2,110-acre impoundment with a useable storage volume of 16,150 acre-feet between elevations 176.0 feet and 185.0 feet NGVD 29; (4) a 214-foot-long, 33-foot-high gatehouse that includes six 9-foot-wide, 10.66-foot-high gates and nine 9.5-foot-wide, 12.6-foot-high gates; (5) a 2.1-mile-long, 120- to 920-foot-wide, 17- to 30-foot-deep power canal; (6) a 700-foot-long, 100-foot-wide, 16- to 23-foot-deep branch canal; (7) the Station No.1 generating facility that includes: (i) Eight 15-foot-wide bays with trashracks with 2.625-inch clear-bar spacing; (ii) four 100-foot-long, 13.1- to 14-foot-diameter penstocks; (iii) a 134-foot-long, 64-foot-wide powerhouse that contains five turbine-generator units with a total installed capacity of 5.636 MW; (iv) four 21-foot-long, 6.5-foot-diameter draft tubes; (v) five 40- to 70-foot-long, 2.4-kilovolt (kV) generator leads that connect the turbine-generator units to a generator bus; (vi) a 110-foot-long, 2.4-kV generator lead that connects the generator bus to a substation; and (vii) a 20-foot-long, 2.4-kV generator lead that connects the substation to three transformers; (8) the Cabot Station generating facility that includes: (i) An intake structure with 217-foot-wide, 31-foot-high trashracks with 0.94-inch and 3.56-inch clear-bar spacing; (ii) six 70-foot-long penstocks; (iii) a 235-foot-long, 79.5-foot-wide powerhouse that contains six turbine-generator units with a total installed capacity of 62.016 MW; (iv) six 41-foot-long, 12.5- to 14.5-foot-diameter draft tubes; (v) six 80- to 250-foot-long, 13.8-kV generator leads that connect the turbine-generator units to a generator bus; (vi) a 60-foot-long, 13.8-kV generator lead that connects the generator bus to the powerhouse roof; and (vii) a 200-foot-long, 13.8-kV generator lead that connects to a transformer; (9) eight 13.6-foot-wide, 16.7-foot-high power canal spillway gates that are adjacent to Cabot Station; (10) a 16.2-foot-wide, 13.1-foot-high log sluice gate in the Cabot Station forebay with an 8-foot-wide weir for downstream fish passage; (11) a 200-foot-long, 7-foot-diameter drainage tunnel (Keith Drainage Tunnel) and headgate; (12) a 955-foot-long, 5-foot-diameter lower drainage tunnel; (13) an 850-foot-long, 16-foot-wide, 10-foot-high fishway (Cabot fishway); (14) a 500-foot-long, 10-foot-wide, 10-foot-high fishway (Spillway fishway); (15) a 225-foot-long, 16-foot-wide, 17.5-foot-high fishway (Gatehouse fishway); and (16) appurtenant facilities.
The proposed Northfield Mountain Pumped Storage Development would consist of the following existing facilities: (1) A 1-mile-long, 30-foot-wide, 30- to 140-foot-high main dam that includes: (i) An intake structure with two 7-foot-wide, 9-foot-high sluice gates and an 8-foot-diameter outlet pipe; and (ii) a 589-foot-long, 2-foot-diameter low-level outlet pipe; (2) a 425-foot-long, 25-foot-high dike (North dike); (3) a 2,800-foot-long, 45-foot-high dike (Northwest dike); (4) a 1,700-foot-long, 40-foot-long dike (West dike); (5) a 327-foot-long, 10- to 20-foot-high gravity dam; (6) an ungated 550-foot-long, 6-foot-high spillway structure with a 20-foot-long notch at an elevation of 1,005.0 feet NGVD 29; (7) a 286-acre impoundment (upper reservoir) with a useable storage volume of 12,318 acre-feet between elevations 938.0 feet and 1,000.5 feet NGVD 29; (8) a 2,110-acre impoundment (lower reservoir or Turners Falls impoundment); (9) a 1,890-foot-long, 130-foot-wide intake channel with a 63-foot-long, 9-foot-high submerged check dam and two 6-foot-wide, 2.75-foot-high sluice gates and two 18-foot-wide stoplogs; (10) a 200-foot-long, 55-foot-wide, 80-foot-high pressure shaft; (11) an 853-foot-long, 31-foot-diameter penstock; (12) two 22-foot-diameter, 100- to 150-foot-long penstocks; (13) four 340-foot-long, 9.5- to 14-foot-diameter penstocks; (14) a 328-foot-long, 70-foot-wide powerhouse that contains four reversible pump turbine-generator units with a total installed capacity of 1,166.8 MW; (15) four 25-foot-long, 11-foot-diameter draft tubes that transition to a 20-foot-long, 17-foot-diameter draft tube; (16) a 5,136-foot-long, 33-foot-wide, 31-foot-high horseshoe-shaped tailrace tunnel; (17) 35-foot-long, 40-foot-high trapezoid-shaped stoplogs with 74.3- to 99.5-foot-wide, 48-foot-high trashracks with 6-inch clear-bar spacing; (18) four 26-foot-long, 13.8-kV generator leads that connect the turbine-generator units to four transformers; (19) two 3,000-foot-long, 345-kV pipe-type cables from the transformers to the Northfield Switching Station; (20) a 650-foot-long, 15-foot-deep fixed-position fish barrier guide net; and (21) appurtenant facilities.
The existing Turners Falls Hydroelectric Project operates in peaking and run-of-river modes depending on inflows. The existing license requires maintaining the impoundment between elevations 176.0 feet and 185.0 feet NGVD 29, and releasing a continuous minimum flow of 1,433 cubic feet per second, or inflow (whichever is less), from the project. FirstLight did not propose any changes to operation of this facility in its application.
The existing Northfield Mountain Pumped Storage Project generally operates in pumping mode during low-load periods and generating mode during high-load periods. In the summer and winter, the project generally operates in a peaking mode in the
FirstLight proposes to increase the maximum water surface elevation of the upper reservoir to 1,004.5 feet NGVD 29 and decrease the minimum water surface elevation of the upper reservoir to 920.0 feet NGVD 29 (
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o. Final amendments to the application must be filed with the Commission no later than 30 days from the issuance date of the notice of ready for environmental analysis.
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric corporate filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following exempt wholesale generator filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric securities filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
Take notice that the following hydroelectric application has been filed with the Commission and is available for public inspection:
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The Commission strongly encourages electronic filing. Please file comments, motions to intervene, and protests using the Commission's eFiling system at
The Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure require all intervenors filing documents with the Commission to serve a copy of that document on each person whose name appears on the official service list for the project. Further, if an intervenor files comments or documents with the Commission relating to the merits of an issue that may affect the responsibilities of a particular resource agency, they must also serve a copy of the document on that resource agency.
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m. Individuals desiring to be included on the Commission's mailing list should so indicate by writing to the Secretary of the Commission.
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j. South Sutter Water District filed its request to use the Traditional Licensing Process on March 11, 2016. South Sutter Water District provided public notice of its request on April 14, 2016. In a letter dated May 13, 2016, the Director of the Division of Hydropower Licensing approved South Sutter Water District's request to use the Traditional Licensing Process.
k. With this notice, we are initiating informal consultation with the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service and NOAA Fisheries under section 7 of the Endangered Species Act and the joint agency regulations thereunder at 50 CFR, part 402; and NOAA Fisheries under section 305(b) of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act and implementing regulations at 50 CFR 600.920. We are also initiating consultation with the California State Historic Preservation Officer, as required by section 106, National Historic Preservation Act, and the implementing regulations of the Advisory Council on Historic Preservation at 36 CFR 800.2.
l. With this notice, we are designating South Sutter Water District as the Commission's non-federal representative for carrying out informal consultation pursuant to section 7 of the Endangered Species Act and section 305(b) of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act; and consultation pursuant to section 106 of the National Historic Preservation Act.
m. South Sutter Water District filed a Pre-Application Document (PAD; including a proposed process plan and schedule) with the Commission, pursuant to 18 CFR 5.6 of the Commission's regulations.
n. A copy of the PAD is available for review at the Commission in the Public Reference Room or may be viewed on the Commission's Web site (
o. The licensee states its unequivocal intent to submit an application for a new license for Project No. 2997-031. Pursuant to 18 CFR 16.8, 16.9, and 16.10 each application for a new license and any competing license applications must be filed with the Commission at least 24 months prior to the expiration of the existing license. All applications for license for this project must be filed by June 30, 2019.
p. Register online at
As announced in the Notice of Technical Conference issued on February 3, 2016, the Commission will hold a technical conference on Wednesday, June 1, 2016 from 9:30 a.m. to 5:00 p.m. to discuss policy issues related to the reliability of the Bulk-Power System. The agenda for this conference is attached. Commission members will participate in this conference.
Advanced registration is not required, but is encouraged. Attendees may register at:
After the close of the conference, the Commission will accept written comments regarding the matters discussed at the technical conference. Any person or entity wishing to submit written comments regarding the matters discussed at the conference should submit such comments in Docket No. AD16-15-000 on or before July 8, 2016.
Information on this event will be posted on the Calendar of Events on the Commission's Web site,
Commission conferences are accessible under section 508 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973. For accessibility accommodations, please send an email to
For more information about this conference, please contact: Sarah McKinley, Office of External Affairs, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426, (202) 502-8368,
The Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (Commission) hereby gives notice that members of the Commission's staff may attend the following meetings related to the transmission planning activities of the New York Independent System Operator, Inc.
The above-referenced meeting will be via web conference and teleconference.
The above-referenced meeting is open to stakeholders.
Further information may be found at:
The above-referenced meeting will be via web conference and teleconference.
The above-referenced meeting is open to stakeholders.
Further information may be found at:
The discussions at the meetings described above may address matters at issue in the following proceedings:
For more information, contact James Eason, Office of Energy Market Regulation, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission at (202) 502-8622 or
Take notice that the following hydroelectric application has been filed with the Commission and is available for public inspection:
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The Commission strongly encourages electronic filing. Please file comments, motions to intervene, and protests using the Commission's eFiling system at
The Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure require all intervenors filing documents with the Commission to serve a copy of that document on each person whose name appears on the official service list for the project. Further, if an intervenor files comments or documents with the Commission relating to the merits of an issue that may affect the responsibilities of a particular resource agency, they must also serve a copy of the document on that resource agency.
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m. Individuals desiring to be included on the Commission's mailing list should so indicate by writing to the Secretary of the Commission.
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Take notice that on April 29, 2016, Columbia Gulf Transmission, LLC (Columbia Gulf), 5151 San Felipe, Suite 2400, Houston, Texas 77056, filed in Docket No. CP16-361-000 an application pursuant to sections 7(c) of the Natural Gas Act (NGA), and Part 157 of the Commission's regulations requesting authorization to construct and operate the Gulf XPress Project, all as more fully set forth in the application which is on file with the Commission and open to public inspection. The filing is available for review at the Commission in the Public Reference Room or may be viewed on the Commission's Web site web at
Any questions concerning this application may be directed to Matthew J. Agen, Senior Counsel, Columbia Gas Transmission, LLC, 5151 San Felipe, Suite 2400, Houston, Texas 77056 at (713) 386-3619.
Specifically Columbia Gulf proposes to construct and operate seven new compressor stations and add compression to an existing compressor station, as well as other appurtenant facilities located in Kentucky, Tennessee, and Mississippi. The project will provide approximately 860,000 dekatherms per day of additional capacity for firm transportation service. Columbia Gas is proposing incremental rates for transportation service on the facilities proposed for construction herein. Columbia Gulf is proposing to establish incremental rates for transportation service on the facilities proposed for construction herein. The cost of the project will be approximately $674 million.
Pursuant to section 157.9 of the Commission's rules (18 CFR 157.9), within 90 days of this Notice, the Commission staff will either: Complete its environmental assessment (EA) and place it into the Commission's public record (eLibrary) for this proceeding; or issue a Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review. If a Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review is issued, it will indicate, among other milestones, the anticipated date for the Commission staff's issuance of the final environmental impact statement (FEIS) or EA for this proposal. The filing of the EA in the Commission's public record for this proceeding or the issuance of a Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review will serve to notify federal and state agencies of the timing for the completion of all necessary reviews, and the subsequent need to complete all federal authorizations within 90 days of the date of issuance of the Commission staff's FEIS or EA.
There are two ways to become involved in the Commission's review of this project. First, any person wishing to obtain legal status by becoming a party to the proceedings for this project should, on or before the comment date stated below file with the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426, a motion to intervene in accordance with the requirements of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.214 or 385.211) and the Regulations under the NGA (18 CFR 157.10). A person obtaining party status will be placed on the service list maintained by the Secretary of the Commission and will receive copies of all documents filed by the applicant and by all other parties. A party must submit seven copies of filings made in the proceeding with the Commission and must mail a copy to the applicant and to every other party. Only parties to the proceeding can ask for court review of Commission orders in the proceeding.
However, a person does not have to intervene in order to have comments considered. The second way to participate is by filing with the Secretary of the Commission, as soon as possible, an original and two copies of comments in support of or in opposition to this project. The Commission will consider these comments in determining the appropriate action to be taken, but the filing of a comment alone will not serve to make the filer a party to the proceeding. The Commission's rules require that persons filing comments in opposition to the project provide copies of their protests only to the party or parties directly involved in the protest.
Persons who wish to comment only on the environmental review of this project should submit an original and two copies of their comments to the Secretary of the Commission. Environmental commentors will be placed on the Commission's environmental mailing list, will receive copies of the environmental documents, and will be notified of meetings associated with the Commission's environmental review process. Environmental commentors will not be required to serve copies of filed documents on all other parties. However, the non-party commentors will not receive copies of all documents filed by other parties or issued by the Commission (except for the mailing of environmental documents issued by the Commission) and will not have the right to seek court review of the Commission's final order.
The Commission strongly encourages electronic filings of comments, protests and interventions in lieu of paper using the “eFiling” link at
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA or Agency) Science Advisory Board (SAB) Staff Office announces a public meeting of the SAB Lake Erie Phosphorus Objectives Review Panel to provide advice on the development of phosphorus loading targets for Lake Erie.
The public meeting will be held on June 21, 2016 from 9:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m. (Central Time) and on June 22, 2016, from 8:30 a.m. to 2:00 p.m. (Central Time).
The public meeting will be held at the Palmer House Hilton Hotel, 17 East Monroe Street, Chicago, Illinois 60603.
Any member of the public who wants further information concerning this public meeting may contact Dr. Thomas Armitage, Designated Federal Officer (DFO), EPA Science Advisory Board Staff Office (1400R), U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20460; by telephone at (202) 564-2155 or via email at
EPA Region 5 is co-leading a binational workgroup to develop and implement the Nutrients Annex (“Annex 4”) of the 2012 GLWQA in accordance with Article 3(b)(i) of the GLWQA. Under Annex 4, the United States and Canada were charged with establishing binational Substance Objectives for phosphorus concentrations, loading targets, and allocations for the nearshore and offshore waters of Lake Erie. The EPA Region 5 Water Division has requested that the SAB review modeling results that informed the development of the binational phosphorus reduction targets. The EPA has also requested advice on future work to support implementation and evaluation of nutrient reduction goals for Lake Erie. The SAB Panel will review the documents titled
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice of advisory committee meeting.
Under the Federal Advisory Committee Act, Public Law 92463, EPA gives notice of a public meeting of the National Advisory Council for Environmental Policy and Technology (NACEPT). NACEPT provides advice to the EPA Administrator on a broad range of environmental policy, technology, and management issues. NACEPT members represent academia, industry, non-governmental organizations, and state, local and tribal governments. The purpose of this meeting is for NACEPT to continue developing recommendations to the Administrator regarding actions that EPA should take in response to technological and sociological developments in the area of citizen science. A copy of the meeting agenda will be posted at
NACEPT will hold a two-day public meeting on June 13, 2016, from 8:30 a.m. to 5:30 p.m. (EST) and June 14, 2016, from 8:30 a.m. to 2 p.m. (EST).
The meeting will be held at the EPA Headquarters, William Jefferson Clinton Federal Building South, Room 2138, 1200 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20460.
Eugene Green, Designated Federal Officer,
Requests to make oral comments or to provide written comments to NACEPT should be sent to Eugene Green at
Section 309(a) of the Clean Air Act requires that EPA make public its comments on EISs issued by other Federal agencies. EPA's comment letters on EISs are available at:
Federal Communications Commission.
Notice of public meeting.
In accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act, this notice advises interested persons that the Federal Communications Commission's (FCC or Commission) Communications Security, Reliability, and Interoperability Council (CSRIC) V will hold its fifth meeting.
June 22, 2016.
Federal Communications Commission, Room TW-C305 (Commission Meeting Room), 445 12th Street SW., Washington, DC 20554.
Jeffery Goldthorp, Designated Federal Officer, (202) 418-1096 (voice) or
The meeting will be held on June 22, 2016, from 1:00 p.m. to 5:00 p.m. in the Commission Meeting Room of the Federal Communications Commission, Room TW-C305, 445 12th Street SW., Washington, DC 20554.
The CSRIC is a Federal Advisory Committee that will provide recommendations to the FCC regarding best practices and actions the FCC can take to help ensure the security, reliability, and interoperability of communications systems. On March 19, 2015, the FCC, pursuant to the Federal Advisory Committee Act, renewed the charter for the CSRIC for a period of two years through March 18, 2017. The meeting on June 22, 2016, will be the fifth meeting of the CSRIC under the current charter. The FCC will attempt to accommodate as many attendees as possible; however, admittance will be limited to seating availability. The Commission will provide audio and/or video coverage of the meeting over the Internet from the FCC's Web page at
Open captioning will be provided for this event. Other reasonable accommodations for people with disabilities are available upon request. Requests for such accommodations should be submitted via email to
Based upon the foregoing, the Receiver has determined that the continued existence of the receivership will serve no useful purpose. Consequently, notice is given that the receivership shall be terminated, to be effective no sooner than thirty days after the date of this Notice. If any person wishes to comment concerning the termination of the receivership, such comment must be made in writing and sent within thirty days of the date of this Notice to: Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, Division of Resolutions and Receiverships, Attention: Receivership Oversight Department 34.6, 1601 Bryan Street, Dallas, TX 75201.
No comments concerning the termination of this receivership will be considered which are not sent within this time frame.
The notificants listed below have applied under the Change in Bank Control Act (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)) and § 225.41 of the Board's Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.41) to acquire shares of a bank or bank holding company. The factors that are considered in acting on the notices are set forth in paragraph 7 of the Act (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(7)).
The notices are available for immediate inspection at the Federal Reserve Bank indicated. The notices also will be available for inspection at the offices of the Board of Governors. Interested persons may express their views in writing to the Reserve Bank indicated for that notice or to the offices of the Board of Governors. Comments must be received not later than June 2, 2016.
A. Federal Reserve Bank of Kansas City (Dennis Denney, Assistant Vice President) 1 Memorial Drive, Kansas City, Missouri 64198-0001:
1.
Federal Trade Commission (FTC or Commission).
Notice.
The information collection requirements described below will be submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA). The FTC seeks public comments on its proposal to extend, for three years, the current PRA clearance for information collection requirements contained in the Contact Lens Rule. This clearance expires on September 30, 2016.
Comments must be received on or before July 19, 2016.
Interested parties may file a comment online or on paper by following the instructions in the Request for Comments part of the
Requests for copies of the collection of information and supporting documentation should be addressed to Alysa S. Bernstein, Attorney, Division of Advertising Practices, Bureau of Consumer Protection, Federal Trade Commission, 600 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Mail Drop CC-10528, Washington, DC 20580, at (202) 326-3289.
Under the Paperwork Reduction Act (“PRA”), 44 U.S.C. 3501-3520, federal agencies must get OMB approval for each collection of information they conduct, sponsor, or require. “Collection of information” means agency requests or requirements to submit reports, keep records, or provide information to a third party. 44 U.S.C. 3502(3); 5 CFR 1320.3(c). As required by section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA, the FTC is providing this opportunity for public comment before requesting that OMB extend the existing PRA clearance for the information collection requirements associated with the Commission's rules and regulations under the Contact Lens Rule, 16 CFR part 315 (OMB Control Number 3084-0127).
The FTC invites comments on: (1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond. All comments must be received on or before July 19, 2016.
The Rule was promulgated by the FTC pursuant to the Fairness to Contact Lens Consumers Act (FCLCA), Public Law 108-164 (Dec. 6, 2003), which was enacted to enable consumers to purchase contact lenses from the seller of their choice. The Rule became effective on August 2, 2004. As mandated by the FCLCA, the Rule requires the release and verification of contact lens prescriptions and contains recordkeeping requirements applying to both prescribers and sellers of contact lenses.
Specifically, the Rule requires that prescribers provide a copy of the prescription to the consumer upon the completion of a contact lens fitting, even if the patient does not request it, and verify or provide prescriptions to authorized third parties. The Rule also mandates that a contact lens seller may sell contact lenses only in accordance with a prescription that the seller either: (a) Has received from the patient or prescriber; or (b) has verified through direct communication with the prescriber. In addition, the Rule imposes recordkeeping requirements on contact lens prescribers and sellers. For example, the Rule requires prescribers to document in their patients' records the medical reasons for setting a contact lens prescription expiration date of less than one year. The Rule requires contact lens sellers to maintain records for three years of all direct communications involved in obtaining verification of a contact lens prescription, as well as prescriptions, or copies thereof, which they receive directly from customers or prescribers.
The information retained under the Rule's recordkeeping requirements is used by the Commission to substantiate compliance with the Rule and may also provide a basis for the Commission to bring an enforcement action. Without the required records, it would be difficult either to ensure that entities are complying with the Rule's requirements or to bring enforcement actions based on violations of the Rule.
No substantive provisions in the Rule have been amended or changed since staff's prior submission to OMB.
This figure is derived by adding 843,159 disclosure hours for contact lens prescribers to 953,605 recordkeeping hours for contact lens sellers, for a combined industry total of 1,796,764 hours. This is higher than estimates submitted to OMB in 2013 (the respective figure was 1,594,981 hours in July 2013). The higher estimate is due to an increase in the estimated number of contact lens wearers from 38 million (2012) to 41 million (2015), and an increase in the estimated percentage of verification requests that require the prescribers to make an affirmative response.
The Rule requires prescribers to make disclosures in two ways. Upon completing a contact lens fitting, the Rule requires that prescribers (1) provide a copy of the contact lens prescription to the patient, and (2) as directed by any person designated to act on behalf of the patient, provide or verify the contact lens prescription. Prescribers can verify a prescription either by responding affirmatively to a request for verification, or by not responding at all, in which case the prescription will be “passively verified” after eight business hours. Prescribers are also required to correct an incorrect prescription submitted by a seller, and notify a seller if the prescription submitted for verification is expired or otherwise invalid.
As noted above, the number of contact lens wearers in the United States is estimated to be approximately 41 million.
At an estimated one minute per prescription,
As stated above, prescribers may also be required to provide or verify contact lens prescriptions to sellers. According to recent survey data, approximately 35.6% of contact lens purchases are from a source other than the prescriber.
Based on recent discussions with industry, approximately 73% of sales by non-prescriber sellers require verification, and prescribers affirmatively respond (by notifying the seller that the prescription is invalid or incorrect) to approximately 15% of those verification requests. Using a response rate of 15%, the FTC therefore estimates that prescribers' offices respond to approximately 1,598,262 verification requests annually. [(14,596,000 × 73%) × 15% = 1,598,262 responses]. Additionally, some prescribers may voluntarily respond to verification requests and confirm prescriptions (as opposed to simply letting the prescription passively verify). Because correcting or declining incorrect prescriptions is mandated by the Rule and occurs in response to approximately 15% of requests, staff assumes that prescribers voluntarily confirm prescriptions less often, and confirm no more than an additional 15% of prescriptions. Using a combined response rate of 30%, the FTC estimates that prescribers' offices respond to approximately 3,196,524 requests annually.
We estimate that responding to verification requests requires three minutes per request.
Combining these hours with the hours spent disclosing prescriptions to consumers, we estimate a total of 843,159 hours for contact lens prescribers. [683,333 + 159,826 hours = 843,159 hours].
Lastly, as required by the FCLCA, the Rule also imposes a recordkeeping requirement on prescribers. They must document the specific medical reasons for setting a contact lens prescription expiration date shorter than the one-year minimum established by the FCLCA. This burden is likely to be nil because the requirement applies only in cases when the prescriber invokes the medical judgment exception, which is expected to occur infrequently, and prescribers are likely to record this information in the ordinary course of business as part of their patients' medical records. As mentioned previously, the OMB regulation that implements the PRA defines “burden” to exclude any effort that would be expended regardless of a regulatory requirement.
As noted above, a seller may sell contact lenses only in accordance with a valid prescription that the seller (a) has received from the patient or prescriber, or (b) has verified through direct communication with the prescriber. The FCLCA also requires sellers to retain prescriptions and records of communications with prescribers relating to prescription verification for three years. Staff believes that the burden of complying with these requirements is relatively low.
As stated previously, there are approximately 14,596,000 sales by non-prescriber sellers annually and approximately 73% of those sales require verification. Therefore, sellers verify approximately 10,655,080 orders annually and retain two records for such sales: The verification request and any response from the prescriber. Staff estimates that sellers' verification and recordkeeping for those orders will entail a maximum of five minutes per sale. At an estimated five minutes per sale to each of the approximately 10,655,080 orders, contact lens sellers will spend a total of 887,923 burden hours complying with this portion of the requirement. [(10,655,080 orders × 5 minutes)/60 minutes = 887,923 hours].
This means that approximately 27% of the remaining sales to non-prescriber sellers do not require verification and require the seller to keep only the prescription provided. Staff estimates that this recordkeeping burden requires at most one minute per order for 3,940,920 orders, resulting in 65,682 burden hours. [(3,940,920 orders × 1 minute)/60 minutes = 65,682 hours].
Combining burden hours for all orders, staff estimates a total of 953,605 hours for contact lens sellers. This estimate likely overstates the actual burden because it includes the time spent by sellers who already keep records pertaining to contact lens sales in the ordinary course of business. In addition, the estimate may overstate the time spent by sellers to the extent that records (
Commission staff derived labor costs by applying appropriate hourly cost figures to the burden hours described above. Based on information from the industry, staff estimates that optometrists account for approximately 85% of prescribers. Consequently, for simplicity, staff will focus on their average hourly wage in estimating prescribers' labor cost burden.
According to Bureau of Labor Statistics, salaried optometrists earn an average wage of $55.65 per hour and general office clerks earn an average wage of $15.33 per hour.
Assuming that optometrists are performing the brunt of the labor for prescribers and office clerks are performing the labor for non-prescriber sellers, estimated total labor cost attributable to the Rule would be approximately $61,254,481. [($55.65 × 843,159 prescriber hours = 46,921,798) + ($15.33 × 953,605 office clerk hours = 14,618,765) = $61,540,563].
The contact lens market is a multibillion-dollar market. One survey estimates that contact lens sales in the U.S. in 2015 totaled $4,664,200,000 at the retail level.
You can file a comment online or on paper. Write “Contact Lens Rule: FTC File No. P054510” on your comment. Your comment—including your name and your state—will be placed on the public record of this proceeding, including, to the extent practicable, on the public Commission Web site, at
Because your comment will be made public, you are solely responsible for making sure that your comment does not include any sensitive personal information, such as a Social Security number, date of birth, driver's license number or other state identification number or foreign country equivalent, passport number, financial account number, or credit or debit card number. You are also solely responsible for making sure that your comment does
If you want the Commission to give your comment confidential treatment, you must file it in paper form, with a request for confidential treatment, and you must follow the procedure explained in FTC Rule 4.9(c), 16 CFR 4.9(c). Your comment will be kept confidential only if the FTC General Counsel, in his or her sole discretion, grants your request in accordance with the law and the public interest. Postal mail addressed to the Commission is subject to delay due to heightened security screening. As a result, the Commission encourages you to submit your comments online. To make sure that the Commission considers your online comment, you must file it at
If you file your comment on paper, write “Contact Lens Rule: FTC File No. P054510” on your comment and on the envelope, and mail it to the following address: Federal Trade Commission, Office of the Secretary, 600 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Suite CC-5610, (Annex J), Washington, DC 20580, or deliver your comment to the following address: Federal Trade Commission, Office of the Secretary, Constitution Center, 400 7th Street SW., 5th Floor, Suite 5610, (Annex J), Washington, DC 20024. If possible, submit your paper comment to the Commission by courier or overnight service.
The FTC Act and other laws that the Commission administers permit the collection of public comments to consider and use in this proceeding as appropriate. The Commission will consider all timely and responsive public comments that it receives on or before July 19, 2016. You can find more information, including routine uses permitted by the Privacy Act, in the Commission's privacy policy, at
Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS), Department of Health and Human Services (HHS).
Notice.
This notice announces the summer meeting of the Advisory Panel on Hospital Outpatient Payment (the Panel) for 2016. It also announces that the Panel will begin meeting once a year in the summer, beginning in Calendar Year 2017. Currently, the Panel convenes twice yearly. The purpose of the Panel is to advise the Secretary of the Department of Health and Human Services (DHHS) (the Secretary) and the Administrator of the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) (the Administrator) on the clinical integrity of the Ambulatory Payment Classification (APC) groups and their associated weights and hospital outpatient therapeutic services supervision issues.
• Monday, August 22, 2016, 9 a.m. to 5 p.m. EDT.
• Tuesday, August 23, 2016, 9 a.m. to 5 p.m. EDT.
Presentations or comments and form CMS-20017, (located at
Participants planning to attend this meeting in person must register online, during the above specified timeframe at:
Participants who do not plan to attend the meeting in person should not register. No registration is required for participants who plan to view the meeting via webcast.
Because of staff and resource limitations, we cannot accept comments and presentations by facsimile (FAX) transmission.
The meeting will be held in the Auditorium, CMS Central Office, 7500 Security Boulevard, Woodlawn, Maryland 21244-1850. Alternately, the public may either view this meeting via a webcast or listen by teleconference. During the scheduled meeting, webcasting is accessible online at:
Representatives must contact our Public Affairs Office at (202) 690-6145.
The phone number for the CMS Federal Advisory Committee Hotline is (410) 786-3985.
For additional information on the Panel and updates to the Panel's activities, we refer readers to view our Web site at:
Information about the Panel and its membership in the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA) database are also located at:
Carol Schwartz, Designated Federal Official (DFO), 7500 Security Boulevard, Mail Stop: C4-04-25, Woodlawn, MD 21244-1850. Phone: (410) 786-3985. Email:
The Secretary of the Department of Health and Human Services (DHHS) (the Secretary) is required by section 1833(t)(9)(A) of the Social Security Act (the Act) and is allowed by section 222 of the Public Health Service Act (PHS Act) to consult with an expert outside panel, that is, the Advisory Panel on Hospital Outpatient Payment (the Panel) regarding the clinical integrity of the Ambulatory Payment Classification (APC) groups and relative payment weights. The Panel is governed by the provisions of the Federal Advisory Committee Act (Pub. L. 92-463), as amended (5 U.S.C. Appendix 2), to set forth standards for the formation and use of advisory panels. We consider the technical advice provided by the Panel as we prepare the proposed and final rules to update the hospital outpatient prospective payment system (OPPS). The Panel (formerly the Advisory Panel on Ambulatory Payment Classification Groups) was originally chartered on November 21, 2000, and most recently re-chartered on November 6, 2014. The Panel Charter provides that the Panel shall meet up to 3 times annually. The first meeting of the Panel (was in Calendar Year (CY) 2001). For CY 2001 and 2002, the Panel convened once a year. At that time, the OPPS was new and there were many issues where the Panel provided important technical advice to the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid (CMS). Agendas for these 2-day meetings were very full and it was decided that two, 2-day meetings per year would be warranted to accommodate the workload of the Panel. Beginning in CY 2003, the Panel has convened twice yearly, in the summer and in the winter. Over time and as the OPPS has matured, policies have become more stable and the volume of issues that the Panel has been requested to provide technical advice on has decreased significantly. The duration of these meetings has decreased significantly, with the most recent four meetings each averaging a half day or less in length.
Beginning in CY 2016, new Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) codes (effective on January 1 of the following year) are assigned status indicators and APC assignments in the OPPS proposed rule instead of being first assigned status indicators and APC assignments in the final rule. With this process change, stakeholders now provide their comments on the status indicators and APC assignments during the proposed rule comment period.
Beginning in CY 2003 and through CY 2016, we had 13 consecutive years of two Panel meetings a year. However, due to a significant decline in the volume of requests for technical advice from the Panel, beginning in CY 2017, we will transition back to 1 Panel meeting a year, which will be scheduled in the summer. Since the summer meeting occurs during the comment period for the OPPS proposed rule, we anticipate that there will be more requests for technical advice including the CMS treatment of new CPT codes, during this meeting than during a winter meeting. The winter Panel meeting is no longer necessary as a forum to discuss interim final status indicators and APC assignments of new codes because this process no longer exists. In CY 2017 and thereafter, (unless CMS programmatic need suggests otherwise) there will not be a winter Panel meeting; there will be only one Panel meeting per year that will occur in the summer.
The agenda for the August 22 through August 23, 2016 Panel meeting will provide for discussion and comment on the following topics as designated in the Panel's Charter:
• Addressing whether procedures within an APC group are similar both clinically and in terms of resource use.
• Evaluating APC group structure.
• Reviewing the packaging of OPPS services and costs, including the methodology and the impact on APC groups and payment.
• Removing procedures from the inpatient-only list for payment under the OPPS.
• Using single and multiple procedure claims data for CMS' determination of APC group weights.
• Addressing other technical issues concerning APC group structure.
• Recommending the appropriate supervision level (general, direct, or personal) for individual hospital outpatient therapeutic services.
The Agenda will be posted on the CMS Web site at
The subject matter of any presentation and/or comment matter must be within the scope of the Panel designated in the Charter. Any presentations or comments outside of the scope of this Panel will be returned or requested for amendment. Unrelated topics include, but are not limited to, the conversion factor, charge compression, revisions to the cost report, pass-through payments, correct coding, new technology applications (including supporting information/documentation), provider payment adjustments, supervision of hospital outpatient diagnostic services and the types of practitioners that are permitted to supervise hospital outpatient services. The Panel may not recommend that services be designated as nonsurgical extended duration therapeutic services.
The Panel may use data collected or developed by entities and organizations other than DHHS and CMS in conducting its review. We recommend organizations submit data for CMS staff and the Panel's review.
All presentations are limited to 5 minutes, regardless of the number of individuals or organizations represented by a single presentation. Presenters may use their 5 minutes to represent either one or more agenda items.
For this meeting, we are aiming to have all presentations and comments available on the CMS Web site. Materials on the CMS Web site must be Section 508 compliant to ensure access to federal employees and members of the public with and without disabilities. We encourage presenters and commenters to refer to guidance on making documents Section 508 compliant as they draft their submissions, and, whenever possible, to submit their presentations and comments in a 508 compliant form. Such guidance is available at
Those wishing to access such materials should contact the DFO (the DFO's address, email and phone number are provided below).
In order to consider presentations and/or comments, we will need to receive the following:
1. An
2. Form
• The form is now available through the CMS Forms Web site. The Uniform Resource Locator (URL) for linking to this form is as follows:
• We encourage presenters to make efforts to ensure that their presentations and comments are 508 compliant.
In addition to formal oral presentations, which are limited to 5 minutes total per presentation, there will be an opportunity during the meeting for public oral comments, which will be limited to 1 minute for each individual and a total of 3 minutes per organization.
The meeting is open to the public; however, attendance is limited to space available. Priority will be given to those who pre-register and attendance may be limited based on the number of registrants and the space available.
Persons wishing to attend this meeting, which is located on Federal property, must register by following the instructions in the “Meeting Registration Timeframe” section of this notice. A confirmation email will be sent to the registrants shortly after completing the registration process.
The following are the security, building, and parking guidelines:
• Persons attending the meeting, including presenters, must be pre-registered and on the attendance list by the prescribed date.
• Individuals who are not pre-registered in advance may not be permitted to enter the building and may be unable to attend the meeting.
• Attendees must present a government-issued photo identification to the Federal Protective Service or Guard Service personnel before entering the building. Without a current, valid photo ID, persons may not be permitted entry to the building.
• Security measures include inspection of vehicles, inside and out, at the entrance to the grounds.
• All persons entering the building must pass through a metal detector.
• All items brought into CMS including personal items, for example, laptops and cell phones are subject to physical inspection.
• The public may enter the building 30 to 45 minutes before the meeting convenes each day.
• All visitors must be escorted in areas other than the lower and first-floor levels in the Central Building.
• The main-entrance guards will issue parking permits and instructions upon arrival at the building.
• Foreign nationals visiting any CMS facility require prior approval. If you are a foreign national and wish to attend the meeting onsite, in addition to registering for the meeting, you must also send a separate email to
Individuals requiring special accommodations must include the request for these services during registration.
The Panel's recommendations at any Panel meeting generally are not final until they have been reviewed and approved by the Panel on the last day of the meeting, before the final adjournment. These recommendations will be posted to the CMS Web site after the meeting.
This document does not impose information collection requirements, that is, reporting, recordkeeping or third-party disclosure requirements. Consequently, there is no need for review by the Office of Management and Budget under the authority of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is announcing that, as required by the Federal Advisory Committee Act, the Agency has filed with the Library of Congress the annual reports of those FDA advisory committees that held closed meetings during fiscal year 2015.
Copies are available at the Dockets Management Branch (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500. You also may access the docket at
Michael Ortwerth, Director and Committee Management Officer,
Under section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act (5 U.S.C. app.) and 21 CFR 14.60(d), FDA has filed with the Library of Congress the annual reports for the following FDA advisory committees that held closed meetings during the period October 1, 2014 through September 30, 2015:
Annual Reports are available for public inspections between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday.
1. The Library of Congress, Madison Bldg., Newspaper and Current Periodical Reading Room, 101 Independence Ave. SE., Rm. 133, Washington, DC; and
2. The Dockets Management Branch (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852.
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is publishing a list of premarket approval applications (PMAs) that have been approved. This list is intended to inform the public of the availability of safety and effectiveness summaries of approved PMAs through the Internet and the Agency's Division of Dockets Management.
You may submit comments as follows:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Division of Dockets Management, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
Joshua Nipper, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire
In accordance with sections 515(d)(4) and (e)(2) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the FD&C Act) (21 U.S.C. 360e(d)(4) and (e)(2)), notification of an order approving, denying, or withdrawing approval of a PMA will continue to include a notice of opportunity to request review of the order under section 515(g) of the FD&C Act. The 30-day period for requesting reconsideration of an FDA action under § 10.33(b) (21 CFR 10.33(b)) for notices announcing approval of a PMA begins on the day the notice is placed on the Internet. Section 10.33(b) provides that FDA may, for good cause, extend this 30-day period. Reconsideration of a denial or withdrawal of approval of a PMA may be sought only by the applicant; in these cases, the 30-day period will begin when the applicant is notified by FDA in writing of its decision.
The regulations provide that FDA publish a quarterly list of available safety and effectiveness summaries of PMA approvals and denials that were announced during that quarter. The following is a list of approved PMAs for which summaries of safety and effectiveness were placed on the Internet from January 1, 2016, through March 31, 2016. There were no denial actions during this period. The list provides the manufacturer's name, the product's generic name or the trade name, and the approval date.
Persons with access to the Internet may obtain the documents at
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice of availability.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or Agency) is announcing the availability of a draft guidance for industry entitled “Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease: Developing Drugs for Treatment.” This guidance is intended to assist sponsors in designing a clinical development program for new drug products for the treatment of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). This guidance revises the draft guidance of the same name, issued November 9, 2007, by adding information regarding the St. George's Respiratory Questionnaire (SGRQ).
Although you can comment on any guidance at any time (see 21 CFR 10.115(g)(5)), to ensure that the Agency considers your comment on this draft guidance before it begins work on the final version of the guidance, submit either electronic or written comments on the draft guidance by July 19, 2016.
You may submit comments as follows:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Division of Dockets Management, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
Submit written requests for single copies of the draft guidance to the Division of Drug Information, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10001 New Hampshire Ave., Hillandale Building, 4th Floor, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002. Send one self-addressed adhesive label to assist that office in processing your requests. See the
Badrul A. Chowdhury, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 22, Rm. 3326, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 301-796-2300.
FDA is announcing the availability of a draft guidance for industry entitled “Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease: Developing Drugs for Treatment.” This guidance is intended to assist sponsors in designing a clinical development program for new drug products for the treatment of COPD. The emphasis of this guidance is on the assessment of efficacy of a new molecular entity (NME) in phase 3 clinical studies of COPD. Development of NMEs for COPD poses challenges and opportunities. Not all drugs developed for COPD will fit into the types described, and the efficacy endpoints discussed in this guidance may not fit the need for all drugs. FDA encourages sponsors to develop clinical programs that fit their particular needs and to discuss their planned approach with the Center for Drug Evaluation and Research's Division of Pulmonary, Allergy, and Rheumatology Products. For novel approaches, where warranted, outside expertise can be sought, including consultation with the Pulmonary-Allergy Drugs Advisory Committee.
This guidance revises the draft guidance of the same name, issued November 9, 2007 (72 FR 63618), by adding information on the use of SGRQ in COPD studies. FDA acknowledges the importance of assessing patient perspectives in clinical trials and therefore is interested in eliciting comment on the SGRQ, included in Appendix A.
Also, this guidance outlines FDA's thinking based on information that was available in 2007 on the development of various types of drugs for COPD. FDA acknowledges that the landscape of clinical trials has evolved since 2007 and therefore is encouraging public comment on the body of the guidance in addition to public comment on the SGRQ information added in Appendix A.
This draft guidance is being issued consistent with FDA's good guidance practices regulation (21 CFR 10.115). The draft guidance, when finalized, will represent the current thinking of FDA on the development of drug products for the treatment of COPD. It does not establish any rights for any person and is not binding on FDA or the public. You can use an alternative approach if it satisfies the requirements of the applicable statutes and regulations.
Persons with access to the Internet may obtain the draft guidance at either
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) announces a forthcoming public advisory committee meeting of the Blood Products Advisory Committee. The general function of the committee is to provide advice and recommendations to the Agency on FDA's regulatory issues. At least one portion of the meeting will be closed to the public.
The meeting will be held on June 20, 2016, from 9:30 a.m. to 1 p.m.
FDA White Oak Campus, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 31 Conference Center, the Great Room (Rm. 1503), Silver Spring, MD, 20993-0002. Answers to commonly asked questions including information regarding special accommodations due to a disability, visitor parking, and transportation may be accessed at:
Bryan Emery or Joanne Lipkind, Division of Scientific Advisors and Consultants, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 71, Rm. 6132, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 240-402-8054,
FDA intends to make background material available to the public no later than 2 business days before the meeting. If FDA is unable to post the background material on its Web site prior to the meeting, the background material will be made publicly available at the location of the advisory committee meeting, and the background material will be posted on FDA's Web site after the meeting. Background material is available at
Persons attending FDA's advisory committee meetings are advised that the Agency is not responsible for providing access to electrical outlets.
FDA welcomes the attendance of the public at its advisory committee meetings and will make every effort to accommodate persons with disabilities. If you require accommodations due to a disability, please contact Bryan Emery at least 7 days in advance of the meeting.
FDA is committed to the orderly conduct of its advisory committee meetings. Please visit our Web site at
Notice of this meeting is given under the Federal Advisory Committee Act (5 U.S.C. app. 2).
Health Resources and Services Administration, HHS.
Notice.
In compliance with Section 3507(a)(1)(D) of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, the Health Resources and Services Administration (HRSA) has submitted an Information Collection Request (ICR) to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval. Comments submitted during the first public review of this ICR will be provided to OMB. OMB will accept further comments from the public during the review and approval period.
Comments on this ICR should be received no later than June 20, 2016.
Submit your comments, including the Information Collection Request Title, to the desk officer for HRSA, either by email to
To request a copy of the clearance requests submitted to OMB for review, email the HRSA Information Collection Clearance Officer at
When submitting comments or requesting information, please include the information request collection title for reference.
Section 340B(a)(5)(C) of the PHS Act permits the Secretary and manufacturers of a covered outpatient drug to conduct audits of covered entities in accordance with procedures established by the Secretary related to the number, duration, and scope of the audits. Manufacturers are permitted to conduct an audit only when there is reasonable cause to believe a violation of section 340B(a)(5)(A) or (B) has occurred. The manufacturer notifies the covered entity in writing when it believes the covered entity has violated these provisions of the 340B Program. If the problem cannot be resolved, the manufacturer will then submit an audit work plan describing the audit and evidence in support of the reasonable cause standard to HRSA, Healthcare Systems Bureau, Office of Pharmacy Affairs (OPA) for review. OPA will review the documentation to determine if reasonable cause exists. Once the audit is complete, the manufacturer will submit copies of the audit report to OPA for review and resolution of the findings, as appropriate. The manufacturer will also submit an informational copy of the audit report to the Health and Human Services (HHS) Office of Inspector General (OIG).
In response to the statutory mandate of section 340B(a)(5)(C) to permit the Secretary or manufacturers to conduct audits of covered entities and because of the potential for disputes involving covered entities and participating drug manufacturers, OPA developed an informal voluntary dispute resolution process for manufacturers and covered entities who, prior to filing a request for resolution of a dispute with OPA, should attempt in good faith to resolve the dispute. All parties involved in the dispute should maintain written documentation as evidence of a good faith attempt to resolve the dispute. To request voluntary dispute resolution of an unresolved dispute, a party submits a written request for a review of the dispute to OPA. A committee appointed to review the documentation will send a letter to the party alleged to have committed a violation. The party will be asked to provide a response to or a rebuttal of the allegations.
HRSA published a notice in 1996 and a policy release in 2011 on manufacturer audit guidelines and the informal dispute resolution process (61 FR 65406 (December 12, 1996) and “Clarification of Manufacturer Audits of 340B Covered Entities,” Release No. 2011-3).
The revision to this package includes additional background information on the dispute resolution process and clarifies the need and proposed use of information regarding the manufacturer audit guidelines and the informal dispute resolution process.
HHS has reviewed all comments submitted in response to the publication of a 60-day
1. Manufacturers should notify the entity in writing when it believes a violation has occurred;
2. manufacturers should submit documentation to OPA as evidence of good faith of attempts to resolve a dispute;
3. manufacturers must submit an audit work plan to OPA;
4. manufacturers should submit the audit report to OPA and informational copies to the HHS OIG; and
5. the covered entity should provide a written response to the audit report.
This information is necessary to ensure the orderly conduct of manufacturer audits. In addition, the informal dispute resolution process requires the participating manufacturer or covered entity requesting dispute resolution to provide OPA with a written request. The party alleged to have committed a section 340B violation may provide a response or rebuttal to OPA. This information is necessary to ensure that the dispute will be resolved in a fair and equitable manner.
Health Resources and Services Administration, HHS.
Notice of a class deviation from competition requirements for Maternal and Child Health Collaborative Office Rounds.
HRSA announces the award of an extension in the amount of $150,000 for the Maternal and Child Health Collaborative Office Rounds (MCH-COR) grants. The purpose of the program is to foster joint pediatrics-child psychiatry continuing education in the psychosocial development aspects of child health, utilizing a study group approach that emphasizes the practical challenges confronted by community based practitioners. The extension will permit recipients to continue activities within the scope of the current award while the program is evaluated, during the budget period of 7/1/2016-6/30/2017.
Rita Maldonado, Division of Maternal Child Health Workforce Development, Maternal and Child Health Bureau, Health Resources and Services Administration, 5600 Fishers Lane, Room 18W13A, Rockville, MD 20852, Phone: 301.443.3622, Email:
Social Security Act, Title V, Section 502(a)(1)
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The contract proposals and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The contract proposals and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the contract proposals, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
U.S. Customs and Border Protection, Department of Homeland Security.
Notice of final determination.
This document provides notice that U.S. Customs and Border Protection (“CBP”) has issued a final determination concerning the country of origin of a twenty foot long intermodal container. Based upon the facts presented, CBP has concluded that the country of origin of the intermodal container is the Republic of Korea for purposes of U.S. Government procurement.
The final determination was issued on May 13, 2016. A copy of the final determination is attached. Any party-at-interest, as defined in 19 CFR 177.22(d), may seek judicial review of this final determination within June 20, 2016.
Teresa M. Frazier, Valuation and Special Programs Branch, Regulations and Rulings, Office of Trade (202) 325-0139.
Notice is hereby given that pursuant to subpart B of Part 177, U.S. Customs and Border Protection Regulations (19 CFR part 177, subpart B), CBP issued a final determination concerning the country of origin of certain intermodal containers, which may be offered to the U.S. Government under an undesignated government procurement contract. This final determination, HQ H273529, was issued under procedures set forth at 19 CFR part 177, subpart B, which implements Title III of the Trade Agreements Act of 1979, as amended (19 U.S.C. 2511-18). In the final determination, CBP concluded that the processing in Korea results in a substantial transformation. Therefore, the country of origin of the intermodal container is Korea for purposes of U.S. Government procurement.
Section 177.29, CBP Regulations (19 CFR 177.29), provides that a notice of final determination shall be published in the
Dear Mr. McManus: This is in response to your correspondence of February 12, 2016, requesting a final determination on behalf of your client, Sea Box, Inc. (“Sea Box”), pursuant to subpart B of part 177, U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) Regulations (19 CFR 177.21
This final determination concerns a twenty foot long Sea Box shipping container that is claimed to be a product of the Republic of South Korea or the United States. We note that Sea Box, Inc. is a party-at-interest within the meaning of 19 CFR 177.22(d)(1) and is entitled to request this determination.
Your client requests a country of origin determination concerning a twenty foot long intermodal container. You state that the twenty foot shipping container is a 20 foot, International Organization for Standardization (ISO) compliant container possessing the following external measurements: 19′ 10.5″ in length with a tolerance of +0, −1/4 of an inch; 8.0′ in width with a tolerance of +0, −3/16 of an inch; 8.0′ in height with a tolerance of +0, −3/16 of an inch. The internal dimensions are: 19′4 11/64″ (L); 7′8 17/32″ (W); 7′4 3/16″(H). The 20 foot container is comprised of corrugated steel sides and roofing which give it a favorable strength to weight ratio; two sets of forklift “pockets” that permit forklifts to lift and move laden or unladen containers; wooden flooring tested to withstand 16,000 lbs. per square foot (144 square inches); 24 top and bottom wall tie down steel lashing rings each having a capacity of 4,000 lbs.; and two vents. The twenty foot containers weigh 5,000 lbs. each and can accommodate a payload of 47,910 lbs.
You state that your client intends to assemble the containers from parts originating in South Korea, the People's Republic of China (PRC) and the United States. You state three of the four principal components (the right and left sidewalls and the roof) of the twenty foot container will be made in Korea. You state that the container floor is made in China as well as the two container ends, which includes the doors. The U.S. components are prime and finish coatings, decals, tie backs/welding wire, aluminum shot blast media and sealant.
You describe Sea Box's manufacturing of the container to be a complex industrial process which takes more than day to complete. You list fourteen manufacturing steps that require the manipulation of large components to form a structurally sound container to its precise size in accordance with ISO specifications.
You state that the container must be capable of being stacked up to nine units high, with the base of a stack strong enough to support 423,280 static lbs. above it (8 containers × 58,800 lbs. per container). In addition, the container must be able to support a dynamic load taking into account a vessel's motion in conformity with the American Bureau of Shipping (ABS). You also advise that the containers must be International Container Safety Convention (CSC) certified and manufactured according to ISO standards.
You state in order to be CSC certified in the United States, the manufacturer's facility must be pre-approved for manufacturing CSC-certified containers by a testing and certification organization sanctioned by the U.S. Coast Guard. You also state that the manufacturer must design and build prototype containers of the specific kind and type proposed in the specific facility to be certified and then submit them for testing by the approved organization. You note that only after successful completion of these prerequisites will a company be authorized to manufacture and furnish containers to be included in the internationally accepted ISO system of transportation.
Whether the twenty foot intermodal container is considered to be a product of the United States or Korea for U.S. Government procurement purposes.
Pursuant to Subpart B of Part 177, 19 CFR 177.21
In rendering final determinations for purposes of U.S. Government procurement, CBP applies the provisions of Subpart B of Part 177 consistent with the Federal Procurement Regulations.
An article is a product of a country or instrumentality only if (i) it is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of that country or instrumentality, or (ii) in the case of an article which consists in whole or in part of materials from another country or instrumentality, it has been substantially transformed into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was so transformed.
In order to determine whether a substantial transformation occurs when components of various origins are assembled into completed products, CBP considers the totality of the circumstances and makes such determinations on a case-by-case basis. Substantial transformation occurs when an article emerges from a process with a new name, character or use different from that possessed by the article prior to processing. A substantial transformation will not result from a minor manufacturing or combining process that leaves the identity of the article intact.
In
In
It is your position that the country of origin of the intermodal containers is South Korea because three of the container's components (the roof and two side panels), like
In HQ 555111, dated March 14, 1989, CBP determined that shearing steel sheets to size, along with bending, notching or drilling of the sheared pieces constituted a substantial transformation, such that the container parts were different in character and use from the originally imported steel sheets. It was also
In HQ 557607, dated December 18, 1993, CBP determined that steel plates imported into Mexico and used in the production of certain railway freight cars (referred therein as “railcar tanks”) underwent a double substantial transformation. The steel plates were sandblasted to remove any foreign debris and particles; cut to same length and width in varying sizes; rolled and cold-formed into cylindrical or near-cylindrical shape; tack-welded to hold their shape with seams, then permanently welded using a design-specific welding fixture. Thereafter, the rings were permanently welded in place; and holes were cut into the tank shell in accordance with design specifications for the placement of miscellaneous parts that were also permanently welded. The seams were then subject to X-ray analysis to ensure against any defects, followed by painting with rust-resistant paint primer. CBP determined that the welding and complex assembling of the steel container parts resulted in a new, finished and different article of commerce possessing a distinct name, character and use.
We find that the essential character of the container is imparted by the Korean-origin roof, and two side panels, which, as in
Based upon the specific facts of this case, we find that the country of origin of the intermodal containers for purposes of U.S. Government procurement is Korea.
Notice of this final determination will be given in the
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Committee Management; Notice of Federal Advisory Committee Meeting.
The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) Technical Mapping Advisory Council (TMAC) will meet via conference call on June 6 and 7, 2016. The meeting will be open to the public.
The TMAC will meet via conference call on Monday, June 6, 2016 from 10:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m. Eastern Daylight Time (EDT), and on Tuesday, June 7, 2016 from 10:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m. EDT. Please note that the meeting will close early if the TMAC has completed its business.
For information on how to access to the conference call, information on services for individuals with disabilities, or to request special assistance for the meeting, contact the person listed in
To facilitate public participation, members of the public are invited to provide written comments on the issues to be considered by the TMAC, as listed in the
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A public comment period will be held on June 6, 2016, from 11:00-11:20 a.m. and June 7, 2016 from 11:00-11:20 a.m. EDT. Speakers are requested to limit their comments to no more than two minutes. Each public comment period will not exceed 20 minutes. Please note that the public comment periods may end before the time indicated, following the last call for comments. Contact the individual listed below to register as a speaker by close of business on Thursday, June 2, 2016.
Kathleen Boyer, Designated Federal Officer for the TMAC, FEMA, 1800 South Bell Street Arlington, VA 22202, telephone (202) 646-4023, and email
Notice of this meeting is given under the Federal Advisory Committee Act, 5 U.S.C. Appendix.
As required by the
Further, in accordance with the
U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services, Department of Homeland Security.
60-Day notice.
The Department of Homeland Security (DHS), U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services (USCIS) invites the general public and other Federal agencies to comment upon this proposed revision of a currently approved collection of information. In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, the information collection notice is published in the
Comments are encouraged and will be accepted for 60 days until July 19, 2016.
All submissions received must include the OMB Control Number 1615-0095 in the subject box, the agency name and Docket ID USCIS-2008-0027. To avoid duplicate submissions, please use only
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USCIS, Office of Policy and Strategy, Regulatory Coordination Division, Samantha Deshommes, Acting Chief, 20 Massachusetts Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20529-2140, Telephone number (202) 272-8377 (This is not a toll-free number. Comments are not accepted via telephone message). Please note contact information provided here is solely for questions regarding this notice. It is not for individual case status inquiries. Applicants seeking information about the status of their individual cases can check Case Status Online, available at the USCIS Web site at
You may access the information collection instrument with instructions, or additional information by visiting the Federal eRulemaking Portal site at:
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies should address one or more of the following four points:
(1) Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(2) Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
(3) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(4) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
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U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services, Department of Homeland Security.
30-Day notice.
The Department of Homeland Security (DHS), U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services (USCIS) will be submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and clearance in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The information collection notice was previously published in the
The purpose of this notice is to allow an additional 30 days for public comments. Comments are encouraged and will be accepted until June 20, 2016. This process is conducted in accordance with 5 CFR 1320.10.
Written comments and/or suggestions regarding the item(s) contained in this notice, especially regarding the estimated public burden and associated response time, must be directed to the OMB USCIS Desk Officer via email at
You may wish to consider limiting the amount of personal information that you provide in any voluntary submission you make. For additional information please read the Privacy Act notice that is available via the link in the footer of
USCIS, Office of Policy and Strategy, Regulatory Coordination Division, Samantha Deshommes, Acting Chief, 20 Massachusetts Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20529-2140, Telephone number (202) 272-8377 (This is not a toll-free number. Comments are not accepted via telephone message). Please note contact information provided here is solely for questions regarding this notice. It is not for individual case status inquiries. Applicants seeking information about the status of their individual cases can check Case Status Online, available at the USCIS Web site at
You may access the information collection instrument with instructions, or additional information by visiting the Federal eRulemaking Portal site at:
(1) Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(2) Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
(3) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(4) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
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1. Were under the age of 31 as of June 15, 2012;
2. Came to the United States before reaching their 16th birthday, and established residence at that time;
3. Have continuously resided in the United States since June 15, 2007, up to the present time;
4. Were present in the United States on June 15, 2012, and at the time of making their request for consideration of deferred action with USCIS;
5. Entered without inspection before June 15, 2012, or their lawful
6. Are currently in school, have graduated or obtained a certificate of completion from high school, have obtained a general education development certificate, or are an honorably discharged veteran of the Coast Guard or Armed Forces of the United States; and
7. Have not been convicted of a felony, significant misdemeanor, three or more other misdemeanors, and do not otherwise pose a threat to national security or public safety.
These individuals will be considered for relief from removal from the United States or from being placed into removal proceedings as part of the deferred action for childhood arrivals process. Those who submit requests with USCIS and demonstrate that they meet the threshold guidelines may have removal action in their case deferred for a period of two years, subject to renewal (if not terminated), based on an individualized, case by case assessment of the individual's equities. Only those individuals who can demonstrate, through verifiable documentation, that they meet the threshold guidelines will be considered for deferred action for childhood arrivals, except in exceptional circumstances.
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U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services, Department of Homeland Security.
30-Day notice.
The Department of Homeland Security (DHS), U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services (USCIS) will be submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and clearance in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The information collection notice was previously published in the
The purpose of this notice is to allow an additional 30 days for public comments. Comments are encouraged and will be accepted until June 20, 2016. This process is conducted in accordance with 5 CFR 1320.10.
Written comments and/or suggestions regarding the item(s) contained in this notice, especially regarding the estimated public burden and associated response time, must be directed to the OMB USCIS Desk Officer via email at
You may wish to consider limiting the amount of personal information that you provide in any voluntary submission you make. For additional information please read the Privacy Act notice that is available via the link in the footer of
USCIS, Office of Policy and Strategy, Regulatory Coordination Division, Samantha Deshommes, Acting Chief, 20 Massachusetts Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20529-2140, Telephone number (202) 272-8377 (This is not a toll-free number. Comments are not accepted via telephone message). Please note contact information provided here is solely for questions regarding this notice. It is not for individual case status inquiries. Applicants seeking information about the status of their individual cases can check Case Status Online, available at the USCIS Web site at
You may access the information collection instrument with instructions, or additional information by visiting the Federal eRulemaking Portal site at:
(1) Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(2) Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
(3) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(4) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
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• 65,000 respondents averaging 2.26 hours (2 hours 16 minutes) per response
• 425,000, the number of already-enrolled respondents receiving training on new features and system updates averaging 1 hour per response; plus
• 425,000, the number of respondents submitting E-Verify cases averaging .129 hours (approximately 8 minutes) per case; plus
• 232,900, the number of respondents submitting reverification cases averaging .06 hours (approximately 4 minutes) per case.
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Office of the Assistant Secretary for Community Planning and Development, HUD.
Notice.
This Notice identifies unutilized, underutilized, excess, and surplus Federal property reviewed by HUD for suitability for possible use to assist the homeless.
Juanita Perry, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 Seventh Street SW., Room 7262, Washington, DC 20410; telephone (202) 402-3970; TTY number for the hearing- and speech-impaired (202) 708-2565, (these telephone numbers are not toll-free), or call the toll-free Title V information line at 800-927-7588.
In accordance with the December 12, 1988 court order in
Fish and Wildlife Service, Interior.
Notice of availability; request for comments.
We, the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, invite the public to comment on the following applications to conduct activities intended to enhance the survival of endangered species.
To ensure consideration, please send your written comments by June 20, 2016.
You may submit comments or requests for copies or more information by any of the following methods. Alternatively, you may use one of the following methods to request hard copies or a CD-ROM of the documents. Please specify the permit you are interested in by number (
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Kathy Konishi, Recovery Permits Coordinator, Ecological Services, (719) 628-2670 (phone);
The Act (16 U.S.C. 1531
A permit granted by us under section 10(a)(1)(A) of the Act authorizes the permittees to conduct activities with U.S. endangered or threatened species for scientific purposes, enhancement of propagation or survival, or interstate commerce (the latter only in the event that it facilitates scientific purposes or enhancement of propagation or survival). Our regulations implementing section 10(a)(1)(A) for these permits are found at 50 CFR 17.22 for endangered wildlife species, 50 CFR 17.32 for threatened wildlife species, 50 CFR 17.62 for endangered plant species, and 50 CFR 17.72 for threatened plant species.
We invite local, State, and Federal agencies and the public to comment on the following applications. Documents and other information the applicants have submitted with their applications are available for review, subject to the requirements of the Privacy Act (5 U.S.C. 552a) and Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552).
The applicant requests a permit to conduct presence/absence surveys for Uncompahgre fritillary butterflies (
The applicant requests a renewal for an existing permit to continue presence/absence surveys for southwestern willow flycatcher (
The applicant requests a permit to conduct presence/absence surveys for pallid sturgeon (
The proposed activities in the requested permits qualify as categorical exclusions under the National Environmental Policy Act, as provided by Department of the Interior implementing regulations in part 46 of title 43 of the Code of Federal Regulations (43 CFR 46.205, 46.210, and 46.215).
All comments and materials we receive in response to these requests will be available for public inspection, by appointment, during normal business hours at the address listed in the
Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
We provide this notice under section 10 of the Act (16 U.S.C. 1531
Bureau of Land Management, Interior.
Notice of public meeting.
In accordance with the Federal Land Policy and Management Act and the Federal Advisory Committee Act of 1972, and the U.S. Department of the Interior, Bureau of Land Management (BLM), the Steens Mountain Advisory Council (SMAC) will meet as indicated below:
Monday, June 20, 2016 from 8 a.m. to 5 p.m. for an all-day field tour on the east side of Steens Mountain, and Tuesday, June 21, 2016 from 8:30 a.m. to 12 p.m., at the Frenchglen School, Frenchglen, Oregon. Daily sessions may end early if all business items are accomplished ahead of schedule, or go longer if discussions warrant more time.
Tara Thissell, Public Affairs Specialist, BLM Burns District Office, 28910 Highway 20 West, Hines, Oregon 97738, (541) 573-4519, or email
The SMAC was initiated August 14, 2001, pursuant to the Steens Mountain Cooperative Management and Protection Act of 2000 (Pub. L. 106-399). The SMAC provides representative counsel and advice to the BLM regarding new and unique approaches to management of the land within the bounds of the Steens Mountain Cooperative Management and Protection Area, recommends cooperative programs and incentives for landscape management that meet human needs, and advises the BLM on maintenance and improvement of the ecological and economic integrity of the area. Agenda items for the June 20 and 21 sessions include: A field tour to Pike Creek, Frog Springs, and other sites on the east side of Steens Mountain; updates from the Designated Federal Official and the Andrews/Steens Resource Area Field Manager; discussions regarding projects for the Steens Mountain Comprehensive Recreation Plan, inholder access, and fencing in the No Livestock Grazing Area; and regular business items such as approving the previous meeting's minutes, member round-table, and planning the next meeting's agenda. Any other matters that may reasonably come before the SMAC may also be addressed. The public may attend the field tour but must provide their own transportation. A public comment period is available during the June 21 session. Unless otherwise approved by the SMAC Chair, the public comment period will last no longer than 30 minutes, and each speaker may address the SMAC for a maximum of five minutes. The public is welcome to attend all sessions, including the field tour, but must provide personal transportation.
On the basis of the record
Pursuant to section 207.18 of the Commission's rules, the Commission also gives notice of the commencement of the final phase of its investigations. The Commission will issue a final phase notice of scheduling, which will be published in the
On March 31, 2016, Compass Chemical International LLC, Smyrna, Georgia, filed a petition with the Commission and Commerce, alleging that an industry in the United States is materially injured or threatened with material injury by reason of LTFV and subsidized imports of 1-hydroxyethylidene-1, 1-diphosphonic acid from China. Accordingly, effective March 31, 2016, the Commission, pursuant to sections 703(a) and 733(a) of the Tariff Act of 1930 (19 U.S.C. 1671b(a) and 1673b(a)), instituted countervailing duty investigation No. 701-TA-558 and antidumping duty investigation No. 731-TA-1316 (Preliminary).
Notice of the institution of the Commission's investigations and of a public conference to be held in connection therewith was given by posting copies of the notice in the Office of the Secretary, U.S. International Trade Commission, Washington, DC, and by publishing the notice in the
The Commission made these determinations pursuant to sections 703(a) and 733(a) of the Tariff Act of 1930 (19 U.S.C. 1671b(a) and 1673b(a)). It completed and filed its determinations in these investigations on May 16, 2016. The views of the Commission are contained in USITC Publication 4612 (May 2016), entitled
By order of the Commission.
Notice of registration.
Pharmacore, Inc. applied to be registered as a manufacturer of certain basic classes of controlled substances. The Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) grants Pharmacore, Inc. registration as a manufacturer of those controlled substances.
By notice dated January 27, 2016, and published in the
The DEA has considered the factors in 21 U.S.C. 823(a) and determined that the registration of Pharmacore, Inc. to manufacture the basic classes of controlled substances is consistent with the public interest and with United States obligations under international treaties, conventions, or protocols in effect on May 1, 1971. The DEA investigated the company's maintenance of effective controls against diversion by inspecting and testing the company's physical security systems, verifying the company's compliance with state and local laws, and reviewing the company's background and history.
Therefore, pursuant to 21 U.S.C. 823(a), and in accordance with 21 CFR 1301.33, the above-named company is granted registration as a bulk manufacturer of the following basic classes of controlled substances:
The company plans to manufacture the listed controlled substances as active pharmaceutical ingredients (APIs) for clinical trials.
Notice of application.
Registered bulk manufacturers of the affected basic classes, and applicants therefore, may file written comments on or objections to the issuance of the proposed registration in accordance with 21 CFR 1301.33(a) on or before July 19, 2016.
Written comments should be sent to: Drug Enforcement Administration, Attention: DEA Federal Register Representative/ODW, 8701 Morrissette Drive, Springfield, Virginia 22152.
The Attorney General has delegated her authority under the Controlled Substances Act to the Administrator of the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA), 28 CFR 0.100(b). Authority to exercise all necessary functions with respect to the promulgation and implementation of 21 CFR part 1301, incident to the registration of manufacturers, distributors, dispensers, importers, and exporters of controlled substances (other than final orders in connection with suspension, denial, or revocation of registration) has been redelegated to the Deputy Assistant Administrator of the DEA Office of Diversion Control (“Deputy Assistant Administrator”) pursuant to section 7 of 28 CFR part 0, appendix to subpart R.
In accordance with 21 CFR 1301.33(a), this is notice that on February 19, 2016, Mallinckrodt, LLC, 3600 North Second Street, Saint Louis, Missouri 63147 applied to be registered as a bulk manufacturer of the following basic classes of controlled substances:
The company plans to manufacturer bulk active pharmaceutical ingredients (APIs) for distribution to its customers.
Notice of application.
Registered bulk manufacturers of the affected basic classes, and applicants therefore, may file written comments on or objections to the issuance of the proposed registration in accordance with 21 CFR 1301.33(a) on or before July 19, 2016.
Written comments should be sent to: Drug Enforcement Administration, Attention: DEA Federal Register Representative/ODW, 8701 Morrissette Drive, Springfield, Virginia 22152.
The Attorney General has delegated her authority under the Controlled Substances Act to the Administrator of the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA), 28 CFR 0.100(b). Authority to exercise all necessary functions with respect to the promulgation and implementation of 21 CFR part 1301, incident to the registration of manufacturers, distributors, dispensers, importers, and exporters of controlled substances (other than final orders in connection with suspension, denial, or revocation of registration) has been redelegated to the Deputy Assistant Administrator of the DEA Office of Diversion Control (“Deputy Assistant Administrator”) pursuant to section 7 of 28 CFR part 0, appendix to subpart R.
In accordance with 21 CFR 1301.33(a), this is notice that on March 3, 2016, American Radiolabeled Chemicals, 101 Arc Drive, Saint Louis, Missouri 63146 applied to be registered as a bulk manufacturer of the following basic classes of controlled substances:
The company plans to manufacture small quantities of the listed controlled substances as radiolabeled compounds for biochemical research.
Drug Enforcement Administration, Department of Justice.
Order with opportunity for comment.
The applications for exempt chemical preparations received by the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) between January 1, 2016, and March 31, 2016, as listed below, were accepted for filing and have been approved or denied as indicated.
Interested persons may file written comments on this order in accordance with 21 CFR 1308.23(e). Electronic comments must be submitted, and written comments must be postmarked, on or before July 19, 2016. Commenters should be aware that the electronic Federal Docket Management System will not accept comments after 11:59 p.m. Eastern Time on the last day of the comment period.
To ensure proper handling of comments, please reference “Docket No. DEA-372” on all correspondence, including any attachments. The Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) encourages that all comments be submitted through the Federal eRulemaking Portal, which provides the ability to type short comments directly into the comment field on the Web page or to attach a file for lengthier comments. Please go to
Barbara J. Boockholdt, Office of Diversion Control, Drug Enforcement Administration; Mailing Address: 8701 Morrissette Drive, Springfield, Virginia 22152; Telephone: (202) 598-6812.
Please note that all comments received are considered part of the public record and made available for public inspection online at
If you want to submit personal identifying information (such as your name, address, etc.) as part of your comment, but do not want it to be posted online or made available in the public docket, you must include the phrase “PERSONAL IDENTIFYING INFORMATION” in the first paragraph of your comment. You must also place all the personal identifying information you do not want posted online or made available in the public docket in the first paragraph of your comment and identify what information you want redacted.
If you want to submit confidential business information as part of your comment, but do not want it to be posted online or made available in the public docket, you must include the phrase “CONFIDENTIAL BUSINESS INFORMATION” in the first paragraph of your comment. You must also prominently identify confidential business information to be redacted within the comment.
Comments containing personal identifying information and confidential business information identified as directed above will generally be made publicly available in redacted form. If a comment has so much confidential business information that it cannot be effectively redacted, all or part of that comment may not be made publicly available. Comments posted to
An electronic copy of this document is available at
The Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) implements and enforces titles II and III of the Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act of 1970, as amended. Titles II and III are referred to as the “Controlled Substances Act” and the “Controlled Substances Import and Export Act,” respectively, and are collectively referred to as the “Controlled Substances Act” or the “CSA” for the purpose of this action. 21 U.S.C. 801-971. The DEA published the implementing regulations for these statutes in title 21 of the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR), chapter II.
The CSA and its implementing regulations are designed to prevent, detect, and eliminate the diversion of controlled substances and listed chemicals into the illicit market while ensuring an adequate supply is available for the legitimate medical, scientific, research, and industrial needs of the United States. Controlled substances have the potential for abuse and dependence and are controlled to protect the public health and safety.
Section 201 of the CSA (21 U.S.C. 811) authorizes the Attorney General, by regulation, to exempt from certain provisions of the CSA certain compounds, mixtures, or preparations containing a controlled substance, if she finds that such compounds, mixtures, or preparations meet the requirements detailed in 21 U.S.C. 811(g)(3)(B).
The Deputy Assistant Administrator received applications between January 1, 2016, and March 31, 2016, requesting exempt chemical preparation status detailed in 21 CFR 1308.23. Pursuant to the criteria stated in 21 U.S.C. 811(g)(3)(B) and in 21 CFR 1308.23, the Deputy Assistant Administrator has found that each of the compounds, mixtures, and preparations described in Chart I below is intended for laboratory, industrial, educational, or special research purposes and not for general administration to a human being or animal and either: (1) Contains no narcotic controlled substance and is packaged in such a form or concentration that the packaged quantity does not present any significant potential for abuse; or (2) contains either a narcotic or non-narcotic controlled substance and one or more adulterating or denaturing agents in such a manner, combination, quantity, proportion, or concentration that the preparation or mixture does not present any potential for abuse; if the preparation or mixture contains a narcotic controlled substance, it must be formulated in such a manner that it incorporates methods of denaturing or other means so that the preparation or mixture is not liable to be abused or have ill effects if abused, and so that the narcotic substance cannot in practice be removed.
Accordingly, pursuant to 21 U.S.C. 811(g)(3)(B), and in accordance with 21 CFR 1308.23 and 21 CFR 1308.24, the Deputy Assistant Administrator has determined that each of the chemical preparations or mixtures generally described in Chart I below and specifically described in the application materials received by the DEA, are exempt, to the extent described in 21 CFR 1308.24, from application of sections 302, 303, 305, 306, 307, 308, 309, 1002, 1003, and 1004 (21 U.S.C. 822-823, 825-829, and 952-954) of the CSA, and 21 CFR 1301.74, as of the date that was provided in the approval letters to the individual requesters.
The Deputy Assistant Administrator has found that each of the compounds, mixtures, and preparations described in Chart II below is not consistent with the criteria stated in 21 U.S.C. 811(g)(3)(B) and in 21 CFR 1308.23. Accordingly, the
The exemptions are applicable only to the precise preparation or mixture described in the application submitted to DEA in the form(s) listed in this order and only for those sections of the CSA and the CFR that are specifically identified. In accordance with 21 CFR 1308.24(h), any change in the quantitative or qualitative composition of the preparation or mixture, or change in the trade name or other designation of the preparation or mixture after the date of application requires a new application. In accordance with 21 CFR 1308.24(g), the DEA may prescribe requirements other than those set forth in 1308.24(b)-(e) on a case-by-case basis for materials exempted in bulk quantities. Accordingly, in order to limit opportunity for diversion from the larger bulk quantities, the DEA has determined that each of the exempted bulk products listed in this order may only be used in-house by the manufacturer, and may not be distributed for any purpose, or transported to other facilities.
Additional exempt chemical preparation requests received between January 1, 2016, and March 31, 2016, and not otherwise referenced in this order may remain under consideration until the DEA receives additional information required, in accordance with 21 CFR 1308.23(d), as detailed in separate correspondence to individual requesters. The DEA's order on such requests will be communicated to the public in a future
The DEA also notes that these exemptions are limited to exemption from only those sections of the CSA and the CFR that are specifically identified in 21 CFR 1308.24(a). All other requirements of the CSA and the CFR apply, including registration as an importer as required by 21 U.S.C. 957.
The statutory authority for exempt chemical preparations is based on the control status of substances contained within a preparation, the intended administration of a preparation, and the packaged form of a preparation. The DEA conducts a case-by-case analysis of each application for exemption to determine whether exemption of a preparation from certain provisions of the CSA is appropriate pursuant to the specified statutory and regulatory requirements.
Most exempt chemical preparations have remained effective until the holder of a specific exempt chemical preparation specifically requested that the exemption be terminated. The CSA allows for modifications to the controlled substances schedules to add, remove, or change the schedule of substances thus resulting in periodic modifications to the control status of various substances. 21 U.S.C. 811(a). Since the CSA was enacted in 1970, the DEA has on several occasions added to, removed from, or modified the schedules of controlled substances in accordance with the CSA. Such changes may result in the non-compliance of exempt chemical preparations with current statutes or regulations if chemical preparations that have already obtained exempt status contain newly controlled substances. For example, although an exempt chemical preparation may continue to be packaged in the same manner as when it was approved, non-controlled substances in the preparation may become controlled, thus prompting the need for a new application for exemption of the chemical preparation to ensure continued compliance. Other preparations that previously contained no controlled substances may contain newly controlled substances and thus would require an application for exemption.
The DEA reviews applications for chemical preparation exemptions based on the statutes and regulations that are in place at the time of the application, including the control status of substances included in the preparation. The DEA must remain vigilant to ensure that exempt chemical preparations remain consistent with the standards set forth in the CSA and its implementing regulations. As such, the DEA reminds the public that any chemical preparation, regardless of whether it was previously exempt, that contains a newly controlled substance will require a new application for exemption pursuant to 21 U.S.C. 811(g)(3)(B) and 21 CFR 1308.23-1308.24.
Pursuant to 21 CFR 1308.23, any interested person may submit written comments on or objections to any chemical preparation in this order that has been approved or denied as exempt. If any comments or objections raise significant issues regarding any finding of fact or conclusion of law upon which this order is based, the Deputy Assistant Administrator will immediately suspend the effectiveness of any applicable part of this order until he may reconsider the application in light of the comments and objections filed.
A list of all current exemptions, including those listed in this order, is available on the DEA's Web site at
Office of the Secretary, DOL.
Notice.
The Department of Labor (DOL) is submitting the Employment and Training Administration (ETA) sponsored information collection request (ICR) revision titled, “Unemployment Insurance Materials Transmittal,” to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval for use in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
The OMB will consider all written comments that agency receives on or before June 20, 2016.
A copy of this ICR with applicable supporting documentation; including a description of the likely respondents, proposed frequency of response, and estimated total burden may be obtained free of charge from the RegInfo.gov Web site at
Submit comments about this request by mail or courier to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Attn: OMB Desk Officer for DOL-ETA, Office of Management and Budget, Room 10235, 725 17th Street NW., Washington, DC 20503; by Fax: 202-395-5806 (this is not a toll-free number); or by email:
Contact Michel Smyth by telephone at 202-693-4129, TTY 202-693-8064, (these are not toll-free numbers) or sending an email to
44 U.S.C. 3507(a)(1)(D).
This ICR seeks approval under the PRA for revisions to the Unemployment Insurance Materials Transmittal information collection. Social Security Act (SSA) section 303(a)(6) requires, as a condition of a State receiving an administrative grant, that State law provide for making reports, in such form and containing such information, as the Secretary of Labor may from time to time require and compliance with such provisions as the Secretary of Labor may from time to time find necessary to assure the correctness and verification of such reports. Regulations 20 CFR 601.3, in part, implements this requirement by requiring submission of all relevant State materials (
This information collection is subject to the PRA. A Federal agency generally cannot conduct or sponsor a collection of information, and the public is generally not required to respond to an information collection, unless it is approved by the OMB under the PRA and displays a currently valid OMB Control Number. In addition, notwithstanding any other provisions of law, no person shall generally be subject to penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information that does not display a valid Control Number.
Interested parties are encouraged to send comments to the OMB, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs at the address shown in the
• Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
• Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
• Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
• Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
Mine Safety and Health Administration, Labor.
Request for public comments.
The Department of Labor, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, conducts a pre-clearance consultation program to provide the general public and Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on proposed collections of information in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, 44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A). This program helps to assure that requested data can be provided in the desired format, reporting burden (time and financial resources) is minimized, collection instruments are clearly understood, and the impact of collection requirements on respondents can be properly assessed. Currently, the Mine Safety and Health Administration (MSHA) is soliciting comments on the information collection for Operations Under Water.
All comments must be received on or before July 18, 2016.
Comments concerning the information collection requirements of this notice may be sent by any of the methods listed below.
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Sheila McConnell, Director, Office of Standards, Regulations, and Variances, MSHA, at
Title 30 CFR Sections 75.1716, 75.1716-1 and 75.1716-3 require operators of underground coal mines to provide MSHA notification before mining under bodies of water and to obtain a permit to mine under a body of water if, in the judgment of the Secretary, it is sufficiently large to constitute a hazard to miners. The regulation is necessary to prevent the inundation of underground coal mines with water that has the potential of drowning miners.
The coal mine operator submits an application for the permit to the District Manager in whose district the mine is located. Applications contain the name and address of the mine; projected mining and ground support plans; a mine map showing the location of the river, stream, lake or other body of water and its relation to the location of all working places; and a profile map showing the type of strata and the distance in elevation between the coal bed and the water involved. MSHA has provided an exemption from notification and permit application for mine operators where the projected mining is under any water reservoir constructed by a Federal agency as of December 30, 1969, and where the operator is required by such agency to operate in a manner that adequately protects the safety of miners. The exemption for such mining is addressed by 30 CFR Sections 75.1716 and 75.1717.
MSHA also encourages a mine operator to provide more information in an application. When the operator files an application for a permit, in addition to the information required under 30 CFR Section 75.1716-3, operators are also encouraged to include a map of the active areas of the mine under the body of water showing the following: Bottom of coal elevations (minimum 10-ft contour intervals); the limits of the body of water and the estimated quantity of water in the pool; the limits of the proposed “safety zone” within which precautions will be taken; overburden thickness (depth of cover) contours; corehole locations; and known faults, lineaments, and other geologic features.
If the body of water is contained within an overlying mine, then MSHA recommends a map of the overlying mine showing bottom of coal elevations (minimum 10-ft contour intervals), when available, corehole locations, the limits of the body of water with the estimated quantity of water in the pool, and interburden to active mine below be provided. Operators are also encouraged to submit the methods that were used to estimate the quantity of water in the pool, borehole logs, including geotechnical information (RQD, fracture logs, etc.) if available; rock mechanics data on the overburden, interburden, mine roof, and mine floor, if available; mining height of the seam being mined, pillar and floor stability analyses for the active mine, whether second mining is planned, whether mining will be conducted down-dip or up-dip, where water will flow to in the active mine if encountered, pumping capabilities for dewatering, a comprehensive evacuation plan for the miners, and a statement of what in-mine conditions would trigger the implementation of the evacuation plan, and training that will be provided to the miners regarding the potential hazards.
MSHA is soliciting comments concerning the proposed information collection related to Operations Under Water. MSHA is particularly interested in comments that:
• Evaluate whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information has practical utility;
• Evaluate the accuracy of MSHA's estimate of the burden of the collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
• Suggest methods to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
• Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
The information collection request will be available on
The public may also examine publicly available documents at USDOL—Mine Safety and Health Administration, 201 12th South, Suite 4E401, Arlington, VA 22202-5452. Sign in at the receptionist's desk on the 4th floor via the East elevator.
Questions about the information collection requirements may be directed to the person listed in the
This request for collection of information contains provisions for Operations Under Water. MSHA has updated the data with respect to the number of respondents, responses, burden hours, and burden costs supporting this information collection request.
Comments submitted in response to this notice will be summarized and included in the request for Office of Management and Budget approval of the information collection request; they will also become a matter of public record.
Mine Safety and Health Administration, Labor.
Request for public comments.
The Department of Labor, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, conducts a pre-clearance consultation program to provide the general public and Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on proposed collections of information in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, 44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A). This program helps to assure that requested data can be provided in the desired format, reporting burden (time and financial resources) is minimized, collection instruments are clearly understood, and the impact of collection requirements on respondents can be properly assessed. Currently, the Mine Safety and Health Administration (MSHA) is soliciting comments on the information collection for Application for a Permit to Fire More than 20 Boreholes and/or for the use of Nonpermissible Blasting Units, Explosives, and Shot-firing Units; Posting Notices of Misfires.
All comments must be received on or before July 19, 2016.
Comments concerning the information collection requirements of this notice may be sent by any of the methods listed below.
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Sheila McConnell, Director, Office of Standards, Regulations, and Variances, MSHA, at
Under section 313 of the Federal Mine Safety and Health Act of 1977 (Mine Act), 30 U.S.C. 873, any explosives used in underground coal mines must be permissible. The Mine Act also provides that, under safeguards prescribed by the Secretary of Labor, a mine operator may permit the firing of more than 20 shots and the use of nonpermissible explosives in sinking shafts and slopes from the surface in rock. Title 30 CFR 75.1321 outlines the procedures by which a permit may be issued for the firing of more than 20 boreholes and/or the use of nonpermissible shot-firing units in underground coal mines. In those instances in which there is a misfire of explosives, section 75.1327 requires that a qualified person post each accessible entrance to the affected area with a warning to prohibit entry. Section 77.1909-1 outlines the procedures by which a coal mine operator may apply for a permit to use nonpermissible explosives and/or shot-firing units in the blasting of rock while sinking shafts or slopes for underground coal mines.
MSHA is soliciting comments concerning the proposed information collection related to Application for a Permit to Fire More than 20 Boreholes and/or for the use of Nonpermissible Blasting Units, Explosives, and Shot-firing Units; Posting Notices of Misfires. MSHA is particularly interested in comments that:
• Evaluate whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information has practical utility;
• Evaluate the accuracy of MSHA's estimate of the burden of the collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
• Suggest methods to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
• Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
The information collection request will be available on
The public may also examine publicly available documents at USDOL-Mine Safety and Health Administration, 201 12th South, Suite 4E401, Arlington, VA 22202-5452. Sign in at the receptionist's desk on the 4th floor via the East elevator.
Questions about the information collection requirements may be directed to the person listed in the
This request for collection of information contains provisions for Application for a Permit to Fire More than 20 Boreholes and/or for the use of Nonpermissible Blasting Units, Explosives, and Shot-firing Units; Posting Notices of Misfires. MSHA has updated the data with respect to the number of respondents, responses, burden hours, and burden costs supporting this information collection request.
Comments submitted in response to this notice will be summarized and included in the request for Office of Management and Budget approval of the information collection request; they will also become a matter of public record.
Mine Safety and Health Administration, Labor.
Request for public comments.
The Department of Labor, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, conducts a pre-clearance consultation program to provide the general public and Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on proposed collections of information in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, 44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A). This program helps to assure that requested data can be provided in the desired format, reporting burden (time and financial resources) is minimized, collection instruments are clearly understood, and the impact of collection requirements on respondents can be properly assessed. Currently, the Mine Safety and Health Administration (MSHA) is soliciting comments on the information collection for Certificate of Electrical Training and Applications for MSHA Approved Tests and State Tests Administered as Part of an MSHA-approved State Program.
All comments must be received on or before July 19, 2016.
Comments concerning the information collection requirements of this notice may be sent by any of the methods listed below.
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Sheila McConnell, Director, Office of Standards, Regulations, and Variances, MSHA, at
Under section 305(g) of the Federal Mine Safety and Health Act of 1977 (Mine Act), all electric equipment shall be frequently examined, tested, and properly maintained by a qualified person to assure safe operating conditions.
Title 30 CFR 75.153 and 77.103 define a person as qualified to perform electrical work if he has been qualified as a coal mine electrician by a State that has a coal mine electrical qualification program approved by MSHA; or if he has at least one year of experience performing electrical work underground in a coal mine, in a surface coal mine, in a noncoal mine, in the mine equipment manufacturing industry, or in any other industry using or manufacturing similar equipment, and has satisfactorily completed a coal mine electrical training program approved by MSHA or has attained a satisfactory grade on a series of five written tests approved by MSHA.
MSHA Form 5000-1 provides the coal mining industry with a standardized reporting format that expedites the certification process while ensuring compliance with the regulations. The information provided on the form enables MSHA to determine if the applicants satisfy the requirements to obtain the certification or qualification.
MSHA is soliciting comments concerning the proposed information collection related to Certificate of Electrical Training and Applications for MSHA Approved Tests and State Tests Administered as Part of an MSHA-approved State Program. MSHA is particularly interested in comments that:
• Evaluate whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information has practical utility;
• Evaluate the accuracy of MSHA's estimate of the burden of the collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
• Suggest methods to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
• Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
The information collection request will be available on
The public may also examine publicly available documents at USDOL-Mine Safety and Health Administration, 201 12th South, Suite 4E401, Arlington, VA 22202-5452. Sign in at the receptionist's desk on the 4th floor via the East elevator.
Questions about the information collection requirements may be directed to the person listed in the
This request for collection of information contains provisions for Certificate of Electrical Training and Applications for MSHA Approved Tests and State Tests Administered as Part of an MSHA-approved State Program. MSHA has updated the data with respect to the number of respondents, responses, burden hours, and burden costs supporting this information collection request.
Comments submitted in response to this notice will be summarized and included in the request for Office of Management and Budget approval of the information collection request; they will also become a matter of public record.
National Credit Union Administration (NCUA).
Notice.
The National Credit Union Administration (NCUA) will submit the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and clearance in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13, on or after the date of publication of this notice.
Comments should be received on or before June 20, 2016 to be assured of consideration.
Send comments regarding the burden estimate, or any other aspect of the information collection, including suggestions for reducing the burden, to (1) Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget, Attention: Desk Officer for NCUA, New Executive Office Building, Room 10235, Washington, DC 20503, or email at
Copies of the submission may be obtained by emailing
By Gerard Poliquin, Secretary of the Board, the National Credit Union Administration, on May 16, 2016.
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Generic communications; withdrawal.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) is withdrawing selected generic communications because they have been superseded or they contain information that is no longer applicable.
The effective date of the withdrawals is May 20, 2016.
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2016-0101 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information regarding this document. You may obtain publicly-available information related to this document using any of the following methods:
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Angela M. Baxter, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; telephone: 301-415-2976; email:
The NRC is withdrawing selected generic communications because they have been superseded or they contain information that is no longer applicable. The withdrawal includes the original generic communication and any supplements or revisions. The NRC plans to publish withdrawals of selected generic communications on a quarterly basis until all generic communications are brought up to date. A withdrawal does not change licensee commitments to the document. The withdrawn generic communications will not be available for use in the future. The generic communications Web site (
• Generic communications regarding the “Operator Licensing Examination
• AL 1993-02, “Implementing the Revised Systematic Assessment of Licensee Performance (SALP) Program,” and AL 1998-07, “Interim Suspension of the Systematic Assessment of Licensee Performance (SALP) Program,” are withdrawn because the Commission approved termination of the SALP program in the staff requirements memorandum for SECY-00-0049, “Results of the Revised Oversight Process Pilot Program,” dated February 24, 2000.
• AL 1993-04, “Announcement of Forthcoming Public Meetings on Whistleblower Protection Activities,” is withdrawn because these meetings have been held. There is no summary or transcript available for these meetings.
• AL 1993-05, “Announcement of Public Workshop on the Form and Content of Design Certification Rules,” is withdrawn. The workshops were held and the transcript is publicly available in ADAMS (see “Availability of Documents” section).
• AL 1994-01, “Forthcoming NRC Meeting with Industry to Discuss the Potential for Pressure Locking and Thermal Binding of Gate Valves,” is withdrawn because the meeting has been held. There is no summary or transcript available for this meeting.
• AL 1994-04, “Change of the NRC Operations Center Commercial Telephone and Facsimile Numbers,” and AL 1995-01, “Change in Commercial Telephone and Facsimile Numbers at Nuclear Regulatory Commission Headquarters,” are withdrawn because the changes and updates have been implemented and distributed. The current telephone numbers at the NRC Headquarters and Operations Center are available on the NRC's public Web site,
• AL 1994-05, “Notification Concerning Changes to 10 CFR part 55” [part 55 of title 10 of the
• AL 1994-08, “Consolidation of the NRC Region V and Region IV Offices,” is withdrawn because the consolidation has taken place. A list of current NRC Headquarters and Regional offices is available on the NRC's public Web site,
• AL 1994-10, “Distribution of NUREG-1478, `Non-Power Reactor Operator Licensing Examiner Standards,' ” is withdrawn because the distribution was for information only. To view the latest version of NUREG-1478, please go to
• AL 1994-13, “Access to Nuclear Regulatory Commission Bulletin Board Systems,” is withdrawn because availability of the NRC bulletin board system has been superseded by the NRC public Web site and list server program. To stay current with news and information from the NRC, you may subscribe to multiple automatic updates by email, including RSS feeds, GovDelivery subscription services, and Lyris subscription services. To enroll, or for more information about the individual updates available, please go to
• AL 1994-14, “Distribution of Supplement to NUREG-1021, `Operator Licensing Examiner Standards,' ” is withdrawn because the distribution was for information only. To view the latest version of NUREG-1021, please go to
• AL 1994-15, “Reorganization of the Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation,” and AL 1999-01, “Reorganization of the Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation,” are withdrawn because the reorganization has been accomplished. For current organizational information, including branch level functional statements and an organization chart for the Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, please go to
• AL 1994-17, “Addressing Correspondence to the NRC,” is withdrawn. AL 1994-17 indicates that all written correspondence is to be addressed to the NRC's Document Control Desk to ensure the correspondence is entered into the NRC's Nuclear Document Control System (NUDOCS). The NRC staff no longer uses NUDOCS; ADAMS is the current records management system.
• AL 1995-05, “Revisions to Staff Guidance for Implementing NRC Policy on Notices of Enforcement Discretion,” is withdrawn because it has been superseded by RIS 2005-01, Revision 1, “Changes to Notice of Enforcement Discretion Process and Staff Guidance,” which transmits NRC Inspection Manual Chapter 0410, “Notices of Enforcement Discretion,” dated March 13, 2013.
• AL 1998-02, “Revisions to Event Reporting Guidelines for Power Reactors,” is withdrawn because this information is now available on the NRC's public Web site. For a complete listing of NRC reports associated with events, please go to
• AL 1998-05, “Availability of Summaries in Electronic Format of Technical Reports by the Office for Analysis and Evaluation of Operational Data,” is withdrawn because this information is now available on the NRC's public Web site. For a complete listing of reports or brochures on regulatory decisions, results of research, results of incident investigations, and other technical and administrative information, please go to
• AL 1998-08, “Availability of Revised NRC Form 3, `Notice to Employees,' and Closure of NRC Walnut Creek Field Office,” is withdrawn. AL 1999-04, “Availability of Revised NRC Form 3, `Notice to Employees,' ” transmitted a revised version of Form 3 and is also withdrawn. To view a current version of NRC Form 3 (5/2012), please go to
• GL 1991-18, Revision 1, “Information to Licensees Regarding NRC Inspection Manual Section on Resolution of Degraded and Nonconforming Condition,” is withdrawn. GL 1991-18 has been superseded by RIS 2005-20, Revision 2, “Revision to NRC Inspection Manual Part 9900 Technical Guidance—`Operability Determination & Functionality Assessments for Resolution of Degraded or Nonconforming conditions Adverse to
The documents identified in the following table are available to interested persons as indicated.
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Postal Regulatory Commission.
Notice.
The Commission is noticing a recent Postal Service filing concerning notice to enter into an additional Global Reseller Expedited Package Services 2 negotiated service agreement. This notice informs the public of the filing, invites public comment, and takes other administrative steps.
Submit comments electronically via the Commission's Filing Online system at
David A. Trissell, General Counsel, at 202-789-6820.
On May 13, 2016, the Postal Service filed notice that it has entered into an additional Global Reseller Expedited Package Services 2 (GREPS 2) negotiated service agreement (Agreement).
To support its Notice, the Postal Service filed a copy of the Agreement, a copy of the Governors' Decision authorizing the product, a certification of compliance with 39 U.S.C. 3633(a), and an application for non-public treatment of certain materials. It also filed supporting financial workpapers.
The Commission establishes Docket No. CP2016-168 for consideration of matters raised by the Notice.
The Commission invites comments on whether the Postal Service's filing is consistent with 39 U.S.C. 3632, 3633, or 3642, 39 CFR part 3015, and 39 CFR part 3020, subpart B. Comments are due no later than May 23, 2016. The public portions of the filing can be accessed via the Commission's Web site (
The Commission appoints Natalie R. Ward to serve as Public Representative in this docket.
1. The Commission establishes Docket No. CP2016-168 for consideration of the matters raised by the Postal Service's Notice.
2. Pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 505, Natalie R. Ward is appointed to serve as an officer of the Commission to represent the interests of the general public in this proceeding (Public Representative).
3. Comments are due no later than May 23, 2016.
4. The Secretary shall arrange for publication of this order in the
By the Commission.
Postal Regulatory Commission.
Notice.
The Commission is noticing a recent Postal Service filing concerning the addition of Priority Mail Contract 214 to the competitive product list. This notice informs the public of the filing, invites public comment, and takes other administrative steps.
Submit comments electronically via the Commission's Filing Online system at
David A. Trissell, General Counsel, at 202-789-6820.
In accordance with 39 U.S.C. 3642 and 39 CFR 3020.30-.35, the Postal Service filed a formal request and associated supporting information to add Priority Mail Contract 214 to the competitive product list.
The Postal Service contemporaneously filed a redacted contract related to the proposed new product under 39 U.S.C. 3632(b)(3) and 39 CFR 3015.5. Request, Attachment B.
To support its Request, the Postal Service filed a copy of the contract, a copy of the Governors' Decision authorizing the product, proposed changes to the Mail Classification Schedule, a Statement of Supporting Justification, a certification of compliance with 39 U.S.C. 3633(a), and an application for non-public treatment of certain materials. It also filed supporting financial workpapers.
The Commission establishes Docket Nos. MC2016-131 and CP2016-167 to consider the Request pertaining to the proposed Priority Mail Contract 214 product and the related contract, respectively.
The Commission invites comments on whether the Postal Service's filings in the captioned dockets are consistent with the policies of 39 U.S.C. 3632, 3633, or 3642, 39 CFR part 3015, and 39 CFR part 3020, subpart B. Comments are due no later than May 23, 2016. The public portions of these filings can be accessed via the Commission's Web site (
The Commission appoints Curtis E. Kidd to serve as Public Representative in these dockets.
1. The Commission establishes Docket Nos. MC2016-131 and CP2016-167 to consider the matters raised in each docket.
2. Pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 505, Curtis E. Kidd is appointed to serve as an officer of the Commission to represent the interests of the general public in these proceedings (Public Representative).
3. Comments are due no later than May 23, 2016.
4. The Secretary shall arrange for publication of this order in the
By the Commission.
Notice is hereby given that, pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
Under Exchange Act Rule 14f-1 (17 CFR 240.14f-1), if a person or persons have acquired securities of an issuer in a transaction subject to Sections 13(d) or 14(d) of the Exchange Act, and changes a majority of the directors of the issuer otherwise than at a meeting of security holders, then the issuer must file with the Commission and transmit to security holders information related to the change in directors within 10 days prior to the date the new majority takes office as directors. We estimate that it takes approximately 18 burden hours to provide the information required under Rule 14f-1 and that the information is filed by approximately 64 respondents for a total annual burden of 1,152 hours (18 hours per response × 64 responses).
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid control number.
The public may view the background documentation for this information collection at the following Web site,
Notice is hereby given that pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (“PRA”) (44 U.S.C. 3501
On July 7, 1976, effective July 16, 1976 (
There is approximately 1 respondent per year that requires an aggregate total of 4 hours to comply with this rule. This respondent makes an estimated 1 annual response. Each response takes approximately 4 hours to complete. Thus, the total compliance burden per year is 4 burden hours. The approximate cost per hour is $20, resulting in a total internal cost of compliance for the respondent of approximately $80 (
Written comments are invited on: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the Commission's estimates of the burden of the proposed collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. Consideration will be given to comments and suggestions submitted in writing within 60 days of this publication.
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information under the PRA unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
Please direct your written comments to: Pamela Dyson, Director/Chief Information Officer, Securities and Exchange Commission, c/o Remi Pavlik-Simon, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549, or send an email to:
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1)
The Exchange proposes: (1) Adopting new NYSE Rules 2090 (Know Your Customer) and 2111 (Suitability) that are substantially similar to FINRA Rules 2090 (Know Your Customer) and 2111 (Suitability); (2) deleting current Rule 405 (Diligence as to Accounts) and the related NYSE Rule Interpretation in order to harmonize its rules with certain Financial Industry Regulatory Authority, Inc. (“FINRA”) rules; and (3) making other conforming changes. The proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of those statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to amend its rules to harmonize with certain FINRA rules. Specifically, the Exchange proposes: (1) Adopting new NYSE Rules 2090 and 2111 that are substantially similar to FINRA Rules 2090 and 2111; (2) deleting Rule 405
In 2007, the Exchange and FINRA
As part of the rule consolidation process, in 2010, FINRA harmonized NASD and FINRA Incorporated NYSE Rules and interpretations concerning know your customer and suitability.
Currently, the Exchange does not have separate rules for know your customer and suitability. Rather, Rule 405 (Diligence as to Accounts) requires every member organization, through a principal executive or a person or persons designated under the provisions of Rule 3110(a), to take certain actions relative to customers and customer accounts. First, Rule 405(1) requires member organizations to use “due diligence” to learn the “essential facts relative to every customer, every order, every cash or margin account accepted or carried by such organization and every person holding power of attorney over any account accepted or carried by such organization.” Second, Rule 405(2) requires member organizations to supervise diligently all accounts handled by registered representatives. Finally, Rule 405(3) requires persons designated by the member to be informed of the essential facts relative to the customer and to the nature of the proposed account prior to approving the opening of the account.
Supplementary Material .10 of Rule 405 discusses the requirement that firms know their customers and imposes specific knowledge and due diligence requirements in connection with the authority of third parties to act on behalf of customers that are legal entities, including margin accounts carried by a member organization for a non-member corporation, cash accounts carried for a non-member corporation, and agency accounts carried by a member organization.
The Exchange proposes to delete current Rule 405 and the related NYSE Rule Interpretation, which are, in main part, either duplicative of, or do not align with, the proposed know your customer and suitability requirements discussed below, and adopt the text of FINRA Rules 2090 and 2111.
Like FINRA Rule 2090, Proposed NYSE Rule 2090 would encompass the “main ethical standard” of Rule 405(1).
Proposed Rule 2111, like its FINRA counterpart, would require a member organization or person associated with a member organization
• General financial and investment information, including (i) basic investment concepts, such as risk and return, diversification, dollar cost averaging, compounded return, and tax deferred investment, (ii) historic differences in the return of asset classes (
• Descriptive information about an employer-sponsored retirement or benefit plan, participation in the plan, the benefits of plan participation, and the investment options available under the plan;
• Asset allocation models that are (i) based on generally accepted investment theory, (ii) accompanied by disclosures of all material facts and assumptions that may affect a reasonable investor's assessment of the asset allocation model or any report generated by such model, and (iii) in compliance with FINRA Rule 2214 (Requirements for the Use of Investment Analysis Tools) if the asset allocation model is an “investment analysis tool” covered by FINRA Rule 2214; and
• Interactive investment materials that incorporate the above.
Again, like its FINRA counterpart, the proposed rule would be composed of three main suitability obligations, as follows:
• The reasonable-basis suitability obligation, which requires a member organization or person associated with a member organization to have a reasonable basis to believe, based on reasonable diligence, that the recommendation is suitable for at least some investors;
• The customer-specific suitability obligation, which requires that a member organization or person associated with a member organization have a reasonable basis to believe that the recommendation is suitable for a particular customer based on that customer's investment profile, as delineated in Proposed Rule 2111(a);
• The quantitative suitability obligation, which requires a member organization or person associated with a member organization who has actual or de facto control over a customer account to have a reasonable basis for believing that a series of recommended transactions, even if suitable when viewed in isolation, are not excessive and unsuitable for the customer when taken together in light of the customer's investment profile, as delineated in Proposed Rule 2111(a).
Proposed Rule 2111 would also prohibit a member organization or person associated with a member organization from recommending a transaction or investment strategy involving a security or securities or the continuing purchase of a security or securities or use of an investment strategy involving a security or securities unless the member organization or person associated with a member organization has a reasonable basis to believe that the customer has the financial ability to meet such a commitment.
Finally, like the FINRA rule, Proposed Rule 2111 would provide an exemption to customer-specific suitability for institutional investors, who would be required to affirmatively indicate that they are exercising independent judgment in evaluating the recommendations of the member organization or person associated with a member organization on a trade-by-trade basis, on an asset-class-by-asset-class basis, or in terms of all potential transactions for its account.
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
Further, the Exchange believes that the proposed rule change supports the objectives of Section 6(b)(5) of the Act
In accordance with Section 6(b)(8) of the Act,
No written comments were solicited or received with respect to the proposed rule change.
The Exchange has filed the proposed rule change pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(iii) of the Act
A proposed rule change filed under Rule 19b-4(f)(6) normally does not become operative prior to 30 days after the date of the filing.
At any time within 60 days of the filing of such proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings under Section 19(b)(2)(B)
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
Copies of the submission, all subsequent amendments, all written statements with respect to the proposed rule change that are filed with the Commission, and all written communications relating to the proposed rule change between the Commission and any person, other than those that may be withheld from the public in accordance with the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552, will be available for Web site viewing and printing in the Commission's Public Reference Room, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549 on official business days between the hours of 10:00 a.m. and 3:00 p.m. Copies of the filing also will be available for inspection and copying at the principal office of the Exchange. All comments received will be posted without change; the Commission does not edit personal identifying information from submissions. You should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly. All submissions should refer to File Number SR-NYSE-2016-33 and should be submitted on or before June 10, 2016.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
On March 22, 2016, Chicago Board Options Exchange, Incorporated (the “Exchange” or “CBOE”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”) pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”)
Under CBOE Rule 6.74A, a Trading Permit Holder (“TPH”) that represents agency orders may electronically execute an order it represents as agent (“Agency Order”) against principal interest or against a solicited order provided it submits the Agency Order for electronic execution into the AIM auction (“Auction”) for processing. If certain eligibility requirements contained in CBOE Rule 6.74A(a)
The AIM Retained Order (“A:AIR”) functionality allows TPHs the ability to choose, on an order-by-order basis, whether an Agency Order should continue into the Hybrid Trading System
CBOE also proposes that orders marked “A:AIR” containing Agency Orders that are not priced at the market, or that are priced with a limit price not in the standard increment for the option series in which they are entered, would be cancelled. The Exchange proposes this interpretation to ensure that A:AIR orders are properly priced to allow the Exchange to book the Agency Order in the event an Auction cannot occur.
CBOE proposes to make the A:AIR order functionality available on those order management platforms as determined by the Exchange and announced via Regulatory Circular. The Exchange also proposes to clarify that in the event that a TPH submits a matched Agency Order for electronic execution into the Auction that is ineligible for processing because it does not meet the conditions described in CBOE Rule 6.74A(a), both the Agency Order and any solicited contra orders will be cancelled unless marked as an AIM Retained Order pursuant to proposed Interpretation and Policy .09 to CBOE Rule 6.74A.
Finally, the Exchange proposes to make changes to Interpretation and Policy .08 to CBOE Rule 6.53C regarding price reasonability checks on complex orders to harmonize non-specific references to the current A:AIR functionality in CBOE Rule 6.53C with the language in proposed Interpretation and Policy .09 to CBOE Rule 6.74A. The Exchange states that these changes are non-substantive and intended only to harmonize existing references to A:AIR functionality in its rules with the definition of A:AIR orders set forth in proposed Interpretation and Policy .09 to CBOE Rule 6.74A.
After careful review, the Commission finds that the proposed rule change is consistent with the requirements of the Act and the rules and regulations thereunder applicable to a national securities exchange.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
The Exchange proposes to amend Rule 4703 (Order Attributes).
The text of the proposed rule change is available at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. Nasdaq has prepared summaries, set forth in Sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
Nasdaq is proposing to amend Rule 4703(a)(7). This rule currently provides that a market participant entering an order using the SCAN routing strategy prior to 8:00 a.m. Eastern time (“ET”) may designate the order to activate upon entry or at 8:00 a.m. ET. The Exchange proposes to extend this functionality to the recently approved Retail Order Process (“RTFY”) order routing option.
The RTFY order routing option is designed to enhance execution quality and benefit retail investors by providing price improvement opportunities to retail order flow. Previously, retail order firms often sent non-marketable order flow, that is—orders that are not executable against the best prices available in the market place based on their limit price—to post and display on exchanges. Some of the orders that have been deemed to be non-marketable by the entering firm become marketable by the time the exchange receives them and ultimately remove liquidity from the exchange order book. The RTFY routing option is an alternative method for posting non-marketable order flow on the Exchange order book. Rather than allowing the marketable Designated Retail Orders (“DROs”)
Under the SCAN
Currently, RFTY users may enter extended hours orders, which may execute, route, or post to the book prior to the beginning of regular hours trading. Extended hours orders are accepted starting at 4 a.m. ET. SCAN users may also send extended hours orders which are eligible for execution, routing, and posting prior to regular market hours trading. However, SCAN users may also designate that their extended hours orders not activate until 8 a.m. Some market participants maintain systems that do not allow executions prior to 8 a.m. The Exchange believes this functionality for SCAN orders supports market participants by giving them the ability to allow orders to flow through to the Exchange while keeping them inactive until 8 a.m.
The Exchange believes that the market participants who currently use this functionality for the SCAN order routing option, as described in Nasdaq Rule 4703(a)(7), are similar to the market participants who use the new RTFY order routing option. While the users of the SCAN routing strategy are diverse, the users of the 8 a.m. activation functionality are generally retail focused broker-dealers. RTFY is an order routing option designed specifically for DROs in order to provide more opportunities for price improvement to individual retail investor's orders. Because the firms that choose to utilize the 8 a.m. activation feature of SCAN are generally firms that represent retail orders, the Exchange believes that it makes sense to provide this functionality to the retail firms that make use of the RTFY routing option. The Exchange proposes to update the fifth bullet point under Nasdaq Rule 4703(a) for consistency as to this point as well.
The proposed rule change will allow market participants using RTFY to benefit by having the added flexibility
The Exchange also proposes to eliminate the final sentence of Nasdaq Rule 4703(a)(7), which refers to the term “ESCN”. ESCN denotes an order using the SCAN routing strategy entered prior to 8:00 a.m. ET and that is not activated until 8:00 a.m. ET. The inclusion of this term is unnecessary and its elimination will simplify the rule and lessen potential confusion for market participants regarding this rule.
The Exchange believes the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act and the rules and regulations thereunder, including the requirements of Section 6(b) of the Act.
Nasdaq believes that the proposed rule change promotes just and equitable principles of trade, as well as serves to remove impediments to and to perfect the mechanism for a free and open market and a national market system, and, in general, to protect investors and the public interest because it adds flexibility to the recently approved RTFY routing option. Specifically, the proposed rule change amends both Nasdaq Rule 4703(a)(7) and the fifth bullet point under Nasdaq Rule 4703(a), which currently apply to the SCAN order routing option, to also apply to the new RTFY order routing option as well. This added functionality for RTFY will allow market participants using the RTFY order routing strategy prior to 8:00 a.m. ET to designate whether their RTFY orders will activate upon entry or at 8:00 a.m. ET.
Nasdaq believes that this additional functionality will allow the Exchange to compete more successfully for retail order flow. The Exchange bases this upon its determination that the market participants who currently use the SCAN order routing option and use this functionality are similar to the market participants who use the new RTFY order routing option. Nasdaq believes that extending this functionality to the RTFY order routing option will assist market participants in efficiently managing the order flow that they submit to the Exchange.
This added functionality is an example of different approaches to market challenges and is what drives innovation, market quality, and ultimately competition. The Exchange competes vigorously for order flow in a marketplace where participants have many trading venue choices. The Exchange believes making this functionality available to market participants using the RTFY routing option will increase competition by providing value to retail order firms and their retail investor customers, which will in turn result in more order flow being sent to the Exchange.
The Exchange also believes that its proposal to eliminate the final sentence of Nasdaq Rule 4703(a)(7) to remove the reference to “ESCN” serves to promote just and equitable principles of trade and to protect investors and the public interest through the elimination of a sentence that is unnecessary and unhelpful for market participants. Since ESCN denotes an order using the SCAN routing strategy entered prior to 8:00 a.m. ET and that is not eligible for execution until 8:00 a.m. ET, the inclusion of this term is no longer necessary and is unhelpful for market participants. The elimination of this sentence will clarify and lessen potential confusion for market participants regarding this rule.
For the above reasons, Nasdaq believes the proposed rule change is consistent with the requirements of Section 6(b)(5) of the Act.
The [sic] does not believe that the proposed rule change will result in any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. In fact, the Exchange believes that the functionality in Nasdaq Rule 4703(a)(7) being made available to market participants using the recently approved RTFY order routing strategy will promote competition by providing value to retail order firms and their retail investor customers, which will in turn result in more order flow being sent to the Exchange. This development could enhance competition to the benefit of the markets and investors.
Written comments were neither solicited nor received.
Because the foregoing proposed rule change does not: (i) Significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, it has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Brent J. Fields, Secretary, Securities
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1)
The Exchange proposes to amend the definition of Professional Customer in Rule 6.1A(a)(4A) to specify the manner in which the Exchange calculates average daily order submissions for purposes of counting Professional Customer orders. The proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of those statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to amend the definition of Professional Customer in Rule 6.1A(a)(4A) to adopt a methodology for counting average daily order submissions in listed options to determine whether a person or entity meets the definition of a Professional Customer (“Professional Customer order counting”). The proposed rule change is designed to harmonize Professional Customer order counting with the recently adopted rules of competing options exchanges—specifically the Chicago Board of Options Exchange, Inc. (“CBOE”) and NASDAQ OMX PHLX LLC (“PHLX”).
Rule 6.1A(a)(4A) defines Professional Customer “as an individual or organization that (i) is not a Broker/Dealer in securities, and (ii) places more than 390 orders in listed options per day on average during a calendar month for its own beneficial account(s).” In adopting the Rule 6.1A(a)(4A), the Exchange noted that identifying Professional Customer accounts based upon the average number of orders entered in qualified accounts is an appropriate, objective approach that will reasonably distinguish such persons and entities from non-professional, retail investors or market participants. In order to properly represent orders entered on the Exchange, OTP Holders and OTP Firms are required to indicate whether Customer orders are “Professional Customer” orders.
The advent of new multi-leg spread products and the proliferation of the use of complex orders and algorithmic execution strategies by both institutional and retail market participants has raised questions as to what should be counted as an “order” for Professional Customer order counting purposes. The proposed changes would specifically address the
As proposed, the rule would provide that an order would count as one order for Professional Customer counting purposes, unless one of the exceptions enumerated in the proposed rule stipulates otherwise (each an “Exception”). The first Exception relates to the treatment of complex orders for purposes of computing orders for Professional order counting purposes. Specifically, the proposed rule provides that a complex order of eight legs or less would count as one order, whereas a complex order comprised of nine (9) option legs or more counts as multiple orders with each option leg counting as its own separate order.
The second Exception relates to calculations for parent/child orders. As proposed, if a parent order submitted for the beneficial account(s) of a person or entity other than a broker or dealer is subsequently broken up into multiple child orders on the
The third Exception would govern the counting methodology for cancel/replace orders. As proposed, any order that cancels and replaces an existing order would count as a
The Exchange proposes to implement the rule on July 1, 2016, which would be announced via Trader Update.
The Exchange believes that the proposed change is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
Specifically, the Exchange believes that the proposal is designed to adopt a reasonable and objective approach to determine Professional Customer status that is consistent with the approach being utilized on other options exchanges, which benefits market participants by providing consistency across exchanges regarding the Professional Customer order counting.
The Exchange notes that it is not amending the threshold of 390 orders in listed options per day but, consisting with other exchanges is revising the method for counting Professional Customer orders in the context of multi-part orders and cancel/replace activity. In short, the proposal addresses how to account for complex orders, parent/
Thus, the Exchange believes the proposal, which establishes an objective methodology for counting average daily order submissions for Professional Customer order counting purposes, is consistent with the Act.
The Exchange does not believe that this proposed rule change would impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. To the contrary, the proposed rule change is a competitive change that is substantially similar to recent rule changes filed by the CBOE and PHLX.
The Exchange notes that one of the purposes of the Professional Customer designation is to help ensure fairness in the marketplace and promote competition among all market participants. The Exchange believes that this proposal would help establish more competition among market participants and promote the purposes for which the Exchange's Professional Customer rule was originally adopted. Moreover, the proposal would stem ensure consistency and stem potential confusion as to the manner in which options exchanges compute the Professional Customer order volume.
No written comments were solicited or received with respect to the proposed rule change.
The Exchange has filed the proposed rule change pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(iii) of the Act
At any time within 60 days of the filing of such proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings under Section 19(b)(2)(B)
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Notice is hereby given that, pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (“PRA”) (44 U.S.C. 3501
Rule 19b-5 provides a temporary exemption from the rule-filing requirements of Section 19(b) of the Act (15 U.S.C. 78s(b)) to self-regulatory organizations (“SROs”) wishing to establish and operate pilot trading systems. Rule 19b-5 permits an SRO to develop a pilot trading system and to begin operation of such system shortly after submitting an initial report on Form PILOT to the Commission. During operation of any such pilot trading system, the SRO must submit quarterly reports of the system's operation to the Commission, as well as timely amendments describing any material changes to the system. Within two years of operating such pilot trading system under the exemption afforded by Rule 19b-5, the SRO must submit a rule filing pursuant to Section 19(b)(2) of the Act (15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(2)) to obtain permanent approval of the pilot trading system from the Commission.
The collection of information is designed to allow the Commission to maintain an accurate record of all new pilot trading systems operated by SROs and to determine whether an SRO has properly availed itself of the exemption afforded by Rule 19b-5, is operating a pilot trading system in compliance with the Act, and is carrying out its statutory oversight obligations under the Act.
The respondents to the collection of information are national securities exchanges and national securities associations.
While there are 20 national securities exchanges and national securities associations that may avail themselves of the exemption under Rule 19b-5 and the use of Form PILOT, it is estimated that approximately three respondents will file a total of 3 initial reports, 12 quarterly reports, and 6 amendments on Form PILOT per year, with an estimated total annual response burden of 126 hours and an estimated total annual cost burden of $10,047. At an average hourly cost of $272.33, the estimated aggregate related internal cost of compliance with respect to Rule 19b-5 for all respondents is $34,314 per year (126 burden hours multiplied by $272.33/hour = $34,314).
Written comments are invited on (a) whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the Commission's estimates of the burden of the proposed collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. Consideration will be given to comments and suggestions submitted in writing within 60 days of this publication.
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information under the PRA unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
Please direct your written comments to: Pamela Dyson, Director/Chief Information Officer, Securities and Exchange Commission, c/o Remi Pavlik-Simon, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549 or send an email to:
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1)
The Exchange proposes to amend the NYSE Arca Options Fee Schedule. The proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of those statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.
The purpose of this filing is to amend the Fee Schedule in a number of different ways, effective May 2, 2016. Specifically, the Exchange proposes (i) to increase certain Take Liquidity Fees charged; (ii) to modify the Customer and Professional Customer Incentive Program; and (iii) to introduce a new qualification for Customer and Professional Customer Posting Credit Tiers in Non-Penny Pilot Issues, as described below.
The Exchange proposes to modify the fees paid by Market Makers, Lead Market Makers, Firms and Broker Dealers, and Professional Customers (collectively, “Non-Customers”) for Taking Liquidity in non-Penny Pilot Issues (“Take Fees”). Specifically, the Exchange proposes to increase the Take Fee charged to Non-Customers from $0.99 per contract to $1.08 per contract, which is within the range of fees charged by competing option exchanges.
The Exchange is proposing to increase one of the credits available under the Incentive Program, which provides OTP Holders and OTP Firms (collectively, “OTPs”) five alternatives to earn
Finally, the Exchange also proposes to introduce a new tier to the Posting Credit Tiers, which consist of Tier A and Tier B and provide for specified credits if specified volume thresholds have been met.
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
The Exchange believes that the proposed Take Fees for Non-Customers are reasonable, equitable and not unfairly discriminatory because they are competitive with fees charged by other exchanges.
The Exchange also believes that the proposed increased additional credit under the Incentive Program as well as the addition of proposed Tier C to the Posting Credit Tiers are reasonable, equitable, and not unfairly discriminatory because the incentives would be available to all OTPs that execute posted electronic Customer and Professional Customer orders on the Exchange on an equal and non-discriminatory basis, in particular because they provide alternative means of achieving the same [sic] credit. The Exchange believes that providing methods for achieving the credits based on posted electronic Customer and Professional Customer Executions in both Penny Pilot and non-Penny Pilot issues is equitable and not unfairly discriminatory because it would continue to result in more OTPs qualifying for the credits and therefore reducing their overall transaction costs on the Exchange. Moreover, the Exchange believes the proposed modifications would provide additional incentives to direct Customer and Professional Customer order flow to the Exchange, which benefits all market participants through increased liquidity and enhanced price discovery.
For these reasons, the Exchange believes that the proposal is consistent with the Act.
In accordance with Section 6(b)(8) of the Act,
The Exchange notes that it operates in a highly competitive market in which market participants can readily favor competing venues. In such an environment, the Exchange must continually review, and consider adjusting, its fees and credits to remain competitive with other exchanges. For the reasons described above, the Exchange believes that the proposed rule change reflects this competitive environment.
No written comments were solicited or received with respect to the proposed rule change.
The foregoing rule change is effective upon filing pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)
At any time within 60 days of the filing of such proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”),
Mercury proposes to amend its Schedule of Fees proposes to amend its Schedule of Fees [sic] to add the definitions of “Mercury Appointed Market Maker” and “Mercury Appointed Order Flow Provider” effective May 2, 2016, which would increase opportunities for Market Makers to qualify for the Exchange's Member Volume Program (“MVP”). The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Internet Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The self-regulatory organization has prepared summaries, set forth in Sections A, B and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
Mercury proposes to amend its Schedule of Fees to add the definitions of Mercury Appointed Market Maker and Mercury Appointed Order Flow Provider effective May 2, 2016, which would increase opportunities for members to qualify for the Exchange's MVP.
Specifically, the Exchange proposes to allow a Mercury Appointed Order Flow Provider (“MOFP”)
ISE Mercury introduced the MVP fee and rebate tiers for Market Maker and Priority Customer
The Exchange then adopted ADV tiers that are based on preferenced volume
The proposed rule would replace the Preferenced Volume Program, but all other aspects of the MVP, including its five tiers of Total Affiliated Priority Customer ADV, will remain in effect. The Exchange proposes to modify its Fee Schedule to include the newly introduced concepts of a MOFP and MAMM. The proposal would be available to all MOFPs and MAMMs as defined in the Fee Schedule. Specifically, the proposed changes would enable any MOFP to qualify its MAMM for credits under the MVP. In this regard, the proposed change would enable a MAMM to enter a relationship with a MOFP and receive volume credit from that MOFP.
The Exchange believes these proposed changes would incentivize firms to direct their order flow to the Exchange to the benefit of all market participants. As proposed, the Exchange would only process one designation of a MOFP and MAMM every 6 months, which designation would remain in effect unless or until either party informs the Exchange of its termination.
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
The proposal is reasonable, equitable and not unfairly discriminatory for the following reasons. First, this rule filing is substantially similar NYSE MKT LLC's fee filing to modify NYSE Amex's Option Fee Schedule.
The proposal is also reasonable, equitable and not unfairly discriminatory because the Exchange would only process one designation of a MOFP and MAMM every 6 months, which requirement would impose a measure of exclusivity while allowing MAMM's to rely upon, and potentially increase, the MOFP's transaction volume executed on the Exchange to the benefit of all Exchange participants.
Finally, the Exchange believes the proposal is reasonable, equitable and not unfairly discriminatory as it may encourage an increase in orders routed to the Exchange, which would expand liquidity and provide more trading opportunities and tighter spreads to the benefit of all market participants.
In accordance with Section 6(b)(8) of the Act,
The Exchange has not solicited, and does not intend to solicit, comments on this proposed rule change. The Exchange has not received any unsolicited written comments from members or other interested parties.
The foregoing rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(ii) of the Act,
At any time within 60 days of the filing of such proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Brent J. Fields, Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”).
Notice of an application for an order pursuant to section 6(c) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (“Act”) granting an exemption from sections 18(f) and 21(b) of the Act; pursuant to section 12(d)(1)(J) of the Act granting an exemption from section 12(d)(1) of the Act; pursuant to sections 6(c) and 17(b) of the Act granting an exemption from sections 17(a)(1), 17(a)(2) and 17(a)(3) of the Act; and pursuant to section 17(d) of the Act and rule 17d-1 under the Act to permit certain joint arrangements.
Applicants request an order that would permit certain registered open-end management investment companies to participate in a joint lending and borrowing facility.
Nationwide Mutual Funds (“NMF”), and Nationwide Variable Insurance Trust (“NVIT,” and together with NMF, each a “Trust,” and together, the “Trusts”) and Nationwide Fund Advisors (the “Initial Adviser”).
The application was filed on October 29, 2015, and amended on April 6, 2016.
An order granting the requested relief will be issued unless the Commission orders a hearing. Interested persons may request a hearing by writing to the Commission's Secretary and serving applicants with a copy of the request, personally or by mail. Hearing requests should be received by the Commission by 5:30 p.m. on June 10, 2016, and should be accompanied by proof of service on applicants, in the form of an affidavit, or, for lawyers, a certificate of service. Pursuant to rule 0-5 under the Act, hearing requests should state the nature of the writer's interest, any facts bearing upon the desirability of a hearing on the matter, the reason for the request, and the issues contested. Persons who wish to be notified of a hearing may request notification by writing to the Commission's Secretary.
Secretary, U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090; Applicants: 1000 Continental Drive, Suite 400, King of Prussia, PA 19406.
Jill Ehrlich, Senior Counsel, at (202) 551-6819 or David J. Marcinkus, Branch Chief, at (202) 551-6821 (Division of Investment Management, Chief Counsel's Office).
The following is a summary of the application. The complete application may be obtained via the Commission's Web site by searching for the file number, or for an applicant using the Company name box, at
1. Each of NMF and NVIT is organized as a Delaware statutory trust. Each Trust consists of multiple series (each series, a “Fund,” and together, the “Funds”). One series of NMF, the Nationwide Money Market Fund, and one series of NVIT, the NVIT Money Market Fund, operate as money market funds in reliance on rule 2a-7 under the Act. (The Nationwide Money Market Fund, the NVIT Money Market Fund, and any future Funds that rely on rule 2a-7 are the “Money Market Funds.”) The Funds are registered with the Commission as open-end management investment companies. The Initial Adviser, a Delaware business trust, serves as investment adviser to the Funds, and is registered as an investment adviser under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (“Advisers Act”).
2. At any particular time, while some Funds enter into repurchase agreements, or invest their cash balances in money market funds or other short-term instruments, other Funds may need to borrow money for temporary purposes to satisfy redemption requests, to cover unanticipated cash shortfalls such as a trade “fail” in which cash payment for a security sold by a Fund has been delayed, or for other temporary purposes. The Trusts currently are parties to a senior unsecured committed credit facility (as amended, modified, refinanced or replaced from time to time, the “Loan Agreement”) that provides a line of credit to the participating Funds, and is furnished by a syndicate of banks, including the Funds' custodian.
3. Applicants state that, generally, when a Fund borrows money under the Loan Agreement, it pays interest on the loan at a rate that is typically higher than the rate that is earned by other (non-borrowing) Funds on investments in repurchase agreements, money market funds, and other short-term instruments of the same maturity as the bank loan. Applicants assert that this differential represents the profit earned by the lender on loans and is not attributable to any material difference in the credit quality or risk of such transactions.
4. The Trusts seek to enter into master interfund lending agreements (“Interfund Lending Agreements”) with each other on behalf of the Funds that would permit each Fund to lend money directly to and borrow directly from other Funds through a credit facility for temporary purposes (an “Interfund Loan”). The Money Market Funds will not participate as borrowers in the interfund lending facility. Applicants state that the proposed credit facility is expected to both reduce the Funds' potential borrowing costs and enhance the ability of the lending Funds to earn higher rates of interest on their short-term lendings. Although the proposed credit facility would reduce the Funds' need to borrow from banks, the Funds would be free to establish and maintain committed lines of credit or other borrowing arrangements with unaffiliated banks.
5. Applicants anticipate that the proposed credit facility would provide a borrowing Fund with savings at times when the cash position of the borrowing Fund is insufficient to meet temporary cash requirements. This situation could arise when shareholder redemptions exceed anticipated volumes and certain Funds have insufficient cash on hand to satisfy such redemptions. When the Funds liquidate portfolio securities to meet redemption requests, they often do not receive payment in settlement for up to three days (or longer for certain foreign transactions). However, redemption requests normally are effected immediately. The proposed credit facility would provide a source of immediate, short-term liquidity pending settlement of the sale of portfolio securities.
6. Applicants also anticipate that a Fund could use the proposed credit facility when a sale of securities “fails” due to circumstances beyond the Fund's control, such as a delay in the delivery of cash to the Fund's custodian or improper delivery instructions by the broker effecting the transaction. “Sales fails” may present a cash shortfall if the Fund has undertaken to purchase a security using the proceeds from securities sold. Alternatively, the Fund could “fail” on its intended purchase due to lack of funds from the previous sale, resulting in additional cost to the Fund. Use of the proposed credit facility under these circumstances would enable the Fund to have access to immediate short-term liquidity.
7. While bank borrowings generally could supply needed cash to cover unanticipated redemptions and sales fails, under the proposed credit facility, a borrowing Fund would pay lower interest rates than those that would be payable under short-term loans offered by banks. In addition, Funds making
8. The interest rate to be charged to the Funds on any Interfund Loan (the “Interfund Loan Rate”) would be the average of the “Repo Rate” and the “Bank Loan Rate,” both as defined below. The Repo Rate for any day would be the highest or best (after giving effect to factors such as the credit quality of the counterparty) rate available to a lending Fund from investment in overnight repurchase agreements with counterparties approved by the Fund or its Adviser. The Bank Loan Rate for any day would be calculated by the Interfund Lending Committee, as defined below, each day an Interfund Loan is made according to a formula established by each Fund's board of trustees (the “Trustees”) intended to approximate the lowest interest rate at which bank short-term loans would be available to the Funds. The formula would be based upon a publicly available rate (
9. Certain members of the Adviser's fund administration personnel and money market analysts (the “Interfund Lending Committee”) will administer the credit facility. No portfolio manager of any Fund will serve as a member of the Interfund Lending Committee. On any day on which a Fund intends to borrow money, the Interfund Lending Committee would make an Interfund Loan from a lending Fund to a borrowing Fund only if the Interfund Loan Rate is: (i) More favorable to the lending Fund than the Repo Rate and, if applicable, the yield of any money market fund in which the lending Fund could otherwise invest, and (ii) more favorable to the borrowing Fund than the Bank Loan Rate.
10. Under the proposed credit facility, the portfolio managers for each participating Fund could provide standing instructions to participate daily as a borrower or lender; alternatively, the portfolio manager could provide instructions from time to time as to when the Fund wishes to participate as a borrower or lender. The Interfund Lending Committee on each business day would collect data on the uninvested cash and borrowing requirements of all participating Funds. Once it had determined the aggregate amount of cash available for loans and borrowing demand, the Interfund Lending Committee would allocate loans among borrowing Funds without any further communication from the portfolio managers of the Funds. Applicants anticipate that there typically will be far more available uninvested cash each day than borrowing demand. Therefore, after the Interfund Lending Committee has allocated cash for Interfund Loans, the Interfund Lending Committee will invest any remaining cash in accordance with the standing instructions of the portfolio managers or such remaining amounts will be invested directly by the portfolio managers of the Funds.
11. The Interfund Lending Committee would allocate borrowing demand and cash available for lending among the Funds on what the Interfund Lending Committee believes to be an equitable basis, subject to certain administrative procedures applicable to all Funds, such as the time of filing requests to participate, minimum loan lot sizes, and the need to minimize the number of transactions and associated administrative costs. To reduce transaction costs, each loan normally would be allocated in a manner intended to minimize the number of participants necessary to complete the loan transaction. The method of allocation and related administrative procedures would be approved by each Fund's Trustees, including a majority of Trustees who are not “interested persons” of the Fund, as that term is defined in section 2(a)(19) of the Act (“Independent Trustees”), to ensure that both borrowing and lending Funds participate on an equitable basis.
12. The Adviser would: (a) Monitor the Interfund Loan Rate and the other terms and conditions of the loans; (b) limit the borrowings and loans entered into by each Fund to ensure that they comply with the Fund's investment policies and limitations; (c) ensure equitable treatment of each Fund; and (d) make quarterly reports to the Trustees concerning any transactions by the Funds under the proposed credit facility and the Interfund Loan Rate charged.
13. The Adviser, through the Interfund Lending Committee, would administer the proposed credit facility as a disinterested fiduciary as part of its duties under the investment advisory agreement and administrative agreements with each Fund and would receive no additional fee as compensation for its services in connection with the administration of the proposed credit facility. The Adviser may collect standard pricing, record keeping, bookkeeping and accounting fees associated with the transfer of cash and/or securities in connection with repurchase and lending transactions generally, including transactions effected through the proposed credit facility. Such fees would be no higher than those applicable for comparable bank loan transactions.
14. No Fund may participate in the proposed credit facility unless: (a) The Fund has obtained shareholder approval for its participation, if such approval is required by law; (b) the Fund has fully disclosed all material information concerning the credit facility in its prospectus and/or statement of additional information; and (c) the Fund's participation in the credit facility is consistent with its investment objectives and limitations and organizational documents.
15. As part of the Trustees' review of the continuing appropriateness of a Fund's participation in the proposed credit facility as required by condition 14, the Trustees of the Fund, including a majority of the Independent Trustees, also will review the process in place to appropriately assess: (i) If the Fund participates as a lender, any effect its participation may have on the Fund's liquidity risk; and (ii) if the Fund participates as a borrower, whether the Fund's portfolio liquidity is sufficient to satisfy its obligations under the facility along with its other liquidity needs.
16. In connection with the credit facility, applicants request an order under section 6(c) of the Act exempting them from the provisions of sections 18(f) and 21(b) of the Act; under section 12(d)(1)(J) of the Act exempting them from section 12(d)(1) of the Act; under sections 6(c) and 17(b) of the Act exempting them from sections 17(a)(1), 17(a)(2), and 17(a)(3) of the Act; and under section 17(d) of the Act and rule 17d-1 under the Act to permit certain joint arrangements.
1. Section 17(a)(3) of the Act generally prohibits any affiliated person of a registered investment company, or affiliated person of an affiliated person, from borrowing money or other property from the registered investment company. Section 21(b) of the Act generally prohibits any registered
2. Section 6(c) of the Act provides that an exemptive order may be granted where an exemption is “necessary or appropriate in the public interest and consistent with the protection of investors and the purposes fairly intended by the policy and provisions of [the Act].” Section 17(b) of the Act authorizes the Commission to exempt a proposed transaction from section 17(a) provided that the terms of the transaction, including the consideration to be paid or received, are fair and reasonable and do not involve overreaching on the part of any person concerned, and the transaction is consistent with the policy of the investment company as recited in its registration statement and with the general purposes of the Act. Applicants believe that the proposed arrangements satisfy these standards for the reasons discussed below.
3. Applicants assert that sections 17(a)(3) and 21(b) of the Act were intended to prevent a party with strong potential adverse interests to, and some influence over the investment decisions of, a registered investment company from causing or inducing the investment company to engage in lending transactions that unfairly inure to the benefit of such party and that are detrimental to the best interests of the investment company and its shareholders. Applicants assert that the proposed credit facility transactions do not raise these concerns because: (a) The Adviser, through the Interfund Lending Committee, would administer the program as a disinterested fiduciary as part of its duties under the investment advisory agreement and administrative agreements with each Fund; (b) all Interfund Loans would consist only of uninvested cash reserves that the lending Fund otherwise would invest in short-term repurchase agreements or other short-term instruments either directly or through a money market fund; (c) the Interfund Loans would not involve a significantly greater risk than such other investments; (d) the lending Fund would receive interest at a rate higher than it could otherwise obtain through such other investments; and (e) the borrowing Fund would pay interest at a rate lower than otherwise available to it under its bank loan agreements and avoid some up-front commitment fees associated with committed lines of credit. Moreover, applicants assert that the other terms and conditions that applicants propose also would effectively preclude the possibility of any Fund obtaining an undue advantage over any other Fund.
4. Section 17(a)(1) of the Act generally prohibits an affiliated person of a registered investment company, or any affiliated person of such a person, from selling securities or other property to the investment company. Section 17(a)(2) of the Act generally prohibits an affiliated person of a registered investment company, or any affiliated person of such a person, from purchasing securities or other property from the investment company. Section 12(d)(1) of the Act generally prohibits a registered investment company from purchasing or otherwise acquiring any security issued by any other investment company except in accordance with the limitations set forth in that section.
5. Applicants state that the obligation of a borrowing Fund to repay an Interfund Loan could be deemed to constitute a security for the purposes of sections 17(a)(1) and 12(d)(1). Applicants also state that any pledge of assets in connection with an Interfund Loan could be construed as a purchase of the borrowing Fund's securities or other property for purposes of section 17(a)(2) of the Act. Section 12(d)(1)(J) of the Act provides that the Commission may exempt persons or transactions from any provision of section 12(d)(1) if and to the extent that such exemption is consistent with the public interest and the protection of investors. Applicants submit that the requested exemptions from sections 17(a)(1), 17(a)(2) and 12(d)(1) are appropriate in the public interest, and consistent with the protection of investors and policies and purposes of the Act for all the reasons set forth above in support of their request for relief from sections 17(a)(3) and 21(b). Applicants also state that the requested relief from section 17(a)(2) of the Act meets the standards of section 6(c) and 17(b) because any collateral pledged to secure an Interfund Loan would be subject to the same conditions imposed by any other lender to a Fund that imposes conditions on the quality of or access to collateral for a borrowing (if the lender is another Fund) or the same or better conditions (in any other circumstance).
6. Applicants state that section 12(d)(1) was intended to prevent the pyramiding of investment companies in order to avoid imposing on investors additional and duplicative costs and fees attendant upon multiple layers of investments. Applicants submit that the proposed credit facility does not involve these abuses. Applicants note that there will be no duplicative costs or fees to the Funds or their shareholders, and that the Adviser will receive no additional compensation for its services in administering the credit facility. Applicants also note that the purpose of the proposed credit facility is to provide economic benefits for all the participating Funds and their shareholders.
7. Section 18(f)(1) of the Act prohibits open-end investment companies from issuing any senior security except that a company is permitted to borrow from any bank, provided, that immediately after the borrowing, there is asset coverage of at least 300 per centum for all borrowings of the company. Under section 18(g) of the Act, the term “senior security” generally includes any bond, debenture, note or similar obligation or instrument constituting a security and evidencing indebtedness. Applicants request exemptive relief under section 6(c) from section 18(f)(1) only to the limited extent necessary to permit a Fund to lend to or borrow directly from other Funds. The Funds would remain subject to the requirement of section 18(f)(l) that all borrowings of a Fund, including combined interfund and bank borrowings, have at least 300% asset coverage. Based on the conditions and safeguards described in the application, applicants submit that to allow the Funds to borrow directly from other Funds pursuant to the proposed credit facility is consistent with the purposes and policies of section 18(f)(l).
8. Section 17(d) of the Act and rule 17d-1 under the Act generally prohibit an affiliated person of a registered investment company, or any affiliated person of such a person, when acting as principal, from effecting any joint transaction in which the investment company participates, unless, upon application, the transaction has been approved by the Commission. Rule 17d-1(b) under the Act provides that in passing upon an application filed under the rule, the Commission will consider whether the participation of the registered investment company in a joint enterprise on the basis proposed is
9. Applicants assert that the purpose of section 17(d) is to avoid overreaching by and unfair advantage to insiders. Applicants assert that the proposed credit facility is consistent with the provisions, policies and purposes of the Act in that it offers both reduced borrowing costs and enhanced returns on loaned funds to all participating Funds and their shareholders. Applicants note that each Fund would have an equal opportunity to borrow and lend on equal terms consistent with its investment policies and fundamental investment limitations. Applicants assert that each Fund's participation in the proposed credit facility would be on terms that are no different from or less advantageous than that of other participating Funds.
Applicants agree that any order granting the requested relief will be subject to the following conditions:
1. The Interfund Loan Rate will be the average of the Repo Rate and the Bank Loan Rate.
2. On each business day when an Interfund Loan is to be made, the Interfund Lending Committee will compare the Bank Loan Rate with the Repo Rate and will make cash available for Interfund Loans only if the Interfund Loan Rate is: (a) More favorable to the lending Fund than the Repo Rate and, if applicable, the yield of any money market fund in which the lending Fund could otherwise invest; and (b) more favorable to the borrowing Fund than the Bank Loan Rate.
3. If a Fund has outstanding bank borrowings, any Interfund Loans to the Fund: (a) Will be at an interest rate equal to or lower than the interest rate of any outstanding bank loan; (b) will be secured at least on an equal priority basis with at least an equivalent percentage of collateral to loan value as any outstanding bank loan that requires collateral; (c) will have a maturity no longer than any outstanding bank loan (and in any event not over seven days); and (d) will provide that, if an event of default by the Fund occurs under any agreement evidencing an outstanding bank loan to the Fund, that event of default will automatically (without need for action or notice by the lending Fund) constitute an immediate event of default under the Interfund Lending Agreement entitling the lending Fund to call the Interfund Loan (and exercise all rights with respect to any collateral) and that such call will be made if the lending bank exercises its right to call its loan under its agreement with the borrowing Fund.
4. A Fund may make an unsecured borrowing through the proposed credit facility if its outstanding borrowings from all sources immediately after the interfund borrowing total 10% or less of its total assets, provided that if the Fund has a secured loan outstanding from any other lender, including but not limited to another Fund, the Fund's interfund borrowing will be secured on at least an equal priority basis with at least an equivalent percentage of collateral to loan value as any outstanding loan that requires collateral. If a Fund's total outstanding borrowings immediately after an interfund borrowing would be greater than 10% of its total assets, the Fund may borrow through the proposed credit facility only on a secured basis. A Fund may not borrow through the proposed credit facility or from any other source if its total outstanding borrowings immediately after such borrowing would be more than 33
5. Before any Fund that has outstanding interfund borrowings may, through additional borrowings, cause its outstanding borrowings from all sources to exceed 10% of its total assets, the Fund must first secure each outstanding Interfund Loan by the pledge of segregated collateral with a market value at least equal to 102% of the outstanding principal value of the loan. If the total outstanding borrowings of a Fund with outstanding Interfund Loans exceed 10% of its total assets for any other reason (such as a decline in net asset value or because of shareholder redemptions), the Fund will within one business day thereafter: (a) Repay all of its outstanding Interfund Loans; (b) reduce its outstanding indebtedness to 10% or less of its total assets; or (c) secure each outstanding Interfund Loan by the pledge of segregated collateral with a market value at least equal to 102% of the outstanding principal value of the loan until the Fund's total outstanding borrowings cease to exceed 10% of its total assets, at which time the collateral called for by this condition 5 shall no longer be required. Until each Interfund Loan that is outstanding at any time that a Fund's total outstanding borrowings exceed 10% is repaid or the Fund's total outstanding borrowings cease to exceed 10% of its total assets, the Fund will mark the value of the collateral to market each day and will pledge such additional collateral as is necessary to maintain the market value of the collateral that secures each outstanding Interfund Loan at least equal to 102% of the outstanding principal value of the Interfund Loan.
6. No Fund may lend to another Fund through the proposed credit facility if the loan would cause its aggregate outstanding loans through the proposed credit facility to exceed 15% of the lending Fund's current net assets at the time of the loan.
7. A Fund's Interfund Loans to any one Fund shall not exceed 5% of the lending Fund's net assets.
8. The duration of Interfund Loans will be limited to the time required to obtain cash sufficient to repay such Interfund Loan, through either the sale of portfolio securities or the net sales of the Fund's shares, but in no event more than seven days. Loans effected within seven days of each other will be treated as separate loan transactions for purposes of this condition.
9. A Fund's borrowings through the proposed credit facility, as measured on the day when the most recent loan was made, will not exceed the greater of 125% of the Fund's total net cash redemptions for the preceding seven calendar days or 102% of the Fund's sales fails for the preceding seven calendar days.
10. Each Interfund Loan may be called on one business day's notice by a lending Fund and may be repaid on any day by a borrowing Fund.
11. A Fund's participation in the proposed credit facility must be consistent with its investment objectives and limitations and organizational documents.
12. The Interfund Lending Committee will calculate total Fund borrowing and lending demand through the proposed credit facility, and allocate loans on an equitable basis among the Funds, without the intervention of any portfolio manager. The Interfund Lending Committee will not solicit cash for the proposed credit facility from any Fund or prospectively publish or disseminate loan demand data to portfolio managers. The Interfund Lending Committee will invest any amounts remaining after satisfaction of borrowing demand in accordance with the standing instructions of the portfolio managers or such remaining amounts will be invested directly by the portfolio managers of the Funds.
13. The Interfund Lending Committee will monitor the Interfund Loan Rate and the other terms and conditions of the Interfund Loans and will make a quarterly report to the Trustees of each Fund concerning the participation of the Funds in the proposed credit facility and the terms and other conditions of any extensions of credit under the credit facility.
14. The Trustees of each Fund, including a majority of the Independent Trustees, will:
(a) Review, no less frequently than quarterly, the Fund's participation in the proposed credit facility during the preceding quarter for compliance with the conditions of any order permitting such transactions;
(b) establish the Bank Loan Rate formula used to determine the interest rate on Interfund Loans and review, no less frequently than annually, the continuing appropriateness of the Bank Loan Rate formula; and
(c) review, no less frequently than annually, the continuing appropriateness of the Fund's participation in the proposed credit facility.
15. In the event an Interfund Loan is not paid according to its terms and such default is not cured within two business days from its maturity or from the time the lending Fund makes a demand for payment under the provisions of the Interfund Lending Agreement, the Adviser will promptly refer such loan for arbitration to an independent arbitrator selected by the Trustees of each Fund involved in the loan who will serve as arbitrator of disputes concerning Interfund Loans.
16. Each Fund will maintain and preserve for a period of not less than six years from the end of the fiscal year in which any transaction by it under the proposed credit facility occurred, the first two years in an easily accessible place, written records of all such transactions setting forth a description of the terms of the transactions, including the amount, the maturity and the Interfund Loan Rate, the rate of interest available at the time each Interfund Loan is made on overnight repurchase agreements and commercial bank borrowings, the yield of any money market fund in which the lending Fund could otherwise invest, and such other information presented to the Fund's Trustees in connection with the review required by conditions 13 and 14.
17. The Adviser will prepare and submit to the Trustees for review an initial report describing the operations of the proposed credit facility and the procedures to be implemented to ensure that all Funds are treated fairly. After the commencement of the proposed credit facility, the Adviser will report on the operations of the proposed credit facility at the Trustees' quarterly meetings.
Each Fund's chief compliance officer, as defined in rule 38a-1(a)(4) under the Act, shall prepare an annual report for its Trustees each year that the Fund participates in the proposed credit facility, that evaluates the Fund's compliance with the terms and conditions of the application and the procedures established to achieve such compliance. Each Fund's chief compliance officer will also annually file a certification pursuant to Item 77Q3 of Form N-SAR as such Form may be revised, amended or superseded from time to time, for each year that the Fund participates in the proposed credit facility, that certifies that the Fund and the Adviser have established procedures reasonably designed to achieve compliance with the terms and conditions of the order. In particular, such certification will address procedures designed to achieve the following objectives:
(a) That the Interfund Loan Rate will be higher than the Repo Rate, and, if applicable, the yield of any money market fund in which the lending Fund could otherwise invest, but lower than the Bank Loan Rate;
(b) compliance with the collateral requirements as set forth in the application;
(c) compliance with the percentage limitations on interfund borrowing and lending;
(d) allocation of interfund borrowing and lending demand in an equitable manner and in accordance with procedures established by the Trustees; and
(e) that the Interfund Loan Rate does not exceed the interest rate on any third party borrowings of a borrowing Fund at the time of the Interfund Loan.
Additionally, each Fund's independent public accountants, in connection with their audit examination of the Fund, will review the operation of the proposed credit facility for compliance with the conditions of the application and their review will form the basis, in part, of the auditor's report on internal accounting controls in Form N-SAR.
18. No Fund will participate in the proposed credit facility upon receipt of requisite regulatory approval unless it has fully disclosed in its prospectus and/or statement of additional information all material facts about its intended participation.
For the Commission, by the Division of Investment Management, under delegated authority.
Notice is hereby given that, pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
Industries Guides are used by registrants in certain industries as disclosure guidelines to be followed in presenting information to investors in registration statements and reports under the Securities Act (15 U.S.C. 77a
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid control number.
The public may view the background documentation for this information collection at the following Web site,
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1)
The Exchange proposes to amend the definition of Professional Customer in Rule 900.2NY(18A) to specify the manner in which the Exchange calculates average daily order submissions for purposes of counting Professional Customer orders. The proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of those statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to amend the definition of Professional Customer in Rule 900.2NY(18A) to adopt a methodology for counting average daily order submissions in listed options to determine whether a person or entity meets the definition of a Professional Customer (“Professional Customer order counting”). The proposed rule change is designed to harmonize Professional Customer order counting with the recently adopted rules of competing options exchanges—specifically the Chicago Board of Options Exchange, Inc. (“CBOE”) and NASDAQ OMX PHLX LLC (“PHLX”).
Rule 900.2NY(18A) defines Professional Customer “as an individual or organization that (i) is not a Broker/Dealer in securities, and (ii) places more than 390 orders in listed options per day on average during a calendar month for its own beneficial account(s).” The Exchange believes that identifying Professional Customer accounts based upon the average number of orders entered in qualified accounts is an appropriate, objective approach that will reasonably distinguish such persons and entities from non-professional, retail investors or market participants.
The advent of new multi-leg spread products and the proliferation of the use of complex orders and algorithmic execution strategies by both institutional and retail market participants has raised questions as to what should be counted as an “order” for Professional Customer order counting purposes. The proposed changes would specifically address the counting of multi-leg spread products, algorithm generated orders, and complex orders for purposes of determining Professional Customer status. In addition, the proposal is intended to provide guidance regarding the methodology used by the Exchange when calculating average daily orders for Professional order counting purposes.
As proposed, the rule would provide that an order would count as one order for Professional Customer counting purposes, unless one of the exceptions enumerated in the proposed rule stipulates otherwise (each an “Exception”). The first Exception relates to the treatment of complex orders for purposes of computing orders for Professional order counting purposes. Specifically, the proposed rule provides that a complex order of eight legs or less would count as one order, whereas a complex order comprised of nine (9) option legs or more counts as multiple orders with each option leg counting as
The second Exception relates to calculations for parent/child orders. As proposed, if a parent order submitted for the beneficial account(s) of a person or entity other than a broker or dealer is subsequently broken up into multiple child orders on the
The third Exception would govern the counting methodology for cancel/replace orders. As proposed, any order that cancels and replaces an existing order would count as a
The Exchange proposes to implement the rule on July 1, 2016, which would be announced via Trader Update.
The Exchange believes that the proposed change is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
Specifically, the Exchange believes that the proposal is designed to adopt a reasonable and objective approach to determine Professional Customer status that is consistent with the approach being utilized on other options exchanges, which benefits market participants by providing consistency across exchanges regarding the Professional Customer order counting.
The Exchange notes that it is not amending the threshold of 390 orders in listed options per day but, consisting with other exchanges is revising the method for counting Professional Customer orders in the context of multi-part orders and cancel/replace activity. In short, the proposal addresses how to account for complex orders, parent/child orders, and cancel/replace orders. The Exchange believes that distinguishing between complex orders with 9 or more options legs and those orders with 8 or fewer options legs is a reasonable and objective approach. In addition, the Exchange believes the proposal appropriately distinguishes between parent/child orders that are generated by a broker's efforts to obtain an execution on a larger size order while minimizing market impact and multi-part orders that used by more sophisticated market participants. Similarly, the Exchange believes that the proposal that cancel/replace orders would count as separate orders with limited exceptions is a reasonable and objective approach to distinguish the orders of retail customers that are “worked” by a broker from orders generated by algorithms used by more sophisticated market participants.
Thus, the Exchange believes the proposal, which establishes an objective methodology for counting average daily order submissions for Professional
The Exchange does not believe that this proposed rule change would impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. To the contrary, the proposed rule change is a competitive change that is substantially similar to recent rule changes filed by the CBOE and PHLX.
The Exchange notes that one of the purposes of the Professional Customer designation is to help ensure fairness in the marketplace and promote competition among all market participants. The Exchange believes that this proposal would help establish more competition among market participants and promote the purposes for which the Exchange's Professional Customer rule was originally adopted. Moreover, the proposal would stem ensure consistency and stem potential confusion as to the manner in which options exchanges compute the Professional Customer order volume.
No written comments were solicited or received with respect to the proposed rule change.
The Exchange has filed the proposed rule change pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(iii) of the Act
At any time within 60 days of the filing of such proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings under Section 19(b)(2)(B)
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
The purpose of this filing is to suspend the interbank service of the GCF Repo® service, as described more fully below. The proposed suspension does not require changes to the text of the Government Securities Division (“GSD”) Rulebook (the “GSD Rules”),
In its filing with the Commission, the clearing agency included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for
The GCF Repo service allows GSD dealer members (hereinafter “GCF Repo Participants”) who choose to participate in the service to trade general collateral repos throughout the day without requiring intra-day, trade-for-trade settlement on a delivery-versus-payment basis.
The GCF Repo service currently operates on an interbank basis and on an intrabank basis. “Interbank” means that the two GCF Repo Participants which have been matched in a GCF Repo transaction each clear at a different clearing bank. “Intrabank” means that the two GCF Repo Participants which have been matched in a GCF Repo transaction clear at the same clearing bank.
Since 2011, FICC has been committed to working with its clearing banks, JP Morgan Chase and The Bank of New York Mellon (together hereinafter referred to as the “Clearing Banks”), to make changes to its GCF Repo service in order to comply with the recommendations that had been made by the Tri-Party Repo Infrastructure Reform Task Force (“TPR”),
The main purpose of the TPR was to develop recommendations to address the risk presented by triparty repo transactions due to the morning reversal (commonly referred to as the “unwind”) process and to move to a process by which transactions are collateralized all day. By way of background, the GCF Repo service was originally designed to have transactions “unwind” every morning in order to mirror the transactions in the triparty repo market. Prior to Triparty Reform, transactions submitted on “Day 1” unwound on the morning of “Day 2.” To “unwind” means that the securities are returned to the lender of securities in the transaction and the cash is returned to the borrower of securities.
Because of certain changes to the way in which the Triparty Reform effort was to proceed and the impact of such changes on the interbank service of the GCF Repo service as further described below, FICC is proposing to suspend the interbank service of the GCF Repo service. The intrabank service will continue to operate as it does today.
By way of background, all collateral that is settled via the interbank service is unwound the next morning to FICC's account at the pledging Clearing Bank in order to make the collateral available for collateral substitutions. In order to facilitate this intraday collateral substitution process, the Clearing Banks currently extend credit each business day to FICC at no charge. This uncapped and uncommitted credit extension to FICC facilitates the GCF Repo settlement process for both the intra-day and end of day settlement. The final changes related to the Triparty Reform effort would have eliminated the need for uncapped and uncommitted credit (a TPR goal) by including the development of interactive messages for the collateral substitution process (this was referred to as the “Sub Hub”), which would have eliminated the need for the current morning unwind of interbank GCF Repo and would have allowed for substitution of collateral across the Clearing Banks with minimal intra-day credit required. The last change was also going to include a streamlined end of day GCF Repo settlement process to reduce the amount of cash and collateral needed in order to complete settlement. This change would have incorporated the concept of a “cap” on FICC credit from the Clearing Banks and an automated solution would have been developed to process the interbank GCF Repo settlement without breaching the defined and agreed to caps. This means that the amount of credit that FICC would have required from the Clearing Banks would have been managed to a minimal amount.
FICC was advised by one of the Clearing Banks that the Sub Hub has been determined not to be feasible and that FICC would instead require a capped line of credit which would be applicable to the current interbank service (without the benefits of any re-design to manage the amounts of needed credit). In other words, this new proposed capped line of credit would be applied to the interbank service as the service currently operates and not in the re-designed fashion that was contemplated by the Triparty Reform effort, which would have allowed for smaller settlement amounts.
FICC and several GCF Repo Participants considered the feasibility of a cap on the current structure of the interbank service of the GCF Repo service without the Sub Hub functionality and without the re-design of the interbank service to allow for manageable caps. FICC and such GCF Repo Participants determined that there would be significant operational constraints in attempting to trade and settle GCF Repo while attempting to implement a cap on interbank GCF Repo trading and settlement. Specifically, the inter-dealer brokers would need to be integrated as a group from a technological perspective in order to be able to track the GCF Repo Participants' real-time netted positions, from an intrabank and interbank perspective, to ensure that the cap is not breached; this would require an integrated pre-trade check across each inter-dealer broker's platform and FICC to ensure conformity to the cap.
Because FICC cannot operate the current interbank service within a capped credit amount as proposed by the one of the Clearing Banks with the current settlement process at the Clearing Banks and because it is not feasible to institute a pre-trade validation system as discussed above, FICC will no longer operate the interbank service of the GCF Repo service after July 15, 2016 (the “Suspension Date”), which is approximately six (6) weeks prior to the date that the Clearing Bank has stated it will begin to impose the capped line of credit (September 1, 2016 or the “Capped Charges Date”). Subsequent to
GCF Repo Participants will be affected by the suspension of the interbank service in that, after the Suspension Date, these Members will only be matched with GCF Repo Participants who clear at their Clearing Bank. This may limit the potential number of counterparties available to GCF Repo Participants and for some GCF Repo Participants this limitation may significantly reduce the benefits of the GCF Repo service.
Currently, one Clearing Bank has more GCF Repo Participants than the other Clearing Bank. Thus, GCF Repo Participants who clear at the Clearing Bank with the least number of GCF Repo Participants will have a limited number of GCF Repo counterparties with which they are able to transact. This limitation may result in a less liquid market for GCF Repo Participants within that particular Clearing Bank. The GCF Repo Participants at the other Clearing Bank may not experience this limitation since they will have more GCF Repo counterparties available to them.
The fact that interbank settlement currently occurs on a daily basis suggests that GCF Repo Participants benefit from their ability to borrow money from GCF Repo counterparties on an interbank basis. Once this option no longer exists, financing needs may be absorbed within the intrabank GCF Repo market or, it may shift to the delivery-versus-payment (“DVP”) or triparty repo markets. It is also possible that the number of GCF Repo Participants may decrease depending upon each Participant's ability to access alternative funding sources and the assets that such Participants are looking to finance. For example, U.S. Treasuries and Agencies may be more easily financed in the DVP repo market, however, Agency mortgage-backed securities (“MBS”) are not as easily financed via the DVP repo market. Thus, GCF Repo Participants with portfolios comprised of Agency mortgage-backed securities may have fewer financing options due to the suspension of the interbank service.
FICC does not believe that GCF Repo Participants will have problems in complying with the suspension of the interbank service because of the nature of the GCF Repo Service. Specifically, because the service is conducted through the inter-dealer brokers on a blind basis, the brokers will not match dealers from different Clearing Banks after the Suspension Date.
No changes to the text of the GSD Rules are required to implement the suspension of the interbank service.
Pursuant to Section 17A(b)(3)(F) of the Act, GSD's Rules must be designed to promote the prompt and accurate clearance and settlement of securities transactions.
The suspension of the interbank service could have an impact on competition based on the fact that GCF Repo Participants will only be matched in GCF Repo transactions with other Members that clear at the same Clearing Bank. This may limit the number of potential counterparties for the Members. Currently, one Clearing Bank has more GCF Repo Participants than the other Clearing Bank. Thus, GCF Repo Participants who clear at the Clearing Bank with the least number of GCF Repo Participants will have a limited number of GCF Repo counterparties. This limitation may result in a less liquid market for GCF Repo Participants within that particular Clearing Bank. However, FICC believes that any burden on competition would be necessary and appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. By suspending the interbank service of the GCF Repo service, FICC is avoiding a situation where it would not be able to complete settlement as described above.
Written comments on the suspension of the interbank service have not yet been solicited or received. FICC will notify the Commission of any written comments received by FICC.
Within 45 days of the date of publication of this notice in the
(A) By order approve or disapprove the proposed rule change; or
(B) institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule change should be disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Notice is hereby given that, pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
Schedule 13E-4F (17 CFR 240.13e-102) may be used by an issuer that is incorporated or organized under the laws of Canada to make a cash tender or exchange offer for the issuer's own securities if less than 40 percent of the class of such issuer's securities outstanding that are the subject of the tender offer is held by U.S. holders. The information collected must be filed with the Commission and is publicly available. We estimate that it takes approximately 2 hours per response to prepare Schedule 13E-4F and that the information is filed by approximately 3 respondents for a total annual reporting burden of 6 hours (2 hours per response × 3 responses).
Written comments are invited on: (a) Whether this proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden imposed by the collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. Consideration will be given to comments and suggestions submitted in writing within 60 days of this publication.
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid control number.
Please direct your written comment to Pamela Dyson, Director/Chief Information Officer, Securities and Exchange Commission, c/o Remi Pavlik-Simon, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549 or send an email to:
The Social Security Administration (SSA) publishes a list of information collection packages requiring clearance by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) in compliance with Public Law 104-13, the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, effective October 1, 1995. This notice includes revisions and one extension of OMB-approved information collections.
SSA is soliciting comments on the accuracy of the agency's burden estimate; the need for the information; its practical utility; ways to enhance its quality, utility, and clarity; and ways to minimize burden on respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. Mail, email, or fax your comments and recommendations on the information collection(s) to the OMB Desk Officer and SSA Reports Clearance Officer at the following addresses or fax numbers.
Or you may submit your comments online through
I. The information collections below are pending at SSA. SSA will submit them to OMB within 60 days from the date of this notice. To be sure we consider your comments, we must receive them no later than July 19, 2016. Individuals can obtain copies of the collection instruments by writing to the above email address.
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II. SSA submitted the information collections below to OMB for clearance. Your comments regarding the information collections would be most useful if OMB and SSA receive them 30 days from the date of this publication. To be sure we consider your comments, we must receive them no later than June 20, 2016. Individuals can obtain copies of the OMB clearance packages by writing to
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Acting under the authority of and in accordance with sec. 1(b) of Executive Order 13224 of September 23, 2001, as amended by Executive Order 13268 of July 2, 2002, and Executive Order 13284 of January 23, 2003, I hereby determine that the individual known as ISIL-Yemen, also known as Islamic State of Iraq and the Levant-Yemen, also known as Islamic State of Iraq and the Levant in Yemen, also known as Islamic State in Yemen, also known as ISIS in Yemen, also known as Wilayat al-Yemen, also known as Province of Yemen committed, or poses a significant risk of committing, acts of terrorism that threaten the security of U.S. nationals or the national security, foreign policy, or economy of the United States.
Consistent with the determination in sec. 10 of Executive Order 13224 that “prior notice to persons determined to be subject to the Order who might have a constitutional presence in the United States would render ineffectual the blocking and other measures authorized in the Order because of the ability to transfer funds instantaneously,” I
This notice shall be published in the
Acting under the authority of and in accordance with section 1(b) of Executive Order 13224 of September 23, 2001, as amended by Executive Order 13268 of July 2, 2002, and Executive Order 13284 of January 23, 2003, I hereby determine that the individual known as ISIL-Saudi Arabia, also known as Islamic State of Iraq and the Levant-Saudi Arabia, also known as Islamic State of Iraq and the Levant in Saudi Arabia, also known as ISIS in Saudi Arabia, also known as Wilayat al-Haramayn, also known as Wilayat Najd, also known as Najd Province, also known as Province of the Two Holy Places, also known as Mujahideen of the Arabian Peninsula, also known as Hijaz Province of the Islamic State, also known as Al-Hijaz Province committed, or poses a significant risk of committing, acts of terrorism that threaten the security of U.S. nationals or the national security, foreign policy, or economy of the United States.
Consistent with the determination in section 10 of Executive Order 13224 that “prior notice to persons determined to be subject to the Order who might have a constitutional presence in the United States would render ineffectual the blocking and other measures authorized in the Order because of the ability to transfer funds instantaneously,” I determine that no prior notice needs to be provided to any person subject to this determination who might have a constitutional presence in the United States, because to do so would render ineffectual the measures authorized in the Order.
This notice shall be published in the
Notice is hereby given of the following determinations: Pursuant to the authority vested in me by the Act of October 19, 1965 (79 Stat. 985; 22 U.S.C. 2459), E.O. 12047 of March 27, 1978, the Foreign Affairs Reform and Restructuring Act of 1998 (112 Stat. 2681,
For further information, including a list of the imported objects, contact the Office of Public Diplomacy and Public Affairs in the Office of the Legal Adviser, U.S. Department of State (telephone: 202-632-6471; email:
Notice is hereby given of the following determinations: Pursuant to the authority vested in me by the Act of October 19, 1965 (79 Stat. 985; 22 U.S.C. 2459), E.O. 12047 of March 27, 1978, the Foreign Affairs Reform and Restructuring Act of 1998 (112 Stat. 2681,
For further information, including a list of the imported objects, contact the Office of Public Diplomacy and Public Affairs in the Office of the Legal Adviser, U.S. Department of State (telephone: 202-632-6471; email:
Notice of request for public comment.
The Department of State is seeking Office of Management and Budget (OMB) approval for the information collection described below. In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, we are requesting comments on this collection from all interested individuals and organizations. The purpose of this notice is to allow 60 days for public comment preceding submission of the collection to OMB.
The Department will accept comments from the public up to July 19, 2016.
You may submit comments by any of the following methods:
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You must include the DS form number (if applicable), information collection title, and the OMB control number in any correspondence.
Direct requests for additional information regarding the collection listed in this notice, including requests for copies of the proposed collection instrument and supporting documents, to Section 609 Program Manager, Office of Marine Conservation, Bureau of Oceans and International Environmental and Scientific Affairs, Department of State, Washington, DC 20520-2758, who may be reached at
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We are soliciting public comments to permit the Department to:
• Evaluate whether the proposed information collection is necessary for the proper functions of the Department.
• Evaluate the accuracy of our estimate of the time and cost burden for this proposed collection, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used.
• Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected.
• Minimize the reporting burden on those who are to respond, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Please note that comments submitted in response to this Notice are public record. Before including any detailed personal information, you should be aware that your comments as submitted, including your personal information, will be available for public review.
Acting under the authority of and in accordance with sec. 1(b) of Executive Order 13224 of September 23, 2001, as amended by Executive Order 13268 of July 2, 2002, and Executive Order 13284 of January 23, 2003, I hereby determine that the individual known as ISIL-Libya, also known as Islamic State of Iraq and the Levant-Libya, also known as Islamic State of Iraq and the Levant in Libya, also known as Wilayat Barqa, also known as Wialyat Fezzan, also known as Wilayat Tripolitania, also known as Wilayat Tarablus, also known as Wilayat al-Tarablus committed, or poses a significant risk of committing, acts of terrorism that threaten the security of U.S. nationals or the national security, foreign policy, or economy of the United States.
Consistent with the determination in section 10 of Executive Order 13224 that “prior notice to persons determined to be subject to the Order who might have a constitutional presence in the United States would render ineffectual the blocking and other measures authorized in the Order because of the ability to transfer funds instantaneously,” I determine that no prior notice needs to be provided to any person subject to this determination who might have a constitutional presence in the United States, because to do so would render ineffectual the measures authorized in the Order.
This notice shall be published in the
In accordance with section 1(b) of Executive Order 13224 of September 23, 2001, as amended (“the Order”), I hereby determine the individual known as Samir Kuntar, also known as Samir Quntar, also known as Sameer Kantar, also known as Samir Al-Kuntar, also known as Samir Qantar, also known as Samir Kintar, also known as Samir Qintar, also known as Samir Cantar, no longer meets the criteria for designation under the Order, and therefore I hereby revoke the designation of the aforementioned individual as a Specially Designated Global Terrorist pursuant to section 1(b) of the Order.
This notice shall be published in the
Notice is hereby given of the following determinations: Pursuant to the authority vested in me by the Act of October 19, 1965 (79 Stat. 985; 22 U.S.C. 2459), E.O. 12047 of March 27, 1978, the Foreign Affairs Reform and Restructuring Act of 1998 (112 Stat. 2681,
For further information, including a list of the imported objects, contact the Office of Public Diplomacy and Public Affairs in the Office of the Legal Adviser, U.S. Department of State (telephone: 202-632-6471; email:
Based upon review of the Administrative Record assembled in this matter, and in consultation with the Attorney General and the Secretary of the Treasury, I conclude that there is sufficient factual basis to find that the relevant circumstances described in sec. 219 of the Immigration and Nationality Act, as amended (heinafter “INA”) (8 U.S.C. 1189), exist with respect to ISIL-Libya, also known as Islamic State of Iraq and the Levant-Libya, also known as Islamic State of Iraq and the Levant in Libya, also known as Wilayat Barqa, also known as Wialyat Fezzan, also known as Wilayat Tripolitania, also known as Wilayat Tarablus, also known as Wilayat al-Tarablus.
Therefore, I hereby designate the aforementioned organization and its aliases as a foreign terrorist organization pursuant to sec. 219 of the INA.
This determination shall be published in the
Paul Didelius (Didelius), an individual and noncarrier,
This transaction is related to a concurrently filed verified notice of modified certificate of public convenience and necessity in
The transaction may be consummated on or after June 5, 2016, the effective date of the exemption (30 days after the verified notice of exemption was filed).
Didelius represents that: (1) The rail properties that will be operated and controlled by Didelius, namely WRL, YCR, LRY, and CCET, do not connect with each other or any railroad in their corporate family; (2) there are no plans
Under 49 U.S.C. 10502(g), the Board may not use its exemption authority to relieve a rail carrier of its statutory obligation to protect the interests of its employees. Section 11326(c), however, does not provide for labor protection for transactions under 11324 and 11325 that involve only Class III rail carriers. Accordingly, the Board may not impose labor protective conditions here, because all of the carriers involved are Class III carriers.
If the verified notice contains false or misleading information, the exemption is void ab initio. Petitions to revoke the exemption under 49 U.S.C. 10502(d) may be filed at any time. The filing of a petition to revoke will not automatically stay the effectiveness of the exemption. Petitions for stay must be filed no later than May 27, 2016 (at least seven days before the exemption becomes effective).
An original and 10 copies of all pleadings, referring to Docket No. FD 36003, must be filed with Surface Transportation Board, 395 E Street SW., Washington, DC 20423-0001. In addition, one copy of each pleading must be served on James H.M. Savage, 22 Rockingham Court, Germantown, MD 20874.
Board decisions and notices are available on our Web site at
By the Board, Rachel D. Campbell, Director, Office of Proceedings.
Federal Aviation Administration, DOT.
Notice.
The Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) announces its determination that the Noise Exposure Maps (NEMs) submitted by the City of Charlotte for Charlotte Douglas International Airport under the provisions of 49 U.S.C. 47501
Aaron Braswell, Federal Aviation Administration, Memphis Airports District Office, 2600 Thousand Oaks Blvd., Suite 2250, Memphis, TN 38118, 901-322-8192.
This notice announces that the FAA finds that the NEMs submitted for the Charlotte Douglas International Airport Airport (CLT) are in compliance with applicable requirements of Part 150, effective April 12, 2016. Under the Act, an airport operator (hereinafter referred to as “Sponsor”) may submit to the FAA NEMs which meet applicable regulations and which depict non-compatible land uses as of the date of submission of such maps, a description of projected aircraft operations, and the ways in which such operations will affect such maps. The Act requires that the Sponsor develop its NEMs in consultation with interested and affected parties in the local community, government agencies, and persons using the airport. The FAA has relied on the certification by the City of Charlotte, under § 150.21 of Part 150, that the statutorily required consultation has been accomplished.
An airport Sponsor who has submitted NEMs that are found by the FAA to be in compliance with the requirements of Part 150 may submit a Noise Compatibility Program (NCP) for FAA approval which sets forth the measures the Sponsor has taken or proposes to take to reduce existing non-compatible uses and prevent the introduction of additional non-compatible uses.
The FAA has completed its review of the NEMs and accompanying documentation submitted by City of Charlotte. The documentation that constitutes the “NEMs” as defined in § 150.7 of Part 150 includes: Exhibit 3-1, Existing (2015) Noise Contour; Exhibit 4-1, Future (2020) Noise Contour; Exhibit C-11, Runway 18L Flight Tracks; Exhibit C-12, Runway 18C Flight Tracks; Exhibit C-13, Runway 18R Flight Tracks; Exhibit C-14, Runway 36R Flight Tracks; Exhibit C-15, Runway 36C Flight Tracks; Exhibit C-16, Runway 36L Flight Tracks; Exhibit C-17, Runway 05 Flight Tracks; Exhibit C-18, Runway 23 Flight Tracks; Exhibit C-19, Helicopter Flight Tracks; Table C-1, Distribution of Average Daily Operations by Aircraft Category Existing (2015) Conditions; Table C-2, Runway End Utilization—Existing (2015) Conditions; Table C-3, Arrival Flight Track Utilization Percentages Existing (2015) and Future (2020) Conditions; Table C-4, Departure Flight Track Utilization Percentages Existing (2015) and Future (2020) Conditions; Table C-5, Departure Trip Length Distribution Existing (2015) Conditions; Table C-6, Aircraft Engine Run-Ups—Existing (2015) Conditions; Table C-7, Distribution of Average Daily Operations by Aircraft Type Future (2020) Conditions; Table C-8, Departure Trip Length Distribution—Future (2020) Conditions; Table C-9, Ground Run-Up Operations—Future (2020) Conditions; Appendix F. The FAA has determined that these NEMs and accompanying documentation are in compliance with applicable requirements. This determination is effective on April 12, 2016.
FAA's determination on the airport Sponsor's NEMs is limited to a finding that the maps were developed in accordance with the procedures contained in Appendix A of Part 150. Such determination does not constitute approval of the Sponsor's data, information, or plans, and is not a commitment to approve a NCP or to fund the implementation of that Program. If questions arise concerning the precise relationship of specific properties to noise exposure contours depicted on a NEM submitted under § 47503 of the Act, it is emphasized that the FAA is not involved in any way in determining the relative locations of specific properties with regard to the depicted noise exposure contours, or in interpreting the NEMs to resolve questions concerning, for example, which properties should be covered by the provisions of § 47506 of the Act. These functions are inseparable from the ultimate land use control and planning responsibilities of local government and remain unchanged by FAA's NEM compliance determination under Part 150. The responsibility for the detailed overlaying of noise exposure contours onto the map depicting properties on the surface rests exclusively with the airport Sponsor that submitted those maps, or with those public agencies and planning agencies with which consultation is required under § 47503 of the Act.
Copies of the full NEM documentation are available for
Direct questions or to arrange an appointment to review the documents to the individual named above under the heading,
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed policy amendment and request for comments; extension of comment period.
The FAA is extending the comment period on its notice of proposed policy published on May 3, 2016, that proposes to amend its “Notice of Policy Regarding the Eligibility of Airport Ground Transportation Projects for Funding Under the Passenger Facility Charge (PFC) Program,” regarding the requirement for PFC funding of on-airport, rail access projects.
Comments must be received on or before June 17, 2016.
You may send comments identified by docket number FAA-2016-6596 using any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
Joe Hebert, Manager, Financial Analysis and Passenger Facility Charge Branch, APP-510, Federal Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20591, telephone (202) 267-8375; facsimile (202) 267-5302.
On May 3, 2016, the FAA published a notice titled “Notice of Proposed Policy Amendment and Request for Comments” (81 FR 26611). In that Notice, the FAA proposed to change the policy regarding the Passenger Facility Charge eligibility of ground access projects meeting certain criteria. The notice requested that interested parties submit written comments by June 2, 2016.
On May 11, 2016, the Airports Council International—North America (ACI-NA), the American Association of Airport Executives (AAAE), and Airlines for America (A4A) submitted a request to extend the comment period by 30 days because additional time is needed to conduct the necessary research and assess the alternatives that the FAA proposes and also consolidate comments from their respective members. After careful consideration of the schedule constraints, the FAA has decided to extend the comment period for 15 days until June 17, 2016. The FAA expects that the additional time for comments will allow the affected community to prepare meaningful comments which will help the FAA to consider an amendment to FAA's airport ground access transportation policy for PFC funding.
Federal Highway Administration (FHWA), U.S. DOT.
Notice of Limitation on Claims for Judicial Review of Actions by TxDOT and Federal Agencies.
This notice announces actions taken by Texas Department of Transportation (TxDOT) and Federal agencies that are final within the meaning of 23 U.S.C. 139(l)(1). The actions relate to a proposed highway project, US 183 North (the “183 North Mobility Project”) from State Highway (SH) 45/Ranch-to-Market (RM) 620 in Williamson County to State Loop 1 (MoPac) in Travis County in the State of Texas. Those actions grant licenses, permits, and approvals for the project.
By this notice, TxDOT is advising the public of final agency actions subject to 23 U.S.C. 139(l)(1). A claim seeking judicial review of the Federal agency actions on the highway project will be barred unless the claim is filed on or before October 17, 2016. If the Federal law that authorizes judicial review of a claim provides a time period of less than 150 days for filing such claim, then that shorter time period still applies.
Mr. Carlos Swonke, P.G., Environmental Affairs Division, Texas Department of Transportation, 125 East 11th Street, Austin, Texas 78701; telephone: (512) 416-2734; email:
Notice is hereby given that TxDOT and Federal agencies have taken final agency actions by issuing licenses, permits, and approvals for the following highway project in the State of Texas: the 183 North Mobility Project from State Highway (SH) 45/Ranch-to-Market (RM) 620 in Williamson County to State Loop 1 in (MoPac) in Travis County, Texas. The project will have two variable-priced (tolled) express lanes in each direction, an additional (fourth) general purpose lane (southbound from approximately Lake Creek Parkway to the entrance ramp from SH 45; southbound from north of McNeil Drive/Spicewood Springs Road to MoPac; and northbound between Braker Lane and McNeil Drive/Spicewood Springs Road) and direct connectors to and from SH 45/RM 620 on the north and MoPac on the south. Transitions between the improved section of US 183 and existing facilities will be provided along SH 45/RM 620, MoPac (south of RM 2222) and on US 183 north and south of the project areas. The length of the proposed project, including all transitions, is approximately 13 miles.
The actions by TxDOT and the Federal agencies, and the laws under which such actions were taken, are described in the Final Environmental
This notice applies to all TxDOT decisions and Federal agency decisions as of the issuance date of this notice and all laws under which such actions were taken, including but not limited to:
1. General: National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) [42 U.S.C. 4321-4351]; Federal-Aid Highway Act [23 U.S.C. 109].
2. Air: Clean Air Act [42 U.S.C. 7401-7671(q)].
3. Land: Section 4(f) of the Department of Transportation Act of 1966 [49 U.S.C. 303]; Landscaping and Scenic Enhancement (Wildflowers) [23 U.S.C. 319].
4. Wildlife: Endangered Species Act [16 U.S.C. 1531-1544 and Section 1536]; Fish and Wildlife Coordination Act [16 U.S.C. 661-667(d)]; Migratory Bird Treaty Act [16 U.S.C. 703-712].
5. Historic and Cultural Resources: Section 106 of the National Historic Preservation Act of 1966, as amended [16 U.S.C. 470(f)
6. Social and Economic: Civil Rights Act of 1964 [42 U.S.C. 2000(d)-2000(d)(1)]; American Indian Religious Freedom Act [42 U.S.C. 1996]; Farmland Protection Policy Act (FPPA) [7 U.S.C. 4201-4209].
7. Wetlands and Water Resources: Clean Water Act [33 U.S.C. 1251-1377]; Land and Water Conservation Fund (LWCF) [16 U.S.C. 4601-4604]; Safe Drinking Water Act (SDWA) [42 U.S.C. 300(f)-300(j)(6)]; Rivers and Harbors Act of 1899 [33 U.S.C. 401-406]; Wild and Scenic Rivers Act [16 U.S.C. 1271-1287]; Emergency Wetlands Resources Act [16 U.S.C. 3921, 3931]; TEA-21 Wetlands Mitigation [23 U.S.C. 103(b)(6)(m), 133(b)(11)]; Flood Disaster Protection Act [42 U.S.C. 4001-4128].
8. Executive Orders: E.O. 11990, Protection of Wetlands; E.O. 11988, Floodplain Management; E.O. 12898, Federal Actions to Address Environmental Justice in Minority Populations and Low Income Populations; E.O. 11593, Protection and Enhancement of Cultural Resources; E.O. 13007, Indian Sacred Sites; E.O. 13287, Preserve America; E.O. 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments; E.O. 11514, Protection and Enhancement of Environmental Quality; E.O. 13112, Invasive Species; E.O. 12372, Intergovernmental Review of Federal Programs.
The environmental review, consultation, and other actions required by applicable Federal environmental laws for this project are being, or have been, carried-out by TxDOT pursuant to 23 U.S.C. 327 and a Memorandum of Understanding dated December 16, 2014, and executed by FHWA and TxDOT.
23 U.S.C. 139(l)(1).
Federal Highway Administration (FHWA), Arizona Department of Transportation (ADOT), DOT.
Notice of intent to prepare a Tier 1 Environmental Impact Statement (EIS).
The FHWA, as the Federal Lead Agency, and the ADOT, as the Local Project Sponsor, are issuing this notice to advise the public of our intention to prepare a Tier 1 EIS for the Interstate 11 (I-11) Corridor between Nogales and Wickenburg, AZ (I-11 Corridor). The Tier 1 EIS will assess the potential social, economic, and natural environmental impacts of a vehicular transportation facility and potential multimodal facility (rail and utility) opportunities in the designated I-11 Corridor across a range of alternatives, including a “No Build” alternative. The Tier 1 EIS will be prepared in accordance with regulations implementing the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA), and provisions of Fixing America's Surface Transportation Act (FAST) Act.
For FHWA, contact Mr. Aryan Lirange, Senior Urban Engineer, Federal Highway Administration, 4000 North Central Avenue, Suite 1500, Phoenix, AZ 85012, telephone at 602-382-8973, or via email at
The purpose of this notice is to: (1) Alert interested parties to FHWA's plan to prepare the Tier 1 EIS; (2) provide information on the nature of the proposed action; (3) solicit public and agency input regarding the scope of the Tier 1 EIS, including the purpose and need, alternatives to be considered, and impacts to be evaluated; and (4) announce that public and agency scoping meetings will be conducted. The FHWA intends to issue a single Final Tier 1 EIS and Record of Decision (ROD) document pursuant to FAST Act Section 1311 requirements, unless FHWA determines statutory criteria or practicability considerations preclude issuance of a combined document.
The Tier 1 EIS will build upon the prior I-11 and Intermountain West Corridor Study (IWCS) completed in 2014. This Planning and Environmental Linkages study was a multimodal planning effort that included ADOT, Federal Railroad Administration, FHWA, Maricopa Association of Governments, Nevada Department of Transportation, Regional Transportation Commission of Southern Nevada, and other key stakeholders. The I-11 and Intermountain West Corridor was identified as a critical piece of multimodal infrastructure that would diversify, support, and connect the economies of Arizona and Nevada. The I-11 and Intermountain West Corridor could also be connected to a larger north-south transportation corridor, linking Mexico and Canada.
On December 4, 2015, the President signed into law the FAST Act, which is a 5-year legislation to improve the Nation's surface transportation infrastructure. The FAST Act formally designates I-11 throughout Arizona, reinforcing ADOT's overall concept for the Arizona I-11 Corridor that emerged from the IWCS study. The FHWA and ADOT continue to advance the I-11 Corridor in Arizona for the approximately 280-mile section between Nogales and Wickenburg with this Tier I EIS study.
The FHWA and ADOT will undertake a scoping process for the I-11 Corridor that will allow the public and interested agencies to comment on the scope of the environmental review process. The FHWA and ADOT will invite all interested individuals, organizations, public agencies, and Native American Tribes to comment on the scope of the
The buildings used for the meetings are accessible to persons with disabilities. Any person who requires special assistance, such as a language interpreter, should contact the Interstate 11 Tier 1 EIS Study Team at telephone 844-544-8049 or via email at
Written comments on the scope of the Tier 1 EIS should be mailed to: Interstate 11 Tier 1 EIS Study Team, c/o ADOT Communications, 1655 West Jackson Street, Mail Drop 126F, Phoenix, AZ 85007; sent via email to
The Paperwork Reduction Act seeks, in part, to minimize the cost to the taxpayer of the creation, collection, maintenance, use dissemination, and disposition of information. Accordingly, unless a specific request for a complete hardcopy of the NEPA document is received before it is printed, the FHWA and ADOT will distribute only electronic versions of the NEPA document. A complete copy of the environmental document will be available for review at locations throughout the study area. An electronic copy of the complete environmental document will be available on the study's Web site at
23 U.S.C. 315; 23 CFR 771.123.
Office of the Comptroller of the Currency (OCC), Treasury.
Notice and request for comment.
The OCC, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on a continuing information collection, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA).
In accordance with the requirements of the PRA, the OCC may not conduct or sponsor, and the respondent is not required to respond to, an information collection unless it displays a currently valid Office of Management and Budget (OMB) control number.
The OCC is soliciting comment concerning the renewal of its information collection titled, “Consumer Protections for Depository Institution Sales of Insurance.” The OCC also is giving notice that it has sent the collection to OMB for review.
Comments must be received by June 20, 2016.
Because paper mail in the Washington, DC area and at the OCC is subject to delay, commenters are encouraged to submit comments by email, if possible. Comments may be sent to: Legislative and Regulatory Activities Division, Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, Attention: 1557-0220, 400 7th Street SW., Suite 3E-218, Mail Stop 9W-11, Washington, DC 20219. In addition, comments may be sent by fax to (571) 465-4326 or by electronic mail to
All comments received, including attachments and other supporting materials, are part of the public record and subject to public disclosure. Do not include any information in your comment or supporting materials that you consider confidential or inappropriate for public disclosure.
Additionally, please send a copy of your comments by mail to: OCC Desk Officer, 1557-0220, U.S. Office of Management and Budget, 725 17th Street NW., #10235, Washington, DC 20503, or by email to:
Shaquita Merritt, Clearance Officer, (202) 649-5490 or, for persons who are deaf or hard of hearing, TTY, (202) 649-5597, Legislative and Regulatory Activities Division, Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, 400 7th Street SW., Suite 3E-218, Mail Stop 9W-11, Washington, DC 20219.
The OCC is proposing to extend OMB approval of the following information collection:
This information collection requires national banks, Federal savings associations, and other covered persons, as defined in 12 CFR 14.20(f) and 136.20, involved in insurance sales to make two separate disclosures to consumers. Under §§ 14.40 and 136.40, a national bank, Federal savings association, or other covered person must prepare and provide orally and in writing: (1) Certain insurance disclosures to consumers before the completion of the initial sale of an insurance product or annuity to a consumer and (2) certain credit
Consumers use the disclosures to understand the risks associated with insurance products and annuities and to understand that they are not required to purchase, and may refrain from purchasing, certain insurance products or annuities in order to qualify for an extension of credit.
(a) Whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the OCC, including whether the information has practical utility;
(b) The accuracy of the OCC's estimate of the information collection burden;
(c) Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected;
(d) Ways to minimize the burden of the collection on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and
(e) Estimates of capital or start-up costs and costs of operation, maintenance, and purchase of the services necessary to provide the required information.
VA Homeless Providers Grant and Per Diem Program, Veterans Health Administration, Department of Veterans Affairs.
Notice of Funding Availability (NOFA).
The Department of Veterans Affairs (VA) is announcing the availability of 1-year funding for the 21 currently operational fiscal year (FY) 2015 VA Homeless Providers Grant and Per Diem (GPD) Special Need Grant Recipients and their collaborative VA Special Need partners (as applicable) to submit renewal applications for assistance under the Special Need Grant component of VA's Homeless Providers GPD Program. The focus of this NOFA is to encourage applicants to continue to deliver services to the homeless special need Veteran population. This NOFA contains information concerning the program, application process, and amount of funding available.
An original completed, signed, and dated application (plus three completed collated copies) for assistance under the VA's Homeless Providers GPD Program and associated documents must be received in the GPD Program Office by 4:00 p.m. Eastern Time on June 27, 2016 (see application requirements below).
Applications may not be sent by facsimile or email. In the interest of fairness to all competing applicants, this deadline is firm as to date and time, and VA will treat any application that is received after the deadline as ineligible for consideration. Applicants should make early submission of their material to avoid any risk of loss of eligibility as a result of unanticipated delays or other delivery-related problems.
An original completed, signed, and dated application (plus three completed collated copies) and all required associated documents must be submitted to the following address: VA Homeless Providers GPD Program Office, 10770 N. 46th Street, Suite C-200, Tampa, FL 33617. Applications must be received by the application deadline. Applications must arrive as a complete package to include VA collaborative materials (see application requirements). Materials arriving separately
Mr. Jeffery L. Quarles, Director, VA Homeless Providers GPD Program, Department of Veterans Affairs, 10770 N. 46th Street, Suite C-200, Tampa, FL 33617; (toll-free) 1 (877) 332-0334.
This NOFA announces the availability of FY 2016 funds to provide 1-year funding assistance in FY 2017 under VA's Homeless Providers GPD Program for the 21 FY 2015 operational GPD Special need recipients and their collaborative VA Special Need partners (as applicable). Eligible applicants may obtain grant assistance to cover operational costs that would not otherwise be incurred but for the fact that the recipient is providing supportive housing beds and services for the following special needs homeless Veteran populations:
(1) Women;
(2) Frail elderly;
(3) Chronically mentally ill; or
(4) Individuals who have care of minor dependents.
Definitions of key terms relating to these populations are contained in 38 CFR 61.1 Definitions. Eligible applicants should review these definitions to ensure their proposed populations meet the specific requirements. Note: There are currently no existing grant projects for the terminally ill special needs population; therefore, grant projects that would support that population are not eligible for funding under this NOFA, and that population is not addressed in this NOFA.
VA is pleased to issue this NOFA for the Homeless Providers GPD Program as a part of the effort to end homelessness among our Nation's Veterans. Funding applied for under this NOFA may be used for the provision of service and operational costs to facilitate the following for each targeted group:
(1) Ensure transportation for women, especially for health care and educational needs; and
(2) Address safety and security issues including segregation from other program participants, if deemed appropriate.
(1) Ensure the safety of the residents in the facility to include preventing harm and exploitation;
(2) Ensure opportunities to keep residents mentally and physically agile to the fullest extent through the incorporation of structured activities, physical activity, and plans for social engagement within the program and in the community;
(3) Provide opportunities for participants to address life transitional issues and separation and/or loss issues;
(4) Provide access to assistance devices such as walkers, grippers, or other devices necessary for optimal functioning;
(5) Ensure adequate supervision, including supervision of medication and monitoring of medication compliance; and
(6) Provide opportunities for participants either directly or through referral for other services particularly relevant for the frail elderly, including
(1) Help participants join in and engage with the community;
(2) Facilitate reintegration with the community and provide services that may optimize reintegration such as life-skills education, recreational activities, and follow up case management;
(3) Ensure that participants have opportunities and services for re-establishing relationships with family;
(4) Ensure adequate supervision, including supervision of medication and monitoring of medication compliance; and
(5) Provide opportunities for participants, either directly or through referral, to obtain other services particularly relevant for a chronically mentally ill population, such as vocational development, benefits management, fiduciary or money management services, medication compliance, and medication education.
(1) Ensure transportation for individuals who have care of minor dependents, and their children, especially for health care and educational needs;
(2) Provide directly or offer referrals for adequate and safe child care;
(3) Ensure children's health care needs are met, especially age-appropriate wellness visits and immunizations; and
(4) Address safety and security issues, including segregation from other program participants if deemed appropriate.
1. 100 percent of the daily cost of care estimated by the special need recipient for furnishing services to homeless Veterans with special need that the special need recipient certifies to be correct, minus any other sources of income; or
2. Two times the current VA State Home Program per diem rate for domiciliary care.
Applicants should ensure their funding requests and operational costs are based on the 12-month award period above and should be approximately in line with prior year expenditures. Requests cannot exceed the amount obligated under the FY 2015 award. Applicants should note unexpended funding from FY 2015 will be de-obligated.
Based on GPD funding availability, approximately $2.4 million is expected to be made available over the specified time (internally) for the current grantees and their collaborative VA Special Need partners (as applicable). The goal is, to the maximum extent possible, to ensure a continuation of special need services to homeless Veterans.
Applicants will then be notified of the deadline to submit such information. If an applicant is unable to meet any conditions for grant award within the specified time frame, VA reserves the right to not award funds and to use the funds available for other special need applicants. Following receipt and confirmation that this information is accurate and in acceptable form, the applicant will execute an agreement with VA in accordance with 38 CFR 61.61.
Questions regarding acceptability should be directed to VA's National GPD Program Office at the number listed in the “For Further Information Contact” section of this NOFA. Applicants may not receive special need funding to replace funds provided by any Federal, State or local government agency or program to assist homeless persons.
Applicants are to complete the application in a normal business format on not more than 40 double-spaced, typed, single sided pages in Arial 12 font. Note: The resumes or letters of support do not have to be double spaced and will not count toward the page maximum. Applicants must include or address the following within the application:
1.
Nonprofit Organizations must provide documentation of accounting system certification and evidence of private nonprofit status. This must be accomplished by the following:
(a) Providing documentation showing the applicant is a certified United Way Member Agency; or
(b) Providing certification on letterhead stationery from a Certified Public Accountant or Public Accountant that the organization has a functioning accounting system that is operated in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles, or that the organization has designated a qualified entity to maintain a functioning accounting system. If such an entity is used, then their name and address must be included in the certification letter; and
(c) Providing evidence of their status as a nonprofit organization by submitting a copy of their IRS ruling providing tax-exempt status under the IRS Code of 1986, as amended; and
(d) On your agency's letterhead, copying the following reasonable assurances below the statement “The applicant certifies that the following are true:” and signing and dating the document at the bottom:
i. The existing grant project of the applicant is being, and will continue to be, used principally to furnish Veterans the level of care for which VA awarded the applicant the original grant under the VA's Homeless Providers GPD Program; that not more than 25 percent of participants at any one time will be non-Veterans; and that such services will meet the requirements of 38 CFR 61.1-61.82;
ii. The applicant will keep records and submit reports as VA may reasonably require, within the time frames required; and give VA, upon demand, access to the records upon which such information is based;
iii. The applicant agrees to comply with the applicable requirements of 38 CFR part 61 and other applicable laws and has demonstrated the capacity to do so;
iv. The applicant does not have an outstanding obligation to VA that is in arrears, and does not have an overdue or unsatisfactory response to an audit; and
v. The applicant is not in default, by failing to meet requirements for any previous assistance from VA.
(e) Information from VA collaborative Special Need partner (if applicable): If the FY 2015 special need grant was a collaborative grant, the FY 2016 application must include a letter of commitment or a Memorandum of Agreement from the VA collaborative Special Need partner, stating the VA point of contact, the VA staffing plan, plan budget and what specific service(s) the VA is providing to the special need population. Note: If the applicant currently has a collaborative project and its VA partner no longer wishes to continue then the applicant will be ineligible for application under this NOFA.
2.
On your agency's letterhead provide the following:
(a) The GPD Operational project number to which this special needs application will be tied _________.
(b) Our agency requests $___________(may not exceed 2015 award) to provide housing and services to homeless Veteran special need populations.
(c) Selection of special need population: Indicate the special need population to be served on your agency letterhead using the statements below:
i. Our organization will dedicate ______beds to Women.
ii. Our organization will dedicate ______beds to the minor dependents in the care of homeless Veteran individuals.
iii. Our organization will dedicate ______beds to the Frail Elderly.
iv. Our organization will dedicate ______beds to the Chronically Mentally Ill.
(d) Total number of beds dedicated to the special need populations is _________.
3.
4.
(a) Outreach—describe your agency outreach plan and frequency for
(b) Outreach—please identify where your organization will target its outreach efforts to identify appropriate special need Veterans for this program.
(c) Project Plan—VA places emphasis on lowing barriers to admissions; describe the specific process and admission criteria for deciding which Veterans are appropriate for admission.
(d) Project Plan—what is the expected percentage of Veterans that will
(e) Project Plan—How, when, and by whom will the progress of participants toward meeting their individual goals will be monitored, evaluated and documented.
(f) Project Plan—Describe the role Veteran participants will have in operating and maintaining the housing.
(g) Project Plan—Describe your agency's responsibilities, as well as, any sponsors, contractors' responsibilities in operating and maintaining the housing.
(h) Project Plan—Describe program policies regarding a clean and sober environment.
(i) Project Plan—Describe program polices regarding participant agreements and fees.
(j) Project Plan—Specifically list the supportive services, frequency of occurrence, who will provide them and how they will help Veteran participants achieve residential stability, increase skill levels and or income, and how they will increase Veterans self-determination (
(k) Project Plan—what is the percentage of Veterans served that will be employed or receiving benefits at the conclusion of the transitional housing?
(l) Project Plan—Address how your agency will facilitate the provision of nutritional meals for the Veterans. Be sure to describe how Veterans with little or no income will be assisted.
(m) Project Plan—VA places great emphasis on placing Veterans in the most appropriate housing situation as rapidly as possible. In this section, provide a timetable and the specific services to include follow-up that supports housing stabilization. Include evidence of coordination of transition services with which your agency expects to have for Veterans.
(n) Project Plan—Describe the availability of or how you will facilitate transportation of the Veteran participants with and without income to appointments, employment, and supportive services.
(o) Ability—Provide a one page resume and/or job description for key personnel and a staffing plan that outlines how your organization will carry out this proposal; to include experience level, dedication of staff position, and the amount of time dedicated to the project. (
(p) Ability—Describe your agency's previous experience assessing and providing for the housing needs of homeless Veterans.
(q) Ability—Describe your agency's previous experience assessing and providing supportive services to homeless Veterans.
(r) Ability—Describe your agency's previous experience in assessing supportive service resources and entitlement benefits.
(s) Ability—Describe your agency's previous experience with evaluating the progress of both individual participants and overall program effectiveness through using quality and performance data to make changes. Provide documentation of meeting past performance goals.
(t) Need—Describe through the use of a gap analysis the substantial unmet needs particularly among your targeted Veteran population and those needs of the general homeless population. How does this project meet a need for the community and fit with the community's strategy to end homeless in the community. Support your descriptions with empirical statistical documentation of need.
(u) Coordination—Provide documented evidence your agency is part of an ongoing community-wide planning process which is designed to share information on available resources and reduce duplication among programs that serve special need homeless Veterans (
(v) Coordination—Provide documented evidence your agency consulted directly with the closest VA Medical Center Director regarding coordination of services for project participants; and your plan to assure access to health care, case management, and other care services.
(w) Site Description— briefly describe the site where housing and services will take place and provide the current complete address to include the zip code for the housing.
Applications must be received by the application deadline. Applications must arrive as a complete package to include VA collaborative partner materials (see application requirements). Materials arriving separately
In the interest of fairness to all competing applicants, this deadline is firm as to date and hour, and VA will treat any application that is received after the deadline as ineligible for consideration. Applicants should take this firm deadline into account and make early submission of their material to avoid any risk of loss of eligibility as a result of unanticipated delays or other delivery-related problems. For applications physically delivered (
DO NOT fax or email the application as applications received via these means will be ineligible for consideration.
A.
B.
Awardees will be required to support their request for payments with adequate fiscal documentation as to project expenses and in the case of per diem payments income and expenses.
All awardees that are selected in response to
Each program seeking per diem will have a liaison appointed from a nearby VA medical facility to provide oversight and monitor services provided to homeless Veterans in the per diem-funded program.
Monitoring will include at a minimum a quarterly review of each per diem program's progress toward meeting internal goals and objectives in helping Veterans attain housing stability, adequate income support, and self-sufficiency as identified in each per diem program's original application. Monitoring will also include a review of the agency's income and expenses as they relate to this project to ensure per diem payment is accurate.
Each per diem-funded program will participate in VA's national program monitoring and evaluation system. Monitoring procedures will be used to determine successful accomplishment of outcomes for each per diem-funded program.
Applicants with questions regarding the funding from previous special need awards should contact the VA Homeless Providers GPD Program Office prior to application.
A full copy of the regulations governing the VA Homeless Providers GPD Program is available at
The Secretary of Veterans Affairs, or designee, approved this document and authorized the undersigned to sign and submit the document to the Office of the Federal Register for publication electronically as an official document of the Department of Veterans Affairs. Robert A. McDonald, Secretary of Veterans Affairs, approved this document on May 13, 2016, for publication.
In FR Rule Doc. No. 2016-05860 beginning on page 18178 in the issue of March 30, 2016, make the following corrections:
The revisions and additions read as follows:
Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC).
Final rule.
The FDIC is amending its rules to refine the deposit insurance assessment system for small insured depository institutions that have been federally insured for at least five years (established small banks) by: Revising the financial ratios method so that it is based on a statistical model estimating the probability of failure over three years; updating the financial measures used in the financial ratios method consistent with the statistical model; and eliminating risk categories for established small banks and using the financial ratios method to determine assessment rates for all such banks (subject to minimum or maximum initial assessment rates based upon a bank's CAMELS composite rating). Under current regulations, deposit insurance assessment rates will decrease once the deposit insurance fund (DIF or fund) reserve ratio reaches 1.15 percent. The final rule preserves the range of initial assessment rates authorized under current regulations.
The final rule is effective July 1, 2016.
Munsell St. Clair, Chief, Banking and Regulatory Policy, Division of Insurance and Research, 202-898-8967; Ashley Mihalik, Senior Policy Analyst, Division of Insurance and Research, 202-898-3793; Nefretete Smith, Counsel, Legal Division, 202-898-6851; Thomas Hearn, Counsel, Legal Division, 202-898-6967.
The primary purpose of the final rule is to improve the risk-based deposit insurance assessment system applicable to established small banks to more accurately reflect risk.
As used in this final rule, the term “bank” is synonymous with the term “insured depository institution” as it is used in section 3(c)(2) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (FDI Act), 12 U.S.C. 1813(c)(2). As used in this final rule, the term “small bank” is synonymous with the term “small institution” as it is used in 12 CFR 327.8. In general, a “small bank” is one with less than $10 billion in total assets.
Since 2007, assessment rates for established small banks (that is, small banks other than new small banks and insured branches of foreign banks)
To further differentiate risk within Risk Category I (which includes most small banks), the FDIC uses the
Within Risk Category I, those institutions that pose the least risk are charged a minimum initial assessment rate and those that pose the greatest risk are charged an initial assessment rate that is four basis points higher than the minimum. All other banks within Risk Category I are charged a rate that varies between these rates. In contrast, all banks in Risk Category II are charged the same initial assessment rate, which is higher than the maximum initial rate for Risk Category I. A single, higher, initial assessment rate applies to each bank in Risk Category III and another, higher, rate to each bank in Risk Category IV.
To determine a Risk Category I bank's initial assessment rate, the weighted CAMELS components and financial ratios are multiplied by statistically derived pricing multipliers, the products are summed, and the sum is added to a uniform amount that applies to all Risk Category I banks. If, however, the rate is below the minimum initial assessment rate for Risk Category I, the bank will pay the minimum initial assessment rate; if the rate derived is above the maximum initial assessment rate for Risk Category I, then the bank will pay the maximum initial rate for the risk category.
The financial ratios used to determine rates come from a statistical model that predicts the probability that a Risk Category I institution will be downgraded from a CAMELS composite rating of 1 or 2 to a rating of 3 or worse within one year. The probability of a CAMELS downgrade is intended as a proxy for the bank's probability of failure. When the model was developed in 2006, the FDIC decided not to attempt to determine a bank's probability of failure because of the lack of bank failures in the years between the end of the bank and thrift crisis in the early 1990s and 2006.
The financial ratios method does not apply to new small banks or to insured branches of foreign banks (insured branches).
In 2011, the FDIC adopted a schedule of assessment rates designed to ensure that the reserve ratio reaches 1.15 percent by September 30, 2020.
The initial assessment rates currently in effect for small and large banks are set forth in Table 2 below.
An institution's total assessment rate may vary from the initial assessment rate as the result of possible adjustments.
In 2011, consistent with the FDIC's long-term fund management plan, the Board adopted lower, moderate assessment rates that will go into effect when the DIF reserve ratio reaches 1.15 percent.
In lieu of dividends,
The Board, by regulation, may adopt rates without further notice and comment rulemaking that are higher or lower than the total assessment rates (also known as the total base assessment rates), provided that: (1) The Board cannot increase or decrease rates from one quarter to the next by more than two basis points; and (2) cumulative increases and decreases cannot be more than two basis points higher or lower than the total base assessment rates.
On June 16, 2015, the Board authorized publication of a notice of proposed rulemaking (2015 NPR) to refine the deposit insurance assessment system for established small banks. The 2015 NPR was published in the
The FDIC received a total of 484 comment letters in response to the 2015 NPR. Of these, 45 were from trade groups and 439 were from individuals or banks. These comments addressed many aspects of the proposal, including the loan mix index and the one-year asset growth measure, but the majority of comments expressed concern regarding the proposed treatment of reciprocal deposits in the 2015 NPR.
On January 21, 2016, the Board authorized publication of a second notice of proposed rulemaking (the 2016 revised NPR) to revise the 2015 NPR in response to comments received. The 2016 revised NPR was published in the
The FDIC received a total of 19 comment letters in response to the 2016 revised NPR. Of these, 7 were from trade groups and 12 were from individuals or banks. Comments addressed both the revisions to the proposal made by the 2016 revised NPR and aspects of the proposal that remained unchanged from the 2015 NPR, such as the loan mix index.
All comments, those received on the 2015 NPR and the 2016 revised NPR, were considered in developing this final rule. Comments are discussed in the relevant sections that follow.
The final rule adopts the proposals in the 2016 revised NPR as proposed.
The financial ratios method in the final rule uses the measures described in the right-hand column of Table 5 below. For comparison's sake, the measures currently used in the financial ratios method are set out on the left-hand column of the table. To avoid unnecessary burden, the final rule will not require established small banks to report any new data in their Reports of Condition and Income (Call Reports).
All of the measures in the final rule are derived from a statistical model that estimates a bank's probability of failure within three years. Each of the measures is statistically significant in predicting a bank's probability of failure over that period. The estimation of the statistical model uses bank financial data and CAMELS ratings from 1985 through 2011, failure data from 1986 through 2014, and loan charge-off data from 2001 through 2014.
Three of the measures in the final rule—the weighted average CAMELS component rating, the leverage ratio, and the net income ratio measure—are identical or very similar to the measures currently used in the financial ratios method.
Because the numerator of the net income measure is defined to include income for the most recent twelve months, there may be a transition period in which income for the most recent twelve months may include income from periods before the elimination from GAAP of the concept of extraordinary items has taken effect. For those portions of the most recent twelve months before this elimination has taken effect, income will be determined as income before income taxes and extraordinary items and other adjustments.
The remaining three financial measures—the brokered deposit ratio, the one-year asset growth measure and the loan mix index—are described in detail below.
Under current assessment rules, brokered deposits affect a small bank's assessment rate based on its risk category. For established small banks that are assigned to Risk Category I (those that are well capitalized and have a CAMELS composite rating of 1 or 2), the adjusted brokered deposit ratio is one of the financial ratios used to determine a bank's initial assessment rate. The adjusted brokered deposit ratio increases a bank's initial assessment rate when a bank has both brokered deposits that exceed 10 percent of its domestic deposits and a high asset growth rate.
Few Risk Category I banks have both high levels of non-reciprocal brokered deposits and high asset growth, so the adjusted brokered deposit ratio affects relatively few banks. As of December 31, 2015, the adjusted brokered deposit ratio affected the assessment rate of 111 banks.
Established small banks in Risk Categories II, III, and IV (those that are less than well capitalized or that have a CAMELS composite rating of 3, 4, or 5) are subject to the brokered deposit adjustment, one of three possible adjustments that can increase or decrease a bank's initial assessment rate. The brokered deposit adjustment increases a bank's assessment rate if it has brokered deposits in excess of 10 percent of its domestic deposits.
The final rule replaces the adjusted brokered deposit ratio currently used in the financial ratios method with a brokered deposit ratio, defined as the ratio of brokered deposits to total assets, and with a one-year asset growth measure, which is discussed later. The final rule also eliminates the existing brokered deposit adjustment applicable to established small banks outside Risk Category I. Under the new brokered deposit ratio applicable to all established small banks, brokered deposits in excess of 10 percent of total assets may increase assessment rates. For a bank that is well capitalized and has a CAMELS composite rating of 1 or 2, reciprocal deposits will be deducted from brokered deposits. For a bank that is less than well capitalized or has a CAMELS composite rating of 3, 4 or 5, however, reciprocal deposits will be included with other brokered deposits.
Most commenters on the 2016 revised NPR discussed the changes related to the brokered deposit ratio. Some commenters supported using a brokered deposit ratio and some expressed support for excluding reciprocal deposits from the brokered deposit ratio for banks that are well capitalized and have a CAMELS composite rating of 1 or 2. This treatment of reciprocal deposits is generally consistent with the 442 comment letters on the 2015 NPR arguing that reciprocal deposits should not be treated as brokered deposits for assessment purposes or, similarly, that the final rule should reflect the current treatment of reciprocal deposits.
The brokered deposit ratio as defined in the final rule is also consistent with the 16 comment letters on the 2015 NPR cautioning against penalizing the use of Federal Home Loan Bank advances in determining assessment rates. The final rule does not change the current treatment of Federal Home Loan Bank advances in the small bank deposit insurance assessment system. The FDIC received two comments on the 2016 revised NPR supporting the FDIC's responsiveness to these concerns.
The FDIC received two comment letters on the 2016 revised NPR reiterating the argument made in 40 comment letters on the 2015 NPR that reciprocal deposits should be treated as core deposits or are the functional equivalent of core deposits. Commenters argued that reciprocal deposits do not present the same risks as brokered deposits, such as excessive growth or liquidity problems, and therefore should be formally recognized as a low risk, desirable source of funds. One commenter on the 2016 revised NPR argued that reciprocal deposits should not be included with brokered deposits even for banks that are less than well capitalized or have a CAMELS composite rating of 3, 4 or 5, because a bank's deposits are already adequately accounted for under the “L” (“Liquidity”) component of a bank's CAMELS rating.
As stated in the 2016 revised NPR, however, the FDIC analyzed the characteristics of reciprocal deposits in its Study on Core Deposits and Brokered Deposits and concluded that, “While the FDIC agrees that reciprocal deposits do not present all of the problems that traditional brokered deposits present, they pose sufficient potential problems—particularly their dependence on a network and the network's continued willingness to allow a bank to participate, and the potential of supporting rapid growth if not based upon a relationship—that
Three commenters on the 2016 revised NPR reiterated the argument they made in their comments on the 2015 NPR that the FDIC should not charge higher assessment rates to banks that hold brokered deposits, but should instead consider how banks use brokered deposits and whether they remain profitable and well capitalized. The FDIC also received letters on both the 2016 revised NPR and the 2015 NPR suggesting that specific types of brokered deposits—including stable retail deposits, certain custodial accounts, and longer maturing brokered CDs used to manage interest rate risk—be excluded from the brokered deposit ratio, and arguing that these deposits have similar characteristics to reciprocal deposits and are less risky than other brokered deposits.
Small banks do not report data on particular types of brokered deposits (other than reciprocal deposits). Because of this lack of data, the FDIC cannot analyze individual types of brokered deposits statistically. In any event, the FDIC's statistical analyses and other studies have found that brokered deposits in general are correlated with a higher probability of failure and, as was acknowledged by one commenter, higher losses upon failure.
In response to comments on the 2015 NPR that the one-year asset growth measure should not penalize normal asset growth, the final rule uses a one-year asset growth measure that increases an established small bank's assessment rate only if it has had one-year asset growth greater than 10 percent.
The FDIC received 6 comments on the 2016 revised NPR supporting the change from the asset growth measure as proposed in the 2015 NPR. Some commenters, however, remained concerned that the measure inappropriately penalizes banks for growth that may not be risky, arguing that a bank can exceed the 10 percent threshold for reasons such as the failure of a competitor, economic conditions, or an influx of deposits invested in high-quality assets. A few commenters suggested using CAMELS component ratings, such as a bank's rating for the “A” (“Asset quality”) or “S” (“Sensitivity to market risk”) components, in place of or to limit the effect of the one-year asset growth measure.
The one-year asset growth measure will raise assessment rates for established small banks that grow rapidly (other than through merger or by acquiring failed banks), but will not increase assessments for normal asset growth.
The FDIC received 4 comment letters on the 2016 revised NPR suggesting that the FDIC use a measure that increases assessments only for banks that have both rapid asset growth and high levels of brokered deposits, similar to the current adjusted brokered deposit ratio. Commenters asserted that using separate variables is not supported by the nature of brokered deposit risk or by the statistical model underlying the proposed small bank deposit insurance system. One commenter submitted the results of a statistical analysis it had undertaken that, in the commenter's view, demonstrates that a combined measure performed better in more recent years. (The commenter was unable to use CAMELS ratings in its statistical analysis, since these ratings are confidential.)
The FDIC conducted its own backtest of the assessment system in the final rule and compared it with a backtest of an assessment system using a combined measure, as suggested by commenters. The FDIC's comparison revealed that, overall, the assessment system in the final rule actually performed better in recent years, particularly immediately before the recent banking crisis, in discriminating between banks that failed within three years and those that did not.
Moreover, as discussed earlier, brokered deposits pose risks other than enabling banks to engage in rapid asset growth. Brokered deposits increase a bank's probability of failure (even after controlling for asset growth) and increase the loss to the DIF in the event of failure.
The loan mix index is a measure of the extent to which a bank's total assets include higher-risk categories of loans. The index uses historical industry-wide charge-off rates to identify loan types with higher risk.
The loan categories in the loan mix index were selected based on the availability of category-specific charge-off rates over a sufficiently lengthy period (2001 through 2014) to be representative. The loan categories exclude credit card loans.
Table 6 below illustrates how the loan mix index is calculated for a hypothetical bank.
The weighted charge-off rates in the table are the same for all established small banks. The remaining two columns vary from bank to bank, depending on the bank's loan portfolio. For each loan type, the value in the rightmost column is calculated by multiplying the weighted charge-off rate by the bank's loans of that type as a percent of its total assets. In this illustration, the sum of the right-hand column (84.79) is the loan mix index for this bank.
The table shows industry-wide weighted charge-off percentage rates, the loan category as a percentage of total assets, and the products to two decimal places. In fact, the final rule uses seven decimal places for industry-wide weighted charge-off percentage rates, and as many decimal places as permitted by the FDIC's computer systems for the loan category as a percentage of total assets and the products. The total (the loan mix index itself) uses three decimal places.
The FDIC received 30 comments on the 2015 NPR and 11 comments on the revised 2016 NPR (10 from the same commenters who responded to the 2015 NPR) on the loan mix index. These comments expressed views that the loan mix index is a poor indicator of risk because it does not account for factors such as the quality of loan underwriting, geographic variation, risk mitigating factors such as collateral or guarantees, and an individual bank's historical loss ratios. Commenters argued that these factors are more relevant to an individual bank's risk than industry-wide charge-off rates for each loan type based on the most recent financial crisis. Several commenters argued for modifying the loan mix index, while others argued for eliminating the loan mix index and instead using measures of a bank's own average asset quality over time (delinquencies, nonperforming assets, and net charge-offs, for example, as suggested by a banking trade group) or CAMELS component ratings.
For several reasons, the loan mix index does not incorporate a bank's quality of loan underwriting, geographic variation, risk mitigating factors, or individual historical loss rates on types of loans. First, as some commenters noted, the data that banks report in the Call Report are not sufficient or specific enough to distinguish these risk factors by loan category. Collecting the data needed to take these factors into account likely would not improve the assessment system's ability to distinguish for risk enough to warrant the additional reporting burden it would impose on small banks.
Second, underwriting quality directly or indirectly affects, and is reflected in, several other measures in the financial ratios method, including the weighted average CAMELS component rating, the nonperforming loans and leases measure, the other real estate owned measure, and the net income measure. Therefore, the final rule should not deter a bank from making well underwritten loans of any type, since good underwriting quality will be reflected in other financial and supervisory measures and will reduce the bank's assessment rate.
Third, an individual bank's loss rates on the types of loans in the loan mix index do not necessarily demonstrate how the bank will fare in the future. Low loss rates may result from lending in areas that suffered less in the recent downturn. If a bank's low loss rates simply reflect comparatively less stressful conditions in the bank's primary lending area during the past crisis, they will not reveal how the bank would fare during a period of severe stress similar to that recently observed in other areas of the country. Since it is not possible to predict which areas of the country will be affected by the next downturn, the loan mix index uses industry-wide average annual charge-off rates for each category of loan, including commercial and development (C&D) and commercial and industrial (C&I) loans, weighted by the number of bank failures in each year.
Although these reasons are sufficient to preclude replacing the loan mix index, the FDIC nevertheless undertook statistical analyses of a trade group's suggestion to replace the loan mix index with a bank's own recent history of delinquencies, nonperforming assets, and net charge-offs. The FDIC tried various combinations of these measures, but the measures did not perform as well as the measures in the statistical model in the final rule in estimating the likelihood of failure.
The FDIC also analyzed whether replacing the loan mix index with the “A” CAMELS component, as suggested by some commenters, would improve the statistical model. Again, the statistical model in the final rule performed better in estimating failure probability than this alternative.
Several commenters argued that the loan mix index, which uses charge-off rates from 2001 through 2014, is weighted too heavily by the most recent recession. For example, some commenters cited the failure of agricultural and residential mortgage lenders in the 1980s and early 1990s. Several commenters said that the weighted charge-off rates assigned to C&D and C&I loans are inappropriately high.
The loan mix index uses loan charge-off data from 2001 through 2014 to calculate weights for each loan category because charge-off data for some of the loan categories in the loan mix index is not available before 2001. Nevertheless, asset concentrations in commercial real estate (CRE) loans—in particular, C&D loans—have been found to contribute to bank failures in
One banking trade group suggested that the annual industry-wide charge-off rates used to determine charge-off rates in the loan mix index should not be weighted more heavily in years with many bank failures than in years with few bank failures.
Annual industry-wide charge-off rates for each type of loan in the loan mix index are weighted by the number of bank failures in each year to assure that types of loans that have high charge-off rates during downturns have an appropriate influence on assessment rates. Loss rates observed in periods characterized by a higher rate of bank failures are more relevant to the risk of loss to the DIF than loss experience in other periods.
Nevertheless, the FDIC conducted a backtest of the assessment system in the final rule and compared it with a backtest of an assessment system that uses a loan mix index based on a simple average of industry-wide annual charge-off rates (where each annual charge-off rate is weighted equally) for each loan type, as suggested by the commenter. The FDIC's comparison revealed that the assessment system in the final rule would have performed better, particularly in the early part of the last crisis, in discriminating between banks that subsequently failed within three years and those that did not fail.
According to 24 commenters, the use of annual industry-wide charge-off rates weighted by bank failures during the recent crisis could lead banks to reduce certain types of lending and increase others.
The loan mix index reflects the performance of loan types over many years and appropriately assigns higher assessment rates to banks with concentrations in types of loans that have been demonstrated over two crises to be more costly to the DIF than to banks that do not have such concentrations. FDIC analysis finds only a small effect—or none at all—on a small bank's assessment rate from an incremental increase in the balance of any loan category (including C&D loans) in the loan mix index.
Since the effect of an incremental increase in a loan category balance on a bank's assessment rate will be small, the loan mix index is not likely to have a material effect on a bank's lending decisions.
Several commenters on both the 2015 NPR and the 2016 revised NPR criticized the assumption that the future will follow the path of any single past period, noting that future bank failures may be characterized by different portfolio mixes than in the last recession.
As discussed above, the method adopted in the final rule is based upon a statistical analysis of the available data. Any empirical analysis necessarily relies upon past data. While there is no guarantee that the risks that led to past failures will necessarily be identical to those that lead to future failures, past experience still provides a sound basis for evaluating risk.
As also discussed above, each of the measures used in the final rule, including the loan mix index, is a statistically significant predictor of bank failure. Use of a loan portfolio measure is also consistent with numerous academic papers.
The FDIC received 4 comments on the 2016 revised NPR and 14 comments on the 2015 NPR asserting that the weight (or multiplier) assigned to the leverage ratio was too high compared to the current system and “would unfairly penalize banks that meet the 'well capitalized' standard but do not hold excess capital . . . ” Commenters argued that there is no statistical evidence that well-managed banks with strong capital are significantly weakened by not holding more capital and further, excessive capital can be counterproductive. For banks that are well-capitalized and have a CAMELS composite rating of 1 or 2, two commenters suggested reducing the weight of the leverage ratio and capping the benefit at 8 percent.
The FDIC disagrees. The greater a bank's capital, the better the bank is able to withstand stress and avoid failure. Consequently, reducing the assessment rate for a bank that holds capital above the minimum level necessary to be considered well capitalized is appropriate. Further, as stated above, each of the measures in the established small bank assessment system is a statistically significant predictor of bank failure, and the multipliers used in the final rule for the leverage ratio and for all of the measures are derived from an empirical, statistical analysis. As also described above, because the final rule eliminates risk categories, applies the financial ratios method to all established small banks, and uses some new measures, the multipliers assigned to the financial measures, including the leverage ratio, are necessarily different from the multipliers in the current Risk Category I financial ratios method.
The FDIC received 17 comments on the 2015 NPR and 11 comments on the revised 2016 NPR (5 from commenters who had similar comments on the 2015 NPR) related to the role of CAMELS ratings in determining a bank's assessment rate. The commenters suggested that the FDIC should more heavily weight CAMELS supervisory ratings over other measures, including the loan mix index, the one-year asset growth ratio, and the brokered deposit ratio, because CAMELS ratings reflect more current, bank specific data and judgments by examiners who are familiar with each bank's business model and risks. Some commenters suggested using individual CAMELS component ratings in place of or to limit the effect of other measures. For example, as described above, some commenters suggested using the “A” CAMELS component in place of a loan mix index.
For several reasons, these comments have not led to changes in the final rule. First, compared to the current system, the value of the multiplier for the weighted average CAMELS component rating has increased. CAMELS ratings are among the useful predictors of a bank's probability of failure and, as under current rules, continue to be a significant determinant of assessment rates under the final rule. The final rule uses both a bank's financial measures and its weighted average CAMELS component rating to determine an assessment rate. Financial ratios can provide updated information on an institution's risk profile between bank examinations and allow greater differentiation in risk.
Second, the variables selected and used in the underlying statistical model are consistent with other existing models of bank risk, including FDIC offsite monitoring models and academic literature. For example, FDIC offsite monitoring models measure bank conditions and monitor bank risk using variables that include: The ratio of charge-offs to total assets, asset growth, an index measuring changes in loan mix, and capital. Numerous academic papers discussing models that predict bank failures include explanatory variables that include loan portfolio ratios, rapid asset growth, the ratio of core deposits to total assets, and capital.
Third, as stated above, each of the measures in the established small bank assessment system is a statistically significant predictor of bank failure, and the multipliers used in the final rule for weighted average CAMELS component ratings and for all of the financial measures are derived from an empirical, statistical analysis. Commenters did not cite or provide empirical evidence to support their suggestion that a greater weight be assigned to CAMELS supervisory ratings, or that a lower weight (or effectively no weight) be assigned to various financial measures.
As described above, because the final rule eliminates risk categories and applies the financial ratios method to all established small banks, and uses some
In sum, the financial ratios method in the final rule, including the multipliers assigned to the financial measures and weighted average CAMELS component ratings, predicts failures significantly better than the current system.
As in the current methodology for Risk Category I small banks, under the final rule the weighted CAMELS components and financial ratios will be multiplied by statistically derived pricing multipliers, the products summed, and the sum added to a uniform amount that is: (a) Derived from the statistical analysis; (b) adjusted for assessment rates set by the FDIC; and (c) applied to all established small banks.
Under the final rule, for small banks that are considered established under these rules, but do not have a CAMELS composite rating or do not have CAMELS component ratings:
1. If the bank has no CAMELS composite rating, its initial assessment rate will be 2 basis points above the minimum initial assessment rate for established small banks until it receives a CAMELS composite rating; and
2. If the bank has a CAMELS composite rating but no CAMELS component ratings, its initial assessment rate will be determined using the financial ratios method by substituting its CAMELS composite rating for its weighted average CAMELS component rating and, if the bank has not yet filed four quarterly Call Reports, by annualizing, where appropriate, financial ratios obtained from all quarterly Call Reports that have been filed.
As discussed above, the final rule eliminates the existing brokered deposit adjustment for established small banks.
As under current rules, the DIDA continues to apply to all banks, and the unsecured debt adjustment continues to apply to all banks except new banks and insured branches.
The final rule preserves the lower overall range of initial base assessment rates previously adopted by the Board. Under current regulations, once the reserve ratio reaches 1.15 percent, initial base assessment rates will decline automatically from the current range of 5 basis points to 35 basis points to a range of 3 basis points to 30 basis points, as reflected in Table 4. The FDIC adopted the range of initial assessment rates in this rate schedule pursuant to its long-term fund management plan as the FDIC's best estimate of the assessment rates that would have been needed from 1950 to 2010 to maintain a positive fund balance during the past two banking crises. This assessment rate schedule remains the FDIC's best estimate of the long-term rates needed. Consequently, and as discussed in greater detail further below and in appendix E to the 2016 revised NPR, the final rule converts the statistical model to assessment rates within this range of 3 basis points to 30 basis points in a revenue neutral way; that is, in a manner that does not materially change the aggregate assessment revenue collected from established small banks.
The final rule eliminates risk categories and adopts the range of initial assessment rates for established small banks set out in Table 7 below, thus maintaining the range of initial assessment rates that the Board has previously determined will go into effect starting the quarter after the reserve ratio reaches 1.15 percent.
The final rule adopts the range of initial assessment rates for established small banks set out in the rate schedule in Table 8 below, starting the quarter after the reserve ratio reaches or exceeds 2 percent, thus maintaining the range of initial assessment rates that the Board previously determined will go into effect then. These rates will remain in effect as long as the reserve ratio for the prior assessment period is at or above 2 percent but is less than 2.5 percent. Table 8 also includes the maximum assessment rates that apply to CAMELS composite 1- and 2-rated banks and the minimum assessment rates that apply to CAMELS composite 3-rated banks and CAMELS composite 4- and 5-rated banks.
The final rule also adopts the range of initial assessment rates for established small banks set out in the rate schedule in Table 9 below, thus again maintaining the range of initial assessment rates that the Board previously determined will go into effect when the fund reserve ratio at the end of the prior assessment period meets or exceeds 2.5 percent. These rates will remain in effect as long as the reserve ratio for the prior assessment period is at or above this level. Table 9 also includes the maximum assessment rates that apply to CAMELS composite 1- and 2-rated banks and the minimum assessment rates that apply to CAMELS composite 3-rated banks and CAMELS composite 4- and 5-rated banks.
With respect to each of the three assessment rate schedules (Tables 7, 8 and 9), the Board retains its authority to uniformly adjust assessment rates up or down from the total base assessment rate schedule without further rulemaking, as long as the adjustment does not exceed 2 basis points. Also, with respect to each of the three schedules, if a bank's CAMELS composite or component ratings change during a quarter in a way that changes the institution's initial base assessment rate, then its assessment rate will be determined separately for each portion of the quarter in which it had different CAMELS composite or component ratings.
As discussed above, the final rule converts the statistical model to the assessment rates set out in Table 7 in a revenue neutral manner.
Table 10 below sets out the pricing multipliers and uniform amounts that result when the FDIC converts the statistical model to the assessment rate schedule set out in Table 7 (with a range of assessment rates from 3 basis points to 30 basis points).
As discussed above, the statistical analysis used bank financial data and CAMELS ratings from 1985 through 2011, failure data from 1986 through 2014, and loan charge-off data from 2001 through 2014.
The final rule makes no changes to the current rules governing the assessment rate schedules applicable to insured branches or to the assessment rate schedule applicable to new small banks. The final rule also makes no changes to the way in which assessment rates for insured branches and new small banks are determined.
To illustrate the effects of the final rule on established small bank assessment rates, the FDIC compared actual assessment rates under the current system for established small banks for the fourth quarter of 2015, using a range of initial assessment rates of 5 basis points to 35 basis points, with the assessment rates in Table 7 of this final rule, which has an overall range of initial assessment rates of 3 basis points to 30 basis points; the assessment rates in Table 7 will take effect the quarter after the DIF reserve ratio reaches 1.15 percent. The proportion (and number) of established small banks paying the minimum initial assessment rate would have increased significantly, from 27 percent (1,632 small banks) to 58 percent under the final rule (3,552 small banks). The proportion (and number) of established small banks paying the maximum initial assessment rate would have decreased from 0.6 percent of established small banks (35 small banks) to 0.1 percent of established small banks under the final rule (6 small banks). Chart 1 below graphically compares the distribution of established small bank initial assessment rates under this illustration. The horizontal axis in the chart represents established small banks ranked by risk, from the least risky on the left to the most risky on the right. Because actual risk rankings under the current system differ from risk rankings under the final rule, a particular point on the horizontal axis is not likely to represent the same bank for the current system and the final rule. Thus, the chart does not show how an individual bank's assessment would change under the final rule; it simply compares the distribution of assessment rates under the current system to the distribution under the final rule.
Due in large part to the overall decline in rates once the reserve ratio reaches 1.15 percent reflected in Table 7, most established small banks (5,655 or 93 percent) would have had lower total assessment rates under the final rule.
To further illustrate the effects of the final rule on small bank assessment rates, the FDIC compared hypothetical assessment rates under the final rule with the assessment rates established small banks would have been charged for the fourth quarter of 2015 if the assessment rate schedule in Table 4, which, under current rules, will go into effect when the reserve ratio reaches 1.15 percent, had been in effect. The proportion of established small banks paying the minimum initial assessment rate would also have increased from 27 percent to 58 percent under the final rule, and the proportion of established small banks paying the maximum initial assessment rate would also have decreased from 0.6 percent of established small banks to 0.1 percent of established small banks under the final rule. Chart 2 below graphically compares the distribution of established small bank initial assessment rates under this illustration.
Most established small banks (3,400 or 56 percent) would have had lower total assessment rates. Among Risk Category I established small banks, 52 percent would have had rate decreases; the average decrease for these banks would have been 1.3 basis points. Of the Risk Category II, III, and IV established small banks, 93 percent would have had rate decreases; the average decrease would have been 4.6 basis points. 1,235 established small banks (20 percent of established small banks) would have had rate increases. Of the Risk Category I established small banks, 22 percent would have had rate increases; the average increase would have been 1.8 basis points. Of the Risk Category II, III, and IV established small banks, 6 percent would have had rate increases; the average increase would have been 3.3 basis points. Again, the results of the comparison are similar to like comparisons in the 2015 NPR and the 2016 revised NPR.
Using balance sheet and trailing twelve month income data as of the fourth quarter of 2015, the FDIC analyzed the effects of the final rule on capital and income in two ways: (1) The effect of the final rule under the rate schedule in Table 7 (with an initial assessment rate range of 3 basis points to 30 basis points (F330)) compared to the current small bank deposit insurance assessment system under the rate schedule in Table 3 (with an initial assessment rate range of 5 basis points to 35 basis points (C535)) (the first comparison); and (2) the effect of the final rule compared to the current small bank deposit insurance assessment system under the rate schedule in Table 4 (with an initial assessment rate range of 3 basis points to 30 basis points; under current rules, this rate schedule will go into effect the quarter after the DIF reserve ratio reaches 1.15 percent (C330)) (the second comparison).
Under either comparison, the final rule will cause no small bank to fall below a 4 percent or 2 percent leverage ratio if the bank would otherwise be above these thresholds. Under the first comparison, the final rule will cause no small bank to rise above a 2 percent leverage ratio if the bank would otherwise be below this threshold, but will cause one bank to rise above a 4 percent leverage ratio. Under the second comparison, the final rule will cause no small bank to rise above a 2 percent or 4 percent leverage ratio if the bank would otherwise be below these thresholds.
In the first comparison, only approximately 7 percent of profitable established small banks and approximately 5 percent of unprofitable small banks will face a rate increase. All but a very few (20) of these banks will have resulting declines in income (or increases in losses, where the bank is unprofitable) of 5 percent or less. As discussed above, assessment rates for approximately 93 percent of established
In the second comparison, approximately 21 percent of profitable established small banks and approximately 13 percent of unprofitable established small banks will face a rate increase. All but 76 of these banks will have resulting declines in income (or increases in losses, where the bank is unprofitable) of 5 percent or less. As discussed above, assessment rates for approximately 56 percent of established small banks will decline, resulting in increases in income (or decreases in losses), some of which will be substantial. The effects on earnings of established small banks under the final rule in this comparison do not differ materially from the effects discussed in the 2015 NPR and 2016 revised NPR.
In sum, because the final rule is intended to generate the same total revenue from small banks as would have been generated absent the final rule, the final rule should, overall, have no material effect on the capital and earnings of the banking industry, although the final rule will affect the earnings and capital of individual institutions.
The analysis assumes that annual pre-tax income for each established small bank is equal to trailing twelve month income as of the fourth quarter of 2015. The analysis also assumes that the effects of changes in assessments are not transferred to customers in the form of changes in borrowing rates, deposit rates, or service fees. Since deposit insurance assessments are a tax-deductible operating expense, increases in the assessment expense can lower taxable income and decreases in the assessment expense can increase taxable income. Therefore, the analysis considers the effective after-tax cost of assessments in calculating the effect on capital.
The effect of the change in assessments on an established small bank's income is measured by the change in deposit insurance assessments as a percent of income before assessments, taxes, and extraordinary items and other adjustments (hereafter referred to as “income”).
Under this scenario, the FDIC projects that no established small bank facing an increase in assessments will, as a result of the assessment increase, fall below a 4 percent or 2 percent leverage ratio. No established small bank facing a decrease in assessments will, as a result of the decrease, have its leverage ratio rise above a 2 percent leverage ratio, but one bank will rise above a 4 percent leverage ratio.
The FDIC projects that approximately 85 percent of established small banks that were profitable during the 12 months ending December 31, 2015, will have a decrease in assessments in an amount between 0 and 10 percent of income. Table 11 shows that another 8 percent of profitable established small banks will have a reduction in assessments exceeding 10 percent of their income. A total of 407 profitable established small banks will have an increase in assessments, with all but 10 of them facing assessment increases between 0 and 10 percent of their income.
Table 12 provides the same analysis for established small banks that were unprofitable during the 12 months ending December 31, 2015. Table 12 shows that 46 percent of unprofitable established small banks will have a decrease in assessments in an amount between 0 and 10 percent of their losses. Another 48 percent will have lower assessments in amounts exceeding 10 percent income. Only 16 unprofitable banks will have assessment increases, all of them in amounts between 0 and 10 percent of losses.
Under this scenario, the FDIC projects that no established small bank facing an increase in assessments will, as a result of the assessment increase, fall below a 4 percent or 2 percent leverage ratio. No established small bank facing a decrease in assessments will, as a result of the assessment decrease, have its leverage ratio rise above the 4 percent or 2 percent threshold.
Table 13 shows that 51 percent of established small banks that were profitable during the 12 months ended December 31, 2015, will have a decrease in assessments in an amount between 0 and 10 percent of income. Another 4 percent of profitable established small banks will have a reduction in assessments exceeding 10 percent of their income. A total of 1,208 profitable established small banks will have an increase in assessments, with all but 23 facing assessment increases between 0 and10 percent of their income.
Table 14 provides the same analysis for established small banks that were unprofitable during the 12 months ending December 31, 2015. Table 14 shows that 54 percent of unprofitable established small banks will have a decrease in assessments in an amount between 0 and 10 percent of their losses. Another 30 percent will have lower assessments in amounts exceeding 10 percent of their losses. Only 39 unprofitable banks will face assessment increases, all but 3 of them in amounts between 0 and 10 percent of losses.
To evaluate the final rule, the FDIC tested how well the assessment system in the final rule would have differentiated between banks that failed and those that did not during the recent crisis compared to the current small bank deposit insurance assessment system.
Table 15 compares accuracy ratios for the assessment system in the final rule and the current system. An accuracy ratio compares how well each approach would have discriminated between banks that failed within the projection period and those that did not. The projection period in each case is the three years following the date of the projection (the first column), which is the last day of the year given. Thus, for example, the accuracy ratios for 2006 reflect how well each approach would have discriminated in its projection between banks that failed and those that did not from 2007 through 2009.
The table contains results that do not differ materially from the comparisons of the assessment system proposed in the 2015 NPR and 2016 revised NPR with the current small bank deposit insurance assessment system. In each comparison, the table reveals that, while the current system did relatively well at capturing risk and predicting failures in more recent years, the system under the final rule would have not only done significantly better immediately before the recent crisis and at the beginning of the crisis, but also better overall.
Appendix 1 to the Supplementary Information sections of the 2015 NPR and 2016 revised NPR contains a more detailed description of the FDIC's backtests of the revised system.
In the 2015 NPR and 2016 revised NPR, the FDIC solicited comments on the following alternatives: Different minimum and maximum assessment rates based on CAMELS composite ratings, including higher, lower, or no minimum or maximum initial assessment rates for banks with certain CAMELS ratings; the inclusion of loss given default (LGD) in the statistical model; and no changes to the small bank deposit insurance assessment system.
The FDIC received 6 comments in response to the 2015 NPR and 1 comment in response to the 2016 revised NPR related to minimum and maximum initial assessment rates. Specifically, commenters asserted that the proposed minimum and maximum assessment rates were inappropriate. Instead of adjusting the minimum and maximum assessment rates based on CAMELS composite ratings, commenters suggested that CAMELS supervisory ratings should be given a greater weight in the assessment formula.
In the FDIC's view, the minimum and maximum assessment rates adopted in the final rule strike the proper balance between maintaining the accuracy of the assessment system in differentiating between banks that will fail and those that will not and reducing the risk that a particular bank's assessment rate might be too high or too low.
The FDIC also considered but rejected including LGD in the statistical model. The FDIC received one comment in response to the 2015 NPR supporting the incorporation of LGD into the assessments system once reliable data is available. As described in the 2015 NPR, actual losses for many failed banks during the recent crisis are still estimated, primarily because of the use of loss-sharing agreements that have not yet terminated.
The FDIC also considered leaving the small bank deposit insurance assessment system in place unchanged (and two commenters on the 2015 NPR supported this alternative). For the reasons given above, the assessment system in the final rule is superior to the current small bank deposit insurance system. Under the system in the final rule, fewer riskier established small banks will pay lower assessments and fewer safer banks will pay higher assessments than their conditions warrant.
The final rule is effective July 1, 2016. If the reserve ratio reaches 1.15 percent before that date, the assessment system described in the final rule will become operative July 1, 2016. If the reserve ratio has not reached 1.15 percent by that date, the assessment system described in the final rule will become operative the first day of the calendar quarter after the reserve ratio reaches 1.15 percent.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) requires that each federal agency, in connection with a notice of final
As of December 31, 2015, of the 6,191 FDIC-insured institutions,
For purposes of this analysis, whether the FDIC were to collect needed assessments under existing regulations or under the final rule, the total amount of assessments collected would be the same. The FDIC's total assessment needs are driven by the FDIC's aggregate projected and actual insurance losses, expenses, investment income, and insured deposit growth, among other factors, and assessment rates are set pursuant to the FDIC's long-term fund management plan. This analysis demonstrates how the pricing system in the final rule under the range of initial assessment rates of 3 basis points to 30 basis points (F330) could affect small entities relative to the current assessment rate schedule (C535) and relative to the rate schedule that under current regulations will be in effect when the reserve ratio exceeds 1.15 percent (C330).
The economic impact of the final rule on each small institution for RFA purposes (
Based on the December 31, 2015 data, of the total of 4,918 small institutions, no institution will experience an increase in assessments equal to five percent or more of its total revenue. These figures do not reflect a significant economic impact on revenues for a substantial number of small insured institutions. Table 16 below sets forth the results of the analysis in more detail.
The FDIC performed a similar analysis to determine the impact on profits for small institutions. Based on December 31, 2015 data, of those small institutions with reported profits, 18 institutions will have an increase in assessments equal to 10 percent or more of their profits. Again, these figures do not reflect a significant economic impact on profits for a substantial number of small insured institutions. Table 17 sets forth the results of the analysis in more detail.
Table 17 excludes small institutions that either show no profit or show a loss, because a percentage cannot be calculated. The FDIC analyzed the effect of the final rule on these institutions by determining the annual assessment change (either an increase or a decrease) that will result. Table 18 below shows that 18 (seven percent) of the 276 small insured institutions with negative or no reported profits will have an increase of $20,000 or more in their annual assessments. Again, these figures do not reflect a significant economic impact on profits for a substantial number of small insured institutions.
Based on the December 31, 2015 data, of the total of 4,918 small institutions, no institution will experience an increase in assessments equal to five percent or more of its total revenue. These figures do not reflect a significant economic impact on revenues for a substantial number of small insured institutions. Table 19 below sets forth the results of the analysis in more detail.
The FDIC performed a similar analysis to determine the impact on profits for small institutions. Based on December 31, 2015 data, of those small institutions with reported profits, 7 institutions will have an increase in
Table 20 excludes small institutions that either show no profit or show a loss, because a percentage cannot be calculated. The FDIC analyzed the effect of the final rule on these institutions by determining the annual assessment change (either an increase or a decrease) that will result. Table 21 below shows that just 7 (3 percent) of the 276 small insured institutions with negative or no reported profits will have an increase of $20,000 or more in their annual assessments. Again, these figures do not reflect a significant economic impact on profits for a substantial number of small insured institutions.
The final rule does not directly impose any “reporting” or “recordkeeping” requirements within the meaning of the Paperwork Reduction Act. The compliance requirements for the final rule will not exceed (and, in fact, will be the same as) existing compliance requirements for the current risk-based deposit insurance assessment system for small banks. The FDIC is unaware of any duplicative, overlapping or conflicting federal rules. The final RFA analysis set forth above demonstrates that the final rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small institutions within the meaning of those terms as used in the RFA.
The Office of Management and Budget has determined that the final rule is not a “major rule” within the meaning of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Title II, Pub. L. 104-121).
The Riegle Community Development and Regulatory Improvement Act (RCDRIA) requires that the FDIC, in determining the effective date and administrative compliance requirements of new regulations that impose additional reporting, disclosure, or other requirements on insured depository institutions, consider, consistent with
In accordance with these provisions and as discussed above, the FDIC considered any administrative burdens, as well as benefits, that the final rule would place on depository institutions and their customers in determining the effective date and administrative compliance requirements of the final rule. Thus, the final rule will be effective no earlier than the first day of a calendar quarter that begins after publication of the rule.
In accordance with the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act (“PRA”) of 1995,
The final rule does not create any new, or revise any existing, collections of information pursuant to PRA.
The FDIC has determined that the final rule will not affect family well-being within the meaning of section 654 of the Treasury and General Government Appropriations Act, enacted as part of the Omnibus Consolidated and Emergency Supplemental Appropriations Act of 1999 (Pub. L. 105-277, 112 Stat. 2681).
Section 722 of the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act, Public Law 106-102, 113 Stat. 1338, 1471 (Nov. 12, 1999), requires the Federal banking agencies to use plain language in all proposed and final rules published after January 1, 2000. The FDIC invited comments on how to make this proposal easier to understand. No comments addressing this issue were received.
Bank deposit insurance, Banks, Savings associations.
For the reasons set forth above, the FDIC amends part 327 as follows:
12 U.S.C. 1441, 1813, 1815, 1817-19, 1821.
The revision and additions read as follows:
(l)
(v)
(w)
(x)
(y)
The following pricing methods shall apply through the later of June 30, 2016, or the subsequent calendar quarter in which the reserve ratio of the DIF reaches 1.15 percent.
(b) Assessment rate schedules for established small institutions and large and highly complex institutions applicable in the first assessment period after June 30, 2016, where the reserve ratio of the DIF as of the end of the prior assessment period has reached or exceeded 1.15 percent, and in all subsequent assessment periods where the reserve ratio of the DIF as of the end of the prior assessment period is less than 2 percent.
(1)
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(2)
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(c)
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(2)
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(d)
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(2)
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(e)
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(
(
(B)
(
(
(
(
(2)
(A)
(B)
(C) All insured branches of foreign banks in any one risk category, other than Risk Category I, will be charged the same initial base assessment rate, subject to adjustment as appropriate.
(ii)
(A)
(B)
(C) All insured branches of foreign banks in any one risk category, other than Risk Category I, will be charged the same initial base assessment rate, subject to adjustment as appropriate.
(iii)
(A)
(B)
(C) All insured branches of foreign banks in any one risk category, other than Risk Category I, will be charged the same initial base assessment rate, subject to adjustment as appropriate.
(f)
(2)
(i) Estimated operating expenses of the Deposit Insurance Fund;
(ii) Case resolution expenditures and income of the Deposit Insurance Fund;
(iii) The projected effects of assessments on the capital and earnings of the institutions paying assessments to the Deposit Insurance Fund;
(iv) The risk factors and other factors taken into account pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1817(b)(1); and
(v) Any other factors the Board may deem appropriate.
(3)
(4)
(a)
(1) Under the financial ratios method, each of seven financial ratios and a weighted average of CAMELS component ratings will be multiplied by a corresponding pricing multiplier. The sum of these products will be added to a uniform amount. The resulting sum shall equal the institution's initial base assessment rate; provided, however, that no institution's initial base assessment rate shall be less than the minimum initial base assessment rate in effect for established small institutions with a particular CAMELS composite rating for that assessment period nor greater than the maximum initial base assessment rate in effect for established small institutions with a particular CAMELS composite rating for that assessment period. An institution's initial base assessment rate, subject to adjustment pursuant to paragraphs (e)(1) and (2) of this section, as appropriate (resulting in the institution's total base assessment rate, which in no case can be lower than 50 percent of the institution's initial base assessment rate), and adjusted for the actual assessment rates set by the Board under § 327.10(f), will equal an institution's assessment rate. The seven financial ratios are: Leverage Ratio (%); Net Income before Taxes/Total Assets (%); Nonperforming Loans and Leases/Gross Assets (%); Other Real Estate Owned/Gross Assets (%); Brokered Deposit Ratio (%); One Year Asset Growth (%); and Loan Mix Index. The ratios and the weighted average of CAMELS component ratings are defined in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section. The ratios will be determined for an assessment period based upon information contained in an institution's report of condition filed as of the last day of the assessment period as set out in paragraph (a)(2) of this section. The weighted average of CAMELS component ratings is created by multiplying each component by the following percentages and adding the products: Capital adequacy—25%, Asset quality—20%, Management—25%, Earnings—10%, Liquidity—10%, and Sensitivity to market risk—10%. The following tables set forth the values of the pricing multipliers:
(i)
(A) 7.352 whenever the assessment rate schedule set forth in § 327.10(b) is in effect;
(B) 6.188 whenever the assessment rate schedule set forth in § 327.10(c) is in effect; or
(C) 4.870 whenever the assessment rate schedule set forth in § 327.10(d) is in effect.
(ii)
(B)
(iii)
(B)
(iv)
(B)
(2)
(b)
(ii) The scorecard for large institutions produces two scores: Performance score and loss severity score.
(A)
(
(
(
(
(
(
(
(
(
(
(B)
(C)
(
(D)
(2)
(ii) The scorecard for highly complex institutions produces two scores: Performance and loss severity.
(A) Performance score for highly complex institutions. The performance score for highly complex institutions is the weighted average of the scores for three components: Weighted average CAMELS rating, weighted at 30 percent; ability to withstand asset-related stress score, weighted at 50 percent; and ability to withstand funding-related stress score, weighted at 20 percent.
(
(
(
(
(
(
(
(
(
(
(
(
(
(B)
(C)
(D)
(3)
(i)
(B)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(c)
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(2)
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(3)
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(4)
(ii)
(iii)
(B) [Reserved]
(d)
(2)
(i)
(A) Maintains the pledge of assets required under § 347.209 of this chapter; and
(B) Maintains the eligible assets prescribed under § 347.210 of this chapter at 108 percent or more of the average book value of the insured branch's third-party liabilities for the quarter ending on the report date specified in paragraph (d)(2) of this section.
(ii)
(A) Maintains the pledge of assets required under § 347.209 of this chapter; and
(B) Maintains the eligible assets prescribed under § 347.210 of this chapter at 106 percent or more of the average book value of the insured branch's third-party liabilities for the quarter ending on the report date specified in paragraph (d)(2) of this section; and
(C) Does not meet the definition of a Well Capitalized insured branch of a foreign bank.
(iii)
(3)
(4)
(i)
(ii)
(A) −5.127 whenever the assessment rate schedule set forth in § 327.10(b) is in effect;
(B) −6.127 whenever the assessment rate schedule set forth in § 327.10(c) is in effect; or
(C) −7.127 whenever the assessment rate schedule set forth in § 327.10(d) is in effect.
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(e)
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(2)
(i)
(ii)
(3)
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(f)
(2)
(3)
(g)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(A) If the institution does not have a CAMELS composite rating, its initial base assessment rate shall be 2 basis points above the minimum initial base assessment rate applicable to established small institutions until it receives a CAMELS composite rating.
(B) If the institution has a CAMELS composite rating but no CAMELS component ratings, its initial assessment rate shall be determined using the financial ratios method, as set forth in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, but its CAMELS composite rating will be substituted for its weighted average CAMELS component rating and, if the institution has not filed four quarterly reports of condition, then the assessment rate will be determined by annualizing, where appropriate, financial ratios from all quarterly reports of condition that have been filed.
(ii)
(5)
(h)
By order of the Board of Directors.
(b) Commencing within 90 days of the completion of the implementing guidelines as described in section 3(b)(i) of this order, each agency responsible for the alteration of an existing Federal building above 5,000 gross square feet on Federal land within the wildland-urban interface at moderate or greater wildfire risk for which the agency has not completed design shall ensure that the alteration is effectuated in compliance with the IWUIC, or an equivalent code, consistent with the provisions of and to the extent required by 40 U.S.C. 3312. When the ICC releases a new version of the IWUIC, a determination shall be made whether the new version is a nationally recognized code for the purposes of 40 U.S.C. 3312(b), as expeditiously as practicable, but not later than 2 years after the release of the new version. If a determination is made that a new version is a nationally recognized code, agencies shall ensure that any Federal building covered by this section
(c) Each agency that owns an existing Federal building above 5,000 gross square feet on Federal land within the wildland-urban interface at moderate or greater wildfire risk is strongly encouraged to ensure that such existing buildings are in compliance with the IWUIC, or an equivalent code.
(d) The heads of agencies whose activities are covered by sections 2(a) and 2(b) of this order shall complete a wildfire risk assessment of their existing Federal buildings above 5,000 gross square feet within the wildland-urban interface and are strongly encouraged to consider creating and maintaining a defensible space in compliance with the IWUIC, or an equivalent code, for each of those buildings they determine to be at highest risk.
(e) Each agency that leases space in a building to be constructed for the predominant use of an agency above 5,000 rentable square feet in the wildland-urban interface in an area of greater than moderate wildfire risk is strongly encouraged to ensure that the building is designed and constructed in accord with the IWUIC, or an equivalent code.
(f) Each agency assisting in the financing, through Federal grants or loans, or guaranteeing the financing, through loan or mortgage insurance premiums, of a newly constructed building or of an alteration of an existing building above 5,000 gross square feet within the wildland-urban interface at moderate or greater wildfire risk shall consider updating its procedures for providing the assistance to be consistent with sections 2(a) and 2(b) of this order, to ensure appropriate consideration of wildfire-resistant design and construction.
(g) To the extent permitted by law, the heads of all agencies may:
(h) When calculating whether a building is at moderate or greater wildfire risk, agencies should act in accordance with the methods described in the 2015 edition of the IWUIC, or any subsequent version that is determined to be a nationally recognized code for the purposes of 40 U.S.C. 3312(b), or an equivalent code, or in accordance with an equivalent method.
(i) Each building constructed or altered in accordance with section 2(a) or (b) of this order shall comply with the IWUIC, or an equivalent code, only to the maximum extent feasible as determined by the head of an agency.
(b) The Mitigation Framework Leadership Group (MitFLG) shall:
(c) When determining whether buildings are located within the wildland-urban interface, agencies shall use the U.S. Department of Agriculture Forest Service's, “The 2010 Wildland-Urban Interface of the Conterminous United
(d) The heads of agencies whose activities are covered by sections 2(a) and 2(b) of this order shall submit a report once every 2 years to the Chair of the MitFLG on their progress in implementing the order, commencing 2 years from the date of this order.
(b) This order shall be implemented consistent with applicable law, including the National Historic Preservation Act of 1966, and subject to the availability of appropriations.
(c) This order applies only to buildings within the United States and its territories and possessions.
(d) This order is not intended to, and does not, create any right or benefit, substantive or procedural, enforceable at law or in equity by any party against the United States, its departments, agencies, or entities, its officers, employees, or agents, or any other person.
Category | Regulatory Information | |
Collection | Federal Register | |
sudoc Class | AE 2.7: GS 4.107: AE 2.106: | |
Publisher | Office of the Federal Register, National Archives and Records Administration |